MockTest27

Q.1) When using a NON A2A NDB the BFO should be:

off for tuning and off for identification.

off for tuning and on for identification.

on for tuning and on for identification.

on for tuning and off for identification.

Q.2) Abnormal long ranges may be experienced on VDF channels, caused by?

Efficient VDF antennas.

Intermodulation with signals on frequencies close to the one being used by the VDF station.

Super refraction of the signals in the atmosphere.

The VDF station using a relay station for communication to the aircraft.

Q.3) An aircraft flying at flight level 250 wishes to interrogate a DME beacon situated 400 ft above mean sea level. What is the
maximum range likely to be achieved?

222 nm.

175 nm.

198 nm.

210 nm.

Q.4) Find the convergency angle between E (31°N 11°E) and F (25°N 13°W)?

11.26°

6.5°

11.0°

5.6°

Q.5) If the scale of a mercator chart at equator is 1 : 2,600,000. What is the scale at 84°N?

1 : 217,477

1 : 1,217,774

1 : 271,774

1 : 200,000

Q.6) Calculate the time and distance to PSR Track 030°T, PNR Endurance 1 hour 40 min, TAS 280kts, W/V 125°/10kts?

50min, 232nm

38min, 197nm

65min, 293nm
71min, 304nm

Q.7) What does the 'SPI' facility of an SSR do?

It sends an extra pulse for 20 s

It switches the Mode 'A' response on and off for 20 s

It sends an extra pulse for 1 min

It switches the Mode 'A' response on and off for 1 min

Q.8) The rate of descent in feet per minute, appropriate to a 3.2° ILS glidepath at an approach groundspeed of 110 kts is:

586 fpm

692 fpm

563 fpm

666 fpm

Q.9) The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for the determination of
ground features:

beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower beam.

beyond 150 NM because the wider beam gives better definition.

beyond 100 NM because insufficient antenna tilt angle is available with the mapping mode.

when approaching coast-lines in polar regions.

Q.10) In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:

only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel and to protect equipment.

permitted anywhere.

unrestrictedly permitted in aerodrome maintenance areas.

totally prohibited.

Q.11) Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?

An ADF sited on the flight route.

A DME station sited on the flight route.

A VOR station sited on the flight route.

A DME station sited across the flight route.

Q.12) In GPS on which frequencies are the C/A and P codes transmitted?

The lower frequency.

The higher frequency.

Both frequencies.

Q.13) When turning through 270° at constant AoB and pitch attitude, what will a classic Artificial horizon indicate?

Too much nose up and too little bank angle.

Too much nose up and too much bank angle.

Too little nose up and too little bank angle.

Too little nose up and too much bank angle.

Q.14) At 1000 Z an aircraft is overhead NB PE enroute to NDB CN, Track 075(M), Heading 082(M) At 1029 Z NDB PE bears
176 Relative and NDB CN bears 353 Relative. The heading to steer at 1029 Z to reach NDB CN is:

079(M)

078(M)

081(M)

0082(M)

Q.15) A turn indicator used in conjunction with an attitude indicator will show? 1.) Turn direction. 2.) Rate of turn. 3.) Angular
velocity about the true vertical axis. 4.) Angular velocity about the aircraft vertical axis. 5.) Angular velocity about the
longitudinal axis.

1, 2

1, 3

1, 2, 4

2, 3, 5

Q.16) The initial great circle track from C (30°00’S 45°00’W) to D (25°00’S 38°00’W) is 110°T. What is the final great circle
track from C to D at D?

113.2°

293.2°

286.2°

106.7°

Q.17) Given 2 Engine TAS 580kts, 1 Engine TAS 300kts. Distance from R to S is 2140nm with a 30kts tail wind component.
What is the distance and time to R from engine failure PET?

956nm, 209min

963nm, 214min

981nm, 226min

976nm, 223min
Q.18) The initial great circle track from J (45°S 04°E) to K (53°S 09°E) is 48°T. Find the final great circle track at K from J to K?

52°

44°

232°

224°

Q.19) When descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?

