VARIABLE LOADS

1. Peak load for a period of time divided by the installed capacity is ___.
A. Capacity factor
B. Demand factor
C. Utilization factor
D. Load factor
2. Maximum potential power constantly available for transformation into electric power.
A. System reserve
B. Cold reserve
C. Prime power
D. Secondary power
3. The ratio of peak load to the average load is termed as______ in variable load nomenclature.
A. Reserve over peak
B. Demand factor
C. Load factor
D. Diversity factor
4. It is referred to as the maximum continuous power available from a hydro-electric power plant even under the most adverse hydraulic conditions.
A. Primary power
B. Continuous base power
C. Continuous peak power
D. Firm power
5. The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant capacity is called ___.
A. Load factor
B. Utilization factor
C. Maximum load factor
D. Capacity factor
6. Load curve refers to the plot of ___.
A. Load versus generating capacity
B. Load versus current
C. Load versus time
D. Load versus cost of power
7. In power station practice “spinning reserve” is ___.
A. Reserve generating capacity that is in operation but not in service
B. Reserve generating capacity that is in connected to bus and ready to take load
C. Reserve generating capacity that is available for service but not in operation
D. Capacity of the part of plant that remains under maintenance
8. The ratio between the capacity and operation factor is ___.
A. Utilization factor
B. Load factor
C. Use factor
D. Demand factor
9. Ratio of the average load to the peak load over a period of time.
A. Demand factor
B. Use factor
C. Diversity factor
D. Load factor
10. Load curve is ____.
A. Load vs. time in hours
B. Load vs. time sequence
C. Load vs. power cost
D. Load vs. power generated
11. Ratio of the average load to the rating of the equipment supplying the load
A. Load factor
B. Plant factor
C. Demand factor
D. Diversity factor
12. Ratio of the actual maximum load to the connected load
A. Capacity factor
B. Load factor
C. Utilization factor
D. Demand factor
13. Ratio of the maximum demand of the system to the rated capacity of the system
A. Operation factor
B. Utilization factor
C. Annual capacity factor
D. Use factor
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FUELS AND COMBUSTION
14. The water products is in its vapor state.
A. Lower heating value
B. Higher heating value
C. Gross calorific value
D. Latent heat
15. Class of fuel oil which are topped crude petroleums or viscous residuums obtained in refinery operations.
A. Blended fuels
B. Residual fuels
C. Fuel oils
D. Gaseous fuels
16. It is a measure of resistance of oil to flow.
A. Viscosity
B. Fluid flow
C. Specific gravity
D. Density
17. The lowest temperature at which oil will flow under prescribed conditions.
A. Flash point
B. Pour point
C. Distillation temp
D. Fire point
18. The degree API gravity of pure water at 60 degree F.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 15
D. 40
19. The range of fuel oils is approximately ___ API.
A. 10 to 40
B. 20 to 30
C. 10 to 30
D. 10 to 20
20. This is to detect the free sulfur or corrosive sulfur compounds in residual fuels.
A. Ash test
B. Corrosion test
C. Sulfur test
D. Carbon test
21. This is to determine the noncombustible impurities, which come principally from the natural salts present in the crude oil.
A. Carbon test
B. Moisture test
C. Ash test
D. Carbon test
22. The quantity of a specified fuel consumed per unit of output energy.
A. Water rate
B. Air rate
C. Power rate
D. Fuel rate
23. Percentage ____ air is the ratio of the difference between air actually supplied and the theoretically supplied air divided by theoretical air supplied.
A. Excess air
B. Actual air
C. Theoretical air
D. Atmospheric air
24. The heating value obtained when the water in the products of combustion is in the liquid state:
A. Higher heating value
B. Lower heating value
C. Calorific value
D. Average heat value
25. Dry air can be approximated as __-% oxygen and __% nitrogen by mole numbers.
A. 30/70
B. 21/79
C. 70/30
D. 79/21
26. Which is not a viscosity rating?
A. API
B. Redwood
C. SSU
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 D. Centipoise
27. The temperature at which vapors will flare up and then die out.
A. Fire point
B. Boiling point
C. Pour point
D. Flash point
28. Under saturated condition, what is the lowest point at which fuel oil starts to flow?
A. Flash point
B. Pour point
C. Porosity point
D. Stagnation point
29. What component are included in the proximate analysis in fuel
A. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen
B. Ash, moisture, volatile, fixed carbon
C. Hydrogen, oxygen, moisture
D. CO, Carbon monoxide, excess oxygen
30. Which of the following is a property of lubricating oil?
A. Octane number
B. Cetane number
C. Viscosity index
D. Aniline point
31. The proportions of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, and ash.
A. Ultimate analysis
B. Proximate analysis
C. Work of compression
D. Neutralization
32. Which of the following pairs represent the two broad classifications of lubricating oils?
A. Active and inactive
B. Straight and additives
C. Premium and unleaded
D. Mineral and lube
33. The immediate undesirable products from the petroleum-based lubricating oil when subjected to high pressure and temperature is referred to as:
A. Soot
B. Fly-ash
C. Carbon residue
D. Sulfur and other noxious gases
34. Adding one mole of carbon to one mole of oxygen produces
A. Heat
B. Two moles of carbon dioxide
C. One mole of carbon monoxide
D. None of the above
35. The average fuel-oil temperature range of the oil in the discharge line to the boilers.
A. 160 – 180 F
B. 180 – 200 F
C. 200 – 220 F
D. 220 – 240 F
36. Indicator used to determine the anti-knock characteristics of gasoline.
A. Octane number
B. Cetane number
C. Heptanes number
D. Dodecane number
37. The temperature at which oil will vaporize and burn continuously.
A. Dropping point
B. Fire point
C. West point
D. Flash point
38. Chemical composition of fuel
A. 85% carbon, 15% hydrogen
B. 75% carbon, 25% hydrogen
C. 95% carbon, 5% hydrogen
D. 90% carbon, 10% hydrogen
39. Ranked according to degree of hardness
A. Coal
B. Gasoline
C. Steel
D. Wood
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40. Determines the amount of non-combustible impurities, which come principally from the natural salts presents in the crude oil
A. Ash
B. Sulfur
C. Sodium
D. Fixed carbon
41. Order of 18,500 Btu/lb at usual temperatures
A. Specific heat
B. Heat of transformation
C. Heating value of fuel
D. Heat of fusion
42. Number of seconds required for a 60 ml of oil to pass through a standard orifice
A. Poise
B. Reyn
C. SSU
D. SSF
43. Fuel production process wherein heavy oil is changed into gasoline by means of a high pressure, high temperature and longer time exposure
A. Catalyctic cracking
B. Thermal cracking
C. Hydrogenation
D. Alkylation
44. Another term for natural gas
A. Methane
B. Ethane
C. Propane
D. Butane
45. Substance primarily composed of hydrocarbons which upon combustion release heat energy
A. Wood
B. Fuels
C. Briquettes
D. Coal
46. Temperature at which grease will pass from a semi-solid to a fluid state
A. Grease point
B. Pour point
C. Cloud point
D. Dropping point
47. Which of the following is not an analysis used in fuel combustion?
A. Ultimate analysis
B. Proximate analysis
C. Gravimetric analysis
D. None of the above
48. Which of the following classifications do not describe hydrocarbons?
A. Paraffins
B. Olefins
C. Diolefins
D. Diparaffins
49. The amount of heat evolved when a unit amount of fuel is burned completely and the combustion process cooled to a base or reference temperature.
A. Heating value
B. Heat of vaporization
C. Heat of fusion
D. Sensible heat
50. For a fuel-rich mixture, the equivalence ratio for a given mass of air is always ___.
A. Less than one
B. Equal to one
C. Greater than one
D. Equal to zero
51. In stoichiometry and energetic of combustion, air is 76.8% nitrogen and 23.2% oxygen based on composition by ___.
A. Weight
B. Mass
C. Volume
D. Density
52. Combustion reaction that is chemically-correct
A. Stoichiometric
B. Fuel-rich
C. Fuel-lean
D. Equivalence reaction
53. Temperature at which the hydrocarbon components of a liquid fuel becomes insoluble
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 A. Dropping point
B. Flow point
C. Cloud point
D. Aniline point
54. The primary method of crude oil refining
A. Crude oil filtration
B. Oil drafting process
C. Fuel separation
D. Fractional distillation
55. In complete combustion of a fuel with excess air, the CO2 percentage ___.
A. Is independent of the excess air percentage
B. For a given excess air will be the same for fuel oil and when burning coke
C. Decreases with the increased excess air
D. Increases with the increased excess air
56. The percentage O2 by weight in atmospheric air is ___.
A. 18%
B. 23%
C. 77%
D. 79%
57. The percentage O2 by volume in atmosphere air is ___.
A. 21%
B. 23%
C. 77%
D. 79%
58. The proper indication of incomplete combustion is ___.
A. high CO content in flue gases at exit
B. high CO2 content in flue gases at exit
C. high temperature of flue gases
D. the smoking exhaust from chimney

INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINE

59. The diesel cycle is the ideal cycle for ___.

A. Spark-ignition engine
B. Brayton cycle
C. Compression-ignition engine
D. Steam-jet cycle
60. When a generator nameplate rating is 5 MW, then what does a 5 MW rating refers to?
A. Electrical power input
B. Thermal energy output
C. Electrical power output
D. Mechanical power output
61. The ratio of the brake HP to indicated HP of an engine:
A. Brake thermal eff
B. Mechanical eff
C. Indicated eff
D. Cycle eff
62. The ratio of the heat equivalent of 1 hp-hr to the heat units actually supplied per bhp-hr ,based on the higher heating value of the fuel.
A. Brake thermal eff
B. Indicated thermal eff
C. Mechaniclal eff
D. Cycle eff
63. The volume in cu ft per minute, swept by the piston or pistons during the power strokes.
A. Bore speed
B. Displacement
C. Events
D. Piston speed
64. HP delivered by the shaft at the output end.
A. Indicated hp
B. Brake hp
C. Thermal power
D. Ail power
65. Air at low pressure used to force burnt gases out of the power cylinder during the exhaust period and by the displacement, to furnish a supply fresh air for the
following cycle.
