21-03-2025

1016CMD303032240048 MD

BIOLOGY

1) Statement-I :- Photosynthesis is a physico-chemical process.

Statement-II :- Ultimately all living forms on earth depend on sunlight for energy.

(1) Only Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I & II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I & II are incorrect.

2) __A__ in 1770 performed a series of experiments that revealed the essential role of air in the
growth of green plants.
Identify the A.

(1) Jan Ingenhousz

(2) T.W. Engelmann
(3) Julius Von sachs
(4) Joseph Priestley

3) Identify the correct statements :

A. T.W. Engelmann used prism and green algae, Cladophora placed in a suspension of aerobic
bacteria.
B. All living forms on earth not depend on sun light for energy.
C. Variegated leaf experiment proves that green parts of plant and sunlight is essential for
photosynthesis.
D. Julius von Sachs provided evidence for production of glucose when plants grow. Glucose is
usually stored as starch.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) A and D only

(2) A, C and D only
(3) B and C only
(4) A, B and C only

4) Where exactly enzymes of dark reaction are present within chloroplast ?

(1) Thylakoid membrane

(2) Grana
(3) Stromal lamella
(4) Stroma of chloroplast

5) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :- O2 evolved by the green plant comes from H2O not from CO2.
Reason (R) :- In green plants H2O is the hydrogen donor.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Identify the below graph :

(1) Action spectrum of photosynthesis

(2) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a
(3) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll b
(4) Action spectrum of photosynthesis superimposed on absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a

7) Assertion :- There is no complete one to one overlapping between absorption spectrum of

chlorophyll 'a' and the action spectrum of photosynthesis.
Reason :- Accessory pigments absorb wider range of wavelength and transfer energy to chlorophyll
'a'.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.

8) Match the list-I with list-II.

List-I List-II

(a) Light reaction (i) Yellow green

(b) Chlorophyll b (ii) ATP + NADPH

Accessory Blue and Red

(c) (iii)
Pigments region of spectrum

Maximum Chl b, xanthophyll

(d) (iv)
photosynthesis and carotene

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
(3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
(4) (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

9) Select the correct statements :

(a) Pigments are substances that have an ability to absorb light at specific wavelength.
(b) Dark reaction occur in darkness only.
(c) We can separate the leaf pigments of any green plant through paper chromatography.
(d) Accessory pigments enable a wider range of wavelength of incoming light to be utilized for
photosynthesis.

(1) a, b and c
(2) a, c and d
(3) a and d only
(4) c and d only

10) Match List I with List II and select the correct option.

List- I List- II

NADP reductase
A. (i) Transmembrane channel
enzyme

B. CF0 (ii) Inner side of the membrane

C. CF1 (iii) Stroma side of membrane

Splitting of the water Protrudes on the outer surface of the

D. (iv)
molecule thylakoid membrane
(1) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i
(2) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
(3) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
(4) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i

11) Match the column I with column II

Column I Column II

i 3-phosphoglyceric acid a First stable product in C3 cycle

ii Oxalo-acetic acid b First stable product in C4 cycle

iii RuBP c Primary CO2 acceptor in C3 cycle

iv Phosphoenol pyruvate d Primary CO2 acceptor in C4 cycle

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

12) Which of the following characteristic is not shown by C4 plants ?

(1) Kranz anatomy
(2) Can tolerate higher temperature
(3) Response to high light intensities
(4) Photorespiration.

13) Which of the following condition is favourable for photorespiration ?

(1) High light intensity

(2) Low O2
(3) High CO2
(4) Low temperature

14) Given below are two statements :-

Statements–I :- For every CO2 molecule entering the Calvin cycle, 3 molecules of ATP and 2
of NADPH are required.
Statements–II :- In C4 plants photorespiration does not occur. This is because they have a
mechanism that increases the concentration of CO2 at the enzyme (RuBisCO) site.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer form the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

15) Major limiting factor for photosynthesis in terrestrial environment ?

(1) O2 concentration
(2) CO2 concentration
(3) H2O
(4) Temperature

16) The plant or internal factors of photosynthesis depends on -

(1) Growth of plants

(2) Genetic predisposition
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of these

17) Recognise the figure & find out the correct match :-
 Column-I Column-II

(i) B-represents (a) Light is no longer limiting

Some factor other than

(ii) C-represents (b) light intensity is becoming the
limiting factor

(iii) D-represents (c) Maximum rate of photosynthesis

(iv) E-represents (d) Light saturation point

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
(3) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c

18) Which one of the following statement is incorrect about cellular respiration in plants ?

Breaking of complex compound through oxidation with in cell, lead to release of considerable
(1)
amount of energy
(2) During respiration trapped energy is used for synthesis of ATP
(3) During respiration all energy contained in compounds is released in a single step.
(4) During respiration energy is released in a series of slow step wise reactions.

19) Which of the following is not a reason why plant can get along without respiratory organs ?

(1) Each plant part takes care of its own gas-exchange needs.
(2) Plants do not present great demands for gas exchange.
(3) Distance that gases must diffuse even in large, bulky plants is not great.
(4) Lenticels are present at each part of the plant.

20) The process that leads to a complete oxidation of organic substances in the presence of oxygen
is :-

(1) Aerobic respiration

(2) Anaerobic respiration
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Fermentation

21) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

Final product of In cytoplasm and

(a) (i)
glycolysis mitochondria

(b) Aerobic respiration (ii) In Yeast cell

(c) Anaeobic respiration (iii) Pyruvate

(1) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i)
(2) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii)
(3) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i)

22) The process of respiration common to both facultative anaerobe as well as obligate anaerobe is :-

(1) Glycolysis
(2) Link reaction
(3) Kreb's cycle
(4) Electron transport system

23) What will be net gain of ATP through substrate level phosphorylation during Glycolysis.