LSS increases.

LSS decreases.

LSS remains constant.

TAS increases.

Q.20) The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and a receiver is
called a 'Pseudo-Range is because the:

Measured distance is based on the Pseudo Random Noise code.

Movement of satellite and receiver during the distance calculation is not taken into account.

Calculated range is based on an idealised Keplerian orbit.

Calculated range includes receiver clock error.

Q.21) If the (angular) displacement of an aircraft (with respect to the localiser centreline) doubles, (e.g. From 1 degree to 2
degrees) measured difference in the depth of modulation?

Doubles.

Remains unchanged.

Is halved.

Increases fourfold.

Q.22) An aircraft heading 040 (M) has an ADF reading of 060 Relative. The heading to steer to intercept the 120° track inbound
to the NDB at 50° is:

080(M)

070(M)

060(M)

050(M)

Q.23) What does the blue line on a twin engine piston aircraft ASI indicate

Vxse

Vno
Vne

Vyse

Q.24) The orbital height and inclination of the NAVSTAR/GPS constellation are:

20180 km, 65°

20180 km, 55°

19099 km, 65°

19099 km, 55°

Q.25) If the scale of a mercator chart at equator is 1 : 3,100,000. What is the scale at 28°N?

1 : 2,700,000

1 : 2,737,137

1 : 2,500,000

1 : 3,000,000
Q.26) An aircraft flying down a 30 ILS glide slope is at 35 nm DME from the threshold. Using the 1 in 60 rule and approximating
1 nm to 6000 ft, calculate the aircraft height above the runway threshold, assuming that the ILS glide path crosses the threshold at
a height of 50 ft?

6450 ft.

7455 ft.

10550 ft.

10015 ft.

Q.27) Given: True Heading = 090° TAS = 180kts GS = 180 kts Drift 5° right Calculate the W/V?

360° / 15 kt.

360° / 25 kt.

360° / 5 kt.

300° / 15 kt.

Q.28) On a mercator chart the scale at 66°N is 1 : 1,626,945. What is the scale at 41°S?

1 : 3,810,835

1 : 3,018,835

1 : 3,800,000

1 : 3,900,000

Q.29) A DME transponder becomes saturated if interrogated by a excessive number of aircraft. It will reply to the nearest:

200 aircraft.
50 aircraft.

100 aircraft.

150 aircraft.

Q.30) Calculate the time and distance to PSR Track 205°T, PNR Endurance 95 min, TAS 160kts, W/V 115°/20kts?

58min, 139nm

47min, 123nm

66min, 165nm

35min, 157nm

Q.31) Determine the time if the fuel used is 535 US gal and the fuel flow is 137 US gal/hr?

216 min

234 min

220 min

243 min

Q.32) Which of the following does DGPS not reduce?

Ionospheric group delay

Multi-path errors

Selective availability

Satellite position errors

Q.33) Which of the following is the correct conversion from True to Compass?

130 (T) 2W (V) 128 (M) -1 (D) 127 (C)

130 (T) 2E (V) 128 (M) -1 (D) 129 (C)

130 (T) 2E (V) 132 (M) -1 (D) 133 (C)

130 (T) 2W (V) 132 (M) -1 (D) 133 (C)

Q.34) The nautical miles covered by an aircraft in 07mins is 39. Determine its ground speed?

367kts

334kts

301kts

287kts

Q.35) Given 2 Engine TAS 420kts, 1 Engine TAS 195kts. Distance from U to V is 1500nm with a 25kts head wind component.
What is the distance and time to U from engine failure PET?
282nm, 77min

276nm, 68min

255nm, 53min

241nm, 49min

Q.36) The great circle distance in nm from G (31°N 154°W) to H (17°N 24°E)?

7920

7290

7904

7940

Q.37) At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation:

depends on the true heading.

depends on the type of compass installed.

depends on the magnetic heading.

varies slowly over time.

Q.38) Determine the quantity of fuel used in 06 hour 05 mins. If the fuel flow is 169 lt/hr?