A. Turbo

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 B. Exhaust
C. Scavenging
D. Discharge
66. Utilizes the working medium on only one side of a single piston
A. Double-acting
B. Single-acting
C. Dual-acting
D. Single-stroke
67. The method of introducing the fuel charge into the power cylinder of an engine.
A. Mechanical injection
B. Trunk injection
C. Suction
D. Intake
68. Where is the position of the piston when combustion starts in a spark-ignition engine?
A. ½ from the top
B. Piston does not move
C. Away from the top center
D. At the top center
69. In a spark-ignition engine, what is being compressed?
A. Air
B. Fuel
C. Fuel and air
D. Hydrogen
70. What is the generated frequency of a generator?
A. 120P/N
B. 120N/P
C. 120/NP
D. NP/120
71. The pressure and torque spent in overcoming friction of reciprocating and revolving parts of the engine and the automobile before it reached the drive shaft.
A. Friction power
B. Pressure loss
C. Torque
D. Power loss
72. The name given to a procedure by which the efficiency of a combustion process is determined.
A. Heat balance
B. Theoretical balance
C. Mass balance
D. Actual balance
73. Which of the following cycle is for a compression-ignition engine?
A. Diesel cycle
B. Dual cycle
C. Otto cycle
D. All of these
74. For an internal combustion engine, the compression ratio can be much greater in, ___.
A. Stirling cycle
B. Dual cycle
C. Otto cycle
D. Diesel cycle
75. An internal combustion engine having its heat addition at both constant pressure and volume processes follows,
A. Otto cycle
B. Dual cycle
C. Brayton cycle
D. Diesel cycle
76. Another term for waste heat recovery boiler
A. Heat regeneration steam generator
B. Heat requiring steam generator
C. Heat recovery steam generator
D. Heat reduction steam generator
77. In ICE-steam plant combination, heat utilized by the boiler is coming from ___.
A. Coolant heat loss
B. Radiation loss
C. Exhaust gas loss
D. Friction loss
78. The theoretical engine cycle having its heat addition at constant volume
A. Diesel cycle
B. Brayton cycle
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 C. Dual cycle
D. Otto cycle
79. In a diesel engine which uses a continuous pressure pump, the fuel is introduced into the combustion chamber of the cylinder
A. Mechanically
B. Hydraulically
C. Unit injector
D. Pneumatically
80. Otto cycle consists of ___.
A. Two isentropics and two constant volume processes
B. Two isentropics and two constant pressure processes
C. Two adiabatic and two isothermal processes
D. Two isothermal and two constant volume processes
81. As applied to diesel engine operation, it is the disturbance or agitation of the sprayed fuel oil and the air within the combustion chamber or cylinder.
A. Surging
B. Drooping
C. Turbulence
D. Knocking
82. Removal of spent gases from an internal combustion engine cylinder and replacement by a fresh charge of air.
A. Supercharging
B. Scavenging
C. Blowby
D. Inducting
83. A small chamber located at the bottom of the fuel tank which has a drain cock to allow sediment and water to collect and be drained.
A. Septic tank
B. Service tank
C. Settling tank
D. Sediment tank
84. In a four-cycle gasoline engine, when properly tuned, the valve operation will usually be such that the ___.
A. Intake opens after the top dead center
B. Intake losses before bottom dead center
C. Exhaust losses before bottom dead center
D. Exhaust opens before bottom dead center
85. In comparing the operation of a diesel and gasoline engine ___.
A. Soot operation in the diesel is less than in the gasoline
B. The diesel operating temperature are in general higher
C. Additive type lube oils should not be used in gasoline engines
D. The gasoline operating temperatures are in general higher
86. Compressor often used in supercharging Diesel engines
A. Rotary compressor
B. Centrifugal compressor
C. Roots blower type
D. Reciprocating compressor
87. Cycle used in gasoline engine
A. Diesel cycle
B. Vapor-compression cycle
C. Brayton cycle
D. Otto cycle
88. Diesel engine is also known as ___.
A. Spark-ignition engine
B. Carnot engine
C. Gas engine
D. Compression-ignition engine
89. Difference between the indicated power and the brake power
A. Internal power
B. Output power
C. Mechanical power
D. Friction power
90. In Diesel power plants, its purpose is to reduce the weight-to-power ratio
A. Supercharging
B. Lubricating
C. Turbo-charging
D. All of the above
91. The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in following number of revolutions of crankshaft
A. ½
B. 1
C. 2
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 D. 4
92. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by ___.
A. spark
B. injected fuel
C. heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
D. ignitor
93. Scavenging air in diesel engine means ___.
A. air used for combustion sent under pressure
B. forced air for cooling cylinder
C. burnt air containing products of combUstion
D. air used for forcing burnt gases out of engine's cylinder during the exhaust period
94. Supercharging is the process of ___.
A. supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere
B. providing forced cooling air
C. injecting excess fuel for raising more load
D. supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully
95. Does the supply of scavenging air at a density greater than that of atmosphere mean engine is supercharged?
A. yes
B. no
C. to some extent
D. unpredictable
96. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the corresponding air standard cycle efficiency is called ___.
A. net efficiency
B. efficiency ratio
C. relative efficiency
D. overall efficiency
97. Compression ratio of I.C. engines is ___.
A. the ratio of volumes of air in cylinder before compression stroke and after compression stroke
B. volume displaced by piston per stroke and clearance volume in cylinder
C. ratio of pressure after compression and before compression
D. swept volume/cylinder volume
98. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle compared to diesel cycle for the given compression ratio is ___.
A. same
B. less
C. more
D. more or less depending on power rating
99. The calorific value of gaseous fuels is expressed in terms of ___.
A. kcal
B. kcal/kg
C. kcal/m2
D. kcal/m3
100. If the intake air temperature of I.C. engine increases, its efficiency will ___.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain same
D. unpredictable
101. All heat engines utilize ___.
A. low heat value of oil
B. high heat value of oil
C. net calorific value of oil
D. calorific value of fuel
102. An engine indicator is used to determine the following ___.
A. speed
B. temperature
C. volume of cylinder
D. m.e.p. and I.H.P.
103. Fuel oil consumption guarantees for I .C. engine are usually based on ___.
A. low heat value of oil
B. high heat value of oil
C. net calorific value of oil
D. calorific value of fuel
104. If the compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7, the percentage increase in efficiency will be ___.
A. 2%
B. 4%
C. 8%
D. 14%
105. In case of gas turbines, the gaseous fuel consumption guarantees are based on ___.
8
 A. high heat value
B. low heat value
C. net calorific value
D. middle heat value
106. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine the inlet valve ___.
A. opens at 20° before top dead center and closes at 35° after the bottom dead center
B. opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center
C. opens at 10° after top dead center and closes 20° before the bottom dead center
D. may open or close anywhere
107. The pressure and temperature at the end of compression stroke in a petrol engine are of the order of ___.
A. 4 - 6 kg/cm2 and 200 - 250°C
B. 6 - 12 kg/cm2 and 250 - 350°C
C. 12 - 20 kg/cm2 and 350 - 450°C
D. 20 - 30 kg/cm2 and 450 - 500°C
108. The pressure at the end of compression in the case of diesel engine is of the order of ___.
A. 6 kg/cm2
B. 12kg/cm2
C. 20 kg/cm2
D. 35 kg/cm2
109. The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of ___.
A. 500- 1000°C
B. 1000- 1500°C
C. 1500-2000°C
D. 2000-2500°C
110. The thermal efficiency of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio, with increase in cut-off ratio will ___.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. be independent
D. may increase or decrease depending on other factors
111. Pick up the wrong statement
A. 2-stroke engine can run in any direction
B. In 4-stroke engine, a power stroke is obtained in 4-strokes
C. petrol engines work on to cycle
D. petrol engines occupy more space than diesel engines for same power output.
112. Combustion in compression ignition engines is ___.
A. homogeneous
B. heterogeneous
C. both A and B
D. laminar
113. The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of ___.
A. 5-10 kg/cm2
B. 20-25 kg/cm2
C. 60-80 kg/cm2
D. 90-130 kg/cm2
114. The specific fuel consumption per BHP hour for diesel engine is approximately ___.
A. 0.15 kg
B. 0.2 kg
C. 0.25 kg
D. 0.3 kg
115. The temperature of interior surface of cylinder wall in normal operation is not allowed to exceed ___.
A. 80°C
B. 120°C
C. 180°C
D. 240°C
116. Crankcase explosion in I.C. engines usually occurs as ___.
A. first a mild explosion followed by a big explosion
B. first a big explosion followed by a mild explosion
C. both mild and big explosions occur simultaneously
D. never occurs
117. Compression loss in I.C engines occurs due to ___.
A. leaking piston rings
B. use of thick head gasket
C. clogged air-inlet slots
D. all of the above.
118. The specific fuel consumption per BH hour for a petrol engine is approximately ___.
A. 0.15 kg
B. 0.2 kg
9
 C. 0.25 kg
D. 0.3kg
119. The air requirement of a petrol engine during starting compared to theoretical required for complete combustion is ___.
A. more
B. loss
C. same
D. may be more or less depending on engine capacity
120. The inlet value of a four stroke cycle I.C engine remains open for nearly ___.
A. 180°
B. 125°
C. 235°
D. 200°
121. Which of the following is not an internal combustion engine
A. 2-stroke petrol engine
B. 4-stroke petrol engine
C. diesel engine
D. steam turbine.
122. Pick up the false statement
A. Thermal efficiency of diesel engine is about 34%
B. High speed compression engines operate on dual combustion cycle
C. Diesel engines are compression ignition engines
D. S.I. engines are quality-governed engines.
123. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the ____.
A. piston rings would stick into piston grooves
B. exhaust temperature will be high
C. engine starts overheating
D. scavenging occurs.
124. The output of a diesel engine can be increased without increasing the engine revolution or size in following way
A. feeding more fuel
B. heating incoming air
C. scavenging
D. supercharging.
125. It the temperature of intake air in IC engines is lowered, then its efficiency will ___.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain same
D. increase up to certain limit and then decrease
126. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine
A. compression starts at 35° after bottom dead center and ends at top dead center
B. compression starts at bottom dead center and ends at top dead center
C. compression starts at 10° before bottom dead center and, ends just before top dead center
D. may start and end anywhere
127. For the same compression ratio ___.
A. Otto cycle is more efficient than the Diesel
B. Diesel cycle is more efficient'than Otto
C. both Otto and Diesel cycles are, equally efficient
D. compression ratio has nothing to do with efficiency
128. The process of breaking up or a liquid into fine droplets by spraying is called ___.
A. vaporization
B. carburetion
C. ionization
D. atomisation.
129. As a result of detonation in an I.C. engine, following parameter attains very high value
A. peak pressure
B. rate of rise of pressure
C. rate of rise of temperature
D. peak temperature
130. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. All the irreversible engines have same efficiency
B. All the reversible engines have same efficiency
C. Both Rankine and Carnot cycles have same efficiency between same temperature limits
D. All reversible engines working between same temperature limits have same-efficiency
131. Most high speed compression engines operate on ___.
A. Diesel cycle
B. Otto cycle
C. Dual combustion cycle
D. Special type of air cycle
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132. The accumulation of carbon in a cylinder results in increase of ___.
