ICAO-ANNEX 6…………………………………………………………………………

A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over:

a) 7,000 kg
b) 10,000 kg
c) 5,700 kg
d) 20,000 kg

A flight engineer is required to be part of the flight crew if:

a) The aeroplane has three engines or more.
b) If there is a Flight Engineer station on the flight deck and the duty of that station
cannot be satisfactorily performed by another flight crew member.
c) If there is a Flight Engineer station on the flight deck.
d) Flight time is expected to be more than 8 hours.

A flight under IFR should not be commenced unless the indicated weather conditions at
the destination or a nominated alternate will be:
a) At departure time, equal to or above the operating minima for aerodrome use.
b) At the intended time of arrival equal to or better than the aerodrome operating
minima.
c) At the intended time of arrival, and within a reasonable period of time before and
after the nominated time, better than the operating minima for the aerodrome use.
d) Throughout the period of the flight, at or above the minima for aerodrome use.

A list to be carried in the aeroplane detailing minimum equipment required must be

approved by:
a) State of the manufacturer.
b) No such book is required to be approved by an authority.
c) State of the operator.
d) State of operations.

A Mach meter is to be fitted to the aeroplane:

a) Where flight conditions are referenced to ISA.
b) In areas where speed is reported using Mach no.
c) When aeroplane speed limitations are expressed as a Mach no.
d) For SST operations only.

When a maintenance release has been issued for a flight, how long should the form be
retained by the operator?
a) 3 months
b) 1 month
c) 12 months
d) 6 months

A pilot in command:

1. Must comply with any ATC instruction immediately.

2. Is only responsible for the safety of the aircraft when airborne.
3. May deviate from the Rules of the Air in an emergency.
4. May only deviate from complying with Rules of the Air in order to comply with an ATC
instruction.
5. May request a revised ATC clearance if the clearance received is unsatisfactory.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 3,4 & 5.
b) All of the above.
c) 3 & 5.
d) 1, 3, 4 & 5.

A pilot is not to act as pilot-in-command or co-pilot unless:

a) He has completed 3 flights as pilot in an aeroplane or simulator of the same
type to be used within the previous 30 days.
b) He has completed 3 flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or approved
simulator of the type to be used in the previous 90 days.
c) He has completed 3 take-offs and landings in an aeroplane or approved
simulator of the same type to be used within the previous 90 days.
d) He has completed 3 take-offs and landings in any aircraft or approved
simulator within the previous 60 days.

A transport category aircraft suffers an unserviceability on the ground prior to taxiing fot
take-off. To which document would the pilot refer?
a) Technical Log.
b) Minimum Equipment List.
c) Configuration Deviation List.
d) Aeroplane Flight Manual

Above what altitude are quick-donning masks required?

a) 15,000 ft
b) 10,000 ft
c) 25,000 ft
d) 32,000 ft

Above what altitude is a radiation indicator required to be carried?

a) 49,[Link]
b) 39,000 ft
c) 29,000 ft
d) 66,000 ft

Above what altitude is stored breathing oxygen required for the crew and all passengers
in an un-pressurized aircraft ?
a) 13,000 ft
b) 11,000 ft
c) 10,000 ft
d) 12,000 ft

According to ICAO Annex 6 a flight shall not be commenced in accordance with

instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the
aerodrome of predicted destination or at an aerodrome of alternate destination are at the
predicted time of:
a) Arrival (ETA) equal to or better than the areodrome operating minima.
 b) Take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for
aerodrome use.
c) Arrival and for a reasonable time before and after such a predicted time equal
to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
d) Arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

According to ICAO Annex 6 if a 255 seat aeroplane is carrying 251 passengers the
required medical supplies to be carried is?
a) Three First Aid Kits and One Medical Kit.
b) Four First Aid Kits and One Medical Kit.
c) One First Aid Kit and Four Medical Kits.
d) Three Nurses and one Doctor.

According to ICAO Annex 6 what is the minimum time between pilot proficiency checks ?
a) 6 months
b) 4 months
c) 5 months
d) 3 months

Aerodrome Operating Minima (AOM) are based on several factors which combination of
the following are factors assessed in defining AOM?

1. Runway length
2. Crew composition
3. Means used to report meteorological conditions
4. Obstacles in the go around and approach areas

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1,2,3 & 4.
b) 1 & 4.
c) 1, 2 & 4
d) 1, 3 & 4

Aerodrome operating minima are required to be specified for:

a) Aerodromes to be used in IMC.
b) Each of the aerodromes to be used in operations.
c) Aerodromes where no convenient alternate exists.
d) Only departure and destination aerodromes.

After an accident the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep
the original recordings for a minimum period of:
a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 45 days
d) 90 days

An operator has to ensure that instrument procedures are used. When may a
commander deviate from those procedures?
a) When cleared by ATC.
b) When cleared by JAA.
c) When cleared by the Operator.
 d) When cleared by the Authority.

An unpressurised flight where the cabin altitude is greater than 10,000ft will be required
to carry stored breathing oxygen to supply :
a) The crew and the passengers for any period that the atmospheric pressure in
compartments will be more than 620 hPa.
b) All crew members and 10% of the passengers for any period in excess of 30
minutes that the compartments are between 10,000ft and 13,000ft.
c) All crew and passengers plus 10% for any period in excess of 30 minutes that
the compartments are between 10,000ft. and 13,000ft.
d) All of the cabin crew for 10 minutes

Annexes to the Chicago Convention contain:

a) All of the cabin crew for 10 minutes
b) Standards and Recommended Practices.
c) Search and Rescue Procedures
d) Standards and Regulatory Procedures.

Are you as the Pilot in Command permitted to switch off a flight recorder?
a) Yes but only after an incident or accident.
b) No it is illegal to switch it off.
c) Yes if you want to talk privately to the First Officer.
d) No because it will automatically reset itself and the previous recording will be
lost

At take off the mass of an aeroplane shall be

a) Not more than the flight manual maximum for the specific conditions.
b) Not more than maximum landing mass.
c) Such that the take off run can be completed or safely abandoned up to Vr.
d) Less than that which would enable compliance with any noise abatement
procedure

At what level do Reduced Vertical Separation Minima operations start?

a) FL 290
b) FL 270
c) FL 410
d) FL 245

Before commencing a flight pilots and crew members are to be familiar with the laws
regulations and procedures applicable to the airspace in which they are flying. Who is
responsible for ensuring compliance ?
a) The Operations Officer
b) The Operator
c) Individual crew members
d) The Pilot in Command

Before flight the Pilot is required to carry out certain acceptance checks.
Which of the combination of the following are checks that must be carried out?

1. The aeroplane is airworthy

2. Instruments and equipment for the flight are installed and sufficient.
3 Mass and C of G are within limits.
4. Load is distributed and secured properly.
5. Aeroplane limitations can be complied with.
6 .Maintenance release has been issued.
7. The Operational Flight Plan is in a fireproof container in the aeroplane.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) All the above except 7.
b) 4, 5 and 6
c) 3, 4, 5 and 6
d) All the above except 1

Can a proficiency check be carried out in a simulator?

a) No because it includes piloting technique it must be in an aeroplane.
b) No simulators may only be used for type rating tests
c) Yes but a confirmation check ride in an aeroplane is required
d) Yes but only for the parts of the check for which the simulator is approved by
the Authority of the State of the Operator.

Destination alternate for a turbojet - what is the required fuel overhead?

a) 30 minutes at cruise speed.
b) 30 minutes at endurance speed.
c) 30 minutes at 1,500ft in standard conditions.
d) 2 hours at 1,500ft in standard conditions.

During the flight crew pre-flight checks on a public transport flight a piece of equipment
fails. In order to determine if it is safe to proceed :
a) The Pilot in Command will consult the MMEL for guidance
b) The Pilot in Command will consult the MEL in order to determine if the
unserviceability can be accepted for the flight
c) The ground engineer should confirm the fault and decide if the aeroplane can
continue
d) Pilot in Command will contact the Operator for a technical opinion on the
unserviceability

FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last:
a) The whole flight.
b) 25 hours of operation.
c) 48 hours of operation.
d) 30 hours of operation.

Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
a) While at their station.
b) Only during take-off and landing.
c) From take-off to landing.
d) Only during take-off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander
in the interest of safety.

Following an incident which contravenes local procedures or regulations of a state other

than it's own state the action is :
 a) The PIC must notify the local Authority in writing within 7 days
b) The Operator is required to notify the State of the Operator within 10 days
c) The PIC must advise ATS immediately but no further action is required
d) The PIC must submit any such required report to the local Authority with a
copy to the State of the Operator (normally within 10 days)

For a two engine aeroplane operating to the `engine-out' limitations when are life jackets
required?
a) 50nm from land.
b) If deemed necessary by the Authority.
c) Beyond gliding distance from land.
d) 100nm from land.

For an aerodrome to be selected as a take-off alternate :

a) An aeroplane having three or more engines can be not more than two hours
flying time away at the all engine cruise speed in ISA
b) An aeroplane having two power units can be more than a distance of 1 hour's
flying
c) An aeroplane having three or more engines can be not more than a distance
equal to two hour's flying time at the `one engine-out' cruise speed
d) An aeroplane having two power units can be not more than one hour's flying
distance at the single engine cruise speed at 1,500ft ISA

For how long are completed flight preparation forms to be retained?

a) 2 years
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 1 year

How is a pre-flight inspection defined?

a) The final inspection by the maintenance personnel.
b) The commander's or first officer's walk round before a flight.
c) The inspection carried out before flight to ensure that the aeroplane is fit for
flight.
d) The before flight inspection to look for factors needing final rectification.

How may the Visual Approach be correctly described?

a) An approach when part or all of the instrument approach is carried out
visually with reference to the terrain.
b) An approach where the conditions preclude an instrument approach.
c) An approach when the use of instruments is not the method of reference.
d) An approach which includes a visual circuit

How often should pilot proficiency checks be performed according to ICAO Annex 6?
a) Every 6 months.
b) Twice a year.
c) Every 4 to 6 months
d) Every 6 to 8 months

How should break-in points always be marked on aeroplanes?

a) Red and yellow markings every 2 metres
 b) Red and yellow corner markings with intermediate lines in gaps greater than
2 metres.
c) Yellow corner markings on a white background
d) Corner markings coloured red or yellow with intermediate lines where outline
is greater than 2 metres in length

ICAO Annex 6 requirements for an aeroplane to be able to depart on an IFR flight are :
a) that the conditions at the destination or at the Destination Alternate are
forecast to be at or above the aerodrome operating minima at the time of
intended time of arrival
b) If the conditions at the destination aerodrome are forecast to be below
aerodrome operating minima two Alternates are required which must be
forecast to be within limits for the intended time of use
c) that the conditions forecast for the destination aerodrome will be above the
aerodrome operating minima on arrival
d) Both b and c are correct

If a report of a violation is required to whom is the report to be copied in addition to the

primary addressee?
a) The Authority of the State of the Operator.
b) The Authority of the State in which the violation took place.
c) The Operator.
d) The ATCU in the State where the violation took place.

If an operator establishes a minimum flight altitude for a route that altitude is to be:
a) At least 1,000ft above the highest obstacle within 10nm of track.
b) Not less than 10,000ft agl.
c) Adhered to whilst flying IFR.
d) Not lower than any altitude prescribed by the Authority of the State being over
flown.

If the commander of an aeroplane violates any rule regulation or local procedure

a) He/she is to report the matter immediately only if flying under IFR.
b) He/she is to report the matter immediately unless no other aeroplane is
involved.
c) He/she is to report the matter to the Authority in the State of registration
immediately.
d) He/she is to report the matter to the local Authority by the quickest means
available.

If the latest meteorological visibility is reported to be below the minimum required for a
non-precision approach by which criterion must the approach be aborted?
a) 1,000ft above the ARP.
b) Final Approach Fix.
c) Inner marker.
d) Outer marker.

If the VSO of an aeroplane at its maximum certificated landing mass is 111kts to which
category does it belong?
a) A.
b) B.
 c) D.
d) C.

If there is unauthorised use of equipment that affects the aeroplane's system the
commander:
a) May authorise its use at his discretion.
b) May authorise its use for take-off and landing.
c) Must not authorise its use.
d) May authorise its use for the whole flight.

If you are planning to fly in an unpressurised aircraft at FL120 how much stored
breathing oxygen must be carried on board
a) Enough for the crew and all the passengers for any period when the cabin
pressure is between 700hPa and 620hPa.
b) Enough for 10% of the passengers and all the crew.
c) Enough for 10% of the passengers and all the crew for the time when the
cabin pressure is above 700hPa
d) Enough for all the crew and 10% of the passengers for any period exceeding
30 minutes provided the cabin altitude does not exceed 13,000ft.

If you were to fly along a route for which the minimum flight altitude has not been
specified where would you find information concerning the approved method of
calculation?
a) In the AIP.
b) In the Operations Manual.
c) In JAR OPS-1.
d) In Annex 2.

In accordance with ICAO Annex 6 when must life rafts and pyrotechnics be carried?
a) 30 mins at cruising speed or 100 nm from land whichever is the greater.
b) When flying at a distance greater than 50 nm from land.
c) 120 mins at cruising speed or 400 nm from land whichever is the lesser.
d) 60 mins at cruising speed or 200 nm from land whichever is the lesser.

In accordance with ICAO Annex 6 at take off time you are told that your nominated
destination alternate is below minima. Under what circumstances can you take off?
a) The destination has 2 separate runways.
b) If it is forecasting to be equal to or above the minima at ETA.
c) Providing the final portion of the flight is to be conducted under VFR.
d) You cannot; it must be above minima at take-off.

In accordance with ICAO Annex 6 if there are 150 passenger seats on an aeroplane how
many first aid kits are required?
a) 3.
b) 1.
c) 4.
d) 2.

In accordance with ICOA 6 to act as Pilot in Command of an aeroplane he/she must

have
 a) made at least three take-offs or landings in an aeroplane of the same type or
an approved simulator within the preceding 90 days
b) made at least three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane within the
preceding 90 days
c) made at least three take-offs or landings in an aeroplane within the preceding
90 days
d) made at least three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane of the same type
within the preceding 90 days

In determining Aerodrome Operating Minima what of the following needs to be

considered?

1. Crew composition.
2. Ability to communicate/receive meteorological information.
3. Significant obstacles in the missed approach area.
4. Dimensions and characteristics of the runway.
5. Navigation equipment in the aeroplane.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 4 & 5.
b) All of the above.
c) 2, 3, 4 & 5.
d) 1, 2 & 3.

In order to preserve the integrity of a navigation system a design philosophy is

employed; what is that philosophy?
a) A full manual reversion system is incorporated in case of failure.
b) Reliance on ground based navigation aids is to be minimised.
c) A failure in one piece of equipment will not cause a failure in another.
d) Gross navigation error is not to exceed 2nm

In what circumstance can the requirements of a destination alternate be dispensed with?

a) The landing can be made visually
b) The weather along the whole route is forecast VMC until the ETA
c) The destination is too isolated for a suitable alternate.
d) There is sufficient fuel on board to return to the departure airfield.

In which manual is the Minimum Equipment List included?

a) In the Maintenance Documents.
b) The Aeroplane Flight Manual.
c) In the Operations Officer's documents.
d) The Operations Manual.

Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the:

a) Operations manual.
b) Flight manual.
c) Operational flight plan.
d) Journey logbook.

It is a requirement that if a piece of navigation equipment fails

 a) A replacement item must be carried as a spare.
b) The pilot-in-command will not have to refer to the MEL.
c) ATC must be informed.
d) The failure will not cause another piece of equipment to fail.

It is recommended that a weather warning radar (AWR) be carried in areas where

thunderstorms are likely to exist :
a) In all aeroplanes at night.
b) In all aeroplanes in IMC.
c) In all aeroplanes carrying passengers in IMC
d) In pressurised aeroplanes at night or in IMC.

Life jackets are required when overflying water:

a) 300 nm from land.
b) 50 nm from land.
c) 400 nm from land.
d) 100 nm from land.

Of the following people who specifically may have access to the flight deck?