1140 litres

980 litres

1030 litres

1220 litres

Q.39) What is the distance in nm from E (65°N 52°E) to F (65°N 14°E)?

369

639

936

963

Q.40) What is the time required to cover the distance of 98nm If the ground speed of an aircraft is 340kts?

17.29 min

17.92 min

12.92 min

18.9 min
Q.41) A primary radar has a pulse repetition frequency of 275 pps. The time interval between the leading edges of successive
pulses is:

3.64 milliseconds.

36.4 milliseconds.

3.64 microseconds.

36.4 microseconds.

Q.42) For a frequency of 200 kHz, what is the wavelength?

1500 m

150 m

1500 km

150 km

Q.43) When descending at a constant CAS in Inversion layer?

the IAS, TAS and MNo increases.

the MNo and TAS increases.

the MNo and TAS decreases.

the MNo and TAS remains constant.

Q.44) What is the time required to cover the distance of 24nm If the ground speed of an aircraft is 465kts?

2.8 min

6.9 min

3.0 min

4.5 min

Q.45) Calculate the fuel flow if 400 imp gal is used in 3 hour 25 min?

117 imp gal/hr

121 imp gal/hr

108 imp gal/hr

132 imp gal/hr

Q.46) The reason for using different frequencies for transmitting and receiving in the DME system

Is to avoid the reception in the aircraft of signals referring to other aircraft.

Is to prevent overload of the system.

Is to prevent self-triggering of the receiving equipment by the transmitter

Q.47) In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to fix an aircrafts position?

When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz.

On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundary.

When contacting ATC to join controlled airspace from the open FIR.

When declaring an emergency on any frequency.

Q.48) Given 2 Engine TAS 480kts, 1 Engine TAS 285kts. Distance from J to K is 896nm with a 15kts head wind component.
What is the distance and time to J from engine failure PET?

491.6nm, 90.2min

451.3nm, 96.8min

463.4nm, 101.8min

471.5nm, 94.3min

Q.49) What is the initial great circle track from Q to P at Q. If the initial great circle track from P (71°N 04°E) to Q (84°N 12°E) is
39°T?

47°

211°

227°

31°

Q.50) Given: True Heading = 090, TAS = 180 kts, GS = 180 kts, Drift = 5 degrees right. Calculate the W/V?

185/15 kts.

355/15 kts.

005/15 kts.

190/15 kts.

Q.51) What rate of descent should an aircraft use on a 3.5° ILS glide slope if it has a groundspeed of 120 kts?

500 ft per min

600 ft per min

700 ft per min

800 ft per min

Q.52) On a typical computer generated SSR display the following data on a particular flight will be shown?

Squawk code, flight level, true heading, aeroplane callsign.

Squawk code, magnetic heading, ground speed, aeroplane callsign.

Destination, flight level, ground speed, aeroplane callsign.

Q.53) When taking-off on a calm day on heading of 45° in the northern hemisphere, the compass will indicate …… If the field is
on an agonic line?

45°

More than 45°

Less than 45°

45° only if the wings are level.

Q.54) Given TAS 220kts, W/V 040°/05kts, Distance G to H 480nm, Course 340°. What is the distance to ETP from G?

243nm

237nm

229nm

256nm

Q.55) At the magnetic equator?

Variation is Zero.

Deviation is Zero.

Dip is Zero.

The agonic line is also an isogonal line.

Q.56) Alignment of a RLG INS takes:

Less than 10 minutes

15 - 20 minutes

84.4 minutes

10 - 15 minutes

Q.57) On a mercator chart the scale at 85°S is 1 : 217,889. What is the scale at 42°S?

1 : 1,650,859

1 : 1,857,859

1 : 1,950,859

1 : 1,900,000

Q.58) The fuel used is 1020 US gal and the fuel flow is 241 US gal/hr. Calculate the time?

286 min
254 min

246 min

232 min

Q.59) How does a Mode S interrogator identify aircraft?

A 24 bit identifier, giving over 16 million combinations.

The four letter SELCAL code.

The P3 pulse.

