JKILS, F-144, RAM NAGAR EXTN.

, NEW SANGANER ROAD, JAIPUR-19, PHONE: 9828667661

CONTRACT & RAJASTHAN (E)

(FULL-OBJECTIVE)

NAME OF CANDIDATE:-

Date of Exam-

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Time of Exam-

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Maximum Marks -100

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THERE IS NO NEGATIVE MARKING

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 JKILS, F-144, RAM NAGAR EXTN., NEW SANGANER ROAD, JAIPUR-19, PHONE: 9828667661

CONTRACT
1. “Cundy Vs Lindsay” is related to-
A. Fraud B. Mistake C. Misrepresentation D. None of the above
2- How acceptance can be revoked-
A. Lapse of time B. Death C. Insanity D. All the above
3. Void agreement is in-
A. 2 (h) B. 2 (e) C. 2 (c) D. 2 (g)
4. If A special manner of acceptance is specified but acceptance not in that manner the
effect is
A. Binding B. Not binding C. Both D. None the above
5. Age of majority is-
A. 18 Years B. 21 Years
C. 18 normally but 21 in case of guardian D. None
6. “Subramanium Vs Kurru Subba Rao” related to-
A. Free consent B. Mistake
C. Competence of parties D. None of the above
7. “Tweedle Vs Atkinson” related to-
A. Privity of contract B. Fraud
C. Minority of party D. None of the above
8. If contract by misrepresentation?
A. Valid B. Void C. Voidable D. None
9. Mistake of English law by one party then contract in-
A. Valid B. Void C. Voidable D. None
10. If person could discover truth by deligency but fraud is played then contract is
A. Valid B. Void C. Voidable D. None
[Link] no consideration than contract void, but it natural love & affection valid, but it should
be
A. Oral B. Written C. Written & registered D. None
12. A, a social reformer, promised B a reward of Rs. 1,000 if he refrained from smoking for
two years. B does so-
A. B is entitled to reward from A
B. B is not entitled to reward from A
C. It is a valid consideration in the form of an act of abstinence
D. Both (a) & (c) are correct.
13. A, B and C jointly promises to pay Rs. 900/- to Z. Z files a suit to recover the amount-
A. Z must sue all the three
B. Since, A, B and C are joint promisors, Z can recover the amount from any one of them
C. Z must make all the three parties to the suit
D. None
14. A & B contract to marry each other before the time fixed for the marriage, A becomes
mad
A. The contract becomes void
B. A’s representatives have to compensate B
C. There is no contractual obligation here on the Part of A
D. It is B’s fate with which she has to reconcile herself

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15. A contract, which is formed without the free consent of the parties, is-
A. Void ab initio B. Void
C. Illegal
D. Voidable at the instance of the party whose consent was not free.
16. A contracts to marry B, being already married to C, and being forbidden by the law to
which he is subject to practice polygamy-
A. A must make compensation to for the loss caused to her by the non-performance of his
promise
B. A does not have to make any compensation to B, because law does not permit him to
marry another women
C. If B asks for compensation then only A can comply with it
D. It is A’s moral responsibility to compensate B because the Law of contract also
demands for it
17. A failure to perform at the agreed time (when the time is of the essence of the contract
renders the contract-
A. Void B. Voidable at the option of the- opposite party
C. Legal D. Invalid
18. A- contract stands discharged by-
A. Performance of the contract B. frustration of the contract
C. Novation D. All the above
19. A gratuitous or bare promise, devoid of consideration, is called-
A. Res extincta B. Uberrima fides
C. Nudum pactum D. None of the above
20. A party to a contract can be discharged from performing it, if it has become-
A. Expensive B. Onerous
C. Commercially unviable D. Impossible
21. A party who does not suffer any loss in case of contract, is entitled to-
A. Special damages B. Liquidated damages
C. Exemplary damages D. Nominal damages
22. A person enjoying the benefit of non-gratuitious act?
A. Is under an obligation to make compensation for his benefit
B. May make compensation at his option
C. Has no obligation towards any one
D. None of the above
23. A public notice in respect of invitation of tenders in the Newspapers is-
A. An invitation to a proposal B. A promise
C. A proposal D. An invitation for binding
24. A wages is a game of-
A. Chance B. Chance and immoral
C. Chance and unenforceable D. All the above
25. A stipulation for increased interest from the date of default is knows as-
A. Damages B. Compensation C. Penalty D. All the above
26. A sells, by auction, to B, a horse which A knows to be unsound but he says nothing to B
about the unsoundness of the horse. This is-
A. Fraud on the Part of A B. Not fraud on the Part A

