07/03/2024 CMS-CST7XII_G

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
https://t.me/aakash_neet_full_syllabus_test_3
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122018, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 CMS-003SE_CST-XII_Biology_2023-24_Test-4G Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Complete Syllabus of 12th Class Zoology and Botany Subject.

Search on telegram- @aakash_neet_full_syllabus_test_3

@Coldhoon
General Instructions :
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, -1 mark shall be ducted from the total score.
Unanswered/ unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet.

1.
option.
@coldhoon
Read the following statements and select the correct
BOTANY

3. Characteristics of a flower are as

a. Nectaries absent
Statement A: Pollen grains lose viability within 30 b. Flowers packed into inflorescence.
minutes of their release in members of Rosaceae, c. Well exposed stamens.
Leguminoseae and Solanaceae. d. Light weighted, non-sticky pollens.
Statement B: Pollen grains can be stored in liquid On the basis of above features, flower must be
nitrogen at –196° C for years.
(1) Hydrophilous
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Anemophilous
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Entomophilous
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Cleistogamous
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
4. Find the correct match w.r.t. seed.
2. In a Mendelian monohybrid cross, selfing of F1
(1) Seed coat – Represents integument of ovary
heterozygous tall plant will produce.
Micropyle – Represents pore of ovary through which
th (2)
(1) 2/4 individuals of F2 progeny as homozygous tall
pollen tube enters
plants Hilum – Represents the point at which body of ovule
(3)
th was attached with funicle
(2) 2/4 individuals of F2 progeny as heterozygous tall
plants (4) Endosperm – Represents product of syngamy

th 5. In a clinical diagnosis a female ‘A’ was identified with

(3) 2/4 individuals of F2 progeny as homozygous dwarf absence of secondary sexual characters and has
plants rudimentary ovaries. Which of the given statements can
th be true for the female ‘A’?
(4) 3/4 individuals of F2 progeny as homozygous tall
plants The chromosome complement of the female cannot
(1)
be 44 + XO
The female is suffering from a sex recessive linked
(2)
disorder
Mother of this female may be producing abnormal egg
(3)
(22 + O) and father producing normal sperm (22 + X)
(4) This female may pass this disorder to her daughters

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CMS-003SE_CST-XII_Biology_2023-24_Test-4G

6. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t antibiotics. 11. Shedding of pollen grains in 60% of angiosperms occurs
at A celled stage.
(1) Used to treat deadly diseases like leprosy, diphtheria ¯¯¯¯¯
Select the correct option for ‘A’.
They are ‘pro-life’ with reference to disease causing
(2) (1) One
organisms
Produced by some microbes that can kill or retard (2) Two
(3)
growth of other microbes (3) Three
(4) First antibiotic was discovered by Alexander Fleming (4) Four
7. Which one is correct sequence of development of zygote 12. Four genes a, b, c and d are present on a chromosome.
into embryo? Percentage of recombination between a and b = 20%; a
Pro-embryo → Heart shaped embryo → globular and d = 2%, c and b = 8% and d and b = 18%. What will
(1) be the sequence of genes on the chromosome?
embryo → Mature embryo
Pro-embryo → Globular embryo → Heart shaped (1) adcb
(2)
embryo → Mature embryo (2) cdab
Heart shaped embryo → Pro-embryo → Globular (3) dcab
(3)
embryo → Mature embryo
(4) acbd
Globular embryo → Heart shaped embryo → Pro-
(4)
embryo → Mature embryo 13. Select the correct set of parents those can produce child
with blood group ‘O’.
8. Study the pedigree chart given below.
a. IAi × IAi
b. IBi × IAIA
c. ii × IAi
d. IBIB × IBi
(1) a and c
(2) b and d
The trait traced in above pedigree chart is
(3) a and d
(1) X-linked dominant
(4) b and c
(2) Y-linked
(3) Autosomal dominant 14. Assertion ( A) : Embryo development precedes
endosperm development.
(4) Autosomal recessive Reason ( R) : Early stages of embryogeny are different in
both monocots and dicots though seeds are similar.
9. Select the correct option w.r.t. sex linked Mendelian In the light of the above statements, Select the correct
disorder option
(1) Sickle cell anaemia Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
(2) Thalassemia the correct explanation of the assertion

(3) Colour blindness Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) Phenylketonuria
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
10. Two plants of garden pea with the genotype RrYy
(Round, Yellow seeds) are crossed with each other. What (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
is the probability for the offsprings to possess only one of 15. Genotype of a true breeding tall pea plant can be written
the dominant phenotypes? as
(a) TT
(1)
4

16
(b) Tt
(c) tt
(2) 5

16

(1) (a) only

(3)
6

16 (2) (b) only

(4) 3
(3) (c) only
16

(4) Both (a) & (b)

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CMS-003SE_CST-XII_Biology_2023-24_Test-4G

16. Select the odd one w.r.t. polygenic inheritance. 23. Consider the following equation
log S = log C + Z log A
It demonstrates segregation and assortment of genes
(1) In the given species-area relationship equation, C
controlling quantitative traits
represents
Extreme phenotypes are rare and the intermediate (1) Species richness
(2)
ones are more frequent
(2) Y-intercept
(3) Dominant alleles do not show cumulative effect
(3) Area
Common examples are skin colour in man and
(4)
human height (4) Regression coefficient