(1) 4 ATP
(2) 2 ATP
(3) 8 ATP
(4) 6 ATP

24) In glycolysis .....A..... undergoes ......B..... oxidation to form two molecules of .....C.......
Find out A, B and C :-

A B C

(1) Glucose Complete Pyruvic acid

(2) Glucose Partial PEP

(3) Starch Partial Pyruvic acid

(4) Glucose Partial Pyruvic acid

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Study the flow chart and identify A

(1) Galactose
(2) Sucrose
(3) Maltose
(4) Lactose

26) Site of link reaction is –

(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Matrix of mitochondria
(3) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(4) Lumen of thylakoid

27) How many of ATP produced through one turn of Kreb's cycle during oxidation of glucose ?

(1) 30 ATP
(2) 24 ATP
(3) 12 ATP
(4) 38 ATP

28) Electron transport system and ATP synthase are present in which of the following part of
mitochondria ?

(1) Outer membrane

(2) Inner membrane
(3) Matrix
(4) Peri mitochondrial space

29) The movement of electrons from NADH + H+ occurs via complex :-

(a) Complex II - Succinate dehydrogenase
(b) Complex I - NADH dehydrogenase
(c) Complex III - Cytochrome bc1
(d) Complex IV - Cytochrome C oxidase

(1) a → c → d
(2) b → c → d
(3) a → b → c → d
(4) a → d → c

30) At how many steps CO2 is/are released in aerobic respiration ?

(1) One or two

(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Twelve

31) How many ATP are produced through ETS during oxidation of one molecule of glucose ?

(1) 8
(2) 24
(3) 6
(4) 34
32) Find A & B in the pathway given below :-

(1) A - Pyruvic acid, B - O2

(2) A - Acetyl CoA, B - O2
(3) A - Acetyl CoA, B - CO2
(4) A - Glycerol, B - O2

33) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) R.Q for carbohydrates is one

(2) R.Q for fat is less than one
(3) R.Q for organic acids is more than one
(4) R.Q for protein is more than one

34) How many ATP are produced as net gain during anaerobic respiration when pyruvate is
converted into lactic acid ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Zero

35) Select the correct statement/s :-

(a) Growth can be defined as an irreverssible permanent increase in size of an organ or its parts.
(b) Growth is accompanied by metabolic process.
(c) The swelling of piece of wood when placed in water involves imbibition.

(1) Only a and b

(2) Only b and c
(3) Only a and c
(4) a, b & c

36) Which statements is/are correct in given below ?

(I) Plant retain the capacity for unlimited growth throughout their life
(II) Vascular cambium and cork cambium appear later in life in all plants.
(III) Vascular cambium and cork cambium are permanent tissues.
(IV) Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are not capable of dividing.

(1) Only I
(2) II and III
(3) II, III, IV
(4) I and II
37) Cells in watermelon may increase in size by upto how many times?

(1) 17,500 times

(2) 3,50,000 times
(3) 2,10,000 times
(4) 200 times

38) Root elongation at constant rate examplify :

(1) Arithmetic growth

(2) Geometrical growth
(3) Sigmoid growth
(4) Both (2) and (3)

39) Which of the following is an intrinsic factor that affects plant growth ?

(1) Light
(2) Plant growth regulators
(3) Water
(4) Temperature

40) Which statement/statements are correct for plant growth ?

(A) At cellular level growth is increase in amount of the protoplasm.
(B) Cells in watermelon may increase in size by upto 17500 times.
(C) In a dorsiventral leaf, growth is measured by increase in surface area.
Select the correct option :-

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) A & C
(4) A, B & C

41) Decapitation is generally done in tea plantations, and hedge making, what could be the possible
reason for this ?

(1) Auxin is generally produced by growing apices which leads to apical dominance.
(2) More lateral branches required in tea plantations and hedge making.
(3) Decapitation helps the plants in growing taller.
(4) Both 1 and 2

42) Spraying juvenile conifers with GAS hasten the maturity period thus leading to early production
of which part of the plant ?

(1) Fruit
(2) Root
(3) Seed
(4) Stem

43) ABA plays a major role in :-

(1) seed development

(2) seed maturation
(3) seed dormancy
(4) All of the above

44) Photochemical phase of photosynthesis includes :

(1) light absorption

(2) water splitting
(3) oxygen release
(4) All of the above

45) Statement – I : The bakanae disease of rice seedlings, was caused by a fungal pathogen
Gibberella Fujikurai.
Statement – II : The appearance of symptoms of the bakane disease is due to active substance
cytokinin.

(1) Statement I and II are correct

(2) Statement I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
(4) Statement II is correct and I is incorrect

46) Statement-I : The afferent nerve fibres transmit impulses from organs to the CNS.
Statement-II : Visceral nervous system is the part of the peripheral nervous system.

(1) Both statements are incorrect.

(2) Both statements are correct
(3) Only statement-I is incorrect
(4) Only statement-II is incorrect

47) Statement-I : Neurons can detect, receive and transmit different kind of stimuli.
Statement-II : In Hydra the neural system is very simple and composed of brain and ganglia.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement-I is correct
(4) Only statement-II is correct

48) Read the following statement :

(a) Axonal membrane is comparatively less permeable to K+ ions in resting stage.
(b) Axonal membrane is highly permeable for Na+ ions in resting stage.
(c) Ionic gradients across the resting membrane are maintained by the sodium-potassium pump.
(d) Neurons are excitable cells because their membranes are in a polarised state.
Choose the correct option -

(1) a and b
(2) c and d
(3) b and c
(4) a and d

49) Corpora quadrigemina are part of :-

(1) Hind brain

(2) Fore brain
(3) Mid brain
(4) Spinal cord

50) Nerve impulses are initiated in neurons when its membrane become permeable to :-

(1) K+ ion
(2) Ca2+ ion
(3) Na+ ion
(4) Cl– ion

51) Brain stem is made up of –

(1) Mid brain + pons + medulla oblongata

(2) Mid brain + Fore brain
(3) Fore brain + Pons
(4) Hind brain only

52) Sodium-potassium pump transport.