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C. B’s failure to test the soundness of horse D. Both (b) & (c)
27. A seeing a price list hanging outside a shop enters it and demands a particular book,
but the shopkeeper denies selling the same-
A. The shopkeeper can be compelled to sell the book i.e. to fulfill the contract
B. The customer can simply request the shopkeeper to sell it
C. The customer simply makes an offer and the contract is not yet complete
D. none of the above
28. A supplies to the wife and children of B, lunatics with necessaries suitable to their
condition in life. A is entitled to be reimbursed from-
A. B’s wife B. B’s property
C. B’s children when they become major D. No one
29. A voidable contract is one which is -
A. Not enforceable by either of the parties thereto
B. Enforceable by either of the parties thereto.
C. Enforceable only with the permission of the court of law
D. None of the above
30. Case “Derry Vs Peek” relates to-
A. Fraud B. Mistake
C. Misrepresentation D. Consideration
31. An agreement by a debtor not to raise the plea of limitation is-
A. Voidable at the option of the creditor B. Illegal
C. Valid and binding D. Void
32. An agreement by way of wage is-
A. Void B. Voidable C. Valid D. None of the above
33. An agreement made to sell a cargo of corn, which was not in existence at the time of contract is-
A. Voidable at the option of either party B. A valid agreement
C- A void agreement D. None of the above
34. An erroneous opinion as to value of the thing (subject-matter of agreement) is-
A. A mistake B. Not a mistake
C. A mistake under certain circumstances D. None of the above
35. As defined in Indian Contract Act, a “promisor” is a person-
A. Who made the promise B. To whom a promise is made
C. Who made an agreement D. Forming accepts the proposal
36. As per Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 consideration of an agreement is lawful
unless-
A. It is forbidden by law
B. It is of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provision of law
C. It is fraudulent
D. All the above are correct
37. Consensus ad idem means-
A. Common intention B. Meeting of minds
C. Theme of Contract D. None of the above
38. Consideration is-?
A. A motive for any promise B. A price for any promise
C. Only a moral obligation D. Something of value in the eye of Law

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39. Lending money to a borrower, at high rate of interest, when the money market is tight,
renders the agreement of loan-
A. Void B. Valid C. Voidable D. None of the above
40. Non est factum means-
A. Document executed in ignorance B. Document executed under Coercion
C. Document executed under undue influence D. None of the above
41. One party is able to dominate the will of another-
A. If the parties are on equal footing.
B. If the parties are not on equal footing
C. The parties may or may not be on equal footing
D. Neither (b) nor (c)
42. Proper time and place –
A. A question of law B. A question of general custom
C. A question of fact D. All the above
43. Quantum meruit means-
A. “As much as is earned” B. “In proportion to the work done”
C. Both (a) & (b) D. Neither (a) nor (b)
44. The communication of acceptance through telephone is regarded as complete when-
A. Acceptance is spoken on phone
B. Acceptance comes to the knowledge of party proposing
C. Acceptance is put in course of transmission
D. None of the above
45. The limitation period for simple contract is-
A. Six months B. 90 Days C. Three Years D. One Year
46. The law of contract is-
A. Custom B. Commercial C. Politics D. None of the above
47. The preamble to the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is defined as-
A. It propounds complete code relating to the contracts
B. It does not propounds but defines the legal aspects relating to the law of contract
C. There is no preamble in this Act.
D. Whereas it is expedient to define and amend certain parts of the law relating to contracts
48. The primary aim of the law of damages is to-
A. Punish the party who has committed to breach of contract]
B. Enrich the party who sustained the loss
C. Put the party who sustained the loss in the same position as if the contract has been
performed
D. All the above
49. The quasi-contract include-
A. Supply of necessaries to a minor or lunatic
B. Payment by an interested person
C. Liability to pay for non-gratutious act
D. All the above
50. When a minor has been supplied with necessaries-
A. Minor is not liable B. Minor’s estate/property is liable
C. Minor is personally liable D. None of the above
Rajasthan
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 JKILS, F-144, RAM NAGAR EXTN., NEW SANGANER ROAD, JAIPUR-19, PHONE: 9828667661