17. The correct sequence of different parts of an ovule from 24. The most important cause driving animals and plants to
outside to inside is extinction is

(1) Nucellus, Integument, Embryo sac (1) Habitat loss and fragmentation

(2) Integument, Nucellus, Embryo sac (2) Alien species invasions

(3) Nucellus, Funicle, Chalaza (3) Over-exploitation

(4) Integument, Funicle, Nucellus (4) Co-extinctions

18. Active chemical in Rauwolfia vomitoria is 25. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Nicotine Passenger pigeon became extinct due to co-

(1)
extinction
(2) Taxol
(2) Species diversity increases from poles to equator
(3) Azadirachtin
Organisms at higher trophic level in food chain are
(4) Reserpine (3)
less susceptible to extinction
19. Productivity is expressed in terms of energy as At present, the tropical rain forest occupies 14% of
(4)
earth's land area which was previously only 0.6%
(1) g m–2
26. The correctly matched population interaction is
(2) (g m–2) yr–1
Species A Species B Name of interaction
(3) kcal m–2 (1) + – Mutualism
(2) – + Competition
(4) (kcal m–2) yr–1
(3) – – Predation
20. Select the correct option to fill in the blanks w.r.t. Rivet (4) + – Parasitism
popper hypothesis.
Airplane A (1) (1)
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
B Species (2) (2)
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
(3) (3)
(1) A-Ecosystem, B-Rivets
(4) (4)
(2) A-Key species, B-Rivets on the wing
27. Least productive biome is
(3) A-Ecosystem, B-Key species
(1) Tropical rain forest
(4) A-Ecosystem, B-Wings
(2) Temperate forest
21. Term biodiversity was popularised by
(3) Desert
(1) Edward Wilson
(4) Coniferous forest
(2) Lindman
(3) P. Ehrlich 28. Graphical representation of a young or growing
population
(4) R. May
(1) Is a bell shaped age pyramid
22. Tropics show rich biodiversity because,
(2) Shows zero growth rate
(a) Tropical areas receive more solar energy
(b) Tropical environment is relatively more constant and Shows fewer number of individuals in pre-
(3)
predictable than temperate ones. reproductive group
(c) Tropical environment is less seasonal than temperate
environment. (4) Is a triangular shaped age pyramid

(1) Only (a) is correct

(2) Only (b) is correct
(3) Only (c) is correct
(4) All (a), (b) and (c) are correct

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CMS-003SE_CST-XII_Biology_2023-24_Test-4G

29. Match the column I with column II and select the correct 35. Statement A: A daughter will not normally be colour-
option. blind, unless her mother is atleast a carrier and father is
Column I Column II colour-blind.
Statement B: A colour-blind man cannot pass the
a. Pleiotropy (i) Human height disorder to his sons but can pass on to grandsons.
Polygenic Read the above statements and select the correct
b. (ii) Phenylketonuria option.
inheritance
Incomplete (1) Only statement A is correct
c. (iii) Blood group ‘AB’
dominance
(2) Only statement B is correct
Gene for starch grain size
d. Co-dominance (iv) (3) Both statements A & B are incorrect
in pea
(4) Both statements A & B are correct
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) 36. The condition that results in polyploidy is

(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (1) Segregation of chromosomes without DNA replication
Unequal distribution of chromosomes during cell
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2)
division
30. In lac operon, lac i codes for (3) Failure in cell division after DNA replication
(1) Beta-galactosidase
Presence of more than one origins of replication in
(4)
(2) Permease DNA

(3) RNA polymerase 37. Sex of the chicks is determined by

(4) Repressor (1) Their female parent

31. There were 40 fishes last year in a lake and 16 new (2) Both of their male and female parents
fishes have been added through reproduction taking the (3) The temperature at which the egg is incubated
current population to 56. Calculate the birth rate.
(4) Their male parent
(1) 0.49 fishes per month
(2) 0.4 offsprings per fish per year 38. Genes in eukaryotes
(a) Have introns
(3) 0.28 offsprings per fish per year (b) Are split
(c) Are mostly polycistronic
(4) 0.74 offsprings per fish per year
(1) (a) & (b) only
32. A population is growing in a habitat which has limited
resources. This population will show the sequence of (2) (b) & (c) only
growth phases (3) (a) & (c) only
(1) Lag phase → Log phase → Crash (4) All (a), (b) & (c)
(2) Log phase → Lag Phase → Asymptote
39. Which of the following chromosome complements is
Lag phase → Deceleration → Log phase → correct for Klinefelter’s Syndrome?
(3)
Acceleration
(1) 47, XXXX
Lag phase → Acceleration → Deceleration-→
(4) (2) 45, XO
Asymptote
(3) 47, XXY
33. Large holed swiss cheese is ripened by a
(4) 46, XYY
(1) Fungus
(2) Virus 40. Which of the given nitrogenous bases are found in both
DNA and RNA?
(3) Protist (A) Uracil
(B) Adenine
(4) Bacterium (C) Guanine
34. UTRs (untranslated regions) are some additional (D) Thymine
sequences present on mRNA which do not undergo (1) A and B
translation. These sequences are present at
(2) B and C
(1) 5' end only (before start codon)
(3) C and D
5' end (after start codon) and 3' end (before stop
(2) (4) A and D
codon)
5' end (before start codon) and 3' end (after stop
(3)
codon)
(4) 3' end only (after start codon)

