1

BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

CRASH COURSE
DAY 7
05-04-2025
CHAPTER – 09

Biotechnology: Principles
And Processes
NEET Like Problems (NLP)

1. Identify the wrong statement with regard to restric- (1) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
tion enzymes. [NCERT/P-167 (NLP NEET 2020)]
(2) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(1) Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting
(3) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
the length of a DNA sequence.
(4) Spooling
(2) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.
5. The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized
(3) They are useful in genetic engineering.
by EcoRI is [NCERT/P-167 (NLP NEET 2020)]
(4) Restriction enzyme cut the strand of DNA from the
(1) 3 - GAATTC - 5 (2) 5 - GGAACC - 3
centre of palindrome.
5 - CTTAAG - 3 3 - CCTTGG - 5
2. The sequence that controls the copy number of the
linked DNA in the vector, is termed as (3) 3 - CTTAAG - 5 (4) 5 - GGATCC - 3
[NCERT/P-169 (NLP NEET 2020)] 5 - GAATTC - 3 3 - CCTAGG - 5
(1) Selectable marker 6. DNA fragments are amplified by
(2) Rop site [NCERT/P-173 (NLP NEET 2020)]

(3) Palindromic sequence (1) Polymerase chain reaction

(4) Origin of replication (2) Bioprocess engineering

3. Choose the correct pair from the following: (3) Restriction digestion
[NCERT/P-165, 166 (NLP NEET 2020)] (4) Electrophoresis
(1) Ligases–cleavage of DNA molecules 7. In recombinant DNA technology antibiotic resistance
(2) Polymerases–Break the DNA into fragments genes are used [NCERT/P-169 (NLP NEET 2020)]

(3) Nucleases–Separate the two strands of DNA (1) As selectable markers

(4) Exonucleases–Remove nucleotides from end (2) To keep medium bacteria-free

4. During isolation, DNA can be removed by (3) To detect alien DNA

[NCERT/P-171 (NLP NEET 2020)] (4) To impart disease-resistance to the host plant

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BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

8. Restriction endonuclease that always cuts DNA 12. Bt is used for which of the following purposes in the
molecule at a particular point between G and A by field of biotechnology?
recognising a specific sequence of six base pairs [NCERT/P-163 (NLP NEET 2020)]
is [NCERT/P-165 (NLP NEET 2020)]
(1) To reduce reliance on chemical Pesticides
(1) Hind II
(2) To develop a plant tolerant to abiotic stresses
(2) EcoR I
(3) To develop a pest resistant plant against infestation
(3) Adenosine deaminase by nematode
(4) Thermostable DNA polymerase
(4) Toenchance the mineral usage by the plant
9. Select the correct statement from the following:
13. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
[NCERT/P-165, 172 (NLP NEET 2020)]
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(1) PCR is used for isolation and separation of gene (R). Choose the most appropriate answer from the
of interest options given below: [NCERT/P-167]
(2) Gel electrophoresis is used for amplification of a Assertion(A): When a particular restriction enzyme
DNA segment cuts strand of DNA, overhanging stretches or blunt
(3) The ligase enzyme joins the gene of interest and ends are formed.
the vector DNA
Reason (R) : Restriction enzymes cut the strand of
(4) Restriction enzyme digestions are performed by DNA a little away from the centre of palindromic site.
incubating purified DNA molecules with the
In the light of the above statements, choose the
exonuclease enzymes at optimum conditions
correct answer from the options given below :
10. Blotting is [NEET Xtra Cover]
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the cor-
(1) Collection of isolated DNA rect explanation of (A).
(2) Amplification of DNA
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the
(3) Cutting of separated DNA bands from the agarose gel correct explanation of (A).
(4) Transfer of separated DNA fragments to synthetic (3) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
membranes
(4) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
11. Match the following techniques or instruments with
theirusage: [NCERT/P-168, 170, 175 (NLP NEET 2020)] 14. In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA,
which one can be cut easily by particular restriction
List I List II
enzyme? [NCERT/P-167 (NLP NEET 2022)]
A. T-DNA I. Separation and purification
(1) 5' AGCGCT 3'; 3' TCGCGA 5'
B. Downstream II. Tumor
processing (2) 5' GTATTC 3', 3' CATAAG 5'

C. Elution III. Removal of DNA from chilled (3) 5' GATACT 3', 3' CTATGA 5'
ethanol (4) 5' GAATTG 3': 3' CTTAAC 5'
D. Spooling IV. Cutting of separated DNA 15. Given below are two statements:
bands from the agrose get [NCERT/P-165, 167 (NLP NEET 2022)]
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Statement I: Restriction exonucleases recognise
below:
specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic
(1) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV nucleotide sequence.
(2) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I Statement II: Restriction exonucleases cut the DNA
(3) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic
(4) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I site.