51. Who appoints presiding officer in Rent tribunal :-

(A) High Court (B) State Government
(C) Central Government (D) None of the above
52. Any Person of ------------ Experience as higher Judicial officer shall be eligible for appointment as
presiding officer :-
(A) 7 years (B) 5 years (C) 3 Years (D) 2 years
53. A person who has been illegally disposed from to apply within -------------- period for repossession.
(A) 15 days (B) 30 days (C) 45 days (D) 60 days
54. Where a person has received repossession of premises under section 10; then he cannot give back
the premises for rent for following years :-
(A) 1 year (B) 2 year (C) 3 year (D) 4 years

55. Premises include :-

(A) Apartment to and let with any such building or part (B) Hotel or Dharmshala
(C) Sarai or inn (D) Boarding house/Hostel/Lodging house
56. Premises do not include :-
Building for
(A) Residence or Commercial Purpose
(B) Agricultural Purpose
(C) Residence or Grounds, garages, godowan if any
(D) Commercial Purpose includes furniture, amenities etc used by landlord.
57. When rent control Act, 2001 apply :-
(A) 1 April, 2001 (B) 1 April, 2002 (C) 1 April, 2003 (D) 1 Oct. 2004
58. Revenue cannot be increase or reduced to the limit ?
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/4 (C) 1/3 (D) 3/4
59. Revenue Board shall commits of chairman and __________ members :-
(A) Minimum 3 Maximum 20 (B) Minimum 2 Maximum 12
(C) Minimum 4 Maximum 18 (D) Minimum 5 Maximum 20
60. If any person in aggrieved by Judgment of Single member than appeal to bench within -------- days.
(A) 30 days (B) 1 Months (C) 60 days (D) 2 Months
61. Who shall redress or prepare boundary dispute is section 111.
(A) Land Record officer (B) Director Land Record
(C) Settlement officer (D) Tehsildar
62. u/s- 177A of Raj. Land Revenue Act bigha means
(A) 3/8 acre (B) 3/7 acre (C) 5/8 acre (D) 5/10 acre
63. Who shall be referred whom such members are equally divided in opinion as to the order to be made
in Revenue Board.
(A) Referred to another members
(B) Opinion of the majority of the members including other members
(C) (a) and (b)
(D) Refereed to High Court
64. Conveyance deed of immovable property shall have following stamp :-
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(A) 4 or 5 Percent (B) 6 or 7 Percent (C) 3 or 4 Percent (D)7 or 8 Percent

65. Affidavit following stamp paper :-
(A) 50 Rupees (B) 20 Rupees (C) 100 Rupees (D) 10 Rupees
66. Adoption deed on how much Stamp paper.
(A) 300 Rupees (B) 200 Rupees (C) 500 Rupees (D)1000 Rupees
67. If failure to cancel adhesive stamp penalty
(A) 1000 Rupees (B) 2000 Rupees (C) 500 Rupees (D)5000 Rupees
68. What amount to be deposited to appeal of collector :-
(A) 25 Percent (B) 50 Percent (C) 30 Percent (D) 10 percent
69. What is the court fees in writs :-
(A) 25 Rupees (B) 50 Rupees (C) 10 Rupees (D) 100 Rupees