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CMS-003SE_CST-XII_Biology_2023-24_Test-4G

41. Primary productivity depends on all, except 48. Backbone of the polynucleotides chain is formed by
(1) Availability of solar radiations (1) Sugar and phosphates
(2) Availability of nutrients (2) Only sugar
(3) Variety of carnivores present in an area (3) Nitrogenous base and sugar
(4) Photosynthetic capacity of plants (4) Nitrogenous base and phosphates

42. Microbial biocontrol agents that can be introduced in 49. During experiment with bacteriophage, Alfred Hershey
order to control butterfly caterpillars is and Martha Chase (1952) used
(1) Trichoderma (1) P32 labelled protein coat and S35 labelled DNA
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) P32 labelled DNA and S35 labelled protein coat
(3) Oscillatoria
32 S35
(4) Methanobacterium (3) P labelled bacteria and labelled
bacteriophage
43. Find the odd one w.r.t. the anther wall layers. 32 labelled
(4) P bacteriophage and S35 labelled
(1) Epidermis bacteria
(2) Middle layers 50. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. population interactions.
(3) Aleurone layer Species A Species B Interaction
(4) Tapetum (1) Cattle egrets Cattles (+, 0)

44. Activated sludge contains (2) Sparrow Seeds (+, –)

Penicillium secreting
(1) Aerobic bacteria only (3) Bacteria (+, –)
Penicillin
(2) Flocs Hedge
(4) Cuscuta (+, –)
(3) Anaerobic bacteria only plant

(4) Anaerobic fungi and bacteria only (1) (1)

45. The last step of DNA fingerprinting is (2) (2)
(1) Blotting (3) (3)
(2) Hybridisation (4) (4)
(3) Electrophoresis 51. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. features of human
(4) Autoradiography genome.
(1) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp
46. DNA is preferred as a genetic material over RNA
because it (2) The average gene consists of 3000 bases
(1) Is structurally more stable (3) Less than 2 percent of genome codes for proteins
(2) Mutates faster (4) Chromosome 1 has fewest genes
(3) Lacks replication 52. RNA polymerase I transcribes all types of rRNAs except
Cannot express itself in the form of Mendelian (1) 28S rRNA
(4)
characters
(2) 18S rRNA
47. During pedigree analysis, consanguineous mating is
represented by the symbol (3) 5.8S rRNA

(1) □
(4) 5S rRNA

53. ____ serve as an important biofertilizer in paddy fields.

(2) (1) Fungi
(2) Mycoplasma

(3) (3) Lichens

(4) Cyanobacteria

(4)

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CMS-003SE_CST-XII_Biology_2023-24_Test-4G

54. In which of the given organisms, Taylor et.al. have proved 60. According to ‘Law of segregation’
semiconservative mode of chromosome replication by
using radioactive thymidine? Two factors of a character get mixed up in
(1) F generation
2
(1) Vicia faba
During gamete formation, factors of a character get
(2) E. coli (2)
mixed up
(3) Pneumococcus Factors of a character separate from each other
(3)
(4) Streptococcus during gamete formation
Out of two factors for each character, dominant will be
55. In an operon model in bacteria, which of the given gene (4) able to express in F generation
in lac-operon is a constitutive gene? 1

(1) Regulator gene 61. Match column I with column II and select the correct
option.
(2) z-gene
Column I Column II
(3) y-gene a. Peptidyl Transferase (i) Joins DNA fragments
(4) Structural gene Activation of amino
b. DNA ligase (ii)
acid
56. How many maximum number of amino acids can be
Amino acyl tRNA Unwinding of DNA
polymerised during translation from the given sequence c. (iii)
synthetase helix
of bases on mRNA if, 7th and 12th bases from 5' undergo Peptide bond
deletion? d. Helicase (iv)
formation
5'AUGCACGAUGACUAUGA3'
(1) 3 (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(2) 4 (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

(3) 5 (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

(4) 2 (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

57. The mathematical expression for the most realistic growth 62. Meselson and Stahl experimentally proved
curve is semiconservative mode of DNA replication in E. coli
using
(1) dN

(1) 15N and N14 isotopes

= rN
dt

(2) (2) Both 15N and S35 isotopes

dN K−N
= rN ( )
dt K

(3) B
× 100
(3) 14N isotopes only
D

(4) Both 15N and P32 isotopes

(4) dN

dt
= (b − d) × N

63. All of the given are the components of transcription unit,

58. Male honeybees except
(1) Are diploid organisms (1) Promoter
(2) Produce gametes by mitosis (2) Regulator
(3) Are developed by fusion of male gametes with egg (3) Structural gene
(4) Do not have fathers but can produce sons (4) Terminator

59. Which of the following adaptations ensures seed 64. Which among the following play important role in guiding
formation even in the absence of any pollinating agent? the pollen tube into the embryo sac?
(1) Protogyny (1) Synergids
(2) Dichogamy (2) Antipodals
(3) Cleistogamy (3) Central cell
(4) Protandry (4) Egg cell

65. Which of the following traits is present in wild-type

Drosophila?
(1) Miniature wings
(2) Yellow body
(3) Red eyes
(4) White eyes

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CMS-003SE_CST-XII_Biology_2023-24_Test-4G