(1) 3Na+ out and 2K+ in

(2) 2Na+ out and 3K+ in
(3) 3Na+ in and 2K+ out
(4) 2Na+ in and 3K+ out

53) Which part of the CNS is responsible for regulating basic vital life functions such as breathing
and heart beat ?

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Cerebrum
(4) Thalamus

54) "Amygdala" is a deeply associated structure present in ?

(1) Cerebellar hemisphere

(2) Cerebral hemisphere
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Medulla oblongata

55) Unmyelinated nerve fibre is :

(1) Not enclosed by a Schwann cell hence no myelin sheath

(2) Enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin sheath
(3) Not enclosed by a Schwann cell but enclosed by a myelin sheath formed by Oligodendrocyes.
(4) Only found in the central neural system.

56) Memory & communications is the function of :-

(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Association area
(3) Thalamus
(4) Amygdala

57) Which one is not related with 'a' ?

(1) Regulation of sexual behaviour

(2) Neurosecretory cells
(3) Intersensory associations and balance
(4) Regulation of body temperature

58) Cerebral cortex are greyish in appearance. It is mainly due to :

(1) Bundle of Axon

(2) Corpus callosum
(3) Concentration of neuron cell bodies
(4) Presence of myelin sheath

59) How many of the following function are related with limbic system ?
(a) Motivation
(b) Rage
(c) Pleasure
(d) Excitement

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

60)

Glucocorticoids stimulates :-
(A) Gluconeogenesis (B) Lipolysis

(C) Proteolysis
(1) Only A and B
(2) Only A
(3) Only B
(4) All A, B and C

61) Hormone responsible for development of alveolar parts of mammary gland :

(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) Prolactin
(4) Oxytocin

62) Which one of the following hormones in general is not involved in sugar metabolism ?

(1) Glucagon
(2) Cortisol
(3) Aldosterone
(4) Insulin

63) Which one of the following pair of hormones, are those that can easily pass through the cell
membrane of the target cell ?

(1) Insulin, glucagon

(2) Thyroxine, insulin
(3) Somatostatin, oxytocin
(4) Cortisol & Testosterone

64) Identify A, B and C from table :-

Thymus
Thymosin (A)
gland

Secretion inhibited
(B) Pancreas
by somatostatin

Suppress immunity
Cortisol (C) during organ
transplantation
 C B A

Adrenal Antibody formation

(1) Thyroxin
cortex by T-lymphocyte

Ca+2 level maintain

(2) Testis Somatostatin
in blood

Adrenal Maturation of B
(3) Glucagon
medulla lymphocyte

Adrenal Maturation of
(4) Insulin
cortex T-lymphocyte
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) The hormone responsible for regulation of calcium and phosphorous metabolism is secreted by
:–

(1) Pancreas
(2) Pineal
(3) Thymus
(4) Parathyroid

66) Which hormone is not produced in Intestine

(1) CCK
(2) Gastrin
(3) GIP
(4) Secretin

67) Assertion : F.S.H and L.H are released from anterior pituitary due to secretions from
hypothalamus.
Reason : GnRH is released from hypothalamus and works on anterior pituitary.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

68) Which one is not a secondary messenger ?

(1) cAMP
(2) IP3
(3) Ca+2
(4) K+
69) Statement-I :- Aldosterone helps in the maintenance of blood pressure
Statement-II :- Aldosterone acts mainly at renal tubule and stimulate reabsorption of K+ and water.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

70) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(a) Aldosterone (i) RBC production

(b) Androgenic steroid (ii) Osmotic pressure

(c) Cortisol (iii) Pupillary dilation

(d) Catecholamines (iv) Growth of pubic hair

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :-
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

71) Acromegaly is a disease caused by :

(1) Over secretion of growth hormone in childhood

(2) Over secretion of growth hormone in adulthood
(3) Under secretion of growth hormone in adulthood
(4) Deficiency of calcium and phosphorous in the diet.

72) Which one of the following hormones though synthesised elsewhere, is stored and released by
the pituitary gland ?

(1) Melanocyte stimulating hormone

(2) Antidiuretic hormone
(3) Luteinizing hormone
(4) Prolactin

73) Parathormone (parathyroid hormone) act on bone and stimulate which of the following action ?

(1) Carbohydrate metabolism

(2) Bone resorption
(3) Bone formation
(4) Fat metabolism

74) During muscles contraction ATP bind with :-

(1) Actin
(2) Troponin
(3) Myosin
(4) Tropomyosin

75) Cardiac muscles are :-

(1) Involuntary, Unbranched, Striated

(2) Voluntary, Unbranched, Nonstriated
(3) Involuntary, Branched, Striated
(4) Voluntary, Branched, Nonstriated

76) Match List-I with List-II :-

List-I List-II

(A) Cranium (I) Gliding joint

Between adjacent
(B) (II) Pivot joint
vertebrae

(C) Between carpals (III) Fibrous joint

(D) Between atlas and axis (IV) Cartilagenous joint

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

77) Which of following is a wrong statement, regarding muscle contraction ?

(1) I-band gets reduced

(2) A-band retain the same length
(3) H-zone remains unchanged
(4) Sarcomere shortens

78) Incorrect about skeleton muscles is :-

(1) They are syncytium.

(2) They have light and dark bands.
(3) Based on appearance skeleton muscles are unstriated
(4) They are voluntary in nature

79) Which joint is similar to elbow joint ?