70. How much Refund if plaint rejected in Order VII Rule 11.
(A) full (B) half (C) A or B (D) None
71. What is the court fees in declaration :-
(A) 20 Rupees (B) 30 Rupees (C) 50 Rupees (D) 100 Rupees
72. What is the court fees in case of probate in respect of value of estate exceeds 1000 but not exceed 5000 :-
(A) 2 Percent (B) 3 Percent (C) 4 Percent (D) 5 percent
73. What is the court fees in case of Caveat :-
(A) 10 Rupees (B) 5 Rupees (C) 50 Rupees (D) 100 Rupees
74. What does not include in “Crops”.
(A) Fodder (B) Natural Produce (C) Rose and Mahendi bushes (D) (A) or (B) both
75. Sayer ………………….. use and Right for transfer
(A) Use of water for irrigation purpose from artificial sources
(B) Grass, thatching grass, wood, fuel, fruits lac, gum, long, pala, pani water – nets
(C) Right of fisheries
(D) All of the above
76. How many sections and chapter in Raj. Tenancy Act, 1955
(A) 250 Sections and 15 Chapter (B) 260 Sections and 16 Chapter
(C) 265 Sections and 17 Chapter (D) 272 Sections and 18 Chapter
77. What types cannot be transfer of khudkasht Rights
(A) Sale (B) Exchange (C) Partition (D) Gift for the purpose of maintenance
78. To whom shall be appeal if any order passed by Revenue appeal authority
(A) Revenue Board (B) District Court (C) High Court (D) Supreme Court
79. Where shall appeal lie passed a decree in appeal by collector
(A) Divisional Commissioner (B) Revenue appeal authority
(C) Revenue Board (D) High Court
80. To whom shall be control and Superintendence
(A) High Court (B) Revenue Board
(C) Revenue Appeal authority (D) Divisional Commissioner
81. Which land include in “Village”.
(A) Which has been recognized as village (B) Which has been recorded as village
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(C) may thereafter be recognized or recorded as village (D) All of the above
82. When came into force Raj. Land Revenue Act 1956
(A) 23 May 1956 (B) 13 Jan 1958 (C) 15 August 1950 (D) 2 Oct. 1950
83. How many time period of service of members of Revenue Board -
(A) at pleasure of President (B) at pleasure of Governor
(C) at pleasure of chief Minister (D) at age of 65 years of five year whichever is earlier
84. Where is situated headquarter of Revenue board of Rajasthan?
(A) Ajmer (B) Jaipur (C) Jodhpur (D) Kota
85. Which shall be Supreme Court in Rajasthan?
(A) Revenue Appellate Authority (B) Revenue Board
(C) High court (D) Supreme Court
86. In which of the following appointment of person is not necessary to publish in official gazette by State Govt.
(A) Tehsildar (B) Naib-Tehsildar
(C) Settlement officer (D) Land Revenue Officer
87. Which type of land shall not exclude from assessment by settlement officer
(A) Permanent threshing floor, roads and pathways
(B) Grave-yards, cremation ground and play ground
(C) Garden Land
(D) Land occupied by buildings with their appurtenances
88. Who shall prepare of “Parches” on holding of assessment.
(A) Land revenue officer (B) Settlement officer
(C) Revenue board (D) Sadar Quanenge
89. Who has empowered to stay partition of an estate at sufficient reason ?
(A) collector (B) sub-division officer
(C) Assistant collector (D) All of the above
90. Who is Necessary party of application for partition.
(A) recorded co-sharers of estate (B) possession of mortgagee
(C) (a) or (b) (D) None of the above
91. In which of the following provision of first appeal under Raj. Land Revenue Act 1956.
(A) Section 70 (B) Section 75 (C) Section 80 (D) Section 85
92. Who has right to improvement otherwise land holder or tenant ?
(A) Gair Khatedar Tenant (B) Khud Kasht Tenant
(C) Sub Tenant (D) All of the above
93. By whom shall be decided disputes regarding tress under Raj. Tenancy Act 1955.
(A) Tehsildar (B) Assistant Collector (C) Sub-division officer (D) Collector
94. According to Explanation of u/s-104 of Raj. Tenancy Act what does include “gross produce”.
(A) crop (B) dry steaks of crop (C) straw (D) chaff (bhusa)
95. By whom shall be publish return of warrant price
(A) Assistant Collector (B) Tehsildar (C) Collector (D) None
96. Which chapter provision related with improvement
(A) Chapter - 4 (B) Chapters -5 (C) Chapter - 6 (D) Chapters - 7
97. In which of the following section provision Injunction suit under Raj. Tenancy Act, 1955
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(A) Section 79 A (B) Section 92A (C) Section 182A (D) Section183B
98. In which of the following section provided appointment of Receiver? Under Raj. Tenancy Act 1955
(A) Section 212 (B) Section 213 (C) Section 214 (D) Section 215
99. Whose shall be control or superintendence overall revenue courts
(A) High Court (B) Revenue Board
(C) Revenue appeal authority (D) Divisional Commissioner
100. Where shall be appeal prefer passed decree in appeal by collector
(A) Divisional Commissioner (B) Revenue appeal authority
(C) Revenue Board (D) High Court

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