66. Double fertilisation involves fusion of all of the following 74. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis is referred to
except.
(1) Formation of pollen mother cell from megaspore
(1) Egg
(2) Formation of pollen mother cell from microspore
(2) Male gametes
(3) Germination of pollen grain on the stigma
(3) Polar nuclei
(4) Formation of microspores by meiotic division
(4) Synergids
75. In an angiospermic ovule, central cell of the embryo sac,
67. Which of the given propositions based on the observation prior to the entry of pollen tube, contains
of Erwin Chargaff is correct for a double stranded DNA?
(1) A single haploid nucleus
(1) A + G = T + C
(2) One diploid and one haploid nuclei
(2) G = T
(3) Two haploid polar nuclei
(3) A+C

G+T
=> 1 (4) One haploid secondary nuclei

(4) A+T
= 1
76. Gametes of threatened species can be preserved in
G+C
viable and fertile conditions for long periods in/through
68. Who was the first amongst these to demonstrate the (1) Hot spots
scientific basis of inheritance and variation by conducting
hybridisation experiments? (2) Cryopreservation

(1) Hugo de vries (3) Sacred grooves

(2) Gregor Johann Mendel (4) Zoological parks

(3) Morgan 77. Tribal people are integral component of which of the
given biodiversity conservation strategies?
(4) Punnet
(1) Biosphere reserves
69. A typical dicot embryo does not have
(2) Botanical gardens
(1) Epicotyl
(3) Tissue culture
(2) Embryonal axis
(4) Zoological parks
(3) Epiblast
78. Exploring molecular, genetic and species level diversity
(4) Hypocotyl for products of economic importance is called
70. In monocot seed, the sheath that encloses radicle is (1) Bioprospecting
(1) Coleoptile (2) Biofortification
(2) Coleorhiza (3) Bioremediation
(3) Epicotyl (4) Biomagnification
(4) Scutellum 79. Which one is odd w.r.t. population attributes?
71. During transcription in eukaryotes (1) Birth rate
(1) RNA polymerase I synthesises mRNA (2) Sex ratio
(2) RNA polymerase II synthesises rRNA (3) Death
(3) RNA polymerase II synthesises hnRNA (4) Per capita death
(4) RNA polymerase III synthesises mRNA 80. Based on the source of food, organisms occupy a specific
72. Gause’s principle is related to place in food chain that is known as their

(1) Competitive exclusion (1) Trophic level

(2) Population density (2) Strata

(3) Competitive co-existence (3) Standing crop

(4) Resource partitioning (4) Standing state

73. During sewage treatment process, the primary treatment 81. Ecologically, standing crop means the amount of living
material present in
of sewage involves all, except
(1) Formation of primary sludge (1) Trophic level of green plants only at a given time

(2) Use of heterotrophic fungi and bacteria (2) Same trophic levels of only consumers per unit area

(3) Filtration of floating debris (3) Different trophic levels at a given time per unit area

(4) Removal of grit Same trophic level of only primary consumers per unit
(4)
area

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CMS-003SE_CST-XII_Biology_2023-24_Test-4G

82. Heterozygous round - yellow seeded pea plants were 87. How many types of gametes will be produced by the
self-crossed and total 1600 seeds were collected. What individual with genotype AaBBCcDDEe?
will be the total number of seeds with both homozygous
recessive traits? (1) 8

(1) 600 (2) 4

(2) 100 (3) 2

(3) 300 (4) 16

(4) 900 88. If coding strand of a gene has CATGAGCATA sequence,

then what will be the corresponding sequence of the
83. Which of the given is used as immunosuppressive agent transcribed mRNA?
in organ-transplant patients?
(1) C A U G A G C A U A
(1) Statin
(2) G U A C U C G U A U
(2) Lipase
(3) G A U C U C G U A U
(3) Cyclosporin A
(4) C A T G A G C A T A
(4) Streptokinase
89. Which of the given represents monohybrid test cross?
84. If UUU codes for phenylalanine in almost all of the
organisms then it shows that (1) TT × TT

(1) Code is nearly universal (2) Tt × TT

(2) Code is degenerate (3) Tt × tt

(3) Code is ambiguous (4) tt × tt

(4) All organisms share same genetic informations 90. Apomixis is a mechanism in which

85. DNA with more G ≡ C than A = T has Nucellus or integuments never participate in embryo
(1)
formation
(1) High melting areas
(2) Seeds are produced without fertilization
(2) Low melting areas
(3) A diploid egg is fertilized by a male gamete
(3) Unequal number of sugar and phosphates
(4) Embryo always develops from haploid cells
(4) Free 2'-OH group

86. Given below is the sequence of mRNA

5' AUCGGCUACGA 3'
Identify the correct sequence of nucleotides in coding
strand of double stranded DNA read in 3' → 5' direction.
(1) 5' TAGCCGATGCT 3'
(2) 3' AGCATCGGCTA 5'
(3) 3' TAGCCGATGCT 5'
(4) 5' AGCATCGGCTA 3'

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CMS-003SE_CST-XII_Biology_2023-24_Test-4G

except
@COLDHOON
91. All the given statements are correct regarding ZIFT,
ZOOLOGY