1. A pilot positioning for a flight.

2. A person permitted according to the Operations Manual.
3. Wives of flight crew
4. Cabin crew members.
5. Representatives of the Authority.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1,2 & 4
b) 2,3 & 5
c) 1,2 & 5
d) 2,4 & 5

On an ILS you are told that the visibility has dropped below company minima. When
must you abort the approach?
a) Inner Marker.
b) Start of the glide-slope descent
c) Outer Marker.
d) FAF

On board a pressurised aircraft a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided
with an oxygen reserve enabling all crew members and part of the passengers to be
supplied with oxygen in the event of cabin depressurisation for the whole flight period
during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
a) 10,000ft
b) 11,000ft
c) 12,000ft
d) 13,000ft

Over what period is the journey logbook required to provide a continuous record?
a) 3 months
b) 1 year
 c) 6 months
d) 30 days

Part of the safety equipment requirement carried on all land aeroplanes on long range
over-water fights is :
a) a sea anchor.
b) A floating device equipped with an ELT.
c) Life rafts in sufficient numbers to carry all persons on board at more than a
distance corresponding to 120 minutes at cruising speed (all engines
operating) or 400 nms whichever is the lesser away from land suitable for an
emergency landing.
d) Life rafts in sufficient numbers to carry all persons on board at more than a
distance corresponding to 120 minutes at cruising speed (1 power unit
inoperative) or 400 nms whichever is the lesser away from land suitable for
an emergency landing.

Procedures for search and rescue are to be found in which document?

a) Flight Safety Programmes
b) Operations Manual.
c) Operating Manual.
d) Journey logbook.

Refuelling an aircraft with passengers embarking or disembarking is:

a) Permitted only if all stairs are in position.
b) Permitted only if all stairs are in position.
c) Permitted only if communications are maintained with the ground crew.
d) Permitted only if the flight deck crew is on board.

The "NO SMOKING" sign must be illuminated:

a) In each cabin section if oxygen is being carried.
b) During climb and descent.
c) When oxygen is being supplied in the cabin.
d) During take-off and landing.

The authority of a State in which an aerodrome is located is required to produce

calculated minima for the use of that aerodrome.
Why then is the Operator required to specify Aerodrome Operating Minima for all the
aerodromes likely to be used as destinations or alternates?
a) The State minima are based on obstacle clearance AMSL and the aircrews
require data referenced to aerodrome elevation
b) It is not possible to calculate DH (A) from OCL data.
c) The State minima do not take into account crew competence.
d) Because the minima specified by the State is only basic information.

The Chicago Convention Annex which is applicable to the operation of aeroplanes in

commercial air transport is:
a) Annex 1
b) Annex 2
c) Annex 6
d) Annex 9
The document that prescribes specific requirements applicable to member states for the
operation of any civil commercial air transport aeroplane is:
a) ICAO Annex 2.
b) The UK AIP.
c) JAR OPS-1.
d) ICAO Annex 6.

The JAR-OPS document is based on:

a) Rules of the Air.
b) ICAO Annex 6.
c) A JAA guide line.
d) Federal Aviation Requirements ( FAR ).

The MEL is drawn up by:

a) The operator and may be more restrictive than the MMEL.
b) The state of registration and can be more restrictive than the MMEL.
c) The operator and can be less restrictive than the MMEL.
d) The manufacturer's aircraft list.

The MEL is:

a) A message from the national civil aviation authority about conditions that may
affect the safety of flight.
b) A list of equipment in an aircraft that may affect the airworthiness
c) Meteorological Environment Limitation instructions from ECAC regarding
conditions mentioned in the certificate of environment approval of the aircraft.
d) A set of instructions which specifies the conditions under which a flight may
commence if some of the aircraft equipment is unserviceable

The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by the:

a) Aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on.
b) Airline operator.
c) Manufacturer.
d) Civil Aviation Authority of the European states.

The minimum fuel required by ICAO Annex 6 to be carried by a turbo-jet aeroplane on

arrival at an isolated destination is :
a) 60 minutes
b) 2 hours plus enough for a hold for 15 minutes at 1,500 ft above the
aerodrome
c) 60 minutes plus enough for a hold for 30 minutes at 1,500 ft above the
aerodrome
d) 2 hours at normal cruise consumption

The MMEL is compiled by:

a) The aeroplane operator.
b) The aeroplane manufacturer
c) The authority of the state of manufacture
d) The authority of the state of registration

The MMEL is drawn up by the:

a) Designer and may be more restrictive than the MEL.
 b) Designers and may be less restrictive than the MEL.
c) Designers and may be less restrictive than the MMEL.
d) Operator and may be less restrictive than the MMEL

The pressure in the standard atmosphere at 13,000ft is :

a) 420 hpa
b) 720 hpa
c) 520 hpa
d) 620 hpa

The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an

operator must not be less than:
a) 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during
the last 90 days.
b) 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during
the last 6 months.
c) 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during
the last 6 months.
d) 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during
the last 90 days.

The VFR minima for flight in Class B airspace above FL 100 are?
a) 8 km forward visibility 1,000 ft vertically and 1,500m laterally clear of cloud.
b) 8 km forward visibility and clear of cloud.
c) 5 km forward visibility and clear of cloud.
d) 5 km forward visibility 1,000 ft vertically and 1,500m laterally clear of cloud

The visibility is just about on minima. Your DH for an ILS to runway 26L is 200ft based
on an OCH of 120ft.
You have made a `Pan Pan' call because you have carried out a precautionary shut
down of the No3 engine.
A report from an aeroplane that has just taken off gave a cloud ceiling of 150ft.
What is the lowest height to which you are permitted to descend in order to obtain visual
references for landing?
a) 120 ft
b) 150 ft
c) 200 ft
d) As low as is required to get the visual reference

Through what angle can the regulatory green navigation light of an aircraft be seen?
a) 140°
b) 110°
c) 70°
d) 90°

Through what angle can the regulatory white navigation light of an aircraft be seen?
a) 140°
b) 90°
c) 10°
d) 70°
To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing you must have:
a) Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently.
b) Operated the flight controls as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days.
c) Been at the controls as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days.
d) Operated the flight controls during three take-off and landings as PIC or
co-pilot on type in the last 90 days.

To qualify as a commander a pilot must have completed:

a) 3 take offs and 3 landings in the last 6 months.
b) 6 take offs and 6 landings in the last 90 days.
c) 3 take offs and 3 landings in the last 90 days.
d) 6 take offs and 6 landings in the last 6 months.

Type 1 & Type 2 FDRs must continuously record for at least the last:
a) 25 hours of operation.
b) 48 hours of operation.
c) 30 hours of operation.
d) The whole flight.

Type I & II FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last:
a) The whole flight.
b) 25 hours of operation
c) 30 hours of operation.
d) 48 hours of operation.

Under what circumstances must an aeroplane have a Mach meter fitted?

a) If the aircraft was registered on or after 1 Apr 88 and has a MTMA greater
than 5,700Kg.
b) If it is required to fly in areas where speed is defined in Mach no.
c) If it has the capability of flying faster than Mach 1.0.
d) When aircraft speed limitations are expressed as a Mach no.

Use of which piece of equipment from the following list is required to be included in the
passenger brief?
a) Break in areas
b) Portable oxygen kits.
c) First aid kits
d) First aid kits

What correctly describes the contents of the aircraft operating manual?

a) The operational flight plan normal and abnormal operating procedures MEL.
b) Checklists system details emergency procedures normal and abnormal
operating procedure
c) MEL checklists system details the operational flight plan.
d) Emergency procedures training requirements system details aeroplane
performance

What is a flight data recorder required to do?

a) Record all communications on the flight deck.
b) Record all radio transmission from aircraft over 5,700 kg MTMA
c) Record all 32 parameters
 d) Record continuously during flight.

What is ASDA?
a) The Acceleration/Stop Distance Acceptable.
b) The Aircraft Specific Decision Altitude.
c) The distance within which an aircraft must stop in the event of an aborted
take-off.
d) A local supermarket.

What is not required for the operator to consider for the routes and areas of its
operations?
a) Aeroplane performance with regard to minimum flight altitude.
b) Safe forced landing surfaces for all aeroplanes.
c) Appropriate maps and charts.
d) Meteorological services.

What is recommended to be included in the Journey Log Book?

a) Aeroplane registration names of crew members date of arrival signature of
person in charge.
b) Incidents duty assignments of crew emergency equipment date.
c) Aeroplane nationality fuel calculations place of departure observations.
d) Hours of flight time of departure nature of flight flight duty limitations.

What is required for navigation in IMC?

a) One VHF box and one HF box.
b) Anti-icing equipment.
c) A serviceable weather radar.
d) Radio and navigation equipment for guidance until the visual point.

What is the correct definition for Minimum Descent Height?

a) The specified altitude on a precision approach or circling approach below
which descent must not be made without visual reference.
b) The specified height on a non-precision approach or circling approach below
which descent must not be made without visual reference.
c) The specified height on a precision approach or circling approach below
which descent must not be made without visual reference.
d) The specified altitude on a non-precision approach or circling approach below
which descent must not be made without visual reference.

What is the currency requirement for appointment as Pilot in Command?

a) Two night landings in the last month
b) 1,500 hours on type and not more than 100 hours in the last 28 days.
c) Three IFR take-offs and landings in the last three months.
d) Three take-offs and landings in the same type in the past 90 days.

What is the requirement for the carriage of life rafts?

a) 50 nm from land.
b) 120 mins or 400 nm whichever is less where the areoplane is operated in
compliance with the en-route "engine out" criteria.
c) 60 mins flying time at the one engine out cruise speed.
d) 30 mins or 120 nm whichever is less.
What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC?
a) Have facilities for all maintenance.
b) Not already hold an AOC issued by another authority.
c) Have a fleet of serviceable aeroplanes.
d) Have registered offices in all countries of operations.

What is the requirement regarding the carriage of a CVR for aircraft registered before
April 1998?
a) Record the last 25 hours of operation
b) Record last 30 mins of flight.
c) Record the last 48 hours of flight.
d) Record for the duration of the flight.

What must be ensured with respect to navigation equipment?

a) All navigation equipment must be serviceable at the start of flight.
b) The failure of one piece does not affect another.
c) All equipment must conform to ICAO specifications.
d) If one piece of equipment fails there must be a spare available.

What must be ensured with respect to navigation equipment?

a) All navigation equipment must be serviceable at the start of flight
b) If one piece of equipment fails there must be a spare available.
c) If an item of equipment fails the aeroplane can still be navigated to the
required specification
d) All equipment must conform to ICAO specifications.

What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?

a) Simulator flying skills.
b) Flying technique emergency procedures and IFR.
c) The ability to conform with set procedures.
d) The ability to land safely.

When are all flight crewmembers required to have their seat belts fastened?
a) When at their duty station.
b) Always - unless absence is necessary to satisfy physiological needs.
c) For take off and landing.
d) In an emergency.

When does an aeroplane require an HF radio system?

a) When flying in areas where HF frequencies are specified for ATC
communications
b) When flying above FL55 in the Gander OCA.
c) When flying below the level for VHF communications.
d) At night or when flying over remote areas.

When is a pilot permitted to dispense with the shoulder straps of the safety harness?
a) In the cruise phase
b) Above safety altitude
c) At all times other than take-off and landing.
 d) If the shoulder straps interfere with his duties.

When is MDH referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?

a) The threshold is less than 2m above the aerodrome elevation.
b) The threshold is less than 2m below the aerodrome elevation.
c) The threshold is more than 2m below the aerodrome elevation.
d) The threshold is more than 2m above the aerodrome elevation.

When planning an IFR flight for a turbojet and a destination alternate is required - what is
the required fuel overhead?
a) 30 minutes at cruise speed.
b) 2 hours at 1500 ft in standard condition.
c) Fly via any predetermined point and remain airborne for 30 minutes at
endurance speed.
d) 30 minutes at 1,500 ft in standard conditions for approach and landing.

When refueling is being conducted with passengers embarking/disembarking :

a) a loading bridge must be in position at 2 of the aeroplane's exits and smoking
is prohibited
b) all flight crew must be on board
c) refueling is strictly forbidden whilst passengers are embarking/disembarking
d) communications must be maintained between the ground crew and a
qualified crew member on board

Where are the contents of the operational flight plan detailed?

a) The journey log book.
b) The operating manual.
c) The operations manual.
d) The aircraft flight manual.

Where is general information about the carriage of Dangerous Goods to be found ?

a) The AFM
b) The Operations Manual
c) JAR FCL
d) ICAO Annex 6

Where is the general information about the carriage of dangerous goods to be found?
a) Aeroplane Flight Manual.
b) Mass and Balance Manual.
c) Operations Manual.
d) Operating Manual.

Which aircraft are required to carry a Ground Proximity Warning System?

a) A turbojet aircraft registered on 1 Jul 99 with a MTMA of 5,700Kg
b) Any aeroplane with a MTMA greater than 15,000Kg.
c) All turbine engined aeroplane with a MTMA greater than 5,700Kg or
authorised to carry more than 9 passengers.
d) A Turbojet aircraft registered on 1 Jan 2000 for the carriage of 9 passengers.
Which combination of the following are items for which completed flight operations forms
are required prior to flight?

1. The aeroplane is airworthy.

2. The operating limits can be complied with.
3. The load is secured safely and properly distributed.
4. The refuelling certificate has been completed.
5. Standards relating to flight operational planning have been complied with.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) All the above
c) 1 and 3.
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5.

Which document is the JAA authoritative reference for operational procedures for
commercial air transport?
a) ICAO Annex 2.
b) ICAO Annex 6
c) The UK AIP
d) JAR OPS-1.

Which document provides the basic structure for Standards and Recommended
Practices of Commercial Air Operators?
a) ICAO Annex 6
b) JAR OPS-1
c) ICAO Annex 2
d) The UK AIP.

Which of the following are operators' responsibilities?

1. Employees must comply with the laws of the country in which operations are being
conducted.
2. Cabin crew must be familiar with laws regulations and procedures applicable to the
airspace.
3. Pilots and other flight crew members are familiar with aerodromes and navigation
facilities to be used.
4. Commanders have all essential information concerning Search and Rescue services.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 4.
b) All of the above
c) 2, 3 & 4.
d) 1, 3 & 4.

Which of the following are valid criteria for a take-off diversion aerodrome?
a) Not more than one hour's flying distance for an aeroplane with one engine
out.
b) Not less than two hours flying distance for a twin engined aeroplane.
c) A distance equal to two hours or less flying time at 'one engine out' cruise
speed for a four engined aeroplane.
 d) Not less than two hours flying distance for a three engined aeroplane with
one engine out.

Which of the following criteria must the landing mass of an aeroplane comply with?
a) Allow a continuous descent on a 3ø glide path with cruise power set (no drag
enhancers used).
b) Land and stop within the LDA.
c) Allow a fast turn off lane to be used at a speed up to 60kts
d) Clear all approach obstacles and stop within the length of the runway
(including the overrun).

Which of the following is a requirement of the Operating Manual?

a) It must include aeroplane performance specifications.
b) It is acceptable for it to refer to other documents.
c) It must contain normal abnormal and emergency operating procedures.
d) It must contain all the information required by ICAO Annex 8.

Which of the following is critical in noise abatement procedures?

a) Maximum climb angle.
b) Aircraft weight category.
c) Take-off mass.
d) Use of re-heat (afterburners).

Which of the following is required to be on board for the area over which the flight is
flown?
a) Topographical maps indicating the position of every aerodrome worldwide.
b) A local navigator in areas designated as remote.
c) A supply of local currency.
d) Information concerning the local Search and Rescue service.

Which of the following is to be taken into account when approving the methods for
calculating the minimum flight altitude?
a) Airspace restrictions
b) Composition of the flight crew.
c) Obstacles in the missed approach area.
d) Types of the altimeters fitted to the aeroplane.

Which of the following parameters shall a Type II FDR record have?

1. Time.
2. Radio altitude.
3. Pitch attitude.
4. Pilot input to the primary controls.
5. Heading.
6. Angle of attack.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2, 4 & 6.
b) 1, 3 & 5.
c) All of the above.
d) None of the above.
Which of the following statements is correct concerning the mass limitations of an
aeroplane at the start of the take-off run?
a) The mass shall not exceed that at which the limitations for take-off en-route
flying and landing can be complied with.
b) The mass shall not exceed the maximum emergency landing mass (without
jettison).
c) The maximum ramp weight less the mass of the fuel used for start-up and
taxi.
d) The mass shall not be greater than maximum possible take-off mass with one
engine inoperative.

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the take-off mass of an

aeroplane?
a) It must not exceed the flight manual maximum calculations for the specified
conditions.
b) It must be calculated in accordance with noise abatement criteria whatever
the conditions.
c) It shall be such that at the destination it shall be not less than landing weight.
d) It shall be such that the aeroplane can be safely stopped on the runway in the
event of a failure of the critical engine on the take-off run.