(1) Joint between humerus and scapula

(2) Joint between atlas and axis
(3) Joint between Femur, Tibia and patella
(4) Joint between Radius and Ulna

80) Joint between carpal and metacarpals of thumb :

(1) Saddle
(2) Hinge
(3) Pivot
(4) Ball and socket

81) Pelvic girdle consists of :-

(1) 1 coxal bone

(2) 2 coxal bone
(3) 3 coxal bone
(4) 6 coxal bone

82) Acromion process present on ?

(1) Scapula
(2) Clavicle
(3) Humerus
(4) Femur

83) The example of fibrous joint is ?

(1) Vertebral column

(2) Cranium
(3) Knee
(4) Elbow

84) Which of the following is incorrect match.

(1) Ear ossicles- Malleus, Incus and stapes

(2) Floating ribs-8th, 9th and 10th
(3) Pectoral girdle- Scapula and clavicle
(4) Pelvic girdle- Ilium, ischium and pubis

85) Which statement is not correct about osteoporosis ?

(1) In this, bone mass is decreased

(2) It is an age related disorder
(3) Increased levels of estrogen is a common cause of it.
(4) In this, chances of fractures are increased.

86) In voluntary muscle "Fascia" term is used for

(1) A collagenous connective tissue by which muscle bundles are held together
(2) A elastic protein which present between I-Bands
(3) A calcium rich structure in sarcoplasm
(4) Central gap between thick filaments.

87) Which structure of muscle is an active ATPase enzyme.

(1) Globular head of meromyosin

(2) Globular head of actin
(3) 'F' - actin helically wound to each other
(4) Complex troponin protein

88) Character of white muscle fibres is -

(1) anaerobic process for energy

(2) amount of Sarcoplamic reticulum is high
(3) Few mitochondria
(4) All of these

89) What is the main reason for tetany?

(1) High level of Ca++ ion in bones.

(2) Low level of Ca++ ion in bones.
(3) High level of Ca++ ion body fluids.
(4) Low level of Ca++ ion in body fluids.

90) Which of the following is a genetic disorder?

(1) Myasthenia gravis

(2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Tetany
(4) Gout

PHYSICS

1) Oxygen and hydrogen both are at same temperature T. The ratio of mean kinetic energy of oxygen
molecules to that of the hydrogen molecules will be :

(1) 16 : 1
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

2) When a system is taken from state 'i' to state 'f' along path 'iaf', it is found that Q = 50 cal and W
= 20 cal. Along the path 'ibf' Q = 36 cal, then 'W' along this path (Q is heat supplied to gas and W is
work done by gas) :-

(1) 6 cal
(2) 16 cal
(3) 66 cal
(4) 14 cal

3) A carnot engine operates with source at 127 °C and sink at 27 °C. If source supplies 40 kJ of heat
energy, the work done by engine is :-

(1) 30 kJ
(2) 10 kJ
(3) 4 kJ
(4) 1 kJ

4) Cyclic process ABCA is shown in V–T diagram corresponding process on the P–V diagram is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A gas is contained in a container at pressure 10 kPa. When gas is expanded isothermally from
volume 9m3 to 27m3 work done will be.

(1) 27 × 103 (ℓn 3)

(2) 9 × 104 (ℓn 3)

(3)

27 × 103
(4)

6) Two spheres are made of same metal and have same mass. One is solid and other is hollow. When
heated to the same temperature, which of the following statements is correct about the percentage
increase in their diameter?

(1) It will be more for hollow sphere

(2) It will be more for solid sphere
(3) It will be same for both spheres
It may be more or less for any sphere depending upon the ratio of the diameters of the two
(4)
spheres

7) A bimetallic strip consists of metals x and y. It is mounted rigidly at the base as shown in figure.
The metal x has a higher coefficient of expansion as compared to that for metal y. When the

bimetallic strip is placed in cold bath?

(1) It will bend toward the right

(2) It will bend toward the left
(3) It will not bend but shrink
(4) It will neither bend nor shrink

8) The following figure represents the temperature versus time plot for a given amount of a
substance when heat energy is supplied to it at a fixed rate and at a constant pressure. Which part of

the below plot represents a phase change?

(1) a to b and e to f
(2) b to c and c to d
(3) d to e and e to f
(4) b to c and d to e

9) A body cools from 60°C to 50°C in 10 minutes. If the room temperature is 25°C and assuming
Newton's Law of cooling to hold good, the temperature of the body at the end of the next 10 minutes
will be :

(1) 38.5°C
(2) 40°C
(3) 42.85°C
(4) 45°C

10) Gravitation is necessary for -

(1) For conduction

(2) For natural convection
(3) For radiation
(4) None of the above

11) Total radiation energy incident on body is 400 Joule. If 30% of incident radiation reflected back
and 120 J is absorbed by body. Then find out transmittive power in percentage.

(1) 60%
(2) 40%
(3) 50%
(4) None

12)

For a black body λmax is 300 Å at 727°C. Find λmax for same black body at 1227°C.

(1) 500 Å
(2) 1000 Å
(3) 1500 Å
(4) 200 Å

13) A black body at a temperature of 227°C radiates heat at the rate 7 cal/cm2sec. At temperature of
727°C, the rate of heat radiated in the same units will be :-

(1) 50
(2) 112
(3) 80
(4) 60

14) Under steady state the temperature of a body :

(1) Increases with time

(2) Decreases with time
(3) Doesn't change with time and is same at all points of the body
(4) Doesn't change with time but is different at different cross - sections of the body.