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BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

In the light of the given statements, choose the Choose the correct answer from the options given
correct answer from options given below. below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are True. (1) B, C, E only (2) A, D, E only

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are False. (3) A, C, D only (4) B, C, D only

(3) Statement I is True but Statement II is False. 19. Which of the following is a selectable marker of a
cloning vectors?
(4) Statement I is False but Statement II is True. [NCERT/P-169 (NLP JHAJJAR NEET 2024)]
16. Thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR was A. Ampicillin resistance gene
isolated from : [NCERT/P-173 (NLP NEET 2023)]
B. Kanamycin resistance gene
(1) Nematode (2) Bacterium
C. Chloramphenicol resistance gene
(3) Virus (4) Fu ngus
D. Tetracycline resistance gene
17. Select the restriction endonuclease enzymes whose
E. Antibody resistance gene
restriction sites are present for the ampicillin resistance
(amp R) gene in the pBR322 cloning vector. (1) A, C and E only (2) B, D and E only
[NCERT/P-169 (NLP Re-NEET 2024)]
(3) A, B, C, D and E (4) A, B, C and D only
(1) BamHI and Sal I 20. Given below are two statements:
(2) Sal I and Pst I [NCERT/P-167 (NLP JHAJJAR NEET 2024)]

(3) PstI and PvuI Statement I: Restriction Endonuclease finds its spe-
cific recognition sequence and binds to the DNA.
(4) Pvu I and Bam HI
Statement II: Restriction Endonuclease cuts each of
18. Which of the following are correct about EcoRI? the two strands of the double helix at specific points
[NCERT/P-165 (NLP Re-NEET 2024)] in their base phosphate backbones.
A. Cut the DNA with blunt end In the light of the given statements, choose the
B. Cut the DNA with sticky end correct answer from options given below.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are True.

C. Recognises a specific palindromic sequence
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are False.
D. Cut the DNA between the base A and T when
encounters the DNA sequence 'GAATTC' (3) Statement I is True but Statement II is False.

E. Endonuclease (4) Statement I is False but Statement II is True.

MATRIX TYPE QUESTIONS

21. Match List I with List II [NCERT/P-171] Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
List I List II
(1) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
A. Microinjection I. Bacterial cells
(2) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III
B. Gene gun II. Animal cells
(3) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
C. Heat shock III. Plant cells
(4) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
D. Chitinase IV. Fungal cells

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BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

22. Match List I with List II [NCERT/P-164, 168, 169] 24. Match List I with List II [NCERT/P-165, 167, 169]
List I List II List I List II
A. Cloning I. Microbial A. Hind II I. Recognition
contamination free sequence
B. Sterile II. Making multiple B. pBR 32 II. Restriction enzyme
ambience identical copies of
C. GAATTC III. Antibiotic resistance
any template DNA
gene
C. Resolve III. Separated bands of
D. ampR IV. Cloning vector
DNA are cut out from
the agarose gel Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
D. Elution IV. Separation of DNA
fragments (1) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II

Choose the correct answer from the options given (2) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
below: (3) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
(1) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III (4) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(2) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV 25. Match List I with List II [NCERT/P-164, 170, 173]
(3) A–I, B–II, C–IV, D–III List I List I
(4) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III A. Retroviruses I. Cloning vector
23. Match List I with List II [NCERT/P-171] B. Thermus aquaticus II. Construction of first
List I List II rDNA molecule
C. Agrobacterium III. DNA polymerase
A. RNA I. Lipase
tumefaciens
B. Protein II. Ribonuclease
D. Salmonella IV. Transform normal
C. Lipid III. Disaccharidase typhimurium cells into cancerous
cells
D. Carbohydrates IV. Protease
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
below:
(1) A–II, B–IV, C–III, D–I
(1) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
(2) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
(2) A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III
(3) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
(3) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III
(4) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(4) A–II, B–IV, C–III, D–I