A. clearance volume
B. volumetric efficiency
C. ignition time
D. effective compression ratio
133. Which of the following medium is compressed in a Diesel engine cylinder
A. air alone
B. air and fuel
C. air and lube oil
D. fuel alone
134. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by ___.
A. fuel pump
B. governor
C. injector
D. carburetor
135. In a typical medium speed, 4-stroke cycle diesel engine ___.
A. fuel injection starts at 10° before to dead center and ends at 20° after tor dead center
B. fuel injection starts at top dead center and ends at 20° after top dead center
C. fuel injection starts at just before top dead center and ends just after top dead center
D. may start and end anywhere
136. Diesel fuel, compared to petrol is ___.
A. less difficult to ignite
B. just about the same difficult to ignite
C. more difficult to ignite
D. highly ignitable
137. In diesel engine the diesel fuel injected into cylinder would burn instantly at about compressed air temperature of ___.
A. 250°C
B. 500°C
C. 1000°C
D. 1500°C
138. When crude oil is heated, then which of the following hydrocarbon is given off first.
A. kerosene
B. gasoline
C. paraffin
D. natural gas.
139. The rating of a diesel engine, with increase in air-inlet temperature, will ___.
A. increase linearly
B. decrease linearly
C. increase parabolically
D. decrease parabolically
140. A 75 cc engine has following parameter as 75 cc ___.
A. fuel tank capacity
B. lube oil capacity
C. swept volume
D. cylinder volume
141. A heat engine utilizes the ___.
A. calorific value of oil
B. low heat value of oil
C. high heat value of oil
D. mean heat value of oil
142. Gaseous-fuel guarantees are based on ___.
A. calorific value of oil
B. low heat value of oil
C. high heat value of oil
D. mean heat value of oil
143. Fuel consumption of diesel engines is not guaranteed at one quarter load because at such low loads
A. the friction is high
B. the friction is unpredictable
C. the small difference in cooling water temperature or in internal friction has a disproportionate effect
D. the engine is rarely operated
144. Polymerization is a chemical process in which molecules of a compound become ____.
A. larger
B. slowed down
C. smaller
D. liquid
145. The term scavenging is generally associated with ___.
A. 2-stroke cycle engines
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 B. 4-stroke cycle engines
C. aeroplane engines
D. high efficiency engines.
146. In diesel engine, the compression ratio in comparison to expansion ratio is ___.
A. same
B. less
C. more
D. variable
147. The cam shaft of a four stroke I.C. engine running at 1500 rpm will run at ___.
A. 1500 rpm
B. 750 rpm
C. 3000 rpm
D. any value independent of engine speed
148. Engine pistons 'are usually made of aluminum alloy because it ___.
A. is lighter
B. wears less
C. absorbs shocks
D. is stronger
149. Most high speed compression engines operate on ___.
A. Otto cycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Dual cycle
D. Carnot cycle
150. The specific fuel consumption of a petrol engine compared to diesel engine of same H.P. is ___.
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. less or more depending on operating conditions
151. A diesel engine as compared to petrol engine (both running are rated load) is ___.
A. more efficient
B. less efficient
C. equally efficient
D. unpredictable
152. The size of inlet valve of an engine in comparison to exhaust valve is ___.
A. more
B. less
C. same
D. more/less depending on capacity of engine
153. In a cycle, the spark lasts roughly for ___.
A. 1 sec
B. 0.1 sec
C. 0.01 sec
D. 0.001 sec
154. Which of the following is false statement:
Excess quantities of sulphur in diesel fuel are Objectionable because it may cause the following
A. piston ring and cylinder wear
B. formation of hard coating on piston skirts
C. oil sludge in the engine crank case
D. detonation
155. Which of the following is false statement. Some of the methods used to reduce diesel smoke are as follows
A. using additives in the fuel
B. engine derating i.e. reducing the maxi-mum flow of fuel
C. increasing the compression ratio
D. adherence to proper fuel specification
156. The fuel air ratio in a petrol engine fitted with suction carburetor, operating with dirty air filter as compared to clean filter will be ___.
A. higher
B. lower
C. remain unaffected
D. unpredictable
157. Pick up the wrong statement about supercharging
A. supercharging reduces knocking in diesel engines
B. there can be limited supercharging in petrol engines because of detonation
C. supercharging at high altitudes is essential
D. supercharging results in fuel economy
158. The actual volume of fresh charge admitted in 4-stroke petrol engine is ___.
A. equal to stroke volume
B. equal to stroke volume and clearance volume
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 C. less than stroke volume
D. more than stroke volume
159. The magneto in an automobile is basically a ___.
A. transformer
B. d.c. generator
C. capacitor
D. magnetic circuit
160. The reason for supercharging in any engine is to ___.
A. increase efficiency
B. increase power
C. reduce weight and bulk for a given out-put
D. effect fuel economy
161. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder is known as ___.
A. scavenging
B. turbulence
C. supercharging
D. pre-ignition
162. Supercharging is essential in ___.
A. diesel engines
B. gas turbines
C. petrol engines
D. aircraft engines
163. The minimum cranking speed in case of petrol engine is about ___.
A. half the operating speed
B. one-fourth of operating speed
C. 250-300 rpm
D. 60-80 rpm
164. In a typical medium speed 4 stroke cycle diesel engine ___.
A. exhaust valve opens at 35° before bot-tom dead center and closes at 20° after top dead center
B. exhaust valve opens at bottom dead center and closes at top dead center
C. exhaust valve opens just after bottom dead center and closes just before top dead center
D. may open and close anywhere
165. Flash point of fuel oil is ___.
A. minimum temperature to which1 oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient quantity to ignite momentarily when brought
in contact with a flame
B. temperature at which it solidifies or congeals
C. temperature at which it catches fire without external aid
D. indicated by 90% distillation temperature, i.e. when 90% of sample oil has distilled off
166. The mean effective pressure obtained from engine indicator indicates the ___.
A. maximum pressure developed
B. minimum pressure
C. instantaneous pressure at any instant
D. average pressure.
167. For the same power developed in I.C. engines, the cheaper system is ___.
A. naturally aspirated
B. supercharged
C. centrifugal pump
D. turbo charger
168. Installation of supercharger on a four-cycle diesel engine can result in the following percentage increase in power ___.
A. up to 35%
B. up to 50%
C. up to 75%
D. up to 100%.
169. Scavenging is usually done to increase ___.
A. thermal efficiency
B. speed
C. power output
D. fuel consumption
170. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel.
A. diesel
B. kerosene
C. fuel oil
D. gasoline
171. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio for petrol engine is of the order of ___.
A. 6 : 1
B. 9 : 1
C. 12 : 1
13
 D. 15 : 1
172. Air fuel ratio for idling speed of a petrol engine is approximately ___.
A. 1 : 1
B. 5 : 1
C. 10 : 1
D. 15 : 1
173. Air fuel ratio at which a petrol engine cannot work is ___.
A. 8 : 1
B. 10 : 1
C. 15 : 1
D. 20 : 1 and less
174. For maximum power generation, the air fuel ratio for a petrol engine for vehicles, is of the order of ___.
A. 9 : 1
B. 12 : 1
C. 15 : 1
D. 18 : 1
175. The following volume of air is required for consuming 1 liter of fuel by a four stroke engine
A. 1 m3
B. 5 m3
C. 5-6 m3
D. 9-10 m3
176. Pour point of fuel oil is the ___.
A. minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient quantity to ignite momentarily when brought in contact
with a flame
B. temperature at which it solidifies or congeals
C. it catches fire without external aid
D. indicated by 90% distillation temperature i.e., when 90% of sample oil has distilled off
177. A 5 BHP engine running at full load would consume diesel of the order of ___.
A. 0.3 kg/hr
B. 1 kg/hr
C. 3 kg/hr
D. 5 kg/hr
178. Diesel engine can work on very lean air fuel ratio of the order of 30 : 1. A petrol engine can also work on such a lean ratio provided
A. it is properly designed
B. best quality fuel is used
C. cannot work as it is impossible
D. flywheel size is proper
179. A diesel engine has ___.
A. 1 valve
B. 2 valves
C. 3 valves
D. 4 valves
180. A high flame speed is obtained in diesel engine when air fuel ratio is ___.
A. uniform throughout the mixture
B. chemically correct mixture
C. about 3-5% rich mixture
D. about 10% rich mixture
181. The knock in diesel engine occurs due to ___.
A. instantaneous and rapid burning of the first part of the charge
B. instantaneous auto ignition of last part of charge
C. delayed burning of the first part of the charge
D. reduction of delay period
182. The air-fuel ratio in petrol engines-is controlled by ___.
A. controlling valve opening/closing
B. governing
C. injection
D. carburetion
183. Volatility of diesel fuel oil is ___.
A. minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient quantity to ignite momentarily when brought in contact
with a flame
B. temperature at which it solidifies or congeals
C. it catches fire without external aid
D. indicated by 90% distillation temperature, i.e., when 90% of sample oil has distilled off
184. Which is more viscous lube oil
A. SAE 40
B. SAE 50
C. SAE 70
14
 D. SAE 80.
185. In the opposed piston diesel engine, the combustion chamber is located ___.
A. above the piston
B. below the piston
C. between the pistons
D. anywhere
186. A stoichiometric air-fuel ratio is ___.
A. chemically correct mixture
B. lean mixture
C. rich mixture for idling
D. rich mixture for over loads
187. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the air is supplied by ___.