96. The method of introducing alien DNA by directly injecting

it into the nucleus of an animal cell is called
Ova from wife / donor (female) and sperms from (1) Biolistics
(1)
husband / donor (male) are collected
(2) Gene gun
Zygote is formed under simulated conditions in the
(2) (3) Microinjection
laboratory
The zygote with upto 8 blastomeres could be (4) Heat shock method
(3)
transferred into fallopian tube 97. Toxin present in Bt cotton in form of protoxin, gets
The zygote with more than 8 blastomeres stage could converted into active toxin by
(4)
be transferred into fallopian tube (1) The action of saliva of insect
92. Assertion (A) : Hepatitis-B and genital warts are not (2) Alkaline pH in gut of insect
completely curable if detected early and treated properly.
Reason (R) : These STDs are non-curable due to (3) Acidic pH in gut of insect
absence or less-significant symptoms in the early stages (4) Action of microorganisms in gut of insect
of infection.
In the light of above statements, select the correct 98. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct
option. answer.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is Column I Column II
(1) a. Implantation (i) Mitotic divisions
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is Seminal Group of cells that differentiates into
(2) b. (ii)
not the correct explanation of the assertion vesicles germ layers
Inner cell Secrete viscous fluid present in
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false c. (iii)
mass semen
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements Embedding of blastocyst in the
d. Cleavage (iv)
endometrium
93. Assertion (A) : Bacterial cells are made competent
before transformation. (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
Reason (R) : DNA is a hydrophilic molecule and cannot
pass through cell membrane. (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
In the light of above statements, select the correct (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
option.
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the Assertion 99. The protein encoded by gene cryIAb controls.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not (1) Mosquitoes
(2)
the correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Beetles
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(3) Corn borer
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(4) Flies
94. RNAi, which is employed in making tobacco plant
resistant to nematode, is essentially involved in 100.During human embryonic development, by the end of
preventing the process of which week is the body covered with fine hair, eye-lids
are separated and eyelashes are formed?
(1) Transcription
(1) 4 weeks
(2) Translation of the mRNA
(2) 12 weeks
(3) Replication of the DNA
(3) 14 weeks
(4) Extension of the DNA
(4) 24 weeks
95. Choose the odd one w.r.t. analogous structures.
101.A drug that adversely affects the cardiovascular system of
(1) Forelimbs of man and cheetah the body is obtained from
(2) Eyes of octopus and of mammals (1) Cannabis sativa
(3) Flippers of penguins and dolphins (2) Erythroxylum coca
(4) Wings of butterfly and birds (3) Atropa belladona
(4) Papaver somniferum

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CMS-003SE_CST-XII_Biology_2023-24_Test-4G

102.The milk produced by Rosie, a GMO is known to be rich 108.Cave paintings by pre-historic humans can be seen at
in which of the following proteins? Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of
(1) Human insulin (1) Rajasthan
(2) Human alpha lactalbumin (2) Uttar Pradesh
(3) β-galactosidase (3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Alpha-1-antitrypsin (4) Jharkhand

103.Select the odd one among the following w.r.t techniques 109.A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of
that allow early diagnosis of diseases. recessive allele a is 0.8, then what will be the frequency
of, heterozygotes in a random mating population at
(1) ELISA
equilibrium?
(2) PCR (1) 0.32
(3) Western blot
(2) 0.16
(4) Serum analysis (3) 0.04
104.A false statement about the following chemical structure (4) 0.64
is
110.Which of the following proteins is used for treatment of
emphysema?
(1) α-lactalbumin
(2) α-1-antitrypsin
(3) Tissue-plasminogen activator
(4) Interferon
It is obtained from the inflorescence of the plant 111. According to 2011 census report, the world population
(1)
Cannabis sativa was around
(2) It affects the cardiovascular system of the body (1) 6 billion
(3) Is commonly called smack (2) 6 million
(4) Its receptors are present principally in the brain (3) 7.2 billion
105.How many of the diseases given in the box below are (4) 7.2 million
vector borne?
Chikungunya, Filariasis, Dengue, Malaria, Pneumonia, 112.Assertion : The first clinical gene therapy was given in
Ascariasis, Diphtheria 1990 to a 4 year old girl with adenosine deaminase
deficiency.
(1) Three Reason : Gene therapy is used to treat hereditary
diseases.
(2) Four In the light of above statements, select the correct option.
(3) Five Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
(4) Six the correct explanation of the assertion.
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
106.In simple stirred tank type of bioreactor, stirrer is (2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
responsible for
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(1) Increase in the pH
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.
(2) Decrease in temperature
(3) Extraction of product 113.Steps of PCR do not include

(4) Uniform availability of oxygen (1) Annealing

(2) Denaturation
107.Where was Saheli developed?
(3) Extension
(1) Central Drug Research Institute, Lucknow
(4) Transformation
(2) All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi
(3) National Institute of Immunology, New Delhi 114.If in a plasmid ‘X’ the sequence 5' GAATTC 3' appears at
three sites, how many restriction fragments will result if
(4) JNCASR, Bengaluru we use EcoRI for restriction digestion?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

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CMS-003SE_CST-XII_Biology_2023-24_Test-4G

115.A divalent cation usually used to make the host cell 121.The genetic defect adenosine deaminase (ADA)
competent is deficiency may be cured permanently by