Statement Based Questions

• Instructions for Questions 26 to 35 26. Statement I : E.coli having pBR322 with DNA insert at
Given below the two statements PstI site c annot grow in medium containing
tetracycline.
In the light of the given statements, choose the
Statement II : Recognition site for PstI is present in
correct answer from options given below.
tetracycline resistance gene of pBR322.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are True. [NEET Xtra Cover]
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are False. 27. Statement I : DNA fragments can be separated by
forcing them to move towards the anode under an
(3) Statement I is True but Statement II is False.
electric field through a medium/matrix.
(4) Statement I is False but Statement II is True.

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BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

Statement II : DNA fragments are negatively charged 32. Statement I : The convention for naming of restriction
molecules. [NCERT/P-168] enzymes is the first letter of the name comes from the
genes and the second two letters come from the species
28. Statement I : In agarose gel electrophoresis, the smaller
of the prokaryotic cell from which they were isolated.
the fragment size of DNA, the farther it moves.
[NCERT/P-168] Statement II : In EcoRI, the letter ‘R’ is derived from
the order. [NCERT/P-165]
Statement II : The DNA fragments separate (resolve)
according to their size through sieving effect provided 33. Statement I : Each restriction endonuclease functions
by the agarose gel. by ‘inspecting’ the length of a DNA sequence.
29. Statement I : In order to link the alien DNA, the vector Statement II : Once it finds its specific recognition
needs to have very few, preferably single, recognition sequence, it will bind to the DNA and cut hydrogen
sites for the commonly used restriction enzymes. bonds. [NCERT/P-166]
Statement II : Presence of one recognition site within 34. Statement I : Each restriction endonuclease recognises
the vector will generate several fragments, which will a specific palindromic nucleotide sequences in the
complicate the gene cloning. [NCERT/P-169] DNA.
30. Statement I : The first restriction endonuclease was Statement II : The palindrome in DNA is a sequence of
Hind I. base pairs that reads same on the two strands when
orientation of reading is kept the same.[NCERT/P-166]
Statement II : Hind I always cut DNA molecules at a
particular point by recognising a specific sequence of 35. Statement I : In order to cut the DNA with restriction
six bases. [NCERT/P-165] enzymes, it needs to be in pure form, free from other
macro-molecules.
31. Statement I : Besides Hind II, today we know more
than 900 restriction enzymes that have been isolated Statement II : The DNA is enclosed within the
from over 230 strains of bacteria membranes, so we need to break the cell open to release
DNA along with other macromolecules such as RNA,
Statement II : Each restriction enzyme recognises
proteins, polysaccharides, and also lipids.
different recognition sequences. [NCERT/P-165]
[NCERT/P-171]

Figure Based Questions

36. R e c o g n i s e t h e f i g u r e a n d f i n d o u t t h e c o rr e c t 37. The part marked as ‘X’ in the given figure is.
matc hing [NCERT/P-166] [NCERT/P-169]

G A A T T C G A A T C
C T T A A G C T T A G

A
G
C
C T T A A A A T
G
pBR322
B
X

C Pvu II
(1) A-Hind II, B-blunt end, C-non recombinant DNA (1) Rop

(2) A-BamH I, B-sticky end, C-recombinant DNA (2) Ori

(3) A-EcoR I, B-sticky end, C-non recombinant DNA (3) tet R

(4) A-EcoR I, B-sticky end, C-recombinant DNA. (4) amp R

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BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

38. The following diagram showing restriction sites in (4) The gene 'X' is responsible for controlling the copy
E.coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of 'X' and number of the linked DNA and 'Y' for protein in-
'Y' genes: [NCERT/P-169] volved in the replication of Plasmid.