A. a supercharger
B. a centrifugal blower
C. a vacuum chamber
D. an injection tube
188. In loop scavenging, the top of the piston is ___.
A. flat
B. contoured
C. slanted
D. depressed
189. In the crankcase method of scavenging, the air pressure is produced by ___.
A. supercharger
B. centrifugal pump
C. natural aspirator
D. movement of engine piston

GAS TURBINE POWER PLANT

190. It is a suitable gas-turbine fuel when it is available in a reliable supply.

A. Natural gas
B. Bio gas
C. Bio mass
D. LPG
191. In order to be economically justified, a regenerator must have an effectiveness of at least ___.
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
192. Gas turbine operates on the principle of an air standard
A. Otto cycle
B. Stirling cycle
C. Ericsson cycle
D. Joule cycle
193. Another term for air-standard Brayton cycle
A. Fast cycle gas turbine
B. Uniform cycle gas turbine
C. Simple cycle gas turbine
D. None of these
194. When combining a steam plant with a gas turbine plant, the gas turbine plant is employing what type of cycle?
A. Closed cycle
B. Open cycle
C. Semi-open cycle
D. Semi-closed cycle
195. The ratio of the maximum pressure to the minimum pressure in a gas turbine cycle.
A. Pascal ratio
B. Pressure ratio
C. Pressure coefficient
D. Pressure constant
196. Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating engines even for same adiabatic compression ratio and work output because
A. Otto cycle is highly efficient
B. Brayton cycle is less efficient
C. Brayton cycle is for low speed engines only
D. Large volume of low pressure air cannot be efficiently handled in reciprocating engines
197. Brayton cycle has:
A. Two isentropic and two constant volume processes

15
 B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure processes
C. One constant pressure, one constant volume, two adiabatic processes
D. Two isothermal, constant volume, and a constant pressure processes
198. A heat exchanger which recovers waste heat from the cycle and transfer it to the fluid at a point where the pressure is higher and the temperature is lower.
A. Intercooler
B. Regenerator
C. Aftercooler
D. Reheater
199. The ratio of the heat equivalent of the net output power to the total heat rate supplied.
A. Mechanical efficiency
B. Heat efficiency
C. Thermal efficiency
D. Power efficiency
200. The fraction of recoverable waste heat actually restored to the cycle.
A. Regenerator effectiveness
B. Turbine efficiency
C. Compressor efficiency
D. Cycle effectiveness
201. The ratio of the compressor power to gross turbine power.
A. Back-work ratio
B. Work ratio
C. Pressure ratio
D. Power ratio
202. The ratio of the output power to the total installed turbine power.
A. Cycle efficiency
B. Power ratio
C. Cycle pressure ratio
D. Work ratio
203. The ratio of the highest main compressor discharge pressure to the lowest main compressor inlet pressure.
A. Pressure ratio
B. Cycle temp ratio
C. Cycle property ratio
D. Cycle atmospheric pressure
204. The ratio of maximum pressure in the cycle to the atmospheric pressure.
A. Cycle work level
B. Cycle pressure level
C. Cycle pressure ratio
D. Compression ratio
205. The ratio of the actual heat transfer in a regenerator to that theoretically possible.
A. Operating variable
B. Regenerator effectiveness
C. Regenerator ratio
D. Back-pressure ratio
206. Heat exchanger used to cool the exhaust gases in a closed or semiclosed cycle.
A. Intercooler
B. Heater
C. Aftercooler
D. Precooler
207. In a Brayton cycle, the result of adding a regenerator is ___.
A. Increase in thermal efficiency
B. Moderate thermal efficiency
C. Decrease in thermal efficiency
D. Low thermal efficiency
208. The work ratio of a gas turbine plant is defined as the ratio of ___.
A. net work output and heat supplied
B. net work output and work done by turbine
C. actual heat drop and isentropic heat drop
D. net work output and isentropic heat drop
209. Gas turbine works on ___.
A. Brayton or Atkinson cycle
B. Carnot cycle
C. Rankine cycle
D. Ericsson cycle
210. The work ratio of simple gas turbine cycle depends on ___.
A. pressure ratio
B. maximum cycle temperature
16
 C. minimum cycle temperature
D. all of the above
211. The pressure ratio for an open cycle gas turbine compared to closed cycle gas turbine of same h.p. is ___.
A. low
B. high
C. same
D. low/high depending on make and type
212. Open cycle gas turbine works on ___.
A. Brayton or Atkinson cycle
B. Rankine cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Ericsson cycle
213. The fuel consumption in gas turbines is accounted for by ___.
A. lower heating value
B. higher heating value
C. heating value
D. higher calorific value
214. Gas turbines for power generation are normally used ___.
A. to supply base load requirements
B. to supply peak load requirements
C. to enable start thermal power plant
D. in emergency
215. Mechanical efficiency of gas turbines as compared to I.C engines is ___.
A. higher
B. lower
C. same
D. depends on other considerations
216. The ratio of specific weight/h.p. of gas turbine and I.C engines may be typically of the order of ___.
A. 1 : 1
B. 2 : 1
C. 4 : 1
D. 1 : 6.
217. The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to a diesel plant is ___.
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. depends on other factors
218. The air-fuel ratio in gas turbines is of the order of ___.
A. 7 : 1
B. 15 : 1
C. 30 : 1
D. 50: 1.
219. The pressure ratio in gas turbines is of the order of ___.
A. 2:1
B. 4:1
C. 6: 1
D. 9 : 1
220. The following is true for an open cycle gas turbine having exhaust heat exchanger. Atmospheric air before entering the compressor is ___.
A. heated
B. compressed air before entering the combustion chamber is heated
C. bled gas from turbine is heated and readmitted for complete expansion
D. exhaust gases drive the compressor
221. Gas turbine blades are given a rake ___.
A. equal to zero
B. in the direction of motion of blades
C. opposite to the direction of motion of blades
D. depending on the velocity
222. Efficiency of gas turbine is increased by ___.
A. reheating
B. inter cooling
C. adding a regenerator
D. all of the above
223. Temperature of gases at end of compression as compared to exhaust gases in a gas turbine is ___.
A. higher
B. lower
C. equal
D. can't be compared
17
224. The ideal efficiency of simple gas turbine cycle depends on ___.
A. pressure ratio
B. maximum cycle temperature
C. minimum cycle temperature
D. all of the above
225. The thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine for a given turbine inlet temperature with increase in pressure ratio ___.
A. Increases
B. decreases
C. first increases and then decreases
D. first decreases and then increases
226. As the turbine inlet temperature increases, the thermal efficiency of gas turbine for the optimum pressure ratio
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains same
D. first increases and then decreases
227. There is a certain pressure ratio (optimum) for a gas turbine at which its thermal efficiency is maximum. With increase in turbine temperature, the value of
pressure ratio for the peak efficiency would ___.
A. remain same
B. decrease
C. increase
D. unpredictable
228. The material commonly used for air craft gas turbine is ___.
A. stainless steel
B. high alloy' steel
C. duralumin
D. Timken, Haste and Colonel alloys
229. It is not possible to use closed gas turbine cycle in aeronautical engines because ___.
A. it is inefficient
B. it is bulky
C. it requires cooling water for its operation
D. all of the above
230. The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine using perfect combustion chamber is of the order of ___.
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 85%
D. 99%
231. The maximum combustion pressure in gas turbine as compared to I.C. engine is ___.
A. more
B. less
C. same
D. depends on other factors
232. For an irreversible gas turbine cycle, the efficiency and work ratio both depend on ___.
A. pressure ratio alone
B. maximum cycle temperature alone
C. minimum cycle temperature alone
D. both pressure ratio and maximum cycle temperature
233. A gas turbine used in air craft should have ___.
A. high h.p. and low weight
B. low weight and small frontal area
C. small frontal area and high h.p.
D. high speed and high h.p.
234. The closed cycle in gas turbines ___.
A. provides greater flexibility
B. provides lesser flexibility
C. in never used
D. is used when gas is to be burnt
235. In the axial flow gas turbine, the work ratio is the ratio of ___.
A. compressor work and turbine work
B. output and input
C. actual total head temperature drop to the entropic total head drop from total head inlet to static head outlet
D. actual compressor work and theoretical compressor work
236. The degree of reaction of an axial flow turbine is the ratio of is entropic temperature drop in a blade row to the ___.
A. adiabatic temperature drop in the stage
B. total temperature drop
C. total temperature drop in the stage
D. total adiabatic temperature drop
237. If infinite number of heaters be used in a gas turbine, then expansion process in turbine approaches ___.
18
 A. isothermal
B. isentropic
C. adiabatic
D. isochoric
238. Pick up the correct statement ___.
A. gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to economies on fuel
B. gas turbine uses high air-fuel ratio to reduce outgoing temperature
C. gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to develop the high thrust required
D. all of the above

STEAM POWER PLANT

239. Which of the following statement is true for a vapor dome drawn on a T-S diagram?
A. The bell-shaped curve indicates the saturation points for a constant pressure.
B. The region under the bell-shaped curve indicates superheating.
C. The bell-shaped curve indicates the saturation points for various pressures.
D. The left side of the bell-shaped curve indicates saturated vapor.
240. The primary effect of reheating is to:
A. Increase the efficiency
B. Decrease the pump work
C. Decrease the heat requirement
D. Decrease or eliminate moisture condensation in the turbine.
241. The contamination of various amounts of water and impurities out of the boiler.
A. Priming
B. Steam purity
C. Spray
D. Carryover
242. The liquid contamination in the steam, expressed in percentage, by weight, of the mixture.
A. Steam quality
B. Steam quantity
C. Liquid quality
D. Wet quality
243. The solids impurity in the steam, expressed in parts per million (ppm) of impurity.
A. Steam spray
B. Steam purity
C. Steam quantity
D. Steam baffles
244. Type of carryover that will occur under conditions of high water level or severe surging in the boiler drum.
A. Priming carryover
B. Spray carryover
C. Foamover
D. Steam sampling
245. A device used to determine the quality of steam.
A. Throttling calorimeter
B. Steam valve
C. Steam vent
D. Steam nozzles
246. First step in purification of steam and necessary in water tube boilers.
A. Primary separation
B. Steam washing
C. Steam cleaning
D. Steam drying
247. Consist of a separating and throttling calorimeter, of high and low range.
A. Electric calorimeter
B. Universal calorimeter
C. Throttling calorimeter
D. Steam calorimeter
248. A process of removing small amounts of moisture from a relatively large volume of steam, is essentially a filtration process.
A. Heating
B. Ventilating
C. Drying
D. Washing
249. When a heater is used to increase the temperature between expansion stages to approximate isothermal expansion.
A. Reheater
B. Heater
19
 C. After heater
D. Intercooler
250. Any boiler which does exceed any of the following: 405 mm inside diameter and 1065 mm overall length of outside to outside heads at center.
A. Portable boiler
B. Miniature boiler
C. Locomotive
D. Power boiler
251. A closed vessel intended for use in heating water or for application of heat to generate steam or other vapor to be used externally to itself.
A. Boiler
B. Boiler or steam generator
C. Steam generator
D. None of these
252. A vessel in which pressure is obtained from an external sources, or from an indirect application of heat.
A. Unfired pressure vessel
B. Pressure vessel
C. Power boiler
D. Low pressure boiler
253. Any boiler or unfired pressure vessel constructed, installed, placed in operation but subject to annual inspection.
A. Existing installations
B. New boilers
C. Hot water boilers
D. Reinstalled boilers
254. A boiler in which that has been inspected and declared unsafe to operate or disqualified stamped and marked indication its rejection.