Whilst flying a turbo-jet aeroplane how much holding fuel must be carried when planning
to fly to a destination with an alternate?
a) 30 minutes at 1,500ft above the alternate plus 15% of flight time at normal
cruise consumption.
b) 30 minutes at 1,500ft above the alternate in standard temperature conditions.
c) 45 minutes at normal cruise consumption.
d) 30 minutes at 1,500ft above the destination

Who accepts the MEL?

a) The state of the manufacturers.
b) The state of the designers.
c) The state where the flight takes place.
d) The state of the operator.

Who checks before flight that the aircraft's mass is such that the flight can be safely
made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
a) The company's cargo technicians.
b) The operator.
c) The aeroplane commander.
d) The mechanic on board or in his absence the co-pilot.

Who compiles the MEL and where does it go?

a) The manufacturer and in the Operations Manual.
b) The operator and in the Operations Manual.
c) The manufacturer and in the Flight Manual.
d) The operator and in the Flight Manual.

Who has to be satisfied that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight?

a) Pilot in Command (P.I.C.)
 b) State of the operator.
c) Operator.
d) State of Registration.

Who is required to raise a report concerning violations of rules and regulations by an

aircraft?
a) The Operator.
b) The Authority of the State of Registration.
c) The Air Traffic Controller concerned.
d) The Pilot in Command

Who is responsible for checking that an aircraft's load is properly distributed and secured
before flight?
a) The pilot-in-command
b) Mechanic or co-pilot in his absence.
c) Operator.
d) Cargo loader.

Who is responsible for compiling the MEL?

a) The Operator.
b) The aeroplane manufacturer.
c) The authority of the State of Registration.
d) The Authority of the State of manufacture.

Who is responsible for completing the journey logbook?

a) The Pilot in Command.
b) A pilot.
c) Any member of the flight crew.
d) A qualified crewmember.

Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight ?
a) The Operator
b) The State of the Operator
c) The Senior Maintenance Manager
d) The Pilot in Command

Who is responsible for ensuring that the passengers are informed about items of safety
equipment designed for collective use?
a) The Operator.
b) The Pilot in Command.
c) The First Officer.
d) The flight attendants.

Who is responsible for obtaining an appropriate clearance before initiating changes to a

flight plan?
a) The Air Traffic Controller
b) The first officer.
c) The pilot in command.
d) The Operator

Who is responsible for operational control?

 a) The Operator or his nominated representative.
b) The ramp supervisor.
c) The Commander.
d) The Authority of the State of Registration.

Who is responsible for the provision of additional aeroplane information in the event of a
SAR incident involving the aeroplane?
a) The aeroplane manufacturer.
b) The Air Traffic Control centre in the FIR of departure
c) The Pilot in Command
d) The Operations Officer/Flight Dispatcher.

Who is the operator to provide an Operations Manual for?

a) For the Authority.
b) All company personnel.
c) Only for flight crew
d) Operations staff.

Who is to ensure safe handling of flights?

a) The Pilot in Command.
b) The Operator.
c) The State of Registration.
d) The Authority.

Who issues and updates the MEL?

a) The operator.
b) The manufacturer.
c) The designer.
d) The authority.

Who must be informed in addition to the State in which the aircraft is operating when an
aircraft has been subjected to unlawful interference ?
a) JAA
b) The State of the Operator
c) State of Manufacture
d) The State of Design

Who must ensure that any given aircraft malfunction complies with the MEL and
therefore allows the aircraft to fly?
a) The flight engineer or the on board mechanic if present.
b) A representative of the company that owns the aircraft.
c) The pilot in command.
d) The operator.

Who provides the operations personnel with the operations manual and the
amendments to keep it up to date?
a) Owner of aircraft.
b) Aircraft manufacturer.
c) ATS authority of the state of registry.
d) Aircraft operator.
Why is there a need for a Minimum Equipment List?
a) The systems of the aircraft are so complex therefore the PIC needs a
reference document to ascertain the effect of unserviceabilities
b) So that a flight may be despatched with unserviceable instruments systems
or equipment.
c) To prevent a failure in one system having a `knock-on' effect to other
systems.
d) To enable minor defects to be ignored thus allowing the aircraft to be flown.

With regard to the law of a country in which operations are being conducted Operators
are responsible for:
a) Ensuring that the Authority of that state is advised that where applicable the
operator's employees would not be complying with national law.
b) Ensuring that all employees know they must comply with the law of that
country.
c) Advising ICAO that compliance with national law is not possible.
d) Ensuring that where National Law is at variance with ICAO procedures the
Operations Manual contains details of notified differences.

You are flying in accordance with ICAO Annex 6 and you took a pilot proficiency test in
early January. The training captain details you for a similar test in May would this
sufficient to qualify as a separate test?
a) No to be valid there must be 6 months between tests.
b) Yes as a JAR operator ICAO Annex 6 requirements do not apply.
c) Yes the only requirement is for 2 tests a year.
d) Yes because it will be a minimum of four months since your last test.

You are planning a commercial air transport flight in an aircraft with two engines. What is
the maximum distance from the aerodrome of departure that a take off alternate is
permitted to be to cater for the case of an engine failure shortly after take off?
a) 1 hour's flying time at the one engine out cruising speed.
b) 193km.
c) 2 hours flying time at the one engine out cruising speed.
d) 100 nm.

JAR OPS ……………………………………………………………………………..

A copy of information to be retained on the ground for the duration of a flight includes
the:

1. Operational Flight Plan

2. Technical Log
3. AIC's
4. NOTAM's
5. ATS Flight Plan
6. Mass and Balance details
7. Special Load Notifiaction

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 4, 6 and 7
b) All of the above
 c) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

According to JAR OPS a transport aircraft carrying passengers with a door to the flight
deck must:
a) Be lockable at the pilots station to prevent unauthorised access.
b) Have a pressure seal to maintain pressure in event of cabin pressure loss.
c) Be lockable from the outside.
d) Have distinctive red or yellow access marks in case of blockage.

According to JAR OPS is a child permitted to play with his `Game Boy' whilst the
aeroplane is in flight?
a) Why not the aeroplane is fitted with radar etc and there is no restriction on the
use of those electronic gismos.
b) If the operator considers that it will interfere with the aircraft systems it is not
permitted.
c) No it will annoy other passengers.
d) No electronic equipment is not permitted in aeroplanes.

According to JAR-OPS what are the requirements for the fitting of an airborne weather
radar system?

1. All pressurised aircraft operated at night.

2. All unpressurised aircraft operated at night.
3. All pressurised aircraft operated in IMC where thunderstorms are expected.
4. Unpressurised aircraft with 19 seats operated in areas where thunderstorms are
expected.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) All of the above.
b) 1 & 2.
c) 1,2 & 3.
d) 1,3 & 4.

After an accident or incident for how long should the operator retain FDR/CVR
recordings?
a) 45 days.
b) 60 days.
c) 90 days.
d) 30 days.

An aeroplane is operated over water at a distance of 340 nm away from an aerodrome

where an emergency landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One
engine out airspeed is 155 kt and it is capable to join the diversion aerodrome.
a) Life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants.
b) Life jackets must be available for all occupants.
c) The regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be taken on board in
this particular case.
d) Life rafts must be available for all occupants.
An operator must be approved in accordance with a JAR manual to ensure airworthiness
of aeroplanes. What is that manual?
a) JAR- 145
b) JAR-1.900
c) JAR-OPS.
d) JAR-FC

Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The
operator will see that this file is kept on ground.
It particularly contains:

1. The weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination.
2 One copy of the operational flight plan and if required the weight and balance sheet.
3 Copies of the relevant aircraft's technical log.
4. The en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator.
5. Special loads notification.
6. For each flight details of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2, 3, 4 & 5.
b) 2 & 4.
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6.
d) 1, 3 & 5.

Flight information is available in the form of NOTAMs AIS briefing material AICs and
AIRAC amendments. Which of these are required to be carried on board in flight?
a) Only AICs affecting safety
b) Only AIS briefing material
c) NOTAMs and AICs
d) NOTAMs and AIS briefing material.

For an NDB approach with an MDH of 360 ft and a required RVR of 1,500 m and a
reported RVR of 2,500 m when can you start this approach; ie which is most correct?
a) When the cloud base is above 360 ft.
b) When the cloud base is above the system minimum.
c) With any reported cloud base.
d) When the cloud base report is received.

If installed the flight crew compartment door of all aeroplanes operated for the purpose of
carrying passengers shall be capable of being:
a) remotely locked from either inside or outside the compartment
b) locked from within the compartment
c) directly locked from outside the compartment
d) remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment

In accordance with JAR OPS a copy of what information is to be left on the ground?
a) NOTAMs Tech log Op flight plan mass & Balance Spec load notification.
b) Passenger manifests notification of special passengers.
c) Route specific maps and charts.
d) AICs AISs and all company NOTAMs.
In accordance with JAR OPS a copy of which of the following documents is to be left on
the ground?
a) The aeroplane noise certificate.
b) The operations manual.
c) Parts of the operations manual relevant to the flight.
d) Operational flight plan.

In accordance with JAR OPS are you required to carry the Operations Manual in flight?
a) Yes at all times.
b) No it is sufficient to carry the aeroplane flight manual.
c) No but you must carry certain extracts concerning crew duty and parts
relating to conduct of the flight
d) Only when flying across an international frontier.

In accordance with JAR Ops if you are flying IFR to a destination with no alternative
during what period must the weather forecast be above the minima for you to continue?
a) 3 hours before to 3 hours after ETA.
b) 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA
c) 3 hours before to 1 hour after ETA.
d) 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA.

JAR-Ops 1.465 states that Operators are to ensure that VFR flights must be conducted:
a) Only in uncontrolled airspace.
b) Only when a flight plan is not required.
c) In accordance with the procedures in the Operations Manual.
d) In accordance with the Visual Flight Rules.

JAR-OPS Part 1 applies to :

a) Any civil aeroplane for the purpose of comemercial air transportation by any
operator whose principle place of business is in a JAA member State
b) Any civil or military aeroplane whose principle place of business is in a JAA
member State
c) Any civil aeroplane for the purpose of air transportation by any operator
whose principle place of business was in a JAA member State prior to 1st
October 1999
d) Any civil aeroplane for the purpose of commercial air transportation by an
operator of aeroplanes over 10 tonnes MTOW or with a maximum seating
configuration of 19 or more seats

Of which of the following is a copy to be left on the ground?

a) Crew licences
b) Parts of the operations manual relevant to the flight.
c) Operational flight plan
d) The aeroplane noise certificate.

On an IFR flight flying towards a destination when the forecast is such that you can fly
both the approach and landing visually according to JAR-OPS you can dispense with the
alternate if:
a) The destination has 2 separate runways and the Met conditions are
acceptable 1 hour before and 1 hour after ETA.
 b) The Met conditions at ETA are such that an approach and landing can be
made visually.
c) The PNR is less than 2 hours flight time from the destination.
d) The flight time is in excess of 6 hours.

Shortly after commencing a full ILS approach you are told that the weather has dropped
below specified minima. When must you abort the approach?
a) Inner Marker.
b) Outer Marker (or equivalent position).
c) Start of the glide-slope descent.
d) FAF.

The authorization for the transport of dangerous goods is specified on the:

a) registration certificate.
b) air operator certificate.
c) insurance certificate.
d) airworthiness certificate.

The Commander is to be notified when certain categories of passengers are on board.

Which of these are always notified?
a) Persons with a physical disability
b) Military personnel.
c) Persons in custody.
d) Drunks.

The first part of JAR-OPS is applicable to:

a) International Commercial Air Transport of JAA state members.
b) Military & Police Transport.
c) Any operations overflying JAA states.
d) Civil Air transport.

The first part of the JAR OPS document relates to:

a) Aircraft proceeding from or over flying European States.
b) JAA state operators flying civil commercial air transport aeroplanes.
c) Treatment of passengers with pathological respiratory disorders.
d) Aeroplanes in the police/defence.

What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?

a) 300ft
b) 350ft
c) 200ft
d) 250ft

What manuals are to be carried during flight?

a) All those specified in the Certificate of Airworthiness
b) Operations Manual in toto
c) Relevant parts of the ops manual and AFM
d) Company instructions for all flight crew.

What manuals are to be carried in flight?

a) Company instructions for all flight crew.
 b) All those specified in the Certificate of Airworthiness.
c) Operations Manual in total.
d) Relevant parts of the ops manual and AFM.

When Wet Leasing between JAA operators:

a) The lessee will hold the AOC.
b) A JAA operator providing the aeroplane and complete crew to another JAA
Operator shall remain the operator of the aeroplane.
c) The JAA member accepting the aeroplane will become the operator.
d) A JAA operator providing aeroplane and complete crew to another JAA
operator will relinguish operation.

Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods given?

a) Air Operator's Certificate.
b) Aircraft registration.
c) Insurance certificate.
d) Certificate of Airworthiness.

Which of the following combination is a list of documents required to be carried on a

commercial air transport aeroplane in flight?

1. Certificate of Registration.
2. Certificate of Airworthiness.
3. Noise Certificate.
4. The Air Operators Certificate. (Copy)
5. The aircraft radio licence.
6. Third party insurance certificate.
7. Crew Licences.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) All except 4 and 6.
b) All the above
c) All except 3 and 4.
d) 1, 2, 5 and 7

With regard to PRM's an Operator shall ensure that :

a) they make themselves known to the aircraft Commander
b) they do not occupy seats where their presence could impede the
performance of crews' duties
c) they are permitted to sit where they wish
d) they can occupy seats normally occupied by the cabin crew

A copy of which of the following documents must be kept on the ground by a JAA
operator for the duration of each flight?
a) The operational flight plan.
b) The ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan
c) The meteorological forecast.
d) The journey log

ALL WEATHER OPERATIONS……………………………………………………..

A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect (circling) approach followed by a visual
manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
a) 2400m
b) 3600m
c) 1500m
d) 1600m

A category A aircraft is on a VOR approach with an MDH of 300ft. ATC give threshold
mid-point and stop-end RVR's. When may the approach be continued below 1000ft
above the aerodrome ?
a) When all three RVR's are greater than 800m
b) When threshold RVR is greater than 900m
c) When the threshold and mid-point RVR's are greater than 990.
d) When visibility is above 800m

A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect (circling) approach followed by a visual
manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
a) 2400m
b) 1600m
c) 3600m
d) 1500mm

A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a
runway visual range of at least:
a) 800m
b) 500m
c) 350m
d) 550m

A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:

a) No decision height.
b) A decision height of at least 50ft.
c) A decision height of at least 200ft.
d) A decision height of at least 100ft.

According to JAR OPS 1.430 Airfield Operating Minima the lowest MDH using ILS (LLZ
only) VOR NDB SRA no glide path approach is? Choose the correct answer from the
following:
a) VOR/DME - MDH 300ft.
b) NDB - MDH 300ft.
c) VOR - MDH 250ft.
d) ILS (LLZ only) - MDH 200ft.

According to JAR Ops when can special VFR be commenced?

a) Visibility 3km or more.
b) Visibility greater than 1,500m.
c) Visibility no more than 3,000m.
d) Greater than 5km vis.
According to JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima) a Category IIIA approach
has a Decision Height of less than 100 feet (or no DH) and a minimum RVR (Runway
Visual Range) of:
a) 300m
b) 230m
c) 250m
d) 200m

According to JAR-OPS what is the absolute minimum required RVR for CAT IIIB
operations?
a) 75m
b) 100m
c) 200m
d) 150m

Aeroplanes which fly at night must be lit. The port (left) navigation light is to be:
a) Red and visible through an angle of 70° from dead ahead.
b) Red and visible through an angle of 90° from dead ahead.
c) Red and visible through an angle of 110° from dead ahead.
d) Red and visible through an angle of 140° from dead ahead.

Aircraft are categorised according to their threshold speeds multiplied by a factor. What
aircraft category corresponds to a range of speeds 141kts - 165kts?
a) C.
b) D.
c) B.
d) E.

Among the factors which are considered for a non-precision approach are:

1. MDA/MDH
2. DH
3. Ceiling
4. Horizontal visibility

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4

An aeroplane has a VS1G of 120 kts. What is its category ?

a) A
b) C
c) B
d) D

An aeroplane is said to be conforming to VFR if:

a) It is in Class E airspace above 10,000 ft amsl and has an in-flight visibility in
excess of 5 km.
 b) It is in Class B airspace and is maintaining clear of cloud and in sight of the
surface.
c) It is in Class G airspace at 750 ft above ground that is 1,000 ft amsl and has
an in-flight visibility of 5 km.
d) It is in Class G airspace at 2,000 ft above ground that is 1 500 ft amsl and is
clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.