15) Three rods made of the same material and having the same cross - section have been joined as
shown in figure. Each rod is of the same length. The left and right ends are kept at 0°C and 90°C
respectively. The temperature of the junction of the three rods will be :

(1) 45°C
(2) 60°C
(3) 30°C
(4) 20°C

16) A mass m executes simple harmonic motion with frequency n when suspended from a weightless
spring. The spring is cut into two equal parts and an another mass 2m is suspended from one of the
part. The frequency of oscillation of this mass 2 m is :-

(1) n
(2) 2n

(3)

(4) n(2)2

17) Infinite springs with force constant k, 2k, 4k, 8k ..... respectively are connected in series
combination. The effective force constant will be :-

(1) 2k
(2) k
(3) k/2
(4) 4k

18) Two simple harmonic motions represented by y1 = 4sin and y2 = 3cos(4πt) superimpose
over each other then the resultant amplitude is (all quantities are in SI units) :-

(1) 7 m
(2) 1 m
(3)
(4)

19) The angle made by the string of a simple pendulum with vertical depends upon time as θ
= sinπt. Find the length (in metre) of the pendulum. (If g = π2m/s2).
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) For S.H.M. of a particle, amplitude is 6cm. At a certain instant its potential energy is half of the
total energy then the distance of particle at this instant from its mean position is :-

(1) 3 cm
(2) 4.2 cm
(3) 5.8 cm
(4) 6 cm

21) A simple pendulum whose time period is 2 sec at the surface of earth is now suspended in a
satellite orbiting around the earth at a height 3R, where R is the radius of earth. The time period of
this pendulum is :-

(1) zero
(2)
(3) 4 sec
(4) infinite

22) The time period of a simple pendulum is 2 sec. If its length becomes 16 times, then its time
period becomes :-

(1) 16 sec
(2) 12 sec
(3) 8 sec
(4) 4 sec

23) The kinetic energy of a particle executing S.H.M is 16 J, when it is in its mean position. If the
amplitude of oscillation is 25 cm and the mass of the particle is 5.12 kg, the time period of its
oscillation is :-

(1)
sec
(2) 2π sec.
(3) 20π sec
(4) 5π sec

24) The particle is executing SHM on a line 4 cm long. If its velocity at mean position is 12cm/s, its
frequency (in hertz) will be -

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

25) Which of the following relationship between acceleration 'a' and displacement 'x' of a particle
represent the simple harmonic motion :-

(1) a = 2x
(2) a = –25x
(3) a = 4x2
(4) a = –100x2

26) The displacement of a particle performing linear simple harmonic motion of amplitude A in one
time period is :-

(1) A
(2) 2A
(3) zero
(4) 3A

27) For S.H.M match the following

Column-I Column-II

A Displacement and velocity P Phase difference is zero

B Displacement and acceleration Q Phase difference is π/2

C Velocity and acceleration R Phase difference is π

(1) A → P, B → Q, C → R
(2) A → Q, B → R, C → Q
(3) A → Q, B → P, C → R
(4) A → R, B → P, C → R

28) Assertion :- If a pendulum is suspended in a lift and lift accelerates upwards, then its time
period will decrease as compared to that when it is in stationary lift. Reason :- Effective value of
acceleration due to gravity will be geff = g + a in this case

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

29) The equation of a stationary wave is y = 0.8 cos sin200πt, where x and y are in cm and t is
in second. The separation between consecutive nodes will be :-

(1) 20 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4) 30 cm

30) The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe is 220 Hz. If of the pipe is filled with water,
the frequency of the first overtone of the pipe now is :-

(1) 220 Hz
(2) 440 Hz
(3) 880 Hz
(4) 1760 Hz

31) Two waves propagating in same medium are represented by y-t curves in the figure. The ratio of

their average intensities is :-

(1) 4
(2) 1/4
(3) 9
(4) 1

32) When the string of a sonometer of length L between the bridges vibrates in the second overtone,
the amplitude of vibration is maximum at :-

(1)

(2)
and

(3)

(4)
and

33) The correct graph between the frequency (n) of wave in a stretched wire and square root of
density (ρ) of a wire, keeping its length, radius and tension constant, is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) What is the phase difference, at a given instant of time, between two particles 25m apart, when
the wave y = 0.03 sin π(2t – 0.01 x) travels in a medium (x, y is in m and t in second) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) π

35) A string of linear mass density 4g/cm is vibrating according to equation y = A sin (120πt) cos

, where x and y are in cm. The tension in the string is :-

(1) 3.6 N
(2) 36 N
(3) 7.2 N
(4) 72 N

36) A tuning fork T1 produces 4 beats with tuning fork T2 of frequency 256 Hz. When T1 is filed, beats
are found to occur at shorter intervals. What was the original frequency of tuning fork T1 ?

(1) 260 Hz
(2) 252 Hz
(3) 254 Hz
(4) 258 Hz

37) An astronaut cannot hear his companion at the surface of the moon because :-

(1) Produced frequencies are above the audible frequencies

(2) There is no medium for sound propagation
(3) Temperature is too low during night and high during day
(4) There are too many craters on the surface of the moon

38) Which of the following properties of a wave does not change with change in medium ?