An eight bit identifier, which gives 212 unique combinations.

Q.60) A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in 1.) An inertial attitude unit 2.) An automatic pilot 3.) A stabilizing
servo system 4.) An inertial navigation system 5.) A rate-of-turn indicator. The combination of correct statements is:

2,3,4.

1,4.

1,2,3,4,5.

2,3,5.

Q.61) Which of the following list use the VHF band? 1) Locator. 2) Localiser. 3) Outer Marker. 4) Glide path.

2 and 3.

2 and 4.

1, 2, 3 and 4.

1 and 3.

Q.62) An aircraft carrying out a 3° glide path ILS approach experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer
marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircrafts rate of descent will be a decrease of
appr

100 FT/MIN.

50 FT/MIN.

250 FT/MIN.

150 FT/MIN.

Q.63) If the scale of a mercator chart at equator is 1 : 1,700,000. What is the scale at 59°N?

1 : 875,565

1 : 800,000

1 : 850,000

1 : 825,565
Q.64) An aircraft tracking to intercept the ILS localiser inbound on the approach side but outside the published coverage angle:

will receive false on-course or reverse sense signals.

will not normally receive signals.

will receive signals without coding.

can expect signals to give correct indications.

Q.65) The ground speed of an aircraft is 376kts. Calculate the distance covered by an aircraft in 42mins?

270nm

268nm

263nm

259nm

Q.66) Find the value of convergency between R (31°N 18°E) and S (21°N 35°E)?

7.0°

6.9°

7.4°

7.6°

Q.67) Given: TAS = 205kts, HDG (T) = 1800, W/V = 240/25kts. Calculate the drift and GS?

6L - 192 kt.

6L - 194 kt.

6L - 196 kt.

6R - 194 kt.

Q.68) The altimeter is subject to static pressure error. This error results from

Incorrect pressure sensing caused by disturbance of airflow around the static ports.

Imperfect elasticity of the aneroid capsule.

Friction inside the instrument.

Cabin pressure slightly lower than outside air pressure due to airflow over the fuselage.

Q.70) A magnetic compass must be swung?

After long term changes in latitude.

After long term changes in longitude.

Short term changes in longitude.

Q.71) The initial great circle track from K (31°S 18°E) to S (21°S 35°E) is 105°T. Find the initial great circle track at S from S to
R?

112°

278°

292°

98°

Q.72) Two types of radar approaches may be available:

Surveillance approach and Final approach.

Surveillance approach and Precision approach.

Terminal approach and surveillance approach.

Final approach and Precision approach.

Q.73) If the turn and slip indicator shows needle left and ball right in a baked turn, the aircraft is …… and the required corrective
action is ……?

Skidding Push left pedal forward.

Skidding Push right pedal forward.

Slipping Push left pedal forward.

Slipping Push right pedal forward.

Q.74) Isogonals are lines of equal?

Wind velocity.

Magnetic Variation.

Compass deviation.

Pressure.

Q.75) At 58°N the scale of a mercator chart is 1 : 5,103,334. What is the distance in inches between 168°E and 129°E at 29°S?

12.72 inches

17.72 inches

45.0 inches

12.27 inches

Q.76) When turning from 225° to 135° in Northern Hemisphere at the end of the turn compass reads?

Less than 225°.

Less than 135°.

More than 135°.

Q.77) The reason for using different frequencies for the airborne and ground equipment of DME is?

To avoid second trace returns when a DME is more than 200 nm away.

That more DME frequencies are available from different beacons.

That side lobes can be suppressed by the Side Lobe Suppressor (SLS).

To prevent that DME interrogation pulse pairs from being received by the aircraft after reflection on the earth's surface.

Q.78) An aircraft is flying at FL390, temperature is -56.5°C at mach 0.85. The TAS is?

561 Kts.

476 Kts.

485 Kts.

472 Kts.

Q.79) An aircraft departs B (40°S 88°W) flying easterly for 2140nm. What is the destination position?