A. Second hand
B. Reinstalled
C. Condemned
D. Unfired
255. No part of the steam generator should be closer than ___ meter from any walls of the building.
A. One
B. Three
C. Two
D. 4
256. Steam generators should be mounted over a suitable foundations or concrete pad of not less than ___ thick and with sufficient base area.
A. 150 mm
B. 255 mm
C. 195 mm
D. 305 mm
257. When new boilers are installed in either existing or new buildings, a minimum height of at least ___ shall be provided between the top of the boiler proper and
ceiling.
A. 2130 mm
B. 900 mm
C. 1560 mm
D. 746 mm
258. When feeding hot water, feed-pump should at least be ____ below hot well to prevent vapor lock.
A. 550 mm
B. 1220 mm
C. 990 mm
D. 3050 mm
259. A steel catwalk or platform at least ___ wide and provided with standard handrails and toeboard on either side shall be installed across the tops of adjacent
boilers.
A. 255 mm
B. 455 mm
C. 355 mm
D. 555 mm
260. For power boilers, when the tensile strength of steel is not known, it shall be taken as ___ N/mm2 and 310 N/mm2 for wrought iron.
A. 379
B. 450
C. 398
D. 521
261. For power boilers, the resistance to crushing of mild steel shall be taken at ___ N/mm2 of cross sectional area.
A. 655
B. 855
C. 755
D. 955
262. The lowest factor of safety permissible on existing installation shall be ____ excepting for horizontal return tubular boilers having continuous lap seams more
than 3650 mm in length where the factor of safety shall be.
20
 A. 4.5, 9
B. 9, 4
C. 5.5, 8
D. 8, 5
263. Reinstalled or secondhand boilers shall have a minimum factor of safety of ____ when the longitudinal seams are of lap riveted construction, and a minimum
factor of safety of ____ when the longitudinal seams are of butt and double strap construction.
A. 6, 5
B. 5, 6
C. 4, 6
D. 6, 4
264. The age limit of a horizontal return, flue or cylinder boiler having a longitudinal lap joint and operating at a pressure in excess of 0.345 MPa shall be ___.
A. 10 yrs
B. 20 yrs
C. 15 yrs
D. 30 yrs
265. For power plants, each boiler shall have at least one safety valve and if it has more than 46.5 sq. m. of heating surface or the generating capacity exceeds 910
kg/hr, it shall have ___ safety valves.
A. One
B. Two
C. Two or more
D. Three or five
266. For miniature boilers, the lowest permissible water level shall be at a point ___ of the height of the shell, except where the boiler is equipped with internal
furnace.
A. ½
B. 1/3
C. ¼
D. 2/5
267. Where ground water or surface water is used for feedwater, water hardness of 0-10 ppm (parts per million) and alkalinity of ___ be considered.
A. ph 10 to pH 11
B. pH 9 to pH 10
C. pH 6 to pH 10
D. pH 8 to pH 10
268. A closed vessel which steam or other vapor is generated at a pressure of more than 1.055 kg/cm2 gage by the direct application of heat.
A. Power boiler
B. Boiler
C. Fusion boiler
D. External boiler
269. The heating surface are of miniature boiler is 1.85 m2 and the maximum allowable working pressure is ____ kg/cm2.
A. 7.03
B. 9.85
C. 8.05
D. 14.7
270. Low pressure heating boiler is a boiler operated at pressure not exceeding 1.055 kg/cm2 gage steam or water temperature not exceeding __ deg C.
A. 100
B. 121
C. 111
D. 145
271. A boiler of which both the location and ownership have been changed after primary use.
A. Internal boiler
B. Second hand boiler
C. Surplus boiler
D. External boiler
272. A boiler removed from its original setting and re-erected at the same location or erected at a location without change of ownership/
A. PSME Boiler
B. Reinstalled boiler
C. Fusion boiler
D. Unknown boiler
273. Each miniature boiler, shall be equipped with a sealed, spring-loaded, pop type safety valve not less than ___ pipe size, connected directly to the boiler.
A. 10.2 mm
B. 15.6 mm
C. 12.7 mm
D. 25.4 mm
274. Each miniature boiler shall be equipped with ____ for determination of water level.
A. Pressure gage
B. Safety valve
C. Water gage glass
21
 D. Fusible plug
275. Each miniature boiler shall be equipped with a steam gage having a dial range not less than __ times and not more than twice the maximum allowable working
pressure.
A. One
B. 3
C. 1.5
D. 4
276. The maximum allowable working pressure of a non-code steel or wrought iron heating boiler of welded construction shall not exceed ___.
A. 2 MPa
B. 1 atm
C. 2 gage pressure
D. 1 bar
277. A large pipe or drum into which each group of boilers is connected.
A. Muffler
B. Header
C. Manifold
D. Expansion loop
278. If the pressure is disregarded in the various components of a steam power plant, the pressure drop in the pump is ______ to the pressure drop in the turbine.
A. Proportional
B. Constant
C. Inversely proportional
D. Unity
279. A feedwater preheating device which utilizes the heat of the flue gases.
A. Feedwater heater
B. Heater valve
C. Economizer
D. Heater coils
280. Type of boiler in which the water is outside the tubes while the hot gases pass inside the tubes.
A. Water tube
B. Tubulous
C. Horizontal
D. Fire-tube
281. What process is employed when the turbine in steam power plants experience excessive moisture?
A. Subcooling
B. Freezing
C. Supercooling
D. Reheating
282. If H is the work output of a heat engine and Q is the total heat input of an engine, then determine its thermal efficiency.
A. H/Q
B. Q/H
C. 1 – H/Q
D. Q/H – 1
283. If Wb is shaft work of an engine and Wi is the indicated work of an engine, then which of the following relationship is correct if mechanical friction is present in
the engine?
A. Wb is less than Wi
B. Wb is greater than Wi
C. Wb is equal to Wi
D. Wb is proportional to Wi
284. What is the pressure present inside the casing of an impulse turbine?
A. Vacuum
B. Atmospheric pressure
C. Above atmospheric
D. Zero
285. For steam power plant, decreasing the operating pressure of the boiler will:
A. Increase thermal efficiency
B. Decrease thermal efficiency
C. Bring thermal efficiency
D. Make thermal efficiency
286. A device used to convert thermal energy into kinetic energy and also used to direct the mass flow to its specified direction by means of a variable duct area.
A. Throttling valve
B. Nozzle
C. Diffuser
D. Header
287. In the Rankine cycle, an engineer wants to increase the efficiency of the boiler by reducing the moisture in the final stage of the turbine. What will the engineer
do?
A. Reheat the steam
22
 B. Increase the back pressure
C. Replace the condenser
D. Decrease the back pressure
288. Servomotor controls
A. Moving vanes
B. Moving and guide vanes
C. Guide vanes
D. None of these
289. In order to increase the back pressure of a boiler.
A. Increase the boiler pressure
B. Close the atmospheric line
C. Open the back pressure valve
D. Close the back pressure valve
290. The ratio of net work out divided by the heat input.
A. Power factor
B. Thermal efficiency
C. Brake power efficiency
D. Power ratio
291. The ratio of the actual to ideal (isentropic) energies extracted from the flowing gas.
A. Nozzle efficiency
B. Pipe efficiency
C. Work ratio
D. Pressure ratio
292. In vapor cycles, irreversibility occurs greatly in the,
A. Steam piping
B. Steam turbine
C. Condenser
D. Steam generator
293. Consider a Rankine steam cycle with atmospheric condenser. If a vacuum condenser will be used instead, which of the following will be true?
A. Expansion work will increase so as heat added but over-all cycle efficiency will also increase.
B. Expansion work will increase and heat added will decrease and cycle efficiency will increase.
C. Expansion work will increase so as heat added but cycle efficiency will be constant.
D. Expansion work will increase but heat added will be constant and cycle efficiency will increase.
294. The size of a direct acting steam driven pump is written in the nameplate as 6” x 4” x 6”. The 4” represents,
A. Diameter of liquid piston
B. Diameter of steam piston
C. Length of stroke
D. Number of cylinders
295. It is the reduction of steam temperature by either passing the steam through a heat exchanger or direct contact with a cooling fluid.
A. Regeneration
B. Attemperation
C. Water reinjection
D. Pre-heating
296. Electrostatic precipitators are installed between,
A. Furnace and chimney
B. Primary and secondary air
C. Furnace and forced-draft fan
D. Forced-draft fan and induced-draft fan
297. Boiler “pulsation” are caused by,
A. Too high fuel pressure
B. Insufficient air
C. Forcing the boiler beyond capacity
D. All of these
298. The steam is discharged from the safety valves goes to the,
A. Main condenser
B. Auxiliary condenser
C. Atmospheric line
D. Bilges
299. The presence of oil or scale on boiler tubes causes,
A. Over-heating
B. Oxidation
C. Electrolysis
D. Galvanic action
300. The boiler feedwater in the feedwater heater is heated by,
A. Superheated steam
B. Auxiliary exhaust steam
23
 C. Desuperheated steam
D. Steam from boiler
301. How much time should be taken to raise steam on a water-tube boiler?
A. 4 hrs
B. 2 hrs
C. 1 hr
D. 5 hrs
302. How much time should be taken to raise steam on a fire-tube boilrer?
A. 6-8 hrs
B. 8-10 hrs
C. 4-6 hrs
D. 1-3 hrs
303. When combining a steam plant with a gas turbine plant, the gas turbine plant is employing what type of cycle?
A. Closed cycle
B. Open cycle
C. Semi-open cycle
D. Semi-closed cycle
304. Reduction of boiler-water impurities concentration can be accomplished by,
A. Foaming
B. Screening
C. Blowing down
D. None of these
305. The most economical and low-maintenance cost condenser
A. Water-cooled
B. Air-cooled
C. Evaporative
D. Sub-cooled
306. An air pollutant which is the result of burning fuel oil.
A. Ferrous oxide
B. Hydrogen nitride
C. Sulfur dioxide
D. Aluminum oxide
307. In the flow of steam through a nozzle
A. The approach velocity never has any effect in the value of the exit velocity
B. The flow rate is constant for back pressure below the critical pressure
C. The critical pressure will occur at 30 percent of the initial pressure
D. The back pressure never has an effect on the flow rate
308. Main steam line to a prime mover must be:
A. Level all the way
B. Inclined toward prime mover
C. Inclined toward boiler
D. In a continuous loop in all situations.
309. A continuous blowdown valve controls:
A. Total dissolved boiler chemicals
B. Total dissolved silica
C. Impurities in solution
D. Calcium-carbonate scale particle
310. Superheater located in the first pass of a furnace is:
A. Conduction type
B. Radiant type
C. Convection type
D. Flue type
311. The principal disadvantage of the fire tube boilers is:
A. Only wet steam is generated
B. Uses too much fuel
C. Contains too large volume of water and requires too long time interval to raise temperature
D. Uncontrollable output steam temperature
312. An accessory often installed on modern boilers to heat combustion of air before it enters the boiler furnace
A. Reheater
B. Air heater
C. Forced draft fan
D. Economizer
313. What characterizes a reaction turbine?
A. Steam losses velocity as it leaves the diaphragm
B. Steam strikes the blades at right angles
C. Steam will react with a force in the diaphragm
24
 D. Steam is deflected
314. An increase in the deposition of slag and ash on the surface for heating of oil-fired boilers in both marine and stationary service has affected boiler efficiency.