(1) Frequency
(2) Wavelength
(3) Velocity
(4) Amplitude

39) Two waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass through a region at the same time in the same direction
superimpose on each other, the sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is :-

(1)

(2) 2(I1 + I2)

(3) I1 + I2

(4)

40) A wave is represented by the relation y = a0 sin2π (nt – x/λ) if the maximum particle velocity is
three times the wave velocity, the wavelength λ of the wave is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) πa0

(4)

41) The equation of a travelling wave is

y = 60 cos(1800t – 6x)
where x and y is in metre and t is in sec. The ratio of maximum particle velocity to velocity of wave
propagation is :-

(1) 3.6
(2) 36
(3) 360
(4) 0.36

42) 25 tuning forks are arranged in series in the order of decreasing frequency. Any two successive
forks produce 3 beats/sec. If the frequency of the first tuning fork is the octave of the last fork, then
the frequency of the 21st fork is :-

(1) 72 Hz
(2) 78 Hz
(3) 84 Hz
(4) 87 Hz

43) An open organ pipe 40 cm long and a closed organ pipe 31 cm long, both having same diameter,
are producing their first overtone, and these are in unison. The end correction of closed organ pipe
is :-

(1) 1 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 1.5 cm
(4) 3 cm

44) Which of the following changes with time when damping is considered for a S.H.M. : -
(A) Time period (B) Angular frequency
(C) Amplitude (D) Energy

(1) A & B
(2) C & D
(3) B & C
(4) A, B, C & D

45) If in a resonance tube a oil of density higher than that of water is used then the resonance
frequency would be :-

(1) Increased
(2) Decreased
(3) Slightly increased
(4) Remain the same

CHEMISTRY

1) Number of π bonds in ethylene chloride.

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

2) The number of ether isomers represented by formula C4H10O is (only structural) :

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 7

3) Which of the following pair are isomers ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The IUPAC name of the compound is.

(1) 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
(2) 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
(3) 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
(4) 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal

5) Which of the following IUPAC name is correct:

(1) CCl4 carbon terachloride

(2) CH2Cl2 methylene chloride

(3)
chlorophenylmethane
(4) CH2 = CH – CH2 – Br Allyl bromide

6) Which of the following molecule can show geometrical isomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

7) Assertion : Staggered conformation of ethane is most stable while eclipsed conformation is least
stable.
Reason : Staggered form has the least torsional strain and the eclipsed form has the maximum
torsional strain

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason is a correct explanation for assertion
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reasion is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

8) Which of the following compound will have most stable enol ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) In which of the following compound tautomerism takes place :

(1) Both (I) and (II)

(2) Both (II) and (III)
(3) (III) Only
(4) Both (I) and (III)

10) Arrange the following acids in decreasing order of acidic strength:-

(1) x > z > y

(2) x > y > z
(3) z > x > y
(4) z > y > x

11) Correct order of –I effect is :-

(1) –CN > –COOH > –NO2

(2) –COOH > –CN > –NO2
(3) –NO2 > –COOH > –CN
(4) –NO2 > –CN > –COOH

12) Most stable carbocation is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Consider the following compounds / species.

The number of compounds which obey Huckel's rule is :-

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 3

14) Which of following orders is correct for heat of

hydrogenation of these compounds ?

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > III > I
(4) III > I > II
15)

A, B, C, D are resonating structures of formic acid. Structure of B is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) The compound that is easiest to protonate is ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Correct decreasing order of basic strength :-

(A) (C2H5)2NH (B) C2H5NH2

(C) (C2H5)3N (D)

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) D > A > C > B
(3) D > C > B > A
(4) A > C > B > D

18) Given below are two statements

Statement-I : The energy of actual structure of the molecule (the resonance hybrid) is lower than
that of any of the canonical structure.
Statement-II : The difference in energy between the actual structure and the highest energy
resonance structure is called the resonance stabilisation energy.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I correct and statement-II is incorrect.

19) Match List - I with List - II.

List-I List-II
(Compounds) (pKa-Value)

(a) o-Cresol (i) 10

(b) m-Cresol (ii) 15.9

(c) Ethanol (iii) 10.1

(d) Phenol (iv) 10.2

(1) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d(i)
(2) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d(i)
(3) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d(i)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d(iii)

20) A liquid compound (x) can be purified by steam distillation only if it is

(1) Steam volatile, immiscible with water

(2) Not steam volatile, miscible with water
(3) Steam volatile, miscible with water
(4) Not steam volatile, immiscible with water

21) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

Separation of
(a) aniline-water (i) Fractional distillation
mixture

Separation of
Distillation under
(b) aniline-chloroform (ii)
reduced pressure
mixture

Separation of
(c) Glycerol from (iii) Simple distillation
spent-lye

Separation of
(d) different fractions (iv) Steam distillation
of crude oil
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

22) 0.1 gm of organic compound was analysed by Kjeldahl's method. In analysis produced NH3

absorbed in 30 ml H2SO4. The remaining acid required 20 ml N/10 NaOH for neutralisation.
Calculate percentage of nitrogen in organic compound :-

(1) 28 %
(2) 56 %
(3) 35 %
(4) 70 %

23)

How many compound can be obtained in good yield by wurtz reaction.

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

24) Match column I with column II

Column-I (Reaction) Column-II (Product)

I. P. 2CH3OH
CH4 + O2

II. (CH3)3CH Q. 2CH3COOH + 2H2O

III. 2CH4 + O2 R. HCHO + H2O

IV. S. (CH3)3C–OH
2CH3CH3 + 3O2
(1) I–R, II–P, III–Q, IV–S
(2) I–P, II–S, III–R, IV–Q
(3) I–R, II–S, III–P, IV–Q
(4) I–R, II–P, III–S, IV–Q

25) Match the reactions in column-I with their types in column-II

 Column-I (Reaction) Column-II (Types)

Electrophilic
(a) (p) addition
reaction

Free radical addition

(b) (q)
reaction

Elimination
(c) (r)
reaction

Electrophilic
(d) (s) substitution
reaction

(1) a-r, b-q, c-s, d-p

(2) a-q, b-s, c-r, d-p
(3) a-p, b-r, c-s, d-q
(4) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r

26) Which of the following alcohol on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 at 440 K will give isobutylene.
(I) Isobutyl alcohol
(II) Tert. butyl alcohol
(III) n-butyl alcohol
(IV) Isopropyl alcohol

(1) I, III
(2) II, III
(3) III, IV
(4) I, II

27) Statement-I: The presence of weaker π bonds make alkenes less stable than alkanes.
Statement-II: The strength of the double bond is greater than that of carbon-carbon single bond.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

28) Rank the following compounds in decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic aromatic

substitution reaction (ESR).