An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250 ft and minimum

visibility of 750 metres. ATC gives threshold mid-runway and stop end RVRs. When may
the approach be started?
a) When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 750m.
b) When the met viz is greater than 750m. RVR is for precision approaches only.
c) When all 3 RVRs are greater than 750m.
d) When threshold RVR is greater than 750m.

An aeroplane with just one pilot may carry out a CAT 1 ILS approach with a runway
visual range of:
a) 800m
b) 500m
c) 400m
d) 550m

An observer on the flight deck of an aircraft at night sees an aircraft approaching from
the forward right. Which navigation light seen would be the most likely collision risk?
a) Steady white light.
b) Steady red light.
c) Flashing green light.
d) Steady green light.

An operator ensures that crew members are trained and assessed in Low Visibility
operations. What is not a requirement in this respect?
a) The training is conducted according to a syllabus approved by the Authority.
b) The qualification is specific to type.
c) Each flight crew member is qualified to a prescribed standard.
d) Continuation training must be carried out in a simulator on a monthly basis.

At 900ft above the aerodrome elevation on a VOR approach the visibility falls below the
required minimum. The approach may be continued to the :
a) Outer Marker
b) minimum OCA
c) FAF
d) MDA

Equipment fitted to aeroplanes for the purpose of navigation must comply with the stated
minimum RNP specification. RNP stands for.
a) Radio Navigation Precision.
b) Radio Navigation Performance.
c) Regulated Navigation Performance.
d) Required Navigation Performance.

How is VAT calculated?

 a) Vso x 1.3
b) The lesser of Vso or Vs1g
c) VS0 x 1.23
d) VS1G x 1.3

In an area where RVSM applies equipment is required which can warn the crew when
deviation from a selected flight level occurs. The warning threshold for deviation is.
a) 300m
b) 300ft
c) 900m
d) 1000ft

In order to satisfy the requirements for the issue of an Air Operators Certificate the
operator must appoint certain key personnel within the organisation. Which of the
following is one of those key persons?
a) A flight operations manager
b) A ground training instructor.
c) A ramp supervisor.
d) A chief maintenance engineer.

JAA All Weather Operations allows an Operator to reduce the take-off minima to an RVR
of 125m (Cat A B and C) or 150m (Cat D) when :
a) the runway threshold is visible
b) the runway edge marking and centerline lighting is visible
c) low Visibility Procedures are in force
d) the required RVR value has been achieved for the touch-down point

JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima) establishes that the operator shall ensure
about VFR flights that:
a) For conducted VFR flights in airspace E flight visibility at and above 3,050m
(10,000ft) is 5km at least (clear of cloud).
b) Special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km.
c) For conducted VFR flights in airspace B horizontal distance from clouds is
1,000m at least.
d) For conducted VFR flights in airspace F vertical distance from clouds is 250m
at least.

MDH and minimum RVR for a Cat D aeroplane making an approach on an ILS with no
glide path is:
a) 200ft and 800m.
b) 250ft and 1200m.
c) 200ft and 550m.
d) 250ft and 800m.

MDH is referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation when the :
a) threshold is more than 3m (10ft) below the aerodrome elevation
b) threshold is more than 2m (7ft) below the aerodrome elevation
c) threshold is less than 2m (7ft) below the aerodrome elevation
d) threshold is more than 2m (7ft) above the aerodrom elevation
On a CAT II ILS an aeroplane must have:
a) A fail-operational flight control system.
b) Serviceable landing lights.
c) Two pilots a serviceable radio altimeter and an ILS receiver.
d) Authorisation to carry out approaches with a DH of less than 100ft.

The aeroplane's VSO is reported to be 111kts at maximum landing mass to which

approach category does it belong?
a) C.
b) E.
c) B.
d) D.

The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line
lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified
on type. The minimum RVR / Visibility required for take-off is:
a) 300m
b) 200m
c) 150m
d) 150 m if a threshold RVR is available.

The Cat I minimum decision height is:

a) 50 feet.
b) No decision height.
c) 200 feet.
d) 100 feet.

The information to be considered for a non-precision approach is:

1. Horizontal visibility.
2. Ceiling.
3. Minimum Descent Altitude.
4. Decision Altitude.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 4
b) 1&4
c) 1, 2 & 3
d) 1&3

The information to consider for a non precision straight in approach is:

1. RVR/Visibility
2. the ceiling
3. the minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H)
4. the decision altitude/height (DA/H)

The combination regrouping the correct statements is?

a) 1&3
b) 1, 2 & 3
c) 1&4
 d) 1,2 & 4

The lowest MDH for a NDB approach is :

a) 400ft
b) 300m
c) 300ft
d) 250ft

The minimum height to which one may descend on a CAT IIIA approach is:
a) 100ft
b) 0ft
c) 25ft
d) 50ft

The minimum meteorological visibility for a circling approach in a Cat B aircraft is:
a) 1,600m
b) 3,600m
c) 1,500m
d) 2,400m

The minimum RVR for a Category C aeroplane on departure assuming full facilities and
multiple RVR is
a) 125m
b) 200m
c) 150m
d) 100m

The minimum RVR requirement for a CAT1 ILS approach with two pilots is?
a) 550m
b) 350m
c) 500m
d) 800m

The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach is:

a) 2,700m
b) 2,500m
c) 2,600m
d) 2,400m

The operator is required to establish special procedures for the carriage of certain
passengers. Which of the following are classified as passengers for whom such
procedures are required?
a) Persons of reduced mobility (PRM)
b) Children under 3 years of age
c) People with medical conditions
d) Stowaways.

What are the circling minimum visibility and MDH for a Cat B aeroplane?
a) 1,600 m and 400 ft.
b) 1,500 m and 450 ft.
c) 1,500 m and 600 ft.
 d) 1,600 m and 500 ft.

What are the rules on the carriage of PRMs?

a) They must provide their own food.
b) Cannot impede the performance of crew duty.
c) The Captain must meet them prior to departure.
d) Must be seated well away from emergency exits.

What are the threshold speeds for a Cat D aeroplane?

a) 141 - 165 kts
b) 121 - 140 kts
c) 131 - 155 kts
d) 145 - 160 kts

What documents/information/forms must be carried on board the aeroplane?

a) The Operational Flight Plan the complete Operations Manual the Aeroplane
Flight Manual.
b) The Journey Log Book The Certificate of Registration Relevant Met
Information.
c) The filed ATS Flight Plan the Certificate of Airworthiness Mass and Balance
documentation
d) The Technical Log the Aircraft Radio Licence the MMEL.

What does an Air Operator's Certificate permit?

a) The right to negotiate schedules with other operators.
b) International air transport
c) The carriage of passengers and cargo for reward
d) The operation of aeroplanes for any purpose.

What is a requirement for an Air Operations Certificate to be issued?

a) The applicant must have its own maintenance organisation.
b) The applicant must have the principal place of business in the state of issue.
c) The applicant is required to have a flight operations department at all its
regular aerodromes of use.
d) The applicant must have its own training facilities.

What is a requirement for an operator to be issued with an AOC?

a) Have registered offices in all countries of operations.
b) Have facilities for all maintenance.
c) Not already hold an AOC issued by another authority.
d) Have a fleet of serviceable aeroplanes.

What is DH used for?

a) Non-precision approaches.
b) Precision approaches.
c) Circling to land.
d) Visual maneuvering.

What is MDH applicable to?

a) Visual manoeuvring.
 b) Circling approaches when OCA is not available
c) Non-precision approaches.
d) Precision approaches.

What is the CAT IIIA RVR minimum ?

a) 200m
b) 50m
c) 100m
d) 250m

What is the Cat IIIA RVR minimum?

a) 100m
b) 200m
c) 250m
d) 50m

What is the circling minima visibility and the MDH for a Cat B aeroplane ?
a) 1,600m 400ft
b) 1,500m 600ft
c) 1,600m 500ft
d) 1,500m 450ft

What is the minimum horizontal visibility for a Cat D aircraft on a circling approach?
a) 2,400 m
b) 1,500 m
c) 3,600 m
d) 1,600 m

What is the minimum RVR for a CAT III no decision height approach?
a) 100m
b) 75m
c) No minimum
d) 50m

What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIB approach when the aeroplane is flying with a
fail-operational Roll-out Control/Guidance System?
a) 125m
b) 200m
c) 75m
d) 150m

What is the minimum visibility for a Cat A aircraft during a circling approach? (2 marks)
a) 1,600m
b) 1,500m
c) 2,400m.
d) 3,600m.

What is the take-off RVR limit for a Cat A aeroplane when centreline lights and edge
lights are on and the crew is IFR qualified and approved?
a) 150m if multiple RVRs are available otherwise 200m
b) 250m
 c) 150m
d) 200m

What is VAT?
a) VSO x 1.3.
b) The lesser of VSO or VSIG.
c) VS1G x 1.3.
d) VS1G x 1.3.

When establishing an instrument approach procedure 5 aircraft categories according to

their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling
speed in the landing configuration multiplied by a factor of:
a) 1.3
b) 1.45
c) 1.5
d) 1.15

When is MDH for a precision approach referenced to the threshold as opposed to the
aerodrome elevation?
a) Always
b) Never
c) If the threshold is more than 2m above the aerodrome elevation.
d) If the threshold is more than 2m below the aerodrome elevation.

When is OCH referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation for a
non-precision approach?
a) The threshold is less than 2m above the ARP
b) The threshold is less than 2m below the ARP
c) The threshold is more than 2m above the ARP.
d) The threshold is more than 2m below the ARP

When is the No Smoking light to be illuminated

a) During take-off and landing.
b) During climb and descent.
c) When O2 is supplied.
d) In a compartment where O2 is carried.

When low visibility procedures are in force but no lateral guidance is available the
minimum RVR for a Cat C aeroplane taking off is:
a) 75m
b) 125m
c) 200m
d) 100m

When may a commander depart from a published instrument approach procedure?

a) If cleared by ATC.
b) If the OCH is above the DH for the approach.
c) In VMC.
d) If following a heavy wake turbulence group aeroplane.
Where is the missed approach point for a Precision Approach ?
a) At the Inner Marker
b) 0.5 nms from the threshold
c) At DA/DH
d) At the threshold

Who is responsible for ensuring that all the maintenance requirements for the operation
of aeroplanes are complied with?
a) The maintenance manager
b) The operator.
c) The Chief Engineer.
d) The chief executive of the maintenance organisation (provided the
organisation is JAR 145 approved).

Who is responsible for establishing procedures that the galley equipment and all cabin
baggage is properly stowed prior to take-off and landing?
a) The operator.
b) The Senior Cabin Crew Member.
c) The PIC.
d) Individual Cabin Crew Members or passengers.
INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENTS………………………………………………
A commercial aeroplane is scheduled to be operated at FL 390 and has the following
characteristics:
Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230
Number of seats on board = 200
Scheduled number of passengers on board = 180
The minimum number of oxygen dispensing units provided in the aeroplane cabin
compartment should be:
a) 200
b) 220
c) 180
d) 230

A JAA operated aeroplane is being radar vectored onto the ILS complying with System
Minima for a CAT 1 approach. Shortly before reaching the OM an RVR of 500m for the
landing runway is passed to the crew.
The threshold elevation is 500ft and the aeodrome QNH is set.
The Pilot flying should:
a) Carry out a missed approach at 1,500 ft QNH
b) Carry out a missed approach if no visual reference is achieved at the DA
c) Continue to 1,000 ft above the aerodrome elevation and commence a missed
approach if the RVR does not improve.
d) If the RVR remains the same on reaching the OM carry out a missed
approach.

A JAA operator conducting single pilot operation must calculate the minimum RVR for all
approaches restricted to a minimum of 800m except when:
a) Using a suitable autopilot coupled to a ILS but applying non precision minima.
b) Using a decision height based on 1.50 x minimum use height for the
autopilot.
c) Using a suitable auto pilot coupled to an ILS using normal minima.
 d) Conducting an autoland.

A new aeroplane has an approved passenger seating of 55 with a take-off mass not
exceeding 13,700Kgs. Is it required to be fitted with a crew interphone system?
a) No because the C of A was dated after 1 April 1965.
b) Yes because the approved passenger seating is greater than 19.
c) No because the max take-off mass is less than 15,000 kgs.
d) Yes because it was not registered in a JAA state before 1 April 1995.

A public address system is required to operate an airplane whose maximum approved

passenger seating configuration is greater than:
a) 30
b) 9
c) 19
d) 61
A public transport aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. The cabin is fitted
with 180 passenger seats. The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing
units) required for this aeroplane is:
a) 240 (one additional mask per seat block).
b) 198 (110% of the seating capacity).
c) 210 (one additional mask per seat row).
d) 270 (150% of the seating capacity).

A system where in the event of a failure there is no significant out-of-trim condition and
the landing is not completed automatically but the pilot assumes control is known as
a) A Triple AutoPilot System
b) A Fail-Passive Hybrid Landing System.
c) A Fail-Passive Flight Control System.
d) A Fail-Operational Flight Control System.

A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning
must be triggered on reaching the following altitude:
a) 14,000 ft (approx. 4,200 m)
b) 10,000 ft (approx. 3,000 m)
c) 12,000 ft (approx. 3,600 m)
d) 8,000 ft (approx. 2,400 m)

A windshield wiper is to be fitted to each pilot station of an aeroplane with a take-off

mass:
a) Greater than 3,600 kgs.
b) Equal to or greater than 15,000 kgs
c) Greater than 5,700 kgs.
d) Equal to or greater than 5,700 kgs.

Above which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type of oxygen mask
for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ?
a) FL 250
b) FL 300
c) FL 390
d) FL 100
According to JAR Ops to what does the term `Low Visibility Procedures' refer?
a) All procedures when the RVR is below minima.
b) CAT I and II operations for landing and normal procedures for take-offs.
c) CAT IIIB and CAT IIIC landing procedures.
d) CAT II and III landing procedures and low visibility take-offs

For a pressurised aircraft the first-aid oxygen is designed to:

a) protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation.
b) provide oxygen to 10% of passengers at a cabin altitude exceeding 13,000 ft
after 30 minutes.
c) protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious
gases.
d) provide undiluted oxygen to passengers for physiological reasons following a
cabin depressurisation.

If a door between compartments which have emergency exits is required to be used in

an emergency it must have:
a) A means to hold it open in an emergency.
b) A locking means to prevent unauthorised use in normal flight.
c) A caption stating that it is an emergency exit path.
d) A caption stating that it is a fire door and must be kept closed at all times.

If there are 18 fuses rated at 7A in an aeroplane how many spare 7A fuses must be
carried?
a) 18
b) 2
c) 1
d) 3

In accordance with JAR OPS when can special VFR be commenced?

a) Visibility 3 km or more
b) Greater than 5 km visibility
c) Visibility greater than 1,500 m
d) Visibility not more than 3,000 m

In an unpressurised aeroplane with approved passenger seating of 9 is there a

requirement to carry airborne weather radar?
a) No if only flight in VMC is to be conducted.
b) No.
c) Yes.
d) Yes if flight in IMC is expected.

In determining threshold speed for an instrument approach aeroplane category the

formula VAT = VS1G x 1.23 or VSO x 1.3 (whichever is the higher) is used to arrive at
the category.
What does VS1G mean?
a) The sector one gradient speed.
b) The stalling speed in the state 1 (landing configuration) condition.
c) The minimum acceptable ground speed in the prevailing wind conditions to
ensure that noise abatement procedures are complied with.
 d) The `one G' stalling speed.

It is normal practice to couple the autopilot (flight control system) to the ILS for an ILS
approach and landing. The systems are categorised as fail passive or fail operational. To
what does this refer?
a) In a fail passive situation the pilot will have to consult the MEL before
continuing the approach.
b) A fail passive system becomes a fail operational system when there is an
equipment failure in the aeroplane.
c) It determines whether the landing can be made automatically after a failure.
d) It indicates the response if the localiser or glide path information becomes
unreliable.

On a VOR/DME approach MDH - 360 ft, Visibility 2,000 m (RVR required 1500 m) when
can you start the approach?
a) Cloud base above 360 ft.
b) Whenever the pilot decides.
c) Cloud base above the system minimum.
d) No cloud reported.

