Q 1.

All the following are derivatives of the neural crest, except:

A. Melanocyte

B. Adrenal medulla

C. Sympathetic ganglia

D. Cauda equina

Ans. D

Q 2. Which of the following is true regarding gastrulation:

A. Establishes all the three germ layers

B. Occurs at the caudal end of the embryo prior to

Its cephalic end

C. Involves the hypoblastic cells of inner cell mass

D. Usually occurs at 4 weeks

Ans. A

Q 3. All the following features are seen in neurons from dorsal root ganglia, except:

A. They have centrally located nuclei

B. They are derived from neural crest cells

C. They are multipolar

D. They contain lipofuscin granules

Ans. C

Q 4. Elastic cartilage is found in:

A. Auditory tube

B. Nasal septum

C. Articular cartilage

D. Costal cartilage
Ans. A

Q 5. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by:

A. Coracoclavicular ligament

B. Coracoacromial ligament

C. Costoclavicular ligament

D. Coracohumeral ligament

Ans. A

Q 6. The superficial external pudendal artery is a branch of:

A. Femoral artery

B. External iliac artery

C. Internal iliac artery

D. Aorta

Ans. A

Q 7. Diaphragmatic hernia can occur through all the following, except:

A. Esophageal opening

B. Costovertebral triangle

C. Costal and sternal attachment of diaphragm

D. Inferior vena cava opening

Ans. D

Q 8. Ureteric constriction is seen at all the following positions, except:

A. Ureteropelvic junction

B. Ureterovesicle junction

C. Crossing of iliac artery

D. Ischial spine

Ans. D
Q 9. All the following are true regarding blood supply to the kidney ,

Except:

A. Stellate veins drain superficial zone

B. It is site of portosystemic anastomosis

C. The renal artery divides into five segmental arteries before entering

The hilum

D. Its segmental arteries are end-arteries

Ans. B

Q 10. A patient with external hemorrhoids develops pain while passing stools. The nerve

Mediating this pain is:

A. Hypogastric nerve

B. Pudendal nerve

C. Splachnic visceral nerve

D. Sympathetic plexus

Ans. B

Q 11. Which of the following muscles is supplied by mandibular nerve:

A. Masseter

B. Buccinator

C. Tensor veli palati

E. Posterior belly of digastric

Ans. C
Q 12. The sensoy supply of the palate is through all of the following,

Except:
 A. Facial nerve

B. Hypoglossal nerve

C. Glossopharyngeal nerve

D. Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve

Ans. B

Q 13. All of the following are features of large intestine, except:

A. Large intestine secretes acidic mucus which helps in formation of stools

B. It is a site of mucocutaneous junction

C. Its epithelium contains globlets cells in large numbers

E. Absorbs salt and water

Ans. A

Q 14. In flexion and abduction of shoulder all of the following structures are compressed

Except:

A. Subacromial bursa

B. Long head of biceps

C. Suprascapular nerve

D. Supraspinatus tendon

Ans. C

Physiology

Q 15. SI unit for measuring blood pressure is:

A. Torr

B. mrnHg
C. kPa

E. Bar

Ans. C

Q 16. Glucose mediated insulin release is mediated through:

A. ATP dependent K+ channels

B. cAMP

C. Carrier modulators

E. Receptor phosphorylation

Ans. A

Q 17. Sudden decrease in serum calcium is associated with: A. Increased thyroxine and PTH secretion

B. Increased phosphate

C. Increased excitability of muscle and nerve

D. Cardiac conduction abnormalities

Ans. C

Q 18. Ablation of the ‘somatosensory area 1’️of the cerebral cortex leads to:

A. Total loss of pain sensation

B. Total loss of touch sensation

C. Loss of tactile localization but not of two point discrimination

D. Loss of tactile localization and two point discrimination

Ans. D

Q 19. Non shivering thermogenesis in adults is due to:

A. Thyroid hormone

B. Brown fat between the shoulders

C. Adrenaline from adrenal medulla

D. Muscle metabolism

Ans. C

Q 20. In metabolic acidosis, which of the following changes are seen:

A. Increased K+excretion

B. Decreased K+ excretion

C. Increased Na+ excretion

D. Increased Na+ reabsorption

Ans. B

Q 21. Tropomyosin:

A. Helps in the fusion of actin and myosin

B. Covers myosin and prevents attachments of actin and myosin

C. Slides over myosin

D. Causes Ca2+ release

Ans. B

Q 22. TRH stimulation testing is useful in diagnosis of disorders of following hormones:

A. Insulin

B. ACTH

C. Prolactin

D. PTH

Ans. C
Q 23. During muscular exercise all are seen except:

A. Increase in blood flow to muscles

B. Stroke volume increases

C. O2 dissociation curve shifts to left

D. O2 consumption increases

Ans. C

Biochemistry

Q 24. €œAll enzymes are not proteins.†This statement is justified by:

A. All enzymes do not follow the Michaelis Menten hypothesis

B. RNAs act as ribozymes

C. Antibodies take part in the catalysis of many reactions

D. Metals are involved in attachment to enzymes and catalysts

Ans. B

Q 25. Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are:

A. Transferases

B. Oxidases

C. Lysases

D. Peptidases

Ans. A

Q 26. In which of the following reactions is magnesium required:

A. Na+K+ ATPase

B. Dismutase

C. Phosphatase

D. Aldolase

Ans. A

Q 27. In oxidative phosphorylation, the ATP production and respiratory chain are linked

By:

A. Chemical methods
 B. Physical methods

C. Chemiosmotic methods

D. Conformational changes

Q Ans. C

Q 28. Thiamine level is best monitored by:

A. Transketolase level in RBCB. Thiamine level in blood

C. G-6-PD activity

E. Reticulocytosis

Ans. A

Q 29. Vitamin B12 and folic acid supplementation in megaloblastic anemia leads to the

Improvement of anemia due to:

A. Increased DNA synthesis in bone marrow

B. Increased hemoglobin production

C. Erythroid hyperplasia

D. Increased iron absorption

Ans. A

Q 30. Nitric oxide synthase:

A. Is inhibited by Ca++

B. Catalyses a dioxygenase reaction

C. Accepts electrons from NADH

E. Requires NADH, FAD, FMN & heme iron

Ans. D
Q 31. Phenylalanine is the precursor of all the following, except:

A. Tyrosine

B. Epinephrine

C. Thyroxine

D. Melatonin

Ans. D

Q 32. In a well fed state, acetyl CoA obtained from diet is least used in the synthesis of:

A. Palmity CoA

B. Citrate

C. Acetoacetate

D. Oxalosuccinate

Ans. C

Q 33. Substrate level phosphorylation in citric acid cycle is seen in the conversion of: -

Ketoglutaratea

A. Acetoacetate to

B. Succinyl CoA to succinate

C. Fumarate to malate

D. Succinate to fumarate

Ans. B Q 34. Apo B48 and apo B100 are expressed as two different apo-proteins because of

Differe

A. RNA editing

B. RNA splicing

C. Chromosomal loci
 D. Apo-B gene

Ans. A

Q 35. All the following can be used to detect mutation, except:

A. Single strand conformational polymorphism

B. Ligase chain reaction

C. Polymerase chain reaction

E. DNA sequencing

Ans. B

Q 36. Which of the following is true regarding hydroxy ethyl starch:

A. It is an anesthetic agent

B. It is a plasma expander

C. It is a crystalloid

E. Used as a nutritional agent

Ans. B

Q 37. Elasticity of the corneal layer of SKIN is due to the presence of:

A. Histidine

B. Keratin

C. Lysine

D. Cysteine

Ans. B

Q 38. In dividing cells, spindle is formed by:

A. Ubiquitin

B. Tubulin
C. Laminin

D. Keratin

Ans. B

Q 39. Entropy in a biological system is constant because:

A. It is an open system

B. It is a closed system C. It is a governed by vitalism

D. Has exothermic-endothermic reactions

Ans. D

Q 40. Which of the following is true regarding a system which favours

Oscillatory responses:

A. Has proportional component

B. Has a greater gain

C. Has a lesser gain

D. Positive FEEDBACK system

Ans. D

Q 41. Highest binding of iron is seen with:

A. Transferrin

B. Ferritin

C. Haemoglobin

E. Ceruloplasmin

Ans. C

Pathology

Q 42. The epitheloid cell and multinucleated gaint cells of granulomatous inflammation
Are derived from:

A. Basophils

B. Eosinophils

C. CD4 T lymphocytes

D. Monocytes-macrophages

Ans. D

Q 43. The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute infection, except:

A. Exudation

B. Vasodilation

C. Margination

E. Granuloma formation

Ans. D

Q 44. The following feature is common to both cytotoxic T cells and NK cells:

A. Synthesize antibody

B. Require antibodies to be present for action

C. Effective against virus infected cells

D. Recognize antigen in association with HLA class II markers Ans. C

Q 45. In the intra-epithelial region of the mucosa of intestine the predominant cell

Population is that of:

A. B cell

B. T cells

C. Plasma cells

D. Basophils
Ans. B

Q 46. In primary tuberculosis, all of the following may be seen except:

A. Cavitation

B. Caseation

C. Calcification

E. Langerhan giant cell

Ans. A

Q 47. A mylocardial infarct showing early granulation tissue has most likely occurred:

A. Less than 1 hours

B. Within 24 hours

C. Within 1 week

D. Within 1 month

Ans. D

Q 48. A 10 year old boy, died of acute rheumatic fever. All the following can be expected

At autopsy except:

A. Ashoff nodules

B. Rupture of chordae tendinae

C. McCallum patch

D. Fibrinous pericarditis

Ans. B

Q 49. All of the following are seen in asbestosis except:

A. Diffuse alveolar damage

B. Calcified pleural plaques

C. Diffuse pulmonary interstitial fibrosis

E. Mesotheliomas

Ans. A

Q 50. Macrophages containing large quantities of undigested and partial digested bacteria

In intestine are seen in: A. Whipple’️s disease

B. Amyloidosis

C. Immunoproliferative small instetinal disease

D. Vibrio cholerae infection

Ans. A

Q 51. The histological features of celiac disease include all of the following, except:

A. Crypt hyperplasia

B. Increase in thickness of the mucosa

C. Increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes

D. Increase in inflammatory cells in lamina propria

Ans. B

Q 52. In a chronic alcoholic all the following may be seen in the liver except:

A. Fatty degeneration

B. Chronic hepatitis

C. Granuloma formation

D. Cholestatic hepatitis

Ans. C

Q 53. Crescent formation is characteristic of the following glomerular disease:

A. Minimal change disease

B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

C. Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis

D. Rapidly non prgressive glomerulonephritis

Ans. B

Q 54. Necrotizing papillitis may be seen in all of the following conditions except:

A. Sickle cell disease

B. Tuberculous pyelonephritis

C. Diabetes mellitus

D. Analgesic nephropathy

Ans. B

Q 55. Disease or infarction of neurological tissue causes it to be replaced by:

A. Fluid

B. Neuroglia

C. Proliferation of adjacent nerve cells

D. Blood vessel

Ans. B Q 56. Flat small vegetations in the cusps of both tricuspid and mitral valves are seen in:

A. Viral myocarditis

B. Libmann Sach’️s endocarditis

C. Rheumatic carditis

D. Infective endocarditis

Ans. B

Microbiology

Q 57. Bacteria may acquire characteristics by all of the following except:

A. Taking up soluble DNA fragments across their cell wall from other species

B. Incorporating part of host DNA

C. Through bacteriophages

E. Through conjugation

Ans. B

Q 58. Neonatal thymectomy leads to:

A. Decreased size of germinal center

B. Decreased size of paracortical areas

C. Increased antibody production by B cells

D. mcreased bone marrow production of lymphocytes

Ans. B

Q 59. Staphylococcus aureus differs from Staphylococcus epidermidis by:

A. Is coagulase positive

B. Forms white colonies

C. A common cause of UTI

D. Causes endocarditis in drug addicts

Ans. A

Q 60. Positive Shick’️s test indicates that person is:

A. Immune to diptheria

B. Hypersensitive to diptheria

C. Susceptible to diptheria

D. Carrier of diptheria

Ans. C

Q 61. In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by:
A. Blood culture B. Widal

C. Stool culture

D. Urine culture

Ans. B

Q 62. Which of the following is transmitted by rat urine?

A. Leptospira

B. Listeria

C. Legionella

D. Mycoplasma

Ans. A

Q 63. AII the following are true about Listeria except:

A. Transmitted by contaminated milk

B. Gram negative bacteria

C. Causes abortion in pregnancy

D. Causes meningitis in neonates

Ans. B

Q 64. Which of the following statement is true about Bacteroides:

A. It is gram positive bacilli

B. It is strictiy aerobic

C. It may cause peritonitis

D. Presence in stool culture indicates need for treatment

Ans. C

Q 65. Heat stable enterotoxin causing food poisoning is caused by all the following

Except:
 A. Bacillus cereus

B. Yersinia enterocolitica

C. Staphylococcus

D. Clostridium perfringens

Ans. D

Q 66. HIV virus contains:

A. Single stranded DNA

B. Single stranded RNA

C. Double stranded DNA

E. Double stranded RNA

Ans. B Q 67. Regarding HIV which of the following is not true:

A. It is a DNA retrovirus

B. Contains reverse transcriptase

C. May infect host CD4 cells other than T-lymphocytes

D. Causes a reduction in host CD4 cells at late stage of disease

Ans. A

Q 68. CMV retinitis in HIV occurs when the CD4 counts fall below:

A. 50

B. 100

C. 200

E. 150

Ans. A
Q 69. Epstein Barr virus causes all the following except:

A. Infectious mononucleosis

B. Measles

C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

D. Non Hodgkin’️s lymphoma

Ans. B

Q 70. In a patient, corneal scraping reveals narrow angled septate hyphae. Which of the

Following is the likely etiologic agent:

A. Mucor

B. Aspergillus

C. Histoplasma

D. Candida

Ans. B

Q 71. Which of the following is true regarding globi in a patient with lepromatous

Leprosy:

A. Consists of lipid laden macrophages.

B. Consists of macrophages filled with AFB

C. Consists of neutrophils filled with bacteria

D. Consists of activated lymphocytes

Ans. B

Q 72. The following diagnostic tests are useful for corresponding purposes except:

A. Zeil-Neelson staining – Detection of mycobacteria

B. Immunoflorescence – Detection of influenza virusC. Specific IgM antibodies – Immunity against
rubella

E. Specific IgM antibodies – Detection of acute infection

Ans. C

Q 73. IL-1 produces:

A. T lymphocyte activation

B. Delayed wound healing

C. Increased pain perception

E. Decreased PMN release from bone marrow

Ans. A

Q 74. Microfilaria are seen in peripheral blood in which stage of filariasis:

A. Tropical eosinophilia

B. Early elephantiasis

C. Early adenolymphangitis stage

D. None of the above

Ans. C

Q 75. Confirmation of diagnosis of rota virus infection is by:

A. Antigen detection in stool by ELISA

B. Antibody titres in serum

C. Antigen detection by immunoflurescence

D. Antigen detection in serum by ELISA

Ans. A

Pharmacology

Q 76. Regarding efficacy and potency of a drug, all are true, except:

A. In a clinical setup, efficacy is more important than potency

B. In the log dose response curve, the height of the curve corresponds with efficacy

C. ED50 of the drug corresponds to efficacy

D. Drugs that produce a similar pharmacological effect can have different levels of

Efficacy

Ans. D

Q 77. All the following are selective beta blockers, except:

A. Atenolol

B. Esmolol

C. Bisprolol

D. Celiprolol

Ans. D 78. All of the following factors increase the risk of aminoglycoside renal toxicity,

Except:

A. Elderly person

B. Dehydration

C. Simultaneous use with penicillin

D. Aminoglycoside administration in recent past

Ans. C

Q 79. In which of the following disorders is administration of barbiturates

Contraindicated in:

A. Anxiety disorders

B. Acute intermittent porphyria

C. Kemincterus
 D. Refractive status epilepticus

Ans. B

Q 80. Mechanism of action tianeptin in the brain is:

A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition

B. Selective norepinephfine reuptake inhibition

C. Selective serotonin reuptake enchancer

E. Selective dopamine reuptake inhibition

Ans. C

Q 81. Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when they are given:

A. After meals

B. Shortly before meals

C. Along with H2 blockers

E. During prolonged fasting periods

Ans. B

Q 82. Which of the following is correctly matched:

A. Dimercaprol:Iron

B. Calcium di-sodium EDTA:Arsenic

C. Penicillamine:Copper

D. Desferrioxamine:Lead

Ans. C

Q 83. Digoxin is contraindicated in:

A. Supraventricular tachycardia B. Atrial fibrillation

C. Congestive heart failure

D. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

Ans. D

Q 84. All the following drugs cause renal failure except:

A. Cephaloridine

B. Amphoterecin B

C. Cefoperazone

D. Gentamicin

Ans. C

Q 85. All of the following statements are true regarding losartan except:

A. It is a competitive angiotensin receptor antagonist

B. It has a long acting metabolite

C. Associated with negligible cough

D. Causes hyperuricemia

Q Ans. D

86. Gemcitabine is effective in:

A. Head and neck cancers

B. Pancreatic cancer

C. Small-cell lung cancer

D. Soft tissue sarcoma

Ans. B

Q 87. All of the following drugs can cross placenta except:

A. Phenytoin

B. Diazepam

C. Morphine
 E. Heparin

Ans. D

Q 88. A highway truck driver has profuse rhinorrhea and sneezing. Which amongst the

Following durgs would you prescibe him?

A. Pheniramine

B. Promethazine

C. Dimerhydrinate

D. Cetrizine

Ans. D

Q 89. The mechanism of action of sodium nitroprusside is: A. Increased cAMP

B. Increased guanylate cyclase

C. Calcium channel blockage

E. K+ channel opener

Ans. B

Q 90. All the following belong to the steroid receptor superfamily except:

A. Vitamin D3 receptor

B. Thyroid receptor

C. Retinoid receptor

D. Epinephrine receptor

Ans. D

Q 91. All of the following undergo hepatic metabolism before excretion except:

A. Phenytoin

B. Diazepam
C. Penicillin G

D. Cimetidine

Ans. C

Q 92. In a patient taking oral contraceptive, the chance of pregnancy increases after

Taking any of the following drugs except:

A. Phenytoin

B. Carbamazepine

C. Ampicillin

D. Cimetidine

Ans. D

Q 93. The primary mechanism of action of fluoride on topical application is:

A. Conversion of hydroxyapatite to fluoroapatite by replacing the –OH ions

B. Inhibition of plaque bacteria

C. Form a reservoir in saliva

E. Improvement in tooth morphology

Ans. A

Q 94. A 65 year old man was consuming opium for 20 years. He stops consumption

Suddenly and comes to casualty after 2 days. Which is likely to occur due to withdrawal:

A. Rhinorrhoea

B. Hypotension

C. Drowsiness D. Miosis

Ans. A
Q 95. Which of the following causes hepatic granuloma?

A. Amiodarone

B. Alcohol

D. Cimetidine

E. Metronidazole

Ans. A