(1) (c) > (a) > (b) > (d)

(2) (c) > (a) > (d) > (b)
(3) (d) > (c) > (b) > (a)
(4) (a) > (c) > (d) > (b)

29) Primary alcohol can be formed as major product by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

30)
Identify C ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) (Major product) :-

Major product will be :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) The most suitable reagent for the following conversion is :-

(1) Na/liquid NH3

(2) H2, Pd/C, Quinoline
(3) Zn/HCl
+2 +
(4) Hg /H , H2O

33) Monobromo derivatives.

The number of possible monobromo product is (excluding stereoisomers)

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 10

34) Which of the following alkyl bromides will eliminate HBr at fastest rate in elimination reaction.

(1) Ethyl bromide

(2) Propyl bromide
(3) Isopropyl bromide
(4) t-Butyl bromide

35) Which of the following is correct representation of delocalisation of electrons during resonance :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Which of the following alcohol is benzylic as well as secondary :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) , A and B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38)
What are product in above reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Which of the compound will not undergo Friedel craft's reaction -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40)
Product B is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

41) Which of the following compound will not give a precipitate with Tollen's, reagent :-

(1) Ethyne
(2) 1-Butyne
(3) 2-Pentyne
(4) 1-Pentyne

42) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I :- The boiling point of three isomeric pentanes follows the order
n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane
Statement-II :- When branching increases, the molecule attains a shape of sphere. This results in
smaller surface area for contact, due to which the intermolecular forces between the spherical
molecules are weak, thereby lowering the boiling point.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

43) 'A' (major product).

Number of σ bonds in 'A' is :-

(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 18
(4) 24

44) How many of following are ortho-para directing groups in electrophilic substitution reaction

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 3

45) The major product formed on monobromination of phenylbenzoate is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

BIOLOGY

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 2 4 1 1 1 3 2 2 1 4 1 4 2 3 3 3 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 2 4 2 2 3 2 2 2 4 3 4 4 4 1 2 1 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 3 4 4 3 2 3 2 3 3 1 1 2 2 2 2 3 3 2 4
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 2 3 4 4 4 2 1 4 2 1 2 2 2 3 3 2 3 3 3 1
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 2 2 3 1 1 4 4 2

PHYSICS

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 2 3 2 3 2 4 3 2 2 4 2 4 2 1 3 1 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 1 4 2 3 2 1 1 3 4 3 1 2 1 1 2 1 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 3 2 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 1 2 4 4 3 3 1 1 3 1 4 2 2 3 2 3 4 4 1 1
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 2 2 3 1 4 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 4 4 3 2 2 3 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 3 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

BIOLOGY

1) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 133

2) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 134

3)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 134, 135

4) NCERT Pg. No. # 136

5) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 135

6) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 137, Fig. 11.3(b)

7) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 137, 138

8)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 136, 137, 138

9) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 137, 138

10) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 140, 141

11) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 143, 144, 145, 146

12) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 145, 147

13) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 147, 148

14)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 145, 147

15) NCERT, Pg # 150

16) NCERT Pg. No. # 149

17) NCERT Pg. # 149

18) NCERT Pg # 154

19) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 154, 155

20) NCERT Pg. # 155

21) NCERT Pg. # 155,156,157,158

22) NCERT Pg. # 155

23) NCERT, Pg. # 156

24) NCERT Pg. # 156

25) NCERT Pg. # 156

26) NCERT, Pg. # 158

27) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 159

28) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 159, 160

29) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 160

30)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 158, 159

31) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 158, 159, 160

32) NCERT, Pg. # 159

33) NCERT Pg # 163-164

34) NCERT Pg. # 157

35) NCERT, Pg. # 167

36)

NCERT, Pg. # 168

37) NCERT Pg # 168

38)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 170

39) NCERT Pg. # 174

40) NCERT Pg. # 168

41) NCERT Pg. # 175

42) NCERT Pg. # 176

43) NCERT, Pg. # 178

44) NCERT Pg. No. # 138

45) NCERT, Pg. # 175

46) NCERT Pg. No. # 231

47) NCERT Pg. No. # 231

48) NCERT Pg. No. # 232

49) NCERT Pg. No. # 236

50) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 317, Para (21.3.1)

51) NCERT, Pg. # 321

53) NCERT Pg. # 236

54) NCERT Pg. # 321

55)

NCERT-XI Pg.#317

56) NCERT Pg. # 321

57) NCERT Pg. # 320

58) NCERT_Page No.321

60) NCERT Pg. # 335, 22.2.7

61) NCERT XI Page No. 337

62)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 337

63) NCERT - XI, Pg # 338

64) NCERT XI pg.# 334, 336

65) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 334

66) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 338

67) NCERT XI Page No. # 332

68) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 248

69) NCERT Pg. # 244

70) NCERT Pg. # 244, 245

71)

NCERT XI Pg. # 241

72)

SOLUTION/EXPLANATION/CALCULATION:
The hormone that is synthesized elsewhere but stored and released by the master gland
(pituitary gland) is Antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
ADH is synthesized in the hypothalamus but stored in the posterior pituitary gland. It is
released when the body needs to conserve water, such as during dehydration or low blood
pressure.