The minimum equipment required for a VFR flight is:

1. a magnetic compass
2. an ASI
3. a turn and slip indicator
4. an accurate time piece 5. a heading indicator

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1,2 and 4
b) 1, 2, 3, and 5
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 3, 4 and 5

The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be:
a) 10 % of the number of fuses of each rating with a minimum of 1
b) 10 % of the number of fuses of each rating with a minimum of 3
c) 20 % of the number of fuses of each rating with a minimum of 2
d) 5 % of the number fuses of each rating with a minimum of 1

What are the minimum DH & RVR for a Cat D aeroplane without autoland on a CAT II
approach?
a) 50 ft and 300 m
b) 100 ft and 350 m
c) 50 ft and 50 m
d) 100 ft and 300 m

What is the definition of a low visibility take-off?

a) A take-off where the cloud base is below 200ft
b) A take-off where the aeroplane maintains the runway centre-line
automatically.
c) A take-off when Cat II and III operations are available.
 d) A take-off where the RVR is less than 400m.

What is the horizontal angle of the red navigation light?

a) 90°
b) 110°
c) 70°
d) 140°

What is the lowest decision height for CAT II operations?

a) 50ft
b) No decision height
c) 100ft
d) 200ft

What is the minimum capacity of life rafts that must be provided for passengers in the
event of the aeroplane ditching?
a) Enough for 30%.
b) Enough for 10%.
c) To cover the loss of a life raft of the greatest capacity.
d) To cover the loss of 2 life rafts.

What is the minimum RVR for a CAT III no decision height approach?
a) 100m
b) No minimum
c) 50m
d) 75m

What is the speed range of VAT of a Category B aeroplane?

a) 95 - 120kt
b) 91 - 125kt.
c) 91 - 120kt.
d) 121 - 140kt.

What is the system minimum for a SRA terminating at 1nm?

a) 300ft
b) 200ft
c) 350ft
d) 250ft

What is the threshold speed range for a Cat D aeroplane?

a) 145 - 160kts.
b) 141 - 165kts.
c) 131 - 155kts
d) 121 - 140kts.

What would classify a condition when Low Visibility Take Off procedures would be
required
a) RVR less than 100m
b) RVR less than 200m
c) RVR less than 1500m
d) RVR less than 400m
With regards to departure which statement is true?
a) Before commencing take-off the commander must be satisfied that the RVR
is equal to or better than the applicable minimum.
b) Before take-off the commander must ensure that the departure aerodrome is
above the applicable minima for landing.
c) Before take-off the commander must satisfy himself that the landing forecast
is equal to or better than the applicable minimum.
d) A commander must satisfy himself that the forecast RVR in the take-off
direction is equal to or better than the applicable minimum.

COMMS AND NAV REQUIREMENT……………………………………………………

A VFR aircraft used for flight in controlled airspace should have:

a) 2 radios and an SSR transponder.
b) One VOR ADF DME and ILS.
c) Bearing indicator accurate barometric altimeter.
d) Equipment necessary for VFR flight.

A VFR flight in controlled airspace needs:

a) Navigation equipment in accordance with IFR requirements.
b) Navigation equipment in accordance with VFR requirements.
c) Navigation equipment in accordance with VFR requirements plus attitude
indicator and precise barometric indications.
d) More restrictive anti-icing systems.

Does an aeroplane require two VOR receivers?

a) Yes in MNPS airspace
b) Yes if VOR is the specified navigation aid
c) No
d) Yes if flying on airways

In accordance with JAR Ops which aeroplanes are required to have windscreen
wipers fitted?
a) Aeroplanes certificated for carrying more than 9 persons.
b) Aeroplanes requiring two pilots.
c) All aeroplanes with a MTOM greater than 5,700 kg.
d) Turbine engined aeroplanes.

Regarding an observer in the cockpit seeing an aeroplane crossing from the forward
left to forward right what colour is the first light seen (at night)?
a) Flashing white.
b) Steady red.
c) Steady white and steady green.
d) Steady green.

Through what angle can the green navigation light be seen?

 a) 130°
b) 140°
c) 70°
d) 110°

What aeroplanes require a crew interphone system?

a) All commercial air transport aircraft.
b) Single pilot operation aeroplanes.
c) Aeroplanes with a MTOM greater than 15,000kg.
d) Aeroplanes registered after 1 Apr 1965 certificated for 19 pax.

What equipment must be fitted to an aeroplane for flight under VFR when not
navigating by visual reference points?
a) Two radio systems reply to SSR interrogation and sufficient navigation
equipment.
b) One radio system SSR transponder and one each of VOR ADF and DME.
c) Two radio systems SSR transponder and one each of VOR ADF and DME.
d) One radio system reply to SSR interrogation and sufficient navigation equipment.

When is each flight crew member required to have an audio selector panel?
a) If the take off mass is greater than 5,700Kg
b) If an IFR flight plan is filed
c) Where an intercom system is required to be fitted
d) Where two pilots are required to be carried

NAV AND INST NAV REQUIREMENT………………………………………………

According to JAR Ops the operator may not operate aircraft that do not conform to the
ditching requirements over water further away from a suitable landing field than:
a) 400nm or 120min at cruise speed.
b) 200nm or 45min at cruise speed.
c) 100nm or 30min at cruise speed.
d) 300nm or 90 min at cruise speed.

An aeroplane is at 60°N 010°E and is to fly to 60°N 020°E. The flight time is 1 hour in still
air. The gyro is set with the reference to true north and not corrected in flight for
precession. What is the required initial heading if a constant gyro heading is to be
maintained?
a) 086°
b) 076°
c) 066°
d) 080°

An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the gyro
compass which is assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly rate corrector
unit indicates 000°. The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true heading equal
to 095°. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode. If the
flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes the gyro heading at Q will be:
a) 345°
b) 328°
c) 334°
 d) 003°

Astronomical (earth rate) precession is:

a) Zero on the ground.
b) Valid whether the aircraft is on the ground or in the air.
c) Independent of latitude.
d) Dependent on chart being used.

At a high ambient temperature (+30°C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40% in air
free of cloud fog and precipitation serious carburettor icing:
a) Cannot occur.
b) Is possible at any setting.
c) Can occur but only at a low power setting.
d) Can occur but only at full power or cruise settings.

At the planning stage for a Class B performance aircraft what minimum climb gradient do
you use?
a) 500ft min climb speed with all engines operating.
b) 300ft min climb speed with all engines operating.
c) 500ft min climb speed with one engine out.
d) 300ft min climb speed with one engine out.

Desired track is 100° actual track is 120°. Which statement is correct?

a) Track error angle is left.
b) Diverging from desired track.
c) Converging with desired track.
d) Track error angle is right.

Earth rate or astronomic precession:

a) Is zero at the South Pole.
b) Is zero at the North Pole.
c) Causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern Hemisphere.
d) Causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern Hemisphere.

For a Performance C aeroplane the required landing distance at an alternate aerodrome

(in dry conditions) shall not be more than the available landing distance multiplied by a
factor of :
a) 0.5
b) 0.6
c) 0.7
d) 0.8

For an IFR flight a Destination Alternate must be selected unless :

a) 2 separate runways are available at the destination
b) The duration of the flight is less than 6 hours and 2 separate runways are
available at the destination
c) The flight duration is less than 6 hours 2 separate runways are available at
destination and from 1 hour before until 1 hour after ETA VMC conditions
apply
 d) The conditions are forecasted to be VMC for 2 hours after ETA at destination

For turbo-propeller aircraft in the flight preparation stage the landing distance at an
alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a
factor of:
a) 0.5
b) 0.6
c) 0.8
d) 0.7

How do you calculate Conversion Angle?

a) Change of longitude x cosine of mean lat
b) Change of latitude x sine of mean longitude
c) Change of latitude x cosine of mean longitude
d) Change of longitude x sine of mean latitude

How far from an en route alternate airfield can a 2-engined aeroplane with more than 20
seats and a MTOM of 8,600 kg be flown?
a) 60 minutes flying time
b) 120 minutes flying time.
c) 90 minutes flying time
d) 60 minutes at the one engine out speed.

If the grid datum is 054°W position 80°N 140°E and true heading of 330° what is the grid
heading?
a) 164°.
b) 136°.
c) 316°.
d) 276°.

If you are flying IFR to a destination with no alternative when must weather be good for
you to continue?
a) 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA
b) 3 hours before to 3 hours after ETA.
c) 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA
d) 3 hours before to 1 hour after ETA.

In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect an aircraft would on
a constant gyro heading follow a:
a) Spherical flight segment.
b) Rhumb line.
c) Great circle line.
d) Straight map line.

In the Southern Hemisphere (130°E 80°S) grid is aligned with the Greenwich Meridian
aircraft is heading 110°T what is the grid heading?
a) 080°.
b) 240°.
c) 340°.
d) 110°.
On a polar stereographic chart the grid is aligned on the 180° meridian. At 80°S 100°E
with a grid heading of 280° what is the true heading?
a) 180°.
b) 080°.
c) 000°.
d) 260°.

On a polar stereographic chart with a grid based on the Greenwich meridian a track is
drawn from 62°N 010°W to 66°N 050°W. If the initial True track was 295° what was the
initial grid track?
a) 305°.
b) 295°.
c) 285°.
d) 315°.

On a polar stereographic chart with a grid referenced on the Greenwich meridian and
convergency of 10°W true heading of 300° what is grid heading?
a) 010°
b) 290°
c) 310°
d) 300°

On a polar stereographic chart with grid aligned with the prime meridian; you are
heading 045°T; your position is 76°N 180°W what is your grid heading?
a) 045°
b) 135°
c) 225°
d) 315°

On a polar stereographic chart with grid aligned with the prime meridian; you are
heading 045°T; your position is 76°N 180°W what is your grid heading?
a) 045°.
b) 225°.
c) 135°.
d) 315°.

The chart being used is a polar stereographic chart and grid north is aligned with the
Greenwich Meridian. The gyro is aligned with grid north heading 120° at 1400 UTC at
latitude 60°N.
Take-off is delayed until 1630 UTC gyro not corrected for rate precession.
Error at time of take-off will be:
a) +13°
b) -73.5°
c) +32.5°
d) -32.5°

The forecast for a possible destination alternate reads:

301019 23010KT 9999 SCT010 BKN018 BECMG 1114 6000 -RA BKN012 TEMPO 1418
2000DZ OVC004 FM1800 30020G30KT 9999 -SHRA BKN015CB=
In which case would this be suitable if the ETA were 301700 UTC?
a) Only if a CAT II ILS or better is available.
b) Only for a non-ETOPS aeroplane.
c) Provided a precision approach is available.
d) Not in any circumstance.

The maximum landing distance required for performance A turbo-props must not exceed
the landing distance available multiplied by:
a) 0.6
b) 0.5
c) 0.8
d) 0.7

What is required for navigation in IMC?

a) Radio and navigation equipment for guidance until the visual point.
b) Anti-icing equipment.
c) One VHF box and one HF box.
d) A serviceable weather radar

What is the bearing of sun from an aeroplane at the North Pole using a grid track of 315°
at 1840Z?
a) 035°.
b) 325°.
c) 000°.
d) 180°.

What is the definition of a minimum time route

a) Shortest time between destination and departure adhering to ATC
restrictions.
b) Route using the least amount of fuel
c) Closest diversion on route.
d) Shortest distance between two points of a route.

What is the definition of a minimum time route?

a) The shortest flight time from departure to destination adhering to all ATC and
airspace restrictions.
b) The shortest distance between departure and destination notwithstanding
ATC and airspace reservations.
c) The most efficient route between departure and destination taking into
account all airspace reservations.
d) The shortest flight time between two points adhering to all restrictions.

When flying `gyro' on a transoceanic or polar flight near the North Pole what is the
precession due to?
a) Grid North.
b) True North.
c) Magnetic north.
d) Compass north.

When flying above optimum altitude:

 a) Mach number stability increases.
b) Range increases
c) Range reduces
d) Flight envelope increases

When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off

the latter shall be located for a twin-engined aircraft at an equivalent distance not
exceeding:
a) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines.
b) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with single engine.
c) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines.
d) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine.

Which equation relates to transport wander in polar and trans-oceanic areas? (Where
gm = ch long Lm = mean lat Lo = tangent of mean lat)
a) 15 x sin Lm.
b) gm x sin Lm.
c) 15 x 2(Lo - Lm).
d) gm x 2(Lo - Lm).

Which formula gives a method of calculating transport wander?

a) Ch long (in degrees) x sin mean lat.
b) Ch long (in mins) x cos mean Lat.
c) Ch long (in degrees) x cos mean lat.
d) (Ground speed / 60) x sin mean lat.

Why are there two boxes in Item 16 of the CA 48 for alternates?

a) If the destination at time of take-off is reporting actual conditions below
minima for landing.
b) If the destination is forecasting conditions to be below minima for landing.
c) One box is for the destination alternate and the other is for a specific en-route
alternate.
d) If the first destination alternate is forecasting conditions below minima for
landing.

You are at 60°S 100°E using a polar stereographic chart with the grid based on the 180°
meridian. Grid north is in the direction of geographic north. If you are heading 258°G
what is your true heading?
a) 338°.
b) 358°.
c) 158°.
d) 178°.

You are at a latitude of 59°57'N with a heading of 120° showing on a gyro compass. You
experience a delay of 2hrs 30mins; what is the effect on your compass?
a) 32.5°.
b) -18.5°.
c) -32.5°.
d) 18.5°.
You are at a latitude of 59°57'N with a heading of 320° showing on a gyro compass. You
experience a delay of 2hrs; what is the effect on your compass?
a) -18.5°.
b) -32.5°.
c) -13.0°.
d) -26.0°.

NAR & MNPSA………………………………………………………………………………

A check on the operation of the SELCAL during a transatlantic flight using the OTS must
be carried out :
a) When crossing the Oceanic Airspace boundary
b) Prior to entering the NAT region only
c) As soon as possible after obtaining Oceanic Clearance
d) At or prior to entering the NAT region

A flight crossing 030°W in MNPSA at 0830 UTC would be:

a) On a random track.
b) In random airspace.
c) Just at the start of the daytime OTS.
d) Just inside the nighttime OTS.

A flight crossing 030°W in MNPSA at 1100 UTC will be:

a) In nighttime OTS.
b) In daytime OTS.
c) In random airspace.
d) Outside OTS.

A flight to Europe is expected to be at 030°W at 0030 UTC. Where will you be?
a) Random airspace.
b) Outside the organised track system.
c) Inside the nightime organised track system.
d) Inside the daytime organised track system.

A pilot whose aeroplane does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the
Shannon-Gander Great Circle. The flight must be planned to take place:
a) At a Mach No of 0.70 or less.
b) At a constant 480kt.
c) At FL280 or less.
d) Outside scheduled flight times.

Above FL 410 and needing to go against the NAT track system you will turn through 90°
and ensure 15nm separation from your planned track. What will you then do?
a) Climb or descend 1,000ft.
b) Climb or descend 500ft.
c) Climb 1,000ft or descend 500ft.
d) Climb 500'ft or descend 1,000ft.

An aeroplane flying east/west between 5°W and 65°W south of 70°N has to report
position every:
 a) 15° latitude.
b) 5° latitude.
c) 10° longitude.
d) 20° longitude.

An aeroplane takes off from Thule Greenland (Position 76°N 070°W variation 66°W) and
sets off on a grid track of 336°G (with the gyro aligned with grid north) towards Resolute
Bay (Position 75°N 095°W variation 51°W) with an estimated flight time of 1 hour 30
minutes. If its gyro is set up to read the grid track at the start of the flight and remains in
free gyro mode what is the final gyro reading?
a) 329°.
b) 338°.
c) 341°.
d) 158°.

An aeroplane within MNPSA can no longer maintain its clearance and is unable to obtain
a revised clearance from the relevant OCA. Having taken the initial correct procedures
the captain decides to change the aeroplane's level by +500ft. Is he:
a) Below FL410.
b) Above FL 430.
c) At FL430.
d) Below FL430.

An air traffic control unit may request an aircraft to report its position when flying
east-west north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W every:
a) 15° of longitude.
b) 5° of longitude
c) 20° of longitude.
d) 10° of longitude.