(1) Ca2+ (1)

Introducing ADA genes into bone marrow stem cells
at early embryonic stage
(2) Mg2+ (2) Enzyme replacement therapy
(3) Zn2+ Periodic infusion of genetically engineered
(3)
lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
(4) Mn2+
(4) Administering adenosine deaminase activators
116.Which of the following is not a critical research area of
122.Isolation of genetic material from fungal cells involves the
biotechnology?
use of all the following, except
Providing the best catalyst in the form of improved
(1) (1) Chitinase
organism usually a microbe or pure enzyme
Creating optimal conditions through engineering for a (2) Lysozyme
(2)
catalyst to act (3) Ribonuclease
Use of better management practices and use of (4) Protease
(3)
agrochemicals
123.Sampling ports in a bioreactor are meant for
Downstream processing technologies to purify the
(4) (1) Temperature control system
protein/organic compound

117.A cellular defence method for silencing of a specific (2) pH control system
mRNA to prevent its translation is based on the process (3) Introduction of raw material
of
(4) Withdrawing small volumes of culture periodically
(1) Gene addition
124.Interferons are secreted mainly by
(2) RNA interference
(1) Natural killer cells
(3) Electrophoresis
(2) All non-infected cells
(4) Elution
(3) Plasma cells
118.Read the following statements and choose the correct
option. (4) Virus infected cells
Statement A: Oxytocin is known as milk let down
125.‘Panspermia’ is favourite idea for some astronomers in
hormone.
Statement B: It stimulates milk ejection in response to context of origin of life. According to this concept
suckling reflex. (1) Life was created by God.
(1) Statement A is incorrect Life originated from non-living material like mud and
(2)
(2) Statement B is incorrect straw.

(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Life came on Earth as spores from some other planet.

(4) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Life arose from some pre-existing life.

119.Complete the analogy w.r.t convergent evolution and 126.When the retrovirus enters macrophages, RNA genome
of the virus replicates to form viral DNA with the help of
select the correct option.
Bobcat : Tasmanian tigercat :: Lemur : __________ (1) Transcriptase inhibitors
(1) Numbat (2) Taq polymerases
(2) Mole (3) Reverse transcriptase
(3) Spotted cuscus (4) Proto-oncogenes
(4) Tasmanian wolf 127.Hardy-Weinberg principle explains
120.For the transformation with recombinant DNA, cells are (1) Size of population
bombarded with high velocity microparticles of gold or
tungsten, coated with DNA in a method known as (2) Average life span of population

(1) Micro-injection (3) Genetic equilibrium

(2) Cloning (4) Non-random mating

(3) Biolistics 128.Liver cirrhosis is mostly caused by the chronic intake of

(4) Elution (1) Heroin

(2) Tobacco
(3) Morphine
(4) Alcohol

11
CMS-003SE_CST-XII_Biology_2023-24_Test-4G

129.Insulin contains 136.Restriction enzyme whose restriction site is represented

by the region marked ‘A’ is
(1) Two polypeptide chains only
(2) Three polypeptide chains only
(3) Four polypeptide chains only
(4) One polypeptide chain only
130.Golden rice has been developed for increased content of
a substance which is considered as a precursor molecule
for vitamin-A. This substance is
(1) Xanthophyll
(2) β-carotene
(3) Anthocyanin (1) Pvu I
(4) Retinol (2) Bam HI
131.A piece of double stranded DNA which was sent to the (3) Pst l
laboratory for amplification was put through 5 cycles of
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). How many copies (4) Hind III
will be obtained at the end of the process? 137.Inactivation of gene in a plasmid due to joining in by any
(1) 16 transgene is known as

(2) 32 (1) Insertional activation

(3) 64 (2) Insertional replication

(4) 128 (3) Insertional inactivation

132.Read the following statements and select the correct (4) Transformation
option. 138.If in a linear DNA, the recognition sequence for Sma I
I. In blue/white colony selection, recombinants produce appears at 3 sites, then how many fragments will be
blue colonies due to insertional inactivation of α- produced?
galactosidase.
II. Transformants produced during genetic engineering (1) Two
include both recombinants and non-recombinants.
(2) Three
(1) Both statements are correct (3) Five
(2) Only statement I is incorrect (4) Four
(3) Only statement II is incorrect
139.‘Darwin’s finches’ present an example of all, except
(4) Both statements are incorrect
(1) Differences in feeding habit
133.In genetic engineering, the most extensively used
(2) Convergent evolution
bacterium among the following is
(3) Founder’s effect
(1) Mycobacterium leprae
(4) Adaptive radiation
(2) Escherichia coli
140.Read the following points
(3) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
a. Cranial capacity about 900 c.c.
(4) Clostridium tetani b. Probably ate meat.
c. First prehistoric man to make use of fire.
134.Symptoms of ascariasis include all of the following, These points are true for
except
(1) Homo habilis
(1) Internal bleeding
(2) Homo erectus
(2) Muscular pain
(3) Australopithecines
(3) Intestinal perforation
(4) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis
(4) Anemia
141.Copper ions released from multiload 375 supress
135.Hind II was the first restriction endonuclease discovered.
This enzyme cut the DNA molecules by recognising a (1) Sperm motility only
specific sequence of
(2) Sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms
(1) 4 base pairs (3) Ovulation
(2) 2 base pairs
(4) GnRH release from hypothalamus
(3) 6 base pairs
(4) 8 base pairs