73) NCERT Pg.# 335

75) NCERT Pg. # 219

76) NCERT Pg. # 227

77) NCERT XIth Pg # 307

78) NCERT-XI Pg. # 304

79)

NCERT-XI Pg#227

80) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 312, Para (20.4)

81) NCERT Pg. # 311

82)

NCERT Pg. # 311

83) NCERT Pg. # 312

84) NCERT Pg. # 309-311

85)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 312

86) NCERT Pg. No. # 219

87) NCERT Pg. No. # 221

 88) NCERT Pg. No. # 229

89) NCERT Pg. No. # 227

90) NCERT Pg. No. # 227

PHYSICS

91)

92)

From FLOT
Q = ΔU + W

For path 'iaf'

50 = ΔU + 20
ΔU = 30 Cal

For path 'ibf'

ΔU = 30 Cal.
Q = ΔU + W
W = 36 – 30
= 6 cal

93) η = 1 – =1– =

∵η=

=
W = 10 kJ

94)

AB temperature constant V ↓ so P
in BC T ∝ V, P = constant V
in CA volume constant T ↓ P ↓

95) W = P1V1 ℓn

W = 10 × 103 × 9 × ℓn
96) ∵ For both spheres :

⇒
Same for both spheres

97)

On cooling following happens

98)

During state change heat supplied does not increase temperature. So b to c & d to e are state
change process.

99) ... (1)

... (2)
On solving - T = 42.85°C

100) In convection hot fliud goes upward due to low density and gravitation is necessary for it.

101) Q = Qr + Qa + Qt
400 = 120 + 120 + Qt
Qt = 160

= 40%

102)

103) E = σAT4

T1 = 227 + 273 = 500 K

 T2 = 727 + 273 = 1000 K
2
E2 = 112cal/cm sec.

104) At steady state different parts of conductor are at different temperatures but temperature
of each part remains constant with time.

105)
i3 = i1 + i2

3T = 180°
T = 60°C

106) n∝

=1
'
n =n

107)

keq =

108) y1 = 4 sin = 4cos4πt

y2 = 3 cos4πt
Phase difference between both is zero, both are along the same line
Ares. = 4 + 3 = 7 m

109)
ℓ=1m

110) P.E =

x=

111)

T=
∵ geff = 0
∴T=∞

112) T ∝

T′ = 4T = 4 × 2
T′ = 8 sec

113) mω2a2 = 16

ω2 = ; ω =10

T=

114) a = 2 × 10–2m
Vmean =12 × 10–2m/s
∵ Vmean = aω
∴ 12 × 10–2 = 2 × 10–2 × 2πn

∴n=

115) Acceleration in S.H.M is directly proportional to the displacement and opposite to the
displacement.

116) Initial and final position are same.

117) x = A sinωt
V= ωA cosωt = ωAsin(ωt + π/2)
a = –ω2A sinωt = ω2Asin (ωt + π)

118) T = geff = g +a (when lift accelerates upwards)

119) Standard equation y = 2acos kxsinωt

By comparing this equation with given equation

K= ⇒ λ =40 cm

Distance between two nodes =

120)

n' =

121) I = 2π2n2a2ρV

122) Second overtone means three loops :

∵ or λ =

Anti-nodes will be obtained at or

123) n =
Graph between n and will be hyperbola.

124) Phase difference Δϕ =

= π × 0.01 × 25 =
125)

T = 3.6 N

126)
The beat frequency should increase, so answer is 260 Hz.

127) Sound waves requires medium for propagation.

128) V ∝ λ
depends on medium
V = fλ
f not depends on medium, it depends on source.

129) Imax = I1 + I2 +
Imin = I1 + I2 –
Imax + Imin = 2 (I1 + I2)

130) VP = 3Vw
a0ω = 3nλ
a0 × 2πn = 3nλ

λ=

131) NCERT Pg. # 284

= 60 × 6 = 360

132) Frequency of first and last tuning fork are 2n & n respectively.
2n – 24 × 3 = n ⇒ n = 72 Hz
Frequency of 21st tuning fork = (2 × 72 – 20 × 3) = 84 Hz

133)
3(40 + 2e) = 4(31 + e)
2e = 4
 e = 2 cm

134) Amplitude and energy are exponential function of time.

135) Resonance frequency is independent from the density of reflecting medium (denser
medium)

CHEMISTRY

136)
ethylene chloride (no π bonds)

141)
Can show GI along ring (Restricted rotation along σ bond)

142)

Fact

143)

Enol form is aromatic in nature

145) According to pKa value

146) (–I) order

electronegativity

148) are aromatic

 149) Heat of hydrogenation

151) A. Question: The question asks which of the following is most basic

B. Given Data: Options are:

C. Concept:

A. Basic strength of nitrogeneous compound depends upon the hybridised state of

nitrogen.

A. If %s-character is same than Kb = localised lone pair > delocalised lone pair

sp2 (localised) sp2 (delocalised)

The -NH, group is attached directly to the conjugated system or benzene ring. It results in the
unshared electron pair on nitrogen atom to be in conjugation with the conjugated system or benzene
ring and thus making it less available for protonation and decreases basic strength.

D. Explanation:

Kb= sp' > sp2(localised lone pair)> sp2(delocalised lone pair)

Kb= (3) > (1) > (2),(4)
E. Final Answer: 3

154)

Fact based

155) Compounds purified by steam distillation which are immiscible in water but steam
volatile.

157)

159) Reaction in column I are oxidation of alkane under different condtion.

161)

163) Reactivity towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction (ESR) α density in ring.

(2) c > a > d > b

164) Hydro boration oxidation

165)

166)

167)

Na/Liquid NH3 gives trans-alkene with nonterminal alkynes.

169)

Rate of Elimination ∝ Stability of alkene.

171)

NCERT 12th Page No. # 317

173)

174)

Aniline do not show FCR.

175)

A = Benzene B = Friedel craft reaction

176) Silver acetylides are obtained by passing 1-alkyne in the ammonical solution of silver
nitrate (tollen's reagent)

179)
Fact Based