The following are the causes except:
A. High temperature corrosion of steel
B. Increases of heat transfer in the boiler
C. Low temperature corrosion of the cold section of air heaters and duct works
D. Slagging of high temperature superheater surfaces
315. What is the absorbed by sulphites in the boiler water treatment?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Carbon dioxide and oxygen
D. Impurities settled in mud drums
316. A form of corrosion in steam boilers caused by dissolved oxygen in boiler water
A. Rusting
B. Pitting
C. Embrittlement
D. Carry-over
317. The main advantage of water tube boiler is:
A. It contains no steam drum
B. Steam pressure can be raised in a relatively short time
C. Steam comes out superheated
D. Uses less fuel
318. A pressure vessel in which water is heated by steam during off-peak demand periods and regenerated as steam when needed
A. Steam accumulator
B. Steam generator
C. Boiler
D. Evaporator
319. The simultaneous on-site generation of electric energy and process steam or heat from the same plant output
A. Electric generation
B. Cogeneration
C. Combined cycle
D. Binary cycle
320. The weakening of boiler steel as the result of inner crystalline cracks is known as:
A. Exposure stress
B. Alkaline stress
C. Corrosion
D. Caustic embrittlement
321. What is the purpose of a converging-diverging nozzle?
A. To expand steam
B. To control turbulence
C. To lessen the critical pressure
D. All of these
322. A boiler in which that has been inspected and declared unsafe to operate or disqualified, stamped and marked indicating its rejection.
A. Unfired
B. Condemned
C. Second hand
D. Reinstalled
323. When the boiler pressure increases or when the exhaust pressure decreases, the amount of moisture
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Zero
D. Constant
324. Least efficient thermodynamic cycle.
A. Otto
B. Diesel
C. Brayton
D. Rankine
325. Cycle efficiency in a steam power plant increases further as the number of feedwater is ___.
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Constant
D. Unity
326. Lowest permissible water level of a boiler without internal furnace is ____ of the height of the shell.
A. 1/3
B. ¾
C. ½
25
 D. ¼
327. A rapid increase in boiler pressure occurs when there is ___.
A. Gradual drop in steam load
B. Abrupt drop in steam load
C. Moderate drop in steam load
D. Constant drop in steam load
328. A change in the efficiency of combustion in a boiler can usually be determined by comparing the previously recorded readings with the current readings of the
___.
A. Stack temperature and CO2
B. Stack temperature and CO
C. Over the fire draft
D. Stack temperature and SO2
329. An accessory of a steam generator that is used for reducing steam temperature.
A. Economizer
B. Attemperator
C. Deaerator
D. Blowdown convection
330. The valve that prevents water from backing out of the boiler into the feedline.
A. Feed stop valve
B. Skin valve
C. Feed check valve
D. King valve
331. Boiler pulsations are caused mainly by ___.
A. Too high fuel pressure
B. Insufficient pressure
C. Forcing boiler beyond capacity
D. All of these
332. Number of feedwater lines connected to the boiler.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
333. An attemperator is another name for ___.
A. Superheater
B. Desuperheater
C. Deaerator
D. Economizer
334. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to ___.
A. Rankine cycle efficiency
B. Carnot cycle efficiency
C. Regenerative cycle efficiency
D. Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x generator efficiency
335. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of
A. 15 to 20 per cent
B. 35 to 45 per cent
C. 70 to 80 per cent
D. 90 to 95 per cent
336. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 and high pressure limit of p2
A. has higher thermal efficiency than the Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
B. has lower thermal efficiency than Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limit?
C. has same thermal efficiency as Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
D. may be more or less depending upon the magnitude of p1 and p2
337. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant
A. improves in summer as compared to that in winter
B. improves in winter as compared to that in summer
C. is unaffected by climatic conditions
D. none of the above
338. Carnot cycle comprises of
A. two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
B. two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
C. two isothermal processes and three constant pressure processes
D. none of the above
339. In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by ___.
A. change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
B. change of enthalpy between inlet and outlet
C. change of entropy between inlet and outlet

26
 D. change of temperature between inlet and outlet
340. Regenerative cycle thermal efficiency ___.
A. is always greater than simple Rankine thermal efficiency
B. is greater than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency only when steam is bled at particular pressure
C. is same as simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
D. is always less than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
341. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the optimum value of the fraction of steam extracted for feed heating
A. decreases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
B. increases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
C. is unaffected by increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
D. none of the above
342. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the greatest economy is affected
A. when steam is extracted from only one suitable point of steam turbine
B. when steam is extracted from several places in different stages of steam turbine
C. when steam is extracted only from the last stage of steam turbine
D. when steam is extracted only from the first stage of steam turbine
343. The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative feed heating cycle thermal efficiency
A. increases with number of feed heaters increasing
B. decreases with number of feed heaters increasing
C. remains same unaffected by number of feed heaters
D. none of the above
344. In regenerative cycle feed water is heated by
A. exhaust gases
B. heaters
C. draining steam from the turbine
D. all above
345. Reheat cycle in steam power plant is used to ___.
A. utilize heat of flue gases
B. increase thermal efficiency
C. improve condenser performance
D. reduce loss of heat
346. Mercury is a choice with steam in binary vapor cycle because it has ___.
A. higher critical temperature and pressure
B. higher saturation temperature than other fluids
C. relatively low vaporization pressure
D. all above
347. Binary vapor cycles are used to ___.
A. increase the performance of the condenser
B. increase the efficiency of the plant
C. increase efficiency of the turbine
D. None of the above
348. A steam power station requires space ___.
A. equal to diesel power station
B. more than diesel power station
C. less than diesel power station
D. None of the above
349. Economizer is used to heat ___.
A. air
B. feed water
C. flue gases
D. all above
350. The modern steam turbines are ___.
A. impulse turbines
B. reaction turbines
C. impulse-reaction turbines
D. none of the above
351. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for maximum mass flow rate per unit area of steam through a nozzle when steam is initially dry saturated is
A. 0.6
B. 0.578
C. 0.555
D. 0.5457
352. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure of maximum mass flow rate per area of steam through a nozzle when steam is initially superheated is
A. 0.555
B. 0.578
C. 0.5457
D. 0.6
353. The critical pressure ratio of a convergent nozzle is defined as
27
 A. the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure of nozzle
B. the ratio of inlet pressure to outlet pressure of nozzle
C. the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate per unit area is minimum
D. the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate = c
354. The effect of considering friction losses in steam nozzle for the same pressure ratio leads to
A. increase in exit velocity from the nozzle
B. decrease in exit velocity from the nozzle
C. no change in exit velocity from the nozzle
D. increase or decrease depending upon the exit quality of steam
355. The effect of considering friction in steam nozzles for the same pressure ratio leads to ___.
A. increase in dryness fraction of exit steam
B. decrease in dryness fraction of exit steam
C. no change in the quality of exit steam
D. decrease or increase of dryness fraction of exit steam depending upon inlet quality
356. In case of impulse steam turbine ___.
A. there is enthalpy drop in fixed and moving blades
B. there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
C. there is enthalpy drop in nozzles
D. none of the above
357. The pressure on the two sides of the impulse wheel of a steam turbine ___.
A. is same
B. is different
C. increases from one side to the other side
D. decreases from one side to the other side
358. In De Laval steam turbine ___.
A. the pressure in the turbine rotor is approximately same as in condenser
B. the pressure in the turbine rotor is higher than pressure in the condenser
C. the pressure in the turbine rotor gradually decreases from inlet to exit from condenser
D. none from the above
359. In case of reaction steam turbine ___.
A. there is enthalpy drop both in fixed and moving blades
B. there is enthalpy drop only in fixed blades
C. there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
D. none of the above
360. Curtis turbine is ___.
A. reaction steam turbine
B. pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
C. pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
D. velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
361. Rateau steam turbine is ___.
A. reaction steam turbine
B. velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
C. pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
D. pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
362. Parson's turbine is ___.
A. pressure compounded steam turbine
B. simple single wheel, impulse steam turbine
C. simple single wheel reaction steam turbine
D. multi wheel reaction steam turbine
363. For Parson's reaction steam turbine, degree of reaction is ___.
A. 75%
B. 100%
C. 50%
D. 60%
364. Reheat factor in steam turbines depends on ___.
A. exit pressure only
B. stage efficiency only
C. initial pressures and temperature only
D. all of the above
365. The value of reheat factor normally varies from ___.
A. 0.5 to 0.6
B. 0.9 to 0.95
C. 1.02 to 1.06
D. 1.2 to 1.6
366. Steam turbines are governed by the following methods
A. Throttle governing
B. Nozzle control governing
28
 C. By-pass governing
D. all of the above
367. In steam turbines the reheat factor
A. increases with the increase in number of stages
B. decreases with the increase in number of stages
C. remains same irrespective of number of stages
D. none of the above
368. The thermal efficiency of the engine with condenser as compared to without condenser, for a given pressure and temperature of steam, is