An aircraft flying from west to east on a random track between 60°W and 10°W and
south of 70°N has to report every :
a) 10° of latitude
b) 10° of longitude
c) 20° of latitude
d) 20° of longitude

An aircraft on the OTS at FL390 experiences a pressurization failure which necessitates

a descent to a lower altitude. The procedure that must be followed is :
a) A rapid descent off-track by 30nms and when able maintain an intermediate
Flight Level ñ 1000ft
b) Leave the assigned track by turning 90° right or left and take up a track
25nms off-set
c) If on NAT A turn right 90° to an off-set track of 30 nms initiate the necessary
rate of descent and when able maintain an intermediate Flight Level +/- 500ft
d) Fly an off-set track and fly quadrantal levels

An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance

with its air traffic control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance
requirements) but is able to maintain its assigned level and due to a total loss of
communications capability could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC.
The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° to the right or left
whenever this is possible and the subsequent action will be turn to acquire and maintain
in either direction a track laterally separated by 15 nm from its assigned route and climb
or descend 500 ft if:
a) at FL 430.
b) below FL 410.
c) above FL 410.
d) at FL 410.

Contingency at FL410 necessitates diversion to an alternate against NAT traffic without

ATC clearance but able to maintain altitude. You must:
a) Climb 500'
b) Descend 500'
c) Turn left or right and climb 1,000'/descend 500'
d) Climb or descend 500'

Contingency in MNPSA but cannot maintain assigned flight level.

a) Climb whilst turning off track to take up a separation of 60nm.
b) Descend below FL275.
c) Descend whilst turning off track to take up a separation of 15nm.
d) Descend whilst turning off track to take up a separation of 60nm.

Estimate Errors in MNPSA must be reported to ATS if they differ by:

a) 3 min
b) 3 min or more
c) 5 min
d) 3 min or less

Flying to Europe in MNPS @ 1000 UTC crossing 030°W:

a) Out of organised route track system.
b) In flight route day system.
c) In random airspace.
d) In flight route night system.

For an aeroplane flying over Antarctica at 80°S 125°W on a true track of 315° what is its
grid track if the grid datum is set on the Greenwich Meridian?
a) 080°
b) 240°
c) 190°
d) 170°

For an aeroplane operating predominately East/West at approximately 65°N how often

should significant points be planned?
a) Whole degrees of longitude and every 10° of latitude.
b) Whole degrees of latitude and every 20° of longitude.
c) Whole degrees of latitude and every 10° of longitude.
d) Whole degrees of latitude and every 5° of longitude.

How does one define the planned tracks north of 70°N?

a) Latitude spaced at 5° intervals.
b) Latitude in degrees with meridians spaced at 20°.
 c) Longitude spaced at 5° intervals.
d) Latitude in degrees with meridians spaced at 10°.

How is VOR information in N Canada airspace referenced?

a) True north.
b) Gyro north.
c) Magnetic north.
d) Grid north.

How should the aeroplane's speed be entered in the flight plan?

a) TAS in Item 15 and Mach No in Item 18.
b) IAS in domestic airspace and Mach No in Oceanic airspace.
c) TAS in domestic airspace and Mach No in Oceanic airspace.
d) Mach NO only if crossing the Atlantic.

If at FL410 in MNPS and RVSM you suffer an emergency requiring descent do you:
a) Climb/descend 1,000 ft and offset by 60 nm.
b) Climb 1,000 ft/descend 500 ft and offset by 15 nm.
c) Climb/descend 500 ft and offset by 60 nm.
d) Climb 500 ft/descend 1,000 ft and offset by 15 nm.

If during a pre flight inspection a flight deck component is faulty and has to be rectified:
a) The pre flight should be abandoned and recommenced from the beginning
following rectification.
b) The pre flight can be completed following rectification.
c) The flight crew can carry out rectification provided it is only minor.
d) The MEL will detail the rectification required.

If flying an Eastbound NAT track crossing 030°W at 1000 UTC the type of flight would
be:
a) Disorganised track.
b) Night time OTS.
c) Night time OTS.
d) Daytime OTS.

If on receiving your transatlantic clearance you are assigned a flight level 4,000ft below
the one you flight planned what is your possible concern?
a) Your increased flight time may make you late for crew duty time.
b) The reduced radiation will actually be an advantage.
c) The wake turbulence of preceding aeroplanes may affect you.
d) Your increased fuel usage may use all your contingency fuel.

If the whole flight is in MNPSA on the organised track system what should be entered on
the flight plan?
a) OTS plus daily code.
b) Position at every 10° latitude.
c) PTS plus daily code.
d) NAT plus daily code.
If your ETA at a significant point on a NAT track changes by how much must you inform
ATC?
a) 1 min or more.
b) 3 min or more.
c) 4 min or more.
d) 2 min or more.

In MNPS Airspace between FL285 and FL410 inclusive what is the vertical separation?
a) 1,000 ft
b) 500 ft
c) 1,500 ft
d) 2,000 ft

In MNPS airspace the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:

a) Mach number.
b) true airspeed.
c) ground speed.
d) indicated airspeed.

In MNPS FL370 you need to change your clearance but have no communications with
ATC. You turn left or right and get 15nm separation do you:
a) Climb or descend 500 ft
b) Climb or descend 1,000 ft
c) Climb 500 ft or descend 1,000 ft
d) Climb 1,000 ft or descend 500 ft

In MNPSA when one aircraft is following another at the same Mach number the
minimum longitudinal separation is
a) 15 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 20 minutes
d) 13 minutes

In order to comply with the rules of MNPS and RVSM each aeroplane must have a
minimum of navigation and height monitoring equipment. What best describes the
minimum level of equipment that must be carried?
a) Two independent GPS two fully serviceable altimeters one altitude control
system with an automatic alerting system.
b) Two INS two independent altimeters two altitude control systems including
two alerting system.
c) Two LRNS two independent altimeters two altitude control systems.
d) Two LRNS two independent primary altimeters one altitude alert system.

In the case of a radio failure within the NAT region what are the correct actions to be
taken?
a) Maintain last received oceanic clearance including level and Mach number
squawk A/7600 and land as soon as practicable when out of the NAT region.
b) Maintain last acknowledged oceanic clearance including level and speed
squawk A/7600 and conform to relevant state procedures after last specified
oceanic route
 c) Maintain last acknowledged oceanic clearance to the last specified oceanic
route point select A/7600 and divert to the nearest suitable airfield after
landfall.
d) Maintain flight plan route climb when planned to the subsequent flight levels
select A/7600 and conform to state procedures when out of the NAT region.

In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation

Performance Specification) airspace the appropriate VHF frequency for air-to-air
communications is:
a) 123.45 MHz.
b) 128.800 MHz.
c) 118.800 MHz.
d) 121.800 MHz.

In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance

Specification) airspace the pilot must:
a) join one of the so-called "special" routes.
b) change the flight level in accordance with predetermined instructions.
c) return to the flight plan route if it is different from the last oceanic clearance
received and acknowledged.
d) continue the flight in compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and
acknowledged.

In the event of contingencies against the flow of NAT system you can't get prior approval
from ATC. You:
a) If below FL410 climb or descend 1000 ft while turning to alternate.
b) If below FL410 climb or descend 1000 ft while turning to alternate.
c) If below FL410 climb or descend 1000 ft while turning to alternate.
d) If below FL410 climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft while turning to alternate.

In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area a pilot should first of
all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:
a) immediately climb or descend 1,000 ft.
b) request authorisation from Control to track another aircraft
c) set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous one.
d) notify Air Traffic Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time

Mach number is used for separation of aircraft within the MNPSA. Which statement is
incorrect in describing its use?
a) Longitudinal separation is achieved by use of the Mach number technique
b) Only changes of 0.02 and more to Mach number should be transmitted to
ATC
c) It is rare for ATC to assign a Mach number more than 0.01 faster and 0.02
slower than that requested.
d) If a temporary essential change to Mach number is made ATC must be
notified

MASPS stands for:

a) Master Altimeter System Performance Selection
b) Maximum Altitude System Performance Specification
 c) Minimum Aircraft System Performance Specification
d) Minimum Aircrew Sleep Pattern Specification

Minimum lateral separation in NAT is:

a) 90 nm between all aircraft in NAT.
b) 60 nm above FL285.
c) 90 nm above FL285.
d) 60 nm between aircraft operating below MNPSA

Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North Atlantic is

comprised within:
a) Flight levels 285 and 420 from the North parallel 27 to the pole
b) Flight levels 270 and 400 from the equator to the pole.
c) Sea level and FL660 from North parallel 27 to the pole.
d) Flight levels 280 and 475 from North parallel 27 to the pole.

MNPS is the abbreviation for:

a) Maximum North-Atlantic Precision System.
b) Minimum Navigation Positioning System.
c) Minimum Navigation Performance Specification
d) Military Network Performance Structure

On approaching the Shanwick OCA to fly in MNPSA you have not yet received your
clearance but maintaining communications do you:
a) Maintain your flight plan track but 500ft above or below your planned flight
level
b) Enter on your flight planned track and flight level and await a late clearance
c) Maintain a track 30nm laterally spaced from your flight plan track
d) Stay outside controlled airspace until you have received your clearance

On MNPS special routes without special clearance the minimum navigation requirement
is:
a) 2 LRNS.
b) 2 INS.
c) 1 INS.
d) 1 LRNS.

Penetration into the NAT MNPS airspace is:

a) not subject to a clearance since the flight is already controlled
b) subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed
c) subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of flight (scheduled or
not)
d) subject to a mandatory clearance

Prior to passing the last specified Oceanic route point with a communications failure
what Mach number should be maintained ?
a) The Mach No for ISA deviation
b) The best range mach number
c) The flight planned mach number
 d) The last cleared mach number

Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM) may be applied in MNPS Airspace

between which of the following inclusive FL bands?
a) 300-400
b) 310-390
c) 285-420
d) 290-410

Routing from Shannon to Canada when not MNPS equipped how are you able to fly?
a) Laterally displaced from the OTS.
b) Outside the times of OTS
c) Along routes G3 or G11 without State approval
d) Along special routes with State approval.

Separation in RVSM in MNPSA is:

a) 60nm and 1000ft.
b) 90nm and 500ft.
c) 90nm and 1000ft.
d) 60nm and 500ft

The base of the NAT area in which IFR is mandatory is:

a) 3,000ft AMSL.
b) All the airspace more than 120nm seaward from the shoreline
c) FL55
d) FL60 or 2,000ft AGL whichever is the higher.

The critical depth of water necessary when considering the effect of dynamic
hydroplaning is normally :
a) > 5 mm
b) 30 mm
c) > 3 cm
d) > 3 mm

The effect of the earth's rotation in the Southern Hemisphere:

a) Is zero if the spinning gyro is exactly at the South Pole.
b) Only affects a spinning gyro if it is moved across the surface of the earth
c) Causes a spinning gyro to show a turn to the left.
d) Causes a spinning gyro to show a turn to the right.

The limits of MNPS Airspace are:

a) From FL285 to FL420 from 27°N to the North Pole.
b) From FL270 to FL480 from 27°N to the North Pole.
c) From sea level to FL660.
d) From the Equator to the North Pole.

The minimum lateral separation between aeroplanes operating outside the OTS but
within MNPSA at the same flight level is:
a) 120mm
b) 60mm
c) 30mm
 d) 90mm

The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in
MNPS airspace is
a) Two LRNS
b) Three LRNS
c) One LRNS
d) One LRNS and a compass

The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in
MNPS airspace is:
a) One inertial navigation unit.
b) Two inertial navigation units and a DECCA
c) Two inertial navigation units
d) Three inertial navigation units

The NAT region Air-to-Air radio frequency is:

a) 121.500 MHz.
b) 121.500 MHz.
c) 123.450 MHz
d) 121.500 MHz.

The North Atlantic system is based on:

a) States Common Rules 7050 Doc.
b) Canadian territory since it has the largest territorial waters
c) States Bordering Rules 6530 Doc.
d) ICAO 7030 Doc NAT/RAC

The organised track system (OTS) is based on timings of aircraft at 030°W. What are the
parameters for these timings?
a) 1100Z until 1830Z for eastbound traffic and 0130Z until 0800Z for westbound
traffic.
b) 1130Z until 1800Z for eastbound traffic and 0100Z until 0800Z for westbound
traffic.
c) 1100Z until 1830Z for daytime traffic and 0130Z until 0800Z for night time
traffic
d) 1130Z until 1900Z for daytime traffic and 0100Z until 0800Z for night time
traffic

The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation
Performance Specification) airspace during a westbound flight normally is:
a) 0000 UTC to 0800 UTC at 30 degrees West.
b) 1130 UTC to 1900 UTC at 30 degrees West.
c) 1030 UTC to 1900 UTC at 30 degrees West.
d) 0100 UTC to 0800 UTC at 30 degrees West.

The validity time for an Eastbound OTS is:

a) 1130 UTC to 1900 UTC
b) 1030 UTC to 1900 UTC
c) 0000 UTC to 0800 UTC
d) 0100 UTC to 0800 UTC.
What does WATRS stand for?
a) West Atlantic Route System.
b) Western Africa Tropical Rainy Season.
c) Western Atlantic Track Routing System.
d) Weight Altitude and Temperature Regulatory Service

What is the maximum distance a Performance A 2-engined aeroplane can plan to have a
departure alternate if its ETOPS threshold distance is 1hr 40mins?
a) 120mins flying distance at the one engine out cruising speed.
b) 100mins flying distance at the one engine out cruising speed.
c) 100mins flying distance at the all engines operating cruising speed
d) 60mins flying distance at the one engine out cruising speed.

What is the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome that a two-engined

Performance Class A aeroplane without ETOPS approval with more than 19 seats and
MTOM of 6,813 kgs may fly?
a) 120 minutes flying time
b) 180 minutes flying time
c) 60 minutes flying time
d) 90 minutes flying time

What is the minimum longitudinal separation between 2 aeroplanes flying at the same
Mach number in MNPS Airspace?
a) 10 minutes
b) 5 minutes.
c) 20 minutes.
d) 15 minutes.

What Mach number do you maintain when leaving MNPS?

a) Mach number complying with local regulations.
b) You revert to flight plan TAS.
c) Flight Plan Mach number.
d) Last cleared Mach number from MNPS.

What should a pilot do should he/she be unable to obtain his/her requested clearance
when flying in MNPSA but has to change Flight Level?
a) Maintain a listening watch for possible conflictions
b) Broadcast position and intentions on 121.5MHz
c) Fly as required and submit a report after landing
d) Turn off track by 25nm and change level by 1000ft

When a pilot incorrectly plots a NAT clearance and it is not subsequently picked up by
ATC on read back it is called:
a) Just one of those things.
b) A violation.
c) A waypoint insertion error.
d) An ATC system loop error.

When flying a non-MNPS aircraft climb through MNPS Airspace is allowed:

a) When in contact with other aircraft in the area.
 b) Always prohibited.
c) When under radar contact and in VHF communications with a controller
d) When it has 2 LRNS.

When flying a planned flight utilising the NAT track system a SELCAL check is to be
carried out:
a) Before take-off.
b) As soon as possible after entering the Oceanic Control area.
c) At least 10 minutes before the initial contact with the Oceanic Control centre
is required.
d) At or prior to entry into the NAT Oceanic Control area

When in MNPS and the final LRNS fails the pilot should:
a) Ask ATC for permission to follow another aeroplane
b) Turn left or right through 90ø and parallel track by 15nm
c) Climb/descend 1,000ft
d) Contact ATC and await a reply within a reasonable period of time
When leaving MNPS airspace and you have lost communications what Mach No do you
select?
a) The Mach No to make good the next EET
b) Your last cleared Mach No
c) The TAS as submitted on your flight plan
d) Your flight plan Mach No

When must a CA48 normally be filed?

a) Your flight plan Mach No
b) 60 minutes before departure
c) 60 minutes before loading of passengers
d) 90 minutes before start-up

Where should the code `X' for MNPS be placed in the CA48?
a) Item 10 after 'S'
b) Nowhere it should be `W'.
c) Item 9 after `S'.
d) Item 10 after RMK/.

Within NAT IFR only is applicable in the area:

a) Controlled airspace 100 nm from shore
b) Above 3,000 ft
c) Uncontrolled airspace 400 nm from shore
d) Above FL 60 or 2,000 ft whichever is the higher

You are at FL410 and due to abnormal circumstances need to fly in the reverse direction
to NAT tracks. Having completed a 90° turn and established a track 30 nms from the
OTS you must :
a) climb 1000ft or descend 500ft
b) climb 500ft or descend 1,000ft
c) climb or descend 500ft
d) climb or descend 1,000ft
You are in an aeroplane over the North Pole at Flight Level 370 on a Grid Track of 135°
(Grid Datum Greenwich Meridian) on 23 March at 1200 UTC.
What is the relative bearing of the sun?
a) On the nose
b) 045°
c) It cannot be seen as it is below the horizon
d) 315°

Special Operating Procedures………………………………………………………..