40°S 134°W

40°S 41°E

40°S 41°W

40°S 134°E

Q.80) What is the distance in nm from C (15°S 14°E) to D (15°S 38°E)?

1319

1391

1931

1381

Q.81) If the scale of a mercator chart at equator is 1 : 500,000. What is the scale at 25°S?

1 : 353,254

1 : 1,453,254

1 : 400,000

1 : 453,154

Q.82) Aircraft position is (36°S 27°W) flying easterly for 1820nm. What is the destination longitude?

10°30’E
64°29’W

64°29’E

10°30’W

Q.83) An aircraft flying from C to D at a TAS of 530kts with a tailwind component of 30kts. If the distance from C to D is
1296nm and safe endurance is 5 hours 15 min. What is the time and distance to PNR?

203min, 1008nm

169min, 1293nm

148min, 1385nm

255min, 1486nm

Q.84) The shortest distance in nm from M (61°N 44°W) to N (67°N 136°E)?

3102

3210

3120

3110

Q.85) How many nautical miles covered by an aircraft in 17mins with a ground speed of 488kts?

142nm

138nm

135nm

141nm

Q.86) Distance from X to Y is 1609nm TAS 335kts wind component 15kts tailwind. Calculate the distance and time to X from
PET?

781nm, 157min

773nm, 149min

768nm, 144min

750nm, 136min

Q.87) A …… ranging arm transmits the movement of the ratio arm to the pointer mechanism in a mach meter?

Ratio Arm.

Hair Spring.

Ranging Arm.

Spring-loaded.

Q.88) Given True Track 235°, W/V 115°/35kts, TAS 210kts, PNR fuel 234kg, Fuel flow 88kg/hr. Find the time to PNR?
141min

73min

97min

119min

Q.89) What is the distance in nm from P (35°N 11°E) to Q (35°N 29°E)?

885

858

895

588

Q.90) An aircraft flying from A to B at a TAS of 375kts with a tail wind component of 40kts. If the distance from A to B is
1126nm and safe endurance is 7hrs 20mins then calculate the distance to PNR?

1536nm

1359nm

2086nm

1252nm

Q.91) An aircraft reached the destination at 192nm apart in 68mins. Calculate the ground speed of an aircraft?

169kts

180kts

150kts

269kts

Q.92) Which of the following would have the shortest required maximum range?

TAR

ASDE

PAR

RSR

Q.93) Locators are: 1) High powered NDBs used for en route and airways. 2) Low powered NDBs used for airfield runway
approach. 3) Beacons with a usually range of 10 to 250 nm.

2 and 3.

1 and 4.

1 and 3.
2 and 4.

Q.94) At 74°N the scale of a mercator chart is 1 : 1,871,761. What is the distance in cms between 149°E and 167°W at 37°S?

70 cms

75 cms

76 cms

72 cms

Q.95) Given 2 Engine TAS 210kts, 1 Engine TAS 130kts. Distance from A to B is 665nm with a 20kts tail wind component. What
is the distance to engine failure PET?

281nm

292nm

276nm

264nm

Q.96) Given TAS 170kts, W/V 230°/45kts, Distance A to B 508nm, Course 310°. What is the distance and time to PET from A?

281nm, 114min

273nm, 108min

251nm, 98min

266nm, 102min

Q.97) An aircraft at 19,000ft wishes to communicate with a VDF station at 1,400ft AMSL. What is the maximum range at which
contact is likely ?

175nm

400.0nm

62.5nm

219nm

Q.98) A radar used by ATC has the following characteristics. Long wavelength and aerial rotation rate of 5 RPM. It is most likely
to be?

Airfield surface movement radar.

Precision approach radar.

Enroute surveillance radar.

Terminal surveillance radar.

Q.99) Determine the nautical miles covered by an aircraft with a ground speed of 241kts in 05mins?

18nm
15nm

22nm

20nm

Q.100) On a chart, the distance along a meridian between latitudes 45°N and 46°N is 6 cm. The scale of the chart is
approximately?

1 : 1 850 000

1 : 2 000 000

1 : 1 500 000

1 : 1 650 000