12
CMS-003SE_CST-XII_Biology_2023-24_Test-4G

142.Cancer cells show the property of A while normal cells 147.Select the correct option w.r.t. increasing cranial capacity
show property of B
−−−
. Here A and B respectively suggested by hominid fossils
−−−
represent Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens
(1)
sapiens → Homo sapiens fossilis
A B
(1) Contact inhibition Metastasis Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
(2)
sapiens → Homo sapiens fossilis
(2) Rapid cell division Escape from cell death
Homo erectus → Homo sapiens neanderthalensis →
(3) Metastasis Contact inhibition (3)
Homo habilis → Homo sapiens fossilis
(4) Contact inhibition Programmed cell death
Homo habilis → Homo sapiens sapiens → Homo
(4)
Select the correct option. erectus → Homo sapiens fossilis
(1) (1) 148.Latimeria is considered as a connecting link between
(2) (2) (1) Fishes and amphibians
(3) (3) (2) Annelids and molluscs
(4) (4) (3) Cartilaginous fishes and bony fishes
143.Ringworm is a fungal disease caused by (4) Annelids and arthropods
(A) Microsporum
(B) Trichophyton 149.In humans, a complex neuroendocrine mechanism
(C) Wuchereria induces parturition and it involves
(D) Epidermophyton (1) Cortisol, FSH and LH
Choose the correct option
(2) Relaxin, oxytocin and prolactin
(1) (A) and (B) only
(3) Estrogen, cortisol and oxytocin
(2) (B) and (C) only
(4) Estrogen, progesterone and prolactin
(3) (A), (B) and (C)
150.The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA
(4) (A), (B) and (D)
technology is
144.Which of the following correctly represents the sequence (1) Estrogen
of evolutionary history of mammals?
(2) Testosterone
Early reptiles → Synapsids → Pelycosaurs →
(1) (3) Thyroxine
Therapsids → Mammals
Extinct reptiles → Sauropsids → Pelycosaurs → (4) Insulin
(2)
Therapsids → Mammals
151.Read the following statements A and B.
Early reptiles → Pelycosaurs → Synapsids → Statement A : MTPs are considered relatively safe during
(3)
Thecodonts → Mammals second trimester i.e. upto 12 weeks of pregnancy.
Statement B : The legal standard procedure of prenatal
Early reptiles → Sauropsids → Thecodonts →
(4) diagnosis to determine the sex of the unborn child is to
Pelycosaurs → Mammals
perform amniocentesis followed by MTP in India.
145.Which of the following points are correct with reference Select the correct option.
to mutation according to the work of Hugo de Vries? (1) Statement A is correct
a. Large difference arising suddenly in a population.
b. Mutation causes evolution. (2) Statement B is correct
c. Mutations are random.
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct
d. Single step large mutations are called saltation.
e. Mutations are directionless (4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(1) a, b & c only 152.A : Anti-venin given to patients of snake bites is an
(2) a, d & e only example of passive immunization.
R : Anti-venin is a preparation containing preformed
(3) b, d & e only antibodies against the snake venom.
(4) a, b, c, d & e Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
146.Which is the largest diverse group/unit that can show
gene flow? Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(1) Population
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(2) Kingdom
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(3) Phylum
(4) Genus

13
CMS-003SE_CST-XII_Biology_2023-24_Test-4G

153.The side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in human 159.Each restriction endonuclease functions by
females do not include (a) Inspecting the length of DNA sequence
(b) Binding to its specific recognition sequence
(1) Increased aggressiveness
(c) Cut only single strand of dsDNA at specific points
(2) Abnormal menstrual cycles (d) Cut in their sugar-nitrogenous base backbone
Choose the correct option from the following.
(3) Breast enlargement
(1) a, b and c only
(4) Enlargement of clitoris
(2) a, b and d only
154.Which of the following animals are preferred for chemical
safety testing and why? (3) a and b only