EcoR I Cla I Hind III 39. In the three steps (A, B, C) of polymerase chain
reaction, select the correct step. [NCERT/P-172]
Pvu I
BamH I Region to be amplified 3’
Pst I (A) 5’ ds DNA
X 3’ 5’

pBR322 5’ 3’
Sal I 3’ 5’
(B)
Y 5’ 3’
3’ 5’

Pvu II
5’ 5’
(1) The gene 'X' is for protein involved in replication (C) 3’ 5’
of Plasmid and 'Y' for resistance to antibiotics. 5’ 3’
3’ 5’
(2) Gene 'X' is responsible for recognition sites and
(1) C—Extension in presence of heat stable DNA
'Y' is responsible for antibiotic resistance.
polymerase
(3) The gene 'X' is responsible for resistance to anti-
(2) A—Annealing with two sets of primers
biotic and 'Y' for protein involved in the replica-
tion of Plasmid. (3) B—Denaturation at high temperature

(4) A—Denaturation at 0°C

NCERT Exemplar (Concept Builder)

40. Rising of dough is due to [NEET Xtra Cover] (1) DNA can be seen in visible light
(1) Multiplication of yeast (2) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
(2) Production of CO2 (3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible
light
(3) Emulsification
(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under
(4) Hydrolysis of wheat flour starch into sugars.
exposure to UV light.
41. An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from
44. ‘Restriction’ in Restriction enzyme refers to
the ends of DNA is [NCERT/P-166]
[NCERT/P-165]
(1) Endonuclease (2) Exonuclease
(1) Cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme
(3) DNA ligase (4) Hind II.
(2) Cutting of DNA at specific position only
42. The transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to
(3) Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage in
another through the mediation of a vector like virus is
bacteria
termed as [NEET Xtra Cover]
(4) All of the above.
(1) Transduction (2) Conjugation
45. Which of the following is not required in the preparation a
(3) Transformation (4) Translation.
recombinant DNA molecule [NCERT/P-164, 165]
43. Which of the given statement is correct in the context of
(1) Restriction endonuclease
observing DNA separated by agarose gel electrophoresis
[NCERT/P-168] (2) DNA ligase

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BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

(3) DNA fragments (2) Formation of hydrogen bonds between sticky ends of
DNA fragments
(4) E.coli.
(3) Ligation of all purime and pyrimidine bases
46. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are
separated on the basis of their [NCERT/P-168] (4) None of the above.
(1) Charge only (2) Size only 53. Which of the following is not a source of restriction
endonuclease [NCERT/P-165]
(3) Charge to size ratio (4) All of the above.
(1) Haemophilus influenzae
47. The most important feature in a plasmid to be used as a
vector is [NCERT/P-164] (2) Escherichia coli
(1) Origin of replication (ori) (3) Entamoeba coli
(2) Presence of a selectable marker (4) Bacillius quifacieus.
(3) Presence of sites for restriction endonuclease 54. Which of the following steps are catalysed by Taq
polymerase in a PCR reaction [NCERT/P-172]
(4) Its size.
(1) Denaturation of template DNA
48. While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the following
enzymes is not used [NCERT/P-171] (2) Annealing of primers to template DNA
(1) Lysozyme (2) Ribonuclease (3) Extension of primer end on the template DNA
(3) Deoxyribonuclease (4) Protease. (4) All of the above.
49. A bacterial cell was transformed with a recombinant DNA 55. Which of the following has popularised the PCR
that was generated using a human gene. However, the (polymerase chain reactions) [NCERT/P-173]
transformed cells did not produce the desired protein.
(1) Easy availability of DNA template
Reasons could be [NEET Xtra Cover]
(2) Availability of synthetic primers
(1) Human gene may have intron which bacteria cannot
process (3) Availability of cheap deoxyribonucleotides
(2) Amino acid codons for humans and bacteria are (4) Availability of ‘Thermostable’ DNA polymerase.
different
56. Which of the following should be chosen for best yield if
(3) Human protein is formed but degraded by bacteria one were to produce a recombinant protein in large amounts
[NCERT/P-174]
(4) All of the above.
(1) Laboratory flask of largest capacity
50. An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in
the selection of [NCERT/P-169] (2) A stirred-tank bioreactor without in-lets and out-lets
(1) Competent cells (3) A continuous culture system
(2) Transformed cells (4) Any of the above.
(3) Recombinant cells 57. Who among the following was awarded the Nobel Prize
for the development of PCR technique [NCERT/P-172]
(4) None of the above.
(1) Herbert Boyer
51. Significance of ‘heat shock’ method in bacterial
transformation is to facilitate [NCERT/P-171] (2) Hargovind Khurana
(1) Binding of DNA to the cell wall (3) Kary Mullis
(2) Uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins (4) Arthur Kornberg.
(3) Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the bacterial 58. Which of the following statements does not hold true for
cell wall restriction enzyme [NCERT/P-165]
(4) Expression of antibiotic resistance gene. (1) It recognises a palindromic nucleotide sequence
52. The role of DNA ligase in the construction of a (2) It is an endonuclease
recombinant DNA molecule is [NCERT/P-167]
(3) It is isolated from viruses
(1) Formation of phosphodiester bond between two DNA
(4) It produces the same kind of sticky ends in different
fragments
DNA molecules.