1) A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:

a) medium
b) good
c) unreliable
d) poor

2) A class A fire is a fire of:

a) solid material generally of organic nature
b) liquid or liquefiable solid
c) electrical origin
d) metal or gas or chemical (special fires)

3) A class B fire is a fire of:

a) special fire: metal gas chemical product
b) electrical source fire
c) liquid or liquefiable solid
d) solid material usually of organic nature

4) A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:

1. a paper fire
2. a hydrocarbon fire
3. a fabric fire
4. an electrical fire
5. a wood fire.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 3 & 5
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
c) 2, 3 & 4
d) 2, 4 & 5

5) A heavy aeroplane has a nose wheel pressure of 150 psi and the main wheels are 1
bar lower. In conditions where hydroplaning is possible the calculated critical speed
is likely to be:
a) 107 kts
 b) 105 kts
c) 110 kts
d) 102 kts

6) A majority of bird strikes occur:

a) During landing.
b) Below 500ft.
c) On the wings (of the aircraft).
d) During take-off.

7) A medium aeroplane departing from the intersection of a parallel runway some 700m
from the runway that a heavy aeroplane has taken off from but has used the full
length must wait a minimum of:
a) 1 minute.
b) There is no requirement to delay departure.
c) 3 minutes.
d) 2 minutes.

8) A multi-engined aeroplane must be capable of surviving a ditching procedure if it is

operated over water more than:
a) 400nm from land.
b) 500nm from land.
c) 200nm from land.
d) 300nm from land.

9) A noise preferred runway would be used unless:

a) The runway had patches of standing water
b) The horizontal visibility was 2,000 m
c) The cloud base was 600 ft
d) The crosswind component was 12 kt

10) A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes:

1. on himself/herself
2. in his/her hand luggage
3. in his/her checked luggage.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1
b) 2 & 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2 & 3

11) A runway described as `Wet' can be identified by :

a) The surface is not dry but any moisture does not give it a shiny appearance
b) A change of color of the runway surface
c) a shiny appearance with water present to a depth of < 3 mm
d) a non-reflective appearance with water to a depth of < 3 mm

12) A runway is said to be contaminated if:

a) More than 25% of the surface area has surface water greater than 3mm in depth.
 b) More than 25% of the surface area has a shiny appearance.
c) More than 25% of the maneuvering area is covered with a contaminant.
d) The snow on the runway isn't good enough to make snowballs.

13) A slow decompression may be caused by:

1. A slight air leak from an overwing exit.

2. A malfunction of the controller.
3. The loss of a window.
4. The loss of a door.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1 & 2.
b) 1, 2, 3 & 4.
c) 3 & 4.
d) 1, 2 & 3.

14) A SNOWTAM is valid for:

a) 12 hours.
b) The rest of the day.
c) 18 hours
d) 24 hours.

15) A turboprop aeroplane is 1 hours 45 minutes from shore flying at 240 kts. The life-raft
requirement with 60 persons on board is :
a) Enough to contain all crew and passengers
b) 2 life-rafts with a total capacity of 90 passengers
c) 2 life-rafts with a total capacity of 60 passengers
d) 3 life-rafts each capable of carrying 30 persons

16) A water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) can be used on a fire of:

1. solids (fabric, carpet ...)

2. liquids (ether, gasoline ...)
3. gas
4. metals (sodium ...).

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1
b) 3 and 4
c) 3
d) 2

17) According to ICAO Annex 17 following an unlawful interference who shall to take
adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft until their
journey can be continued?
The:
a) aircraft's operator
b) contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs
c) JAA
d) Commander of the aircraft
18) According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO
PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V data available indicates that the procedure which
results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:
a) is procedure1
b) is either procedure 1 or 2 because there is not dif difference in noise distribution
c) depends on the wind component
d) is procedure 2

19) After a landing with overweight and overspeed conditions the tyres and brakes are
extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:
a) only from left or right side.
b) from any side.
c) only from front or rear side.
d) under no circumstances.

20) After an emergency landing the captain should:

a) Maintain pressure in the fuselage to help prevent fumes entering the passenger
compartment.
b) Stay on the runway after coming to a halt release all brakes and prepare to
evacuate.
c) Take the first available turn-off lane to expedite clearance from the runway.
d) Stop as expeditiously as possible and turn the aeroplane to face its tail into wind.

21) After de-icing/anti-icing still in freezing conditions how should you position the
aircraft?
a) In prop wash but not jet wash.
b) In jet wash but not prop wash.
c) In prop and jet wash.
d) In none of the above.

22) After take-off the pilot of a commercial aeroplane notices a flock of birds which could
pose a bird-strike risk. Does the pilot:
a) Inform the appropriate persons in a reasonable time
b) Ignore the problem and hope someone else will make a report.
c) Contact the ground station immediately.
d) Inform other aircraft by radio

23) An aeroplane with more than 44 seats must be evacuated in:

a) 60secs in a simulated emergency.
b) 60secs in an emergency.
c) 90secs in an emergency.
d) 90secs in a simulated emergency.

24) An aeroplane with nosewheel tyre pressure of 125psi and main wheel tyre pressures
of 185psi is likely to aquaplane at:
a) 112kts.
b) 102kts
c) 122kts.
d) 132kts.
25) An aeroplane with one passenger deck is configured with 61 seats. The required
number of megaphones on board is:
a) 0
b) 2 if the seating capacity with one passenger deck is 31.
c) 1
d) 2

26) An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the
protection time of the anti-icing fluid:
a) Must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
b) Need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
c) Must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid.
d) Must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off.

27) An aircraft is configured for seating 61 to 200 passengers. What is the minimum
requirement for Halon hand held fire extinguishers.
a) 4 Conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
b) 2 Conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
c) 5 Conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
d) 3 Conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

28) An immediate decrease in headwind will be evident by:

1. An increase in IAS.
2. A reduction in IAS.
3. Climbing above the glide path.
4. Descending below the glide path.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1 and 3.
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 4

29) An initial report should be despatched by the operator to the authority following an
accident involving dangerous goods within:
a) 24 hours.
b) 7 days.
c) 14 days.
d) 72 hours.

30) Anti-icing and de-icing procedures can be found in the:

a) Operations Manual.
b) Operational Flight Plan.
c) Operations Officer's Guidance Manuals.
d) Operating Procedures Document.

31) Aquaplaning is made more likely by:

a) A smooth clean runway.
b) A dirty rough runway.
 c) Tyres with concentric tread pattern.
d) Bald tyres.

32) As a pilot in command during flight preparation if you are notified that a dangerous
package has been damaged during its loading you:
a) ensure that arrangements are made for its removal
b) mention it on the shipper's declaration
c) accept it after a visual inspection
d) mention it on the Notification to Captain

33) As regards the detection of bird strike hazard pilots may obtain information on bird
strike hazards by means of:

1 - ATIS.
2 - NOTAMs.
3 - BIRDTAMs.
4 - Weather radar.
5 - The report by another crew.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
b) 1, 3 & 4
c) 2 & 5
d) 1, 2 & 5

34) At a relatively low humidity (30%) and a high ambient temperature (+30°C) in air free
of cloud light carburettor icing:
a) Can only occur at a very low power setting.
b) Will only occur at relatively high power settings.
c) Can occur at cruise or descent power settings.
d) Does not occur.

35) Birds will be attracted to aerodromes when:

a) There is a nearby rubbish tip.
b) Flying operations are reduced at dawn and dusk.
c) Grass is grown to be cut later for hay.
d) The aerodrome does not have a bird reduction programme.

36) Certain dangerous goods may be carried by crew members and passengers. They
include:
a) Alcohol lighter refills, radioisotopic cardiac pacemakers.
b) Safety matches, small carbon dioxide gas cylinders for mechanical limbs.
c) Firearms with a licence, small medicinal thermometers in its own protective case.
d) Radioactive medicinal articles, hydrocarbon gas-powered hair curlers.

37) Dangerous goods must be labelled in accordance with the rules by the shipper. If the
goods are travelling from London/Heathrow to New York via Paris the label must be
in which languages?
a) English and American.
b) English only.
c) English, French and American.
 d) The 4 ICAO languages: English, French, Spanish and Russian.

38) During a landing approach the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing
head wind. In the absence of a pilot action the aircraft:

1. flies above the glide path

2. flies below the glide path
3. has an increasing true airspeed
4. has a decreasing true airspeed.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 4
d) 2, 4

39) During a landing approach the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing
head [Link] the absence of a pilot action the aircraft:

1. flies above the glide path

2. flies below the glide path
3. has an increasing true airspeed
4. has a decreasing true airspeed.

The combination of correct statements is:

a) 2 & 3
b) 1 & 4
c) 2 & 4
d) 1 & 3

40) During a Procedure NADP 2 noise abatement departure profile what speed must be
maintained following thrust reduction when flaps/slats are retracted?
a) VZF + 10kph.
b) V2 + 10kt.
c) V1 + 10kt.
d) VZF + 10 to 20kt.

41) During an aircraft full de-icing/anti-icing procedure the:

a) Anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.
b) Anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot.
c) Anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.
d) De-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot.

42) Earth rate will cause a directional gyro to move :

a) clockwise in the northern hemisphere
b) anti-clockwise in both hemispheres
c) anti-clockwise in the northern hemisphere
d) clockwise in both hemispheres

43) Entering a microburst what happens?

a) Air is diverging and local pressure increases
 b) Air rotates and local pressure increases.
c) Air is diverging and local pressure decreases.
d) Air rotates and local pressure decreases.

44) Excessive heating of brakes from abnormal braking can cause serious problems.
Which of the following are possible major problems associated with brake overheat?
a) Unpleasant smell poor braking loss of tyre pressure.
b) Exploding tyres brake fires seizing of brakes.
c) Burning tyres excessive smoke seizing of parking brake.
d) Hydraulic leaks brake fires loss of braking performance.

45) Explosives are classified dangerous goods under Class:

a) Four
b) Two
c) Three
d) One

46) Following a jet-pipe fire your actions are:

a) Declare a MAYDAY and immediately evacuate the aeroplane.
b) Close the HP cock and commence a dry motoring cycle.
c) Close the HP cock and activate the fire extinguisher
d) Keep the throttle at idle and wait for the fire to self-extinguish.

47) Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane the

pilot-in-command must submit a report to:
a) The operator who will then inform the relevant parties.
b) The local authorities the authority of the operator and ICAO.
c) The ATC controller who will then inform the authorities.
d) The authority of the operator who will then inform other relevant parties.

48) For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars there is a risk of dynamic
hydroplaning as soon as the:
a) Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.
b) Speed is greater than 95 kt.
c) Tail wind is greater than 10 kt.
d) Speed is greater than 129 kt.

49) For the purpose of wake turbulence separation what is the ICAO minimum non-radar
separation time if a light aeroplane (7,000 kg or less) is following a medium
aeroplane (less than 136,000 kg but more than 7,000 kg) on the approach to
landing?
a) 2 minutes.
b) 3 minutes.
c) 5 minutes.
d) 4 minutes.

50) Holdover time can be considerably reduced by:

a) The air temperature dropping by only 30C.
b) The pilot operating the flight controls during application.
c) Diluting the glycol to a concentration of 50%.
d) Breeze acting on the tail of the aeroplane.
51) How many fire extinguishers must be carried on an aircraft with a maximum
passenger seating configuration of 250?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 4

52) ICAO classify aircraft with regards to Wake Turbulence as :

a) Heavy equal or greater than 136,000 kgs Medium 136,000 kgs but not more than
7,000 kgs and light 7,000 kgs or less
b) Heavy greater than 136,000 kgs Medium 136,000 kgs and light 7,000 kgs or less
c) None of the above
d) Heavy equal to or greater than 136,000 kgs Medium less than 136000 kgs but
more than 7,000 kgs and light 7,000 kgs or less

53) If an aeroplane experiences a bird strike shortly after take-off the pilot is responsible
for :
a) inspecting for damage and only report if the damage is significant
b) informing his/her company
c) filing an AIPROX report
d) filing a bird strike report

54) If an aircraft has tyres inflated to 10.8 bar what is the speed at which aquaplaning
would begin?
a) 97kts
b) 103kts
c) 85kts
d) 112kts

55) If cabin altitude increases during level flight the differential pressure:
a) remains constant
b) increases
c) decreases
d) attains its maximum permitted operating limit

56) If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight it would be better to do so:
a) in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level.
b) during final phase of approach.
c) under flight level 50 (FL50).
d) in a holding stack after control clearance.

57) If taking off in icing conditions pilot-in-command must make sure:

a) Icing doesn't affect performance within the constraints of the operations manual.
b) Icing doesn't affect the mass and balance of the aeroplane.
c) Anti-ice fluid is still present on the airframe.
d) Icing on the airframe is not greater than 5mm.

58) If the breaking action was described as Code 4 it would be the equivalent of:
a) Medium to poor.
b) Good
 c) Medium
d) Medium to good.

59) If the EPR probe heater is reported as unserviceable there is a risk that in icing
conditions:
a) The power set would be too low but there would be little change to the
performance.
b) The RPM set would be high and the engine might overspeed.
c) The power set would be too low and the aeroplane would under perform.
d) The power set would be too high and the engine may over-temp.

60) In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:

a) The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
b) The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
c) The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
d) The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence.

61) In a ditching situation except for infants the passengers shall be instructed to inflate
their life jackets:
a) immediately on the opening of the exits.
b) immediately on ditching.
c) as soon as ditching is prepared.
d) when exiting the aircraft.

62) In a microburst the winds:

a) Converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the pressure decreases by a few
hectopascals.
b) Diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the pressure increases by a few
hectopascals.
c) Converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the pressure increases by a few
hectopacals.
d) Diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the pressure decreases by a few
hectopascals.

63) In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures which letter should be entered
into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane that has a maximum mass of 8,000kg but an
actual take-off mass of 6,500kg?
a) M.
b) S
c) H
d) L.

64) In accordance with JAR OPS the noise abatement procedures specified by the
operator should be:
a) for all aeroplane types the same for a specific aerodrome.
b) different according to aerodromes and aeroplane types.
c) for an aeroplane type the same for all aerodromes.
d) for all aeroplane types the same for all aerodromes.
65) In addition to informing each State whose citizens are known to be on board an
aircraft the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of
unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
a) State of the operator the JAA and ICAO
b) State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only
c) State of Registry of the aircraft the State of the operator and ICAO
d) State of Registry of the aircraft and the JAA

66) In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized
aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
a) you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the
safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing
approach configuration.
b) you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.
c) you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of
pressurization.
d) you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep
the aircraft in a clean configuration until the final approach.

67) In order to obtain certification a fuel jettison system must be able to:
a) Jettison sufficient fuel during a radar circuit to be below landing mass.
b) Jettison fuel clear of the aeroplane whilst selecting services and manoeuvring.
c) Jettison sufficient fuel in 15 minutes to meet landing climb and discontinued
approach requirements.
d) Jettison all fuel in 15 minutes.

68) In public transport aeroplane prior to commercial air transportation operations the
commander shall not commence take-off in icing conditions unless:
a) external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid and the aircraft is not to be
operated in forecasted icing conditions greater than moderate icing.
b) the external surfaces are clear of any deposit which might adversely affect the
performance of the aeroplane except as permitted by Aircraft Flight Manual
c) external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm.
d) ice accretions do not lead to an exceeding of mass and balance limits.

69) In still air in what manner do the wake turbulence vortices from an aircraft disperse?
a) Starboard side drifts away port side stays on runway.
b) Both drift apart beyond the edges of the runway.
c) Port side drifts away starboard side stays on runway.
d) Both converge on the runway.

70) In the event of an uncontrolled de-pressurization at FL310 the first action of the flight
crew is to:
a) Initiate a descent to safety altitude.
b) Inform the passengers.
c) Don oxygen masks.
d) Declare a MAYDAY.

71) In the JAR OPS a runway is considered damp when:

a) surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.
b) it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.
 c) it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.
d) its surface is not dry and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny
appearance.

72) In what minimum time must sufficient fuel be jettisoned in order to comply with
approach/climb gradient specifications?
a) 90 minutes.
b) 30 minutes.
c) 15 minutes.
d) 60 minutes.

73) In which document is it stated in detail what dangerous goods cannot be carried by
air?
a) The Technical Instructions.
b) ICAO Annex 18.
c) ICAO Annex 6.
d) The Operations Manual.