A. higher
B. lower
C. same as long as initial pressure and temperature is unchanged
D. none of the above
369. In jet type condensers
A. cooling water passes through tubes and steam surrounds them
B. steam passes through tubes and cooling water surrounds them
C. steam and cooling water mix
D. steam and cooling water do not mix
370. In a shell and tube surface condenser
A. steam and cooling water mix to give the condensate
B. cooling water passes through the tubes and steam surrounds them
C. steam passes through the cooling tubes and cooling water surrounds them
D. all of the above varying with situation
371. In a surface condenser if air is removed, there is
A. fall in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
B. rise in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
C. no change in absolute pressure in the condenser
D. rise in temperature of condensed steam
372. The cooling section in the surface condenser
A. increases the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
B. reduces the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
C. does not affect vapour quantity extracted but reduces pump capacity of air extraction pump
D. none of the above
373. In a steam power plant, the function of a condenser is
A. to maintain pressure below atmospheric to increase work output from the primemover
B. to receive large volumes of steam exhausted from steam prime mover
C. to condense large volumes of steam to water which may be used again in boiler
D. all of the above
374. In a regenerative surface condenser
A. there is one pump to remove air and condensate
B. there are two pumps to remove air and condensate
C. there are three pumps to remove air, vapour and condensate
D. there is no pump, the condensate gets removed by gravity
375. Evaporative type of condenser has ___.
A. steam in pipes surrounded by water
B. water in pipes surrounded by steam
C. either (A) or (B)
D. none of the above
376. Pipes carrying steam are generally made up of ____.
A. steel
B. cast iron
C. copper
D. aluminium
377. For the safety of a steam boiler the number of safety valves fitted are ___.
A. four
B. three
C. two
D. one
378. Steam turbines commonly used in steam power station are ___.
A. condensing type
B. non-condensing type
C. none of the above
D. both (A) and (B)
379. Belt conveyer can be used to transport coal at inclinations up to ___.
A. 30°
B. 60°
C. 80°
D. 90°
29
380. The maximum length of a screw conveyer is about ___.
A. 30 metres
B. 40 metres
C. 60 metres
D. 100 metres
381. The efficiency of a modern boiler using coal and heat recovery equipment is about ___.
A. 25 to 30%
B. 40 to 50%
C. 65 to 70%
D. 85 to 90%
382. Load centre in a power station is ___.
A. centre of coal fields
B. centre of maximum load of equipments
C. centre of gravity of electrical system
D. None of the above
383. Steam pressure in a steam power station, which is usually kept now-a-days is of the order of ___.
A. 20 kgf/cm2
B. 50 kgf/cm2
C. 100 kgf/cm2
D. 150 kgf/cm2
384. Economisers improve boiler efficiency by ___.
A. 1 to 5%
B. 4 to 10%
C. 10 to 12%
D. 12 to 15%
385. The capacity of large turbo-generators varies from ___.
A. 20 to 100 MW
B. 50 to 300 MW
C. 70 to 400 MW
D. 100 to 650 MW
386. Caking coals are those which ___.
A. burn completely
B. burn freely
C. do not form ash
D. form lumps or masses of coke
387. Primary air is that air which is used to ___.
A. reduce the flame length
B. increase the flame length
C. transport and dry the coal
D. provide air around burners for getting optimum combustion
388. Secondary air is the air used to ___.
A. reduce the flame length
B. increase the flame length
C. transport and dry the coal
D. provide air round the burners for getting optimum combustion
389. In coal preparation plant, magnetic separators are used to remove ___.
A. dust
B. clinkers
C. iron particles
D. sand
390. Load carrying capacity of belt conveyor is about ___.
A. 20 to 40 tonnes/hr
B. 50 to 100 tonnes/hr
C. 100 to 150 tonnes/hr
D. 150 to 200 tonnes/hr
391. Method which is commonly applied for unloading the coal for small power plant is ___.
A. lift trucks
B. coal accelerators
C. tower cranes
D. belt conveyor
392. Bucket elevators are used for ___.
A. carrying coal in horizontal direction
B. carrying coal in vertical direction
C. carrying coal in any direction
D. none of the above
393. The amount of air which is supplied for complete combustion is called
A. primary air
30
 B. secondary air
C. tertiary air
D. None of the above
394. In ______ system fuel from a central pulverizing unit is delivered to a bunker and then to the various burners
A. unit
B. central
C. none of the above
D. Both A and B
395. Under-feed stokers work best for _______ coals high in volatile matter and with caking tendency
A. anthracite
B. lignite
C. semibituminous and bituminous
D. none of the above
396. Example of overfeed type stoker is
A. chain grate
B. spreader
C. travelling grate
D. all of the above
397. Where unpulverised coal has to be used and boiler capacity is large, the stoker which is used is
A. underfeed stoker
B. overfeed stoker
C. any
D. A and B
398. Traveling grate stoker can burn coals at the rates of
A. 50—75 kg/m2 per hour
B. 75—100 kg/m2 per hour
C. 100—150 kg/m2 per hour
D. 150—200 kg/m2 per hour
399. Blowing down of boiler water is the process
A. to reduce the boiler pressure
B. to increase the steam temperature
C. to control the solid concentration in the boiler water by removing some of the concentrated saline water
D. none of the above
400. Deaerative heating is done to
A. heat the water
B. heat the air in the water
C. remove dissolved gases in the water
D. none of the above
401. Reheat factor is the ratio of
A. isentropic heat drop to useful heat drop
B. adiabatic heat drop to isentropic heat drop
C. cumulative actual enthalpy drop for the stages to total is isentropic enthalpy heat drop
D. none of the above
402. Compounding of steam turbine is done for
A. reducing the work done
B. increasing the rotor speed
C. reducing the rotor speed
D. balancing the turbine
403. The equivalent evaporation of a boiler is a measure to compare ___.
A. the given boiler with the model
B. the two different boilers of the same make
C. two different makes of boilers operating under the same operating conditions
D. any type of boilers operating under any conditions
404. The coal requirement per kW hour generation in the thermal power plant is of the order of ___.
A. 0.1 to 0.2 kg
B. 0.2 to 0.4 kg
C. 0.6 to 0.8 kg
D. 1.0 to 1.5 kg
405. Equivalent evaporation of water is the evaporation for a feed water supply at 100°C ___.
A. and its corresponding conversion into dry saturated steam at 100°C and 1.033 kg/cm2
B. and its corresponding conversion into dry steam at desired boiler pressure
C. conversion into steam at atmospheric condition
D. conversion into steam at the same pres-sure at which feed water is supplied
406. The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C is called ___.
A. evaporative capacity
B. factor of evaporation
C. equivalent evaporation
31
 D. one boiler h.p.
407. Efficiency of rankine cycle can be increased by ___.
A. decreasing initial steam pressure and temperature
B. increasing exhaust pressure
C. decreasing exhaust pressure
D. increasing the expansion ratio
408. Cochran boiler is a ___.
A. horizontal fire-tube boiler
B. horizontal water-tube boiler
C. vertical water-tube boiler
D. vertical fire tube boiler
409. Lancashire boiler is a ___.
A. stationary fire tube boiler
B. stationary water tube boiler
C. water tube boiler with natural/forced circulation
D. mobile fire tube boiler
410. Efficiency of a thermal cycle increases by ___.
A. regeneration
B. reheating of steam
C. both A and B
D. cooling of steam
411. 100% efficiency of a thermal cycle cannot be achieved because of ___.
A. frictional losses
B. it is not possible to achieve 0°K temperature
C. leakage
D. non-availability of ideal substance
412. The diameter of Cornish boiler is of the order of ___.
A. 1-2 m
B. 1.5-2.5 m
C. 2-3 m
D. 2.5-3.5 m
413. The length of Cornish boiler is of the order of ___.
A. 2-4 m
B. 3-5 m
C. 5-7.5 m
D. 7-9 m
414. The diameter of fire tube of Cornish boiler compared to its shell is ___.
A. one half
B. one third
C. one-fifth
D. two-fifth
415. Water tube boilers are those in which ___.
A. flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
B. water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
C. work is done during adiabatic expansion
D. change in enthalpy
416. Locomotive type' boiler is ___.
A. horizontal multitubular water tube boiler
B. water wall enclosed furnace type
C. vertical tubular fire tube type
D. horizontal multi-tubular fire tube type
417. Lancashire boiler is of ___.
A. stationary fire tube-type
B. horizontal type
C. natural circulation type
D. internally fired type
418. Fire tube boilers are those in which ___.
A. flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
B. water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
C. forced circulation takes place
D. tubes are laid vertically
419. The number of flue tubes in Lancashire boiler is ___.
A. zero
B. one
C. two
D. four
420. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler?
32
 A. locomotive boiler
B. Babcock and Wilcox boiler
C. Stirling boiler.
D. all of the above
421. Which of the following is a water tube boiler?
A. locomotive boiler
B. Cochran boiler
C. Cornish boiler
D. Babcock and Wilcox boiler
422. The diameter of cylindrical shell of the Lancashire boiler is of the order of ___.
A. 1 to 1.25m
B. 1 to 1.75 m
C. 2 to 4 m
D. 1.75 to 2.75 m
423. A packaged boiler is one in which various parts like firing equipment, fans, feed pumps and automatic controls are ___.
A. supplied by same manufacturer loose and assembled at site
B. supplied mounted on a single base
C. purchased from several parties and packed together at site
D. packaged boiler does not exist
424. The high pressure boiler is one producing steam at a pressure more than ___.
A. 5 kg/cm2
B. 10 kg/cm2
C. 40 kg/cm2
D. 75-80 kg/cm2
425. The crown of the fire box is made hemispherical in order to ___.
A. give maximum space
B. give maximum strength
C. withstand pressure inside boiler
D. resist intense heat in fire box
426. The fire tubes in, a Cochran and Scottish marine boiler are ___.
A. horizontal
B. vertical
C. inclined
D. both horizontal and vertical
427. The diameter of internal flue tubes in a Lancashire boiler compared to its shell is ___.
A. one-third
B. one-fourth
C. one-fifth
D. two-fifth
428. The basic purpose of drum in boiler is to ___.
A. serve as storage of steam
B. serve as storage of feed water for water wall
C. remove salts from water
D. separate steam from water
429. Duplex feed pumps are used in small steam boilers. These operate on the principle of ___.
A. centrifugal pump
B. axial flow pump
C. gear pump
D. reciprocating pump
430. In natural circulation type boiler, ___.
A. heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to
drum
B. water is supplied in durm and through down-comers located in atmospheric condition it passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of