Non-transgenic animals; as they give the same result (4) a, b, c and d

(1)
as transgenic animals 160.The two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of
Non-transgenic animals; as they are more sensitive to bacteriophage in E.coli were isolated in year
(2)
toxic substances (1) 1963
Transgenic animals; as they are made more sensitive (2) 1983
(3)
to toxic substances
(3) 1990
Transgenic animals; as they are immune to toxic
(4)
substances (4) 1997
155.Who disproved the 'Good humor' hypothesis of health? 161.Which of the following is not a pair of secondary lymphoid
organs in humans?
(1) Hippocrates
(1) Peyer patches, tonsils
(2) William Harvey
(2) Lymph nodes, spleen
(3) M.S Swaminathan
(3) Thymus, Bone marrow
(4) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer
(4) Tonsils, spleen
156.Choose the odd one w.r.t. adaptive radiation in Australia.
162.Test tube baby programme includes all, except
(1) Wombat
(1) ZIFT
(2) Bandicoot
(2) IUT
(3) Sugar glider
(3) GIFT
(4) Flying squirrel
(4) ICSI
157.Who constructed recombinant DNA on the first instance?
163.Assertion (A) : Amniocentesis is a foetal sex and genetic
(1) Har Gobind Khorana disorder determination test.
(2) Hugo de Vries Reason (R) : Fluid secreted by foetus gives indication of
sex and disorders in foetus.
(3) Kary Mullis In the light of above statements, select the correct option.
(4) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer Both Assertion & Reason are true and reason is the
(1)
158.Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct explanation of assertion
correct one from the given statements. Both Assertion & Reason are true but reason is not
(2)
the correct explanation of assertion
DNA fragments can be visualised after
(1) electrophoresis, by exposure to UV radiation, without (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
staining.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
DNA fragments can be visualised directly on the gel,
(2) 164.Which era is recognised as age of reptiles?
without staining.
After gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments are (1) Cenozoic era
(3) stained using ethidium bromide followed by exposure (2) Paleozoic era
to violet light of visible spectrum to visualise them.
(3) Mesozoic era
To visualise DNA fragments after gel electrophoresis,
(4) staining is done by ethidium bromide and then (4) Precambrian era
exposed to UV light.
165.A test based on the chromosomal pattern in the cells of
amniotic fluid surrounding the developing embryo is
called amniocentesis. This test cannot determine
(1) Cleft palate
(2) Down’s syndrome
(3) Haemophilia
(4) Sickle-cell anaemia

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CMS-003SE_CST-XII_Biology_2023-24_Test-4G

166.Which of the following factors has not contributed to 172.Identify the drug represented by the chemical structure
population explosion in India since independence? given below.
(1) Rise in MMR
(2) Decline in IMR
Increase in number of people in reproductive age
(3)
group
(4) Rapid decline in death rate

167.Acccording to Darwin, fitness of the individual is

assessed in terms of
Select the correct option.
(1) Adaptive ability and reproductive fitness
(1) Cocaine
(2) Strategies to obtain food and shelter
(2) LSD
(3) Physical strength
(3) Marijuana
(4) Number of mutations introduced in one generation
(4) Morphine
168.Drug that blocks the uptake of neurotransmitter dopamine
is obtained from 173.Select the mismatch w.r.t. innate immunity.
(1) Physical barrier – Mucus coating of GIT
(1) Papaver somniferum
(2) Physiological barrier – Acid in stomach
(2) Erythroxylum coca
(3) Cellular barrier – PMNL-neutrophils
(3) Cannabis sativa
(4) Cytokine barrier – Natural killer cells
(4) Atropa belladona
(1) (1)
169.Theory of spontaneous generation was disapproved by
(2) (2)
(1) Oparin
(3) (3)
(2) Louis Pasteur
(4) (4)
(3) Haldane
174.Which of the following diseases can be characterized by
(4) Cuvier
symptoms like constipation, abdominal pain, cramps,
170."It is a stochastic process based on chance events in stools with excess mucous and blood clots?
nature and chance mutation in the organisms". This (1) Amoebic dysentery
statement tells us about
(2) Malaria
(1) Non directional nature of evolution
(3) Ringworm
(2) Directional mutations leading to natural selection
(4) Typhoid
Lack of anthropogenic impact on the evolutionary time
(3)
scale 175.Given below are the statements w.r.t AIDS.
(A) HIV has an envelope enclosing the DNA genome.
Constant rate of reproduction & evolution in all
(4) (B) Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs is only
organisms
partially effective.
171.Match following columns A and B. (C) AIDS was first reported in 1891 in India.
(D) A foetus can get the HIV infection from the infected
Column A Column B
mother through placenta.
a. Human heart is formed (i) During 5th month of Select the option which constitutes incorrect statements
gestation only.
Development of limbs At the end of first (1) (A) and (B)
b. (ii)
and digits trimester of pregnancy (2) (A) and (C)
c.
Major organ systems
(iii) By the end of 2nd month (3) (C) and (D)
are formed of pregnancy
(4) (A), (C) and (D)
First movement of After one month of
d. (iv)
foetus is observed pregnancy 176.If nature favours those individuals in the population which
Choose the option containing all correct match. possess the mean character value, then it is said that
natural selection leads to
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Stabilisation
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) Directional change
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) Progressive change
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Disruption

15
CMS-003SE_CST-XII_Biology_2023-24_Test-4G

177.Which of these options support Lamarckian view? 179.Which set of structures share similar ploidy levels?
Most geologic events occur slowly rather than (1) Spermatogonia, ovum
(1)
catastrophically
(2) Spermatid, secondary oocyte
(2) Only germ cells carry characters to offspring
(3) Ootid, primary oocyte
Development of organs is inversely proportion to its
(3) (4) Spermatozoa, primary spermatocyte
use
Certain parts of the body get larger and complex 180.During parturition
(4)
through generations due to their extensive use (1) Oxytocin promotes relaxation of pubic symphysis
178.Match column I with column II w.r.t. female reproductive Cervical mucus plug is further strengthened by
system in humans and select the correct option. (2)
estrogen and progesterone
Column I Column II
(3) There is an increase in estrogen to progesterone ratio
Membrane partially covering
(a) Infundibulum (i) (4) Prostaglandins are secreted from corpus luteum
vagina
Stroma of
(b) (ii) Tertiary follicle
ovary
(c) Antrum (iii) Divided into cortex and medulla
Funnel shaped structure of
(d) Hymen (iv)
oviduct

(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

16