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BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

Option in Option Type Questions

59. Which of the following is/are used in recombinant 62. A typical bioreactor has [NCERT/P-174]
DNA technology [NCERT/P-164]
A. An agitator system
A. Agarose gel
B. An oxygen delivery system
B. Ethidium bromide
C. A foam control system
C. Plasmid vector
D. A temperature and pH control system
D. Restriction exonuclease
E. Sampling ports
E. PCR
(1) A, D and E only (2) B, C and D only
(1) A, B, C and E only (2) A, D and E only
(3) A, B, C, D, E (4) A, B, and C only
(3) C, D and E only (4) A, B, C and D only
63. In genetic e ngineering, after the creation of
60. Which of the following are considered as useful recombinant DNA, it needs to be transferred into the
selectable markers for E.coli? [NCERT/P-169] host, using a vector. Which of the following agents
can be used as a vector? [NEET Xtra Cover]
A. Ampicillin resistance gene
A. pBR322
B. Chloramphenicol resistance gene
B. E. coli
C. Tetracycline resistance gene
C. Retrovirus
D. Kanamycin resistance gene
D. Mosquito
E. Penicillium resistance gene
E. Ti plasmid
(1) B, C, D and E only
(1) A, C, and E only
(2) A, B, D and E only
(2) A, B, and E only
(3) A, C, and E only
(3) B, C, D and E only
(4) A, B, C and D only
(4) A, B, C, D and E
61. Read the following statements and find out the correct
statements with reference to a garose gel 64. Read the following statements and choose the correct
electrophoresis. [NCERT/P-168] option. [NCERT/P-110]
A. Now-a-days the most commonly used matrix is A. Mosquito acts as an insect vector to transfer the
agarose which is a synthetic polymer extracted typhoid pathogen into human body.
from sea weeds.
B. Bacteriophages because of their high number per
B. Larger the frament size, the farther it moves. cell, have very high copy numbers of their genome
within the bacterial cells.
C. We can not see pure DNA in UV light without
staining. C. E. coli in animals have the ability to transform
normal cells into cancerous cells.
D. DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to
their size through sieving effect provided by the D. Since DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, it can not
agarose gel. pass through cell membranes.
E. Wells are present towards cathode side. E. DNA is negatively charged molecule.
(1) A, B and C only (1) B, D and E only
(2) B, C and D only (2) A, C and D only
(3) C, D and E only (3) A, B and E only
(4) A, B and E only (4) A, D and E only

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BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

65. Read the following statements and choose the correct 66. Read the following statements and choose the correct
option. [NCERT/P-166, 169, 171] option. [NCERT/P-169, 175, 174]
A. The art of delivering genes by pathogens in their A. The ability to multiply copies of antibiotic
eukaryotic hosts has generated knowledge to resistance gene in E. coli was called cloning of
transform the tools of pathogens into useful antibiotic resistance gene in E. coli.
vectors for delivering genes of interest to humans.
B. Biotechnology deals with large scale production
B. Recombinant DNA technology involves the use and marketing of products and processes using
of restrict ion endonucleases, DNA ligase, live organisms, cells, or enzymes.
appropriate plasmid, or viral vectors to isolate and
C. If a foreign DNA is ligated at the Eco RI site in the
cerry the foreign DNA into host organisms,
vector pBR322, then the recombinant plasmids will
expression of the foreign gene, purification of the
lose ampicillin resistance due to insertion of
gene product.
foreign DNA.
C. Palindromes are groups of letters that form the
D. To produce large quantities of products,
same words when read both forward and backward.
bioreactors are used where large volumes (100-
D. pBR322 is a restriction enzyme. 1000 litres) of culture can be processed.
E. In pBR 322, the Pvu I site is present on rop. E. In pBR 322, the Pvu I and Pst I sites are present of
tetracycline resistance gene.
(1) A, B and E only (2) A, B and D only
(1) A, C and E only (2) A, B and E only
(3) A, B and C only (4) C, D and E only
(3) A, B and D only (4) B, C and D only