water and steam
C. feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
D. water is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
431. Pick up the correct statement as regards Cornish boiler and Lancashire boiler.
A. cornish is fire tube and lancashire is water tube
B. cornish is water tube and lancashire is fire tube
C. cornish has two fire tubes and lancashire has one
D. lancashire has two fire tubes and cornish has one
432. In locomotive boiler, maximum steam pressure is limited to ___.
A. 1 kg/cm2
B. 5 kg/cm2
C. 10 kg/cm2
D. 18 kg/cm2
433. Locomotive boiler is of the following type.
33
 A. multitubular
B. horizontal
C. internally fired
D. all of the above
434. The shell diameter and length of locomotive boiler are ___.
A. 1.5 m, 4 m
B. 1.5 m, 6 m
C. 1 m, 4 m
D. 2 m, 4 m
435. The diameters of fire tubes and superheater tubes in locomotive boiler are ___.
A. 47.5 mm, 130 mm
B. 32.5 mm, 180 mm
C. 65.5 mm, 210 mm
D. 24.5 mm, 65 mm
436. The water tubes in a babcock and wilcox boiler are ___.
A. horizontal
B. vertical
C. inclined
D. horizontal and inclined
437. The diameter of tubes for natural circulation boiler as compared to controlled circulation boilers is ___.
A. more
B. less
C. same
D. could be more or less depending on other factors
438. The function of injector used in small steam plants is to ___.
A. create vacuum in furnace
B. create vacuum at turbine exhaust
C. pump feed water
D. dose chemicals in feed water
439. Which of the following boilers is best suited to meet fluctuating demands?
A. babcock and Wilcox
B. locomotive
C. Lancashire
D. Cochran
440. The difference between Cornish boiler and Lancashire boiler is that ___.
A. former is fire tube type and latter is water tube type boiler
B. former is water tube type and latter is fire tube type
C. former contains one fire tube and latter contains two fire tubes
D. none of the above.
441. In accelerated circulation type boiler ___.
A. heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
B. water is supplied in drum and through down comers" located in atmospheric condition it passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form
of mixture of water and steam
C. feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
D. water is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
442. Pick up the wrong statement about water tube boiler in comparison to fire tube boilers.
A. former generates steam at high pressure
B. former occupies less space for same power
C. rate of steam flow is more in former case
D. chances of explosion are less in former case
443. The number of drums in Benson steam generator is ___.
A. one
B. two
C. one steam drum and one water drum
D. no drum
444. A fusible plug is fitted in small boilers in order to ___.
A. avoid excessive build up of pressure
B. avoid explosion
C. extinguish fire if water level in the boiler falls below alarming limit
D. control steam dome
445. The fusible plug in small boilers is located ___.
A. in the drum
B. in the fire tubes
C. above steam dome
D. over the combustion chamber
446. Fusible plug for boilers is made of fusible metal containing tin, lead, and ___.
A. bismuth
34
 B. copper
C. aluminum
D. nickel
447. Boiler H.P. is defined as the ___.
A. steam evaporation rate per kg of fuel fired
B. work done in evaporating 1 kg of steam per hour from and at 100°C into dry saturated steam
C. the evaporation of 15.65 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C into dry saturated steam
D. work done by 1 kg of steam at saturation condition
448. In forced recirculation type boiler, ___.
A. heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
B. water is supplied in drum and through down-comers located in atmospheric condition it passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of
water and steam
C. feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
D. water is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
449. The ratio of heat utilized to produce steam and the heat liberated in furnace is known as ___.
A. boiler effectiveness
B. boiler evaporative capacity
C. factor of evaporation
D. boiler efficiency
450. Steam in water tube boiler as compared to fire tube boiler ___.
A. can be raised rapidly
B. is raised at slower rate
C. is raised at same rate
D. could be raised at fast/slow rate depending on design
451. It is required to produce large amount of steam at low pressure. Which boiler should be used?
A. pulverized fuel fired boiler
B. cochran boiler
C. lancashire boiler
D. babcock and wilcox boiler
452. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is ___.
A. boiler efficiency, turbine efficiency, generator efficiency
B. all the three above plus gas cycle efficiency
C. carnot cycle efficiency
D. regenerative cycle efficiency
453. Which type of boiler can meet rapid changes of load?
A. vertical fire tube type
B. horizontal fire tube type
C. horizontal water tube type
D. forced circulation type.
454. In forced circulation type boiler ___.
A. heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
B. water is supplied in drum and through down-comers located in atmospheric condition it passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of
water and steam
C. feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
D. water is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
455. Boiler stays are used to ___.
A. prevent flat surfaces under pressure from tearing apart
B. take care of failure in shear
C. take care of failure in compression
D. provide support for boiler
456. Size of boiler tubes is specified by ___.
A. mean diameter and thickness
B. inside diameter and thickness
C. outside diameter and thickness
D. outside diameter and inside diameter
457. The heat loss in a boiler takes place in the form of ___.
A. heat carried away by flue gases
B. heat carried away by ash
C. moisture present in fuel and steam formed by combustion of hydrogen in fuel
D. all of the above.
458. The major axis of elliptical manholes on the shell should be provided ___.
A. longitudinally
B. circumferentially
C. on dished end
D. anywhere
459. In which of the following boilers, the draught in furnace is increased by utilizing exhaust steam from engine.
A. lancashire boiler
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 B. locomotive boiler
C. babcock and wilcox boiler
D. cochran boiler
460. With increase in load, radiant superheater has ___.
A. drooping characteristic
B. lihear characteristic
C. rising characteristic
D. flat characteristic
461. With increase in load, convection superheater has ___.
A. drooping characteristic
B. linear characteristic
C. rising characteristic
D. flat characteristic
462. The diameter of fire tubes in Cochran boiler is of the order of ___.
A. 2 cm
B. 6 cm
C. 8 cm
D. 12 cm
463. In a recuperative air preheater, the heat is transferred ___.
A. from a metal wall from one medium to another
B. from heating an intermediate material and then heating the air from this material
C. by direct mixing
D. heat is transferred by bleeding some gases from furnace
464. A safety valve in a locomotive starts leaking. The leaking medium will be ___.
A. water
B. dry steam
C. wet steam
D. superheated steam
465. The temperature of flue gases at air heater outlet should be ___.
A. 100°C
B. above dew-point temperature of flue gases
C. below dew-point temperature of flue gases
D. less than wet bulb temperature of flue gases
466. In regenerative air preheater, the heat is transferred ___.
A. from a metal wall from one medium to another
B. from heating an intermediateanaterial and then heating the air from this material
C. by direct mixing
D. heat is transferred by bleeding some gas from furnace
467. In designing air preheater, the important design consideration is that ___.
A. approach temperature should be as low as possible
B. handling and maintenance should be easier
C. heat transfer area should be optimum
D. stack gases should not be cooled to the dew point
468. The pressure of reheat steam after passing through reheated compared to inlet condition is ___.
A. more
B. less
C. equal
D. may be more or less depending on capacity of reheated
469. The function of injector used in small capacity boilers is to ___.
A. create vacuum
B. inject chemical solution in feed pump
C. pump water, similar to boiler feed pump
D. add make up water in the system
470. The safety valve at superheater as compared to drum safety valve setting is set at ___.
A. higher value
B. lower value
C. same value
D. any value
471. Steam exhaust from high pressure turbine is reheated in ___.
A. boiler drum
B. superheater tubes
C. economizer
D. a separate coil located in convection path.
472. Vacuum for reciprocating steam engines compared to steam turbines is ___.
A. more
B. equal
C. less
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 D. could be more or less depending on the size of plant
473. Expanding steam to a very low pressure (high vacuum) in steam engines is ___.
A. desirable
B. economical
C. essential
D. uneconomical
474. The economizer is used in boilers to ___.
A. increase thermal efficiency of boiler
B. economize on fuel
C. extract heat from the exhaust flue gases
D. increase flue gas temperature
475. An economizer in a boiler ___.
A. increases steam pressure
B. increases steam flow
C. decreases fuel consumption
D. decreases steam pressure
476. Gusset stays in a boiler are provided to ___.
A. prevent the bulging of flat surfaces
B. avoid explosion in furnace
C. prevent leakage of hot flue gases
D. support furnace freely from top
477. The safety valve on boiler drum compared to safety valve on superheated is set at ___.
A. same value
B. higher value
C. lower value
D. lower/higher depending on steam flow
478. Evaporation capacity of boiler is expressed as ___.
A. kg of steam produced
B. steam pressure produced
C. kg of fuel fired
D. kg of steam produced per kg of fuel fires
479. The condition of steam in boiler drum is always ___.
A. dry
B. wet
C. saturated
D. supersaturated
480. The balanced draft furnace is one using ___.
A. induced draft fan and chimney
B. induced draft fan and forced draft fan
C. forced draft fan and chimney
D. any one of the above
481. In ordered obtain superheated steam, a superheater is added in an existing boiler. As a result, furnace vacuum will ___.
A. remain unaffected
B. improve
C. worsen
D. may improve/worsen depending on size
482. Maximum energy loss in a boiler occurs due to ___.
A. unburnt carbon in ash
B. incomplete combustion
C. ash content
D. flue gases
483. Deaeration of feed water is carried out because it reduces ___.
A. cavitation of boiler feed pumps
B. corrosion caused by oxygen
C. heat transfer coefficient
D. pH value of water
484. A super critical boiler is one that operates above the pressure and temperature of following values
A. 100 kg/cm2 and 540°C
B. 1 kg/cm2 and 100°C
C. 218 kg/cm2 abs and 373°C
D. 218 kg/cm2 abs and 540°C
485. Natural water circulation, by convection in water tube boilers, with increase in pressure of boiler
A. Increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. first increases and then decreases
486. The steam temperature with increase in load in case of a boiler fitted with radiation superheated ___.
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 A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. first increases and then decreases
487. The relative heat absorption for successively added equal areas of boiler convection heating surfaces ___.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. first increases and then decreases
488. Film boiling occurs at ___.
A. very low pressures
B. atmospheric pressures
C. medium pressures
D. very high pressures
489. Fire tube boilers are limited to a maximum design working pressure of ___.
A. 1 kg/cm2
B. 6 kg/cm2
C. 17 kg/cm2
D. 100 kg/cm2
490. For the same diameter and thickness of tube, a water tube boiler compared to a fire tube boiler has ___.
A. more heating surface
B. less heating surface
C. equal heating surface
D. heating surface depends on other parameters
491. In water wall furnace, the heat is transferred to the water-walls by ___.
A. convection
B. radiation
C. conduction
D. radiation and conduction
492. Relative percentage of heat absorbed through the heat transfer of
(i) furnace water wall,
(ii) boiler bank,
(iii) superheated,
(iv) economizer,
(v) air heater of a typical boiler of 200 MW capacity would be of the order of ____.
A. 48:20:15:7:10
B. 10:7:15:20:48
C. 20:48:7:15:10
D. 7:15:20:10:48
493. The size of a boiler drum in pulverized fuel fired boiler,as its size and capacity, (steam pressure and flow ratings) increase ___.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unchanged
D. increases/decreases depending on steam temperature requirements
494. Feed water conditioning in thermal power plants in done to ___.
A. reduce hardness and for removal of solids
B. increase efficiency-of thermal power plant
C. increase heat transfer rate
D. increase steam parameters
495. The basic job of feed water treatment in boilers is to overcome the problem of ___.
A. corrosion
B. scale
C. carryover
D. all of the above

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