Assertion–Reason Based Questions

• Instructions for Questions 67 to 72 Reason (R) : DNA fragments are negatively charged.
[NCERT/P-168]
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason 69. Assertion (A) : Nucleic acid is the genetic material of
all organisms without exception.
(R). Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below: Reason (R) : During isolation of genetic material, lipases
and proteases are not required. [NEET Xtra Cover]
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the cor-
rect explanation of (A). 70. Assertion (A) : A small scale production of product
involves the use of bioreactors.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the
Reason (R) : Drugs has to undergo through clinical
correct explanation of (A).
trials before marketing. [NCERT/P-174]
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct. 71. Assertion (A) : Restriction enzyme cuts both vector
(4) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct. DNA and foreign DNA at the same site.

67. Assertion (A) : During transformation, in order to force Reason (R) : Both plasmids and bacteriophages have
bacteria to take up the plasmid, the bacterial cell must the abil ity to replicate within bacteria l cells,
first be made ‘competent’ to take up DNA. independent of the control of chromosomal DNA.
[NCERT/P-165]
Reason (R) : This is done by treating them with a
specific concentration of a monovalent cation such as 72. Assertion (A) : Restriction endonucleases digestion
sodium [NCERT/P-171] produces sticky ends.

68. Assertion (A) : In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments Reason (R) : Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA
can be separated by forcing them to move towards the strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic
cathode under the electric field through a matrix/ site. [NCERT/P-165, 167]
medium.

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BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

Previous Year's Question (PYQ)

73. The process of separation and purification of expressed 79. Thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR was iso-
protein before marketing is called lated from : [NCERT/P-173 (NEET 2023)]
[NCERT/P-175 (NEET 2017)]
(1) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(1) Downstream processing
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) Bioprocessing
(3) Postproduction processing (3) Thermus aquaticus

(4) Upstream processing. (4) Escherichia coli

74. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain 80. Which of the following can act as molecular scis-
Reaction (PCR) is [NCERT/P-172 (NEET 2018)] sors? [NCERT/P-165 (NEET 2023)]
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing (1) RNA polymerase
(2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation (2) DNA polymerase
(3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing (3) Restriction enzymes
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension. (4) DNA ligase
75. The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR322 81. Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular
are for [NCERT/P-169 (NEET 2019)]
point called recognition sequence and it consists of:
(1) Ampicillin and Tetracycline [NCERT/P-165 (NEET 2024)]
(2) Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol (1) 4 bp (2) 10 bp
(3) Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline (3) 8 bp (4) 6 bp
(4) Tetracycline and Kanamycin.
82. What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only
76. The specifi c palindromic sequen ce which is gene of interest which is transferred into an alien or-
recognized by EcoRI is: [NCERT/P-167 (NEET 2020)] ganism? [NEET Xtra Cover (NEET 2024)]
(1) 5' - GAATTC - 3' (2) 5' - GGAACC - 3' A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself
3' - CTTAAG - 5' 3' - CCTTGG - 5' independently in the progeny cells of the organ-
(3) 5' - CTTAAG - 3' (4) 5' - GGATCC - 3' ism.

3' - GAATTC - 5' 3' - CCTAGG - 5' B. It may get integrated into the genome of the
recipient.
77. Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps
in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)? C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the
[NCERT/P-172 (NEET 2021)] host DNA.
(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension D. The alien piece of DNA not an integral part of
chromosome
(2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
E. It shows ability to replicate
(3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(4) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
78. Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a
cloning vector? [NCERT/P-169 (NEET 2022)] (1) B and C (2) A and E

(1) Presence of single restriction enzyme site (3) A and B (4) D and E

(2) Presence of two or more recognition sites 83. The following diagram showing restriction sites in
E.coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of 'X' and
(3) Presence of origin of replication
'Y' genes: [NCERT/P-169 (NEET 2024)]
(4) Presence of a marker gene

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BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

C. Recognises a specific palindromic sequence

D. Cut the DNA between the base G and A when
encounters the DNA sequence 'GAATTC'
E. Exonuclease
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) B, C and E (2) A, D and E
(3) A, C and D (4) B, C and D
88. Which of the following is not a selectable marker of
(1) The gene 'X' is for protein involved in replication cloning vectors?
of Plasmid and 'Y' for resistance to antibiotics. [NCERT/P-165 (Jhajjar NEET 2024)]
(2) Gene 'X' is responsible for recognition sites and (1) Ampicillin (2) Metformin
'Y' is responsible for antibiotic resistance.
(3) Chloramphenicol (4) Tetracycline
(3) The gene 'X' is responsible for resistance to anti-
89. Match List-I with List-II
biotic and 'Y' for protein involved in the replica-
[NCERT/P-169 (Jhajjar NEET 2024)]
tion of Plasmid.
List-I List-II
(4) The gene 'X' is responsible for controlling the
copy number of the linked DNA and 'Y' for pro- A. Ampicillin I. Restriction sites
tein involved in the replication of Plasmid. B. Ori II. Blue/White
84. In a chromosome, there is a specific DNA sequence screening
responsible for initiating replication. It is called as : C. Multiple cloning III. Selectable marker
[NCERT/P-169 (Re NEET 2024)] sites
(1) Eecognition sequence (2) Cloning site D.  -galactosidase IV. Sequence from gene
(3) Restriction site (4) Ori site where replication
starts
85. Identify the incorrect statement related to gel elec-
Choose the correct answer from the options given
trophoresis. [NCERT/P-168 (Re NEET 2024)]
below:
(1) Separated DNA fragments can be directly seen
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I , D-II (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
under UV radiation
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II , D-I (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) Separated DNA can be extracted from gel piece
90. Given below are two statements:
(3) Fragment of DNA moves toward anode [NCERT/P-166 (Jhajjar NEET 2024)]
(4) Sieving effect of agarose gel helps in separation Statement I: Restriction Endonuclease finds its
of DNA fragments specific recognition sequence and binds to the
86. Select the restriction endonuclease enzymes whose DNA.
restriction sites are present for the tetracycline resis- Statement II: Restriction Endonuclease cuts each of
tance (tetR) gene in the pBR322 cloning vector. the two strands of the double helix at specific points
[NCERT/P-165 (Re NEET 2024)] in their sugar phosphate backbones.
(1) BamHI and Sal I (2) Sal I and Pst I In the light of the given statements, choose the
(3) PstI and PvuI (4) Pvu I and Bam HI correct answer from options given below.

87. Which of the following are correct about EcoRI? (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are True.
[NCERT/P-165 (Re NEET 2024)] (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are False.
A. Cut the DNA with blunt end (3) Statement I is True but Statement II is False.
B. Cut the DNA with sticky end (4) Statement I is False but Statement II is True.

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BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

ANSWER KEY
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (4)

11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (3)

21. (4) 22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (1) 29. (3) 30. (2)

31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (1) 35. (1) 36. (4) 37. (1) 38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (2)

41. (2) 42. (1) 43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (3) 49. (1) 50. (2)

51. (2) 52. (1) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (4) 56. (3) 57. (3) 58. (3) 59. (1) 60. (4)

61. (3) 62. (3) 63. (1) 64. (1) 65. (3) 66. (3) 67. (3) 68. (4) 69. (3) 70. (4)

71. (2) 72. (1) 73. (1) 74. (4) 75. (1) 76. (1) 77. (1) 78. (2) 79. (3) 80. (3)

81. (4) 82. (1) 83. (4) 84. (4) 85. (1) 86. (1) 87. (4) 88. (2) 89. (1) 90. (1)

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