74) Information about evacuation can be found in the

a) Flight Manual.
b) Journey Logbook.
c) Operations Manual
d) Operational Flight Plan.

75) Item G of a SNOWTAM has the following: 03/03/03. What does this mean?
a) The braking action is medium or better on each 1/3 of the runway.
b) The runway direction is 030°M.
c) The contaminant is rime or frost on each 1/3 of the runway.
d) The depth of the contaminant is 3mm on each 1/3 of the runway.

76) Mist in the cabin pressure and temperature drop characterise:

a) an electrical fire.
b) a rapid depressurization.
c) a slow depressurization.
d) a plastic fire.

77) Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway
under the following circumstances:

1. when cross wind component including gust exceeds 15 knots.

2. when the tail wind component including gust exceeds 5 knots.
3. when the runway is not clear or dry.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2 & 3
b) 1 & 3
c) 1, 2 & 3
d) 1 & 2

78) On a Procedure NADP 1 noise abatement departure what speed must be maintained
after the reduction in power?
 a) V1 + 20-40kph.
b) VZF + 10kts.
c) 150kts.
d) V2 + 10-20kts

79) On commencing an approach to land and experiencing very heavy rain the pilot
should :
a) use the rain repellant with wipers off
b) increase approach speed
c) decrease airspeed
d) fly a normal approach speed

80) On making an approach you encounter a high sink rate with no perceptible change in
airspeed power setting or attitude. Your actions are:
a) Raise the gear and flap and carry out a low go-around.
b) Select full power and pull to the stick shaker.
c) Increase the power to regain the glide path.
d) Raise the nose to regain the glide path.

81) On the approach you experience an increasing tailwind. What happens to the
aircraft:

1. Descends below the glide path.

2. Climbs above the glide path.
3. IAS increases.
4. IAS decreases.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1 and 3
b) 1 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 2 and 4

82) On the flight deck you see smoke coming from the air conditioning system. Do you
immediately:
a) Turn all the air conditioning off
b) Investigate to find the source of the smoke.
c) Don your oxygen mask.
d) Do an emergency descent

83) One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it:

a) can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane
b) occurs only at a low altitude (2,000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane
c) occurs only at a low altitude (2,000 ft) and never in the vertical plane
d) can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes

84) Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or

materials in question are defined as such by:
a) The UNO document entitled "Dangerous Goods Regulations".
 b) The ICAO document entitled "Technical Instructions for the safe transport of
dangerous goods by air".
c) The IATA document entitled "Regulations governing the transportation of
dangerous goods by air".
d) The directives of the Community Union.

85) Regarding the carriage of dangerous goods the transport document if required is
drawn up by:
a) The shipper.
b) The handling agent
c) The captain
d) The operator

86) The accumulation of frost snow or ice on an aeroplane in flight induces an increase
in the:
a) tuck under
b) value of the stall angle of attack
c) stalling speed
d) roll rate

87) The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the holdover
time:
a) during strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft engines jet blast.
b) when the temperature of the aeroplane skin is close to 0 °C.
c) when the outside temperature is close to 0 °C.
d) when the aeroplane is parked facing into wind.

88) The ATIS gives the braking action as Code 2. This is an estimated braking action
that is :
a) Medium
b) Good
c) Medium to good
d) Medium to poor

89) The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:
a) Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.
b) Water may only be used for minor fires.
c) Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon
dioxide.
d) A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.

90) The effect of Earth rate in the northern hemisphere is to cause a directional gyro to :
a) over-read on westerly headings
b) under-read true heading
c) over-read true heading
d) over-read on easterly headings

91) The frequency of a SNOWTAM report must be at least :

a) Once every 24 hours
b) Once every 72 hours
c) Once every 2 hours
 d) Once every 12 hours

92) The immediate effect of a sudden decrease in tailwind is to:

a) Give the aeroplane a decrease of energy situation thus causing it to descend
below the flight path.
b) Cause an immediate increase in indicated air speed.
c) Cause flutter on the aeroplane's control surfaces.
d) Decrease the speed of the aeroplane over the ground.

93) The immediate effects experienced following a rapid depressurisation are:

1. Expansion of gases in occupant’s bodily cavities.

2. Popping of occupants ears.
3. Mist in the cabin.
4. Blast of air from cabin to exterior

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 3 & 4.
b) 1, 2, 3 & 4
c) 1 &2.
d) 3 & 4.

94) The immediate effects on passengers following a depressurisation include:

1. Expansion of gases in bodily cavities.

2. Popping of ears.
3. Increased activity.
4. Impairment of vision.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 4
b) 3 & 4
c) 1, 2, 3 & 4
d) 1 & 2

95) The information concerning dangerous goods that passengers may carry are listed in
the:
a) ICAO document titled "Technical safety instructions for the air transportation of
dangerous products"
b) aircraft's flight manual.
c) IATA document "Dangerous products transportation".
d) JAR-OPS documentation.

96) The number of crash axes or crowbars on board an aeroplane whose maximum
approved configuration of passenger seats is 201 is:
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 1

97) The principle behind a fire detection system working on a resistive circuit is:
 a) As the heat increases the resistance decreases.
b) As the airflow decreases the resistance increases.
c) As the smoke level increases the resistance decreases.
d) As the heat increases the resistance increases.

98) The principle of operation of a fire loop detector is as the temperature increases the:
a) Capacitance increases.
b) Capacitance decreases.
c) Pressure decreases.
d) Pressure decreases.

99) The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:

1. the type and intensity of the showers

2. the ambient temperature
3. the relative humidity
4. the direction and speed of the wind
5. the temperature of the airplane skin
6. the type of fluid its concentration and temperature

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1, 3, 5 & 6
b) 1, 2, 4 & 6
c) 2, 3, 4 & 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6

100) The risk of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:

a) strength of the headwind.
b) amount of the lift off speed.
c) aircraft's weight.
d) depth of the standing water on the runway.

101) The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is
generally the:
a) total air-conditioning
b) ventilation of the cargo compartment
c) pressurization
d) trim air

102) The time limit for fuel jettison to reduce from MTOM to Emergency MLM is:
a) 30 minutes
b) 15 minutes.
c) 10 minutes.
d) 20 minutes.

103) The worst airframe icing conditions occur on the ground in:
a) Freezing rain.
b) Snow
c) Frost
 d) Freezing fog.

104) Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the
following is established:
a) spin up
b) drag
c) lift
d) lift destruction

105) To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:

a) Extinguish fire only.
b) you turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire.
c) Fire-fighting is not necessary since the transport of combustible goods in an
air-conditioned cargo hold is forbidden.
d) Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning.

106) Under icing conditions if you exceeded the holdover time the correct procedure
is:
a) apply directly anti-icing fluid without previous de-icing.
b) operate the aeroplane de-icing/anti-icing systems.
c) de-ice the aeroplane.
d) de-ice again the aeroplane then apply anti-icing fluid.

107) Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of
water and:
a) the runway is very smooth and clean.
b) the runway is very smooth and dirty.
c) the runway has a rough surface.
d) the tyre treads show minor cuts.

108) Wake turbulence vortex is generated :

a) during approach or take-off
b) from take-off roll to landing roll
c) only from 1,000ft below the aeroplane
d) from rotation to touch-down

109) We would know that the automatic pressurization system has malfunctioned if:

1. there is a change in environmental sounds.

2. the cabin barometer indicates a sharp rise.
3. the differential pressure between the exterior and the interior
becomes equal.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1 & 2
b) 1, 2 & 3
c) 2 & 3
d) 1 & 3

110) What action should you take after an emergency landing requiring emergency
evacuation?
 1. Remain on runway.
2. Take first taxiway exit off runway.
3. Shut off all systems.
4. Keep one engine or APU on to supply electrical equipment.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 1 & 4
b) 2 & 4
c) 1 & 3
d) 2 & 3

111) What are the main factors that affect wake turbulence?
a) Wing shape weight of aircraft services selected.
b) Weight of aircraft speed of aircraft configuration of aircraft.
c) Lack of wing fences heavy weight of aircraft slow speed.
d) High speed low weight of aircraft undercarriage selected.

112) What are the requirements for flying in icing conditions?

a) The met officer has briefed the crew on all the actions required to avoid the icing
conditions.
b) The aeroplane has been de-iced prior to take off.
c) If flying at night the aeroplane is fitted with a light to illuminate the airframe.
d) Some anti-icing fluid is still present on the airframe at time of take-off.

113) What effect does snow and ice contamination have on aircraft performance?

1. Increase take-off run.

2. Decrease take-off run.
3. Increase stall speed.
4. Decrease stall speed.
5. Reduce climb gradient.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2 3 & 4.
b) 1 2 & 3.
c) 1 3 & 5.
d) 2 4 & 5.

114) What flying conditions give the worst wake turbulence?

a) Large high power slow and full flaps.
b) Large heavy slow and clean.
c) Large heavy fast and full flaps.
d) Large high powers fast and clean.

115) What happens immediately after a rapid decompression ?

1. Expansion of trapped body gases

2. Mist in the cabin
3. Rapid exhalation from the lungs
 4. Rapid loss of cabin pressure
5. Cabin VSI indicating a descent.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

a) 2, 3 and 5
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4

116) What is the aquaplaning speed if the main gear tyre pressure is 10.8 Bar?
a) 95 kts.
b) 85 kts.
c) 112 kts.
d) 143 kts.

117) What is the aquaplaning speed if the main gear tyre pressure is 7.8 Bar?
a) 143 kts.
b) 95 kts.
c) 112 kts
d) 85 kts.

118) What is the mass range of light aeroplanes with regard to wake turbulence
categories?
a) Between 7,000 kg and 13,6000 kg
b) Below 5,400 kg
c) 7,000 kg or less
d) Between 5,400 kg and 7,000 kg

119) What is the minimum distance a medium aircraft should cross behind a heavy
aircraft when at the same altitude?
a) 4nm.
b) 6nm.
c) 5nm.
d) 3nm.

120) What is the minimum distance on landing for a light aircraft following a medium?
a) 6nm.
b) 3nm
c) 4nm
d) 5nm

121) What is the minimum height above the aerodrome that power should be reduced
on a Procedure NADP 1 noise abatement departure?
a) 500ft
b) 2,000ft.
c) 1,500ft.
d) 800ft
122) What is the minimum number of fire extinguishers that should be carried on a
multi-engined turbo-jet authorised to carry 350 passengers?
a) 4.
b) 5.
c) 6.
d) 3.

123) What is the reason for carrying supplemental oxygen?

a) To give to passengers who may require oxygen following a de-pressurisation.
b) To give to passengers who may require oxygen following a pressurisation.
c) To give to passengers who are experiencing breathing difficulties at high flight
levels.
d) To provide breathing oxygen for crew members when fighting a fire.

124) What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft that is subject to unlawful
interference (hijacked)?
a) 7500
b) 7600.
c) 7700.
d) 7800.

125) What period of time must elapse before a light category aircraft can take off from
the same position on a runway following a heavy category aircraft?
a) 4 mins.
b) 1 min
c) 3 mins.
d) 2 mins.

126) What precludes a runway being used for noise abatement procedures in VMC?
a) Tailwind up to 3kts.
b) Crosswind including gusts of 10kts.
c) No ILS or visual guidance.
d) Any tailwind.

127) What would be the most appropriate action should an unidentified package
suspected to be an IED (improvised explosive device) be found on the aeroplane in
flight?
a) Cover the package with blankets and ask the passengers to pray to St Jude.
b) Squawk 7600 and make an emergency descent.
c) Move the package to the least-risk bomb location and make an expeditious
landing.
d) Open the package and attempt to identify the owner.

128) When a light aircraft is following behind a medium aircraft on an approach the
separation should be :
a) 5 minutes
b) 3 nms
c) 3 minutes
d) 2 minutes
129) When attending the weather forecast for the route the forecast highlights that
severe icing can be expected along part of the route. The captain must ensure that:
a) The aeroplane is fitted with serviceable anti-icing equipment.
b) The whole route is changed to avoid forecast areas of severe icing.
c) The fuel tanks are as full as possible to allow for the high fuel usage expected.
d) The weather radar is serviceable.

130) When carrying out de-icing/anti-icing as a one step procedure the holdover time
is deemed to have started from:
a) The start of the de-icing procedure.
b) When the icing conditions have stopped affecting the aeroplane.
c) The end of the de-icing procedure.
d) When all ice deposits have been removed from the airframe.

131) When do most bird strikes occur?

a) During dawn and dusk.
b) During nighttime.
c) During daylight hours.
d) During meal times when bird control officers are off duty.

132) When does the anti-icing holdover time begin on a 2 step procedure?
a) When all icing deposits have been removed from the airframe.
b) From the start of the anti-icing procedure
c) From the end of the anti-icing procedure
d) From the start of the de-icing procedure

133) When does the engine fire warning light go out after discharge of the fire
extinguishers?
a) When fire handle is pulled.
b) When that fire bottle has been fired.
c) When all bottles to that engine are discharged.
d) When the detected fire is extinguished.

134) When does the fire handle warning light go out?

a) When fire handle is pulled.
b) Fire detected as being out.
c) When that fire bottle has been fired.
d) When all bottles to that engine are discharged.

135) When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a
small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation this can be
seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:
a) a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure
b) zero
c) a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm
d) a rate of climb

136) When fuel is jettisoned:

a) The centre tank should be emptied to reduced mass to landing mass.
b) Maximum landing mass cannot be greater than the take-off mass.
 c) Maximum landing climb mass should be achievable within 15 minutes.
d) With four engines operating a climb gradient of 3% must be achievable.

137) When planning a flight in icing conditions what are the requirements?
a) A met officer will decide if the flight can take place.
b) Apply anti-icing fluid.
c) Take off anyway and hope for the best
d) Aircraft to be equipped with approved anti-icing equipment.

138) When using noise abatement procedure NADP 1 initiation of power reduction can
be actioned at or above?
a) 2,000 ft
b) 4,000 ft
c) 800 ft
d) 1,500 ft

139) When you encounter windshear on approach what input may be needed by the
pilot?
a) Increase engine power leave gear and flaps and increase attitude to stick shake
b) Apply power retract gear and flaps and increase attitude to stick shake.
c) Nothing
d) Increase airspeed.

140) Which habitat is the least favourable for birds?

a) Long grass.
b) Rubbish tips.
c) Areas that flood.
d) Short grass cut by gang mowers.

141) Which is the most likely to attract a bird problem to an aerodrome.

a) Long Grass
b) A nearby fun park.
c) A rubbish tip.
d) Mineral extraction.

142) Which language must dangerous goods be labelled in for international flights?
a) English French Russian or Spanish?
b) English and local language.
c) French and English
d) The local language.

143) Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing ?
a) These procedures shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust.
b) These procedures prohibit the use of reverse thrust .
c) There are no noise abatement procedures for landing.
d) These procedures are applied in case of instrument approach only.

144) Which weather condition will give the shortest holdover time for a given ambient
temperature and type of de-icing fluid?
a) Light freezing rain
b) Freezing fog
 c) Steady snow
d) Frost

145) While approaching the outer-marker the tower informs you about the presence of
a "microburst". You will expect to encounter:
a) windshears (vertical and horizontal).
b) convection motion of air mass.
c) wake turbulence .
d) supercooled water.

146) Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise
abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS
8168 the:
a) state in which the aeroplane is operating
b) commander
c) state of the operator
d) operator

147) Who is responsible that dangerous goods offered for transport are properly
classified packed marked and are not forbidden in accordance with Annex 18 -
Technical Instructions?
a) The Operator
b) The Shipper
c) The Pilot in Command
d) The Loadmaster

148) Windshear is:

a) A horizontal change of wind speed over any distance.
b) Uncomfortable and to be avoided at all times.
c) Only encountered at low level around a front.
d) A horizontal or vertical change of wind velocity over a short distance.

149) With a heavy aircraft then a medium landing on the same runway what are the
minimum distance and time criteria for wake turbulence considerations?
a) 6nm and 3mins.
b) 4nm and 2mins
c) 5nm and 2mins.
d) 5nm and 3mins

150) With which fire extinguisher would you normally fight a wheel fire?
a) Foam
b) Water
c) Dry powder
d) CO2

151) You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:

1 - solids (fabric, plastic ...)
2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline ...)
3 - gas
4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium ...)
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
a) 2, 3 & 4
b) 1, 2 & 3
c) 1, 2, 3 & 4
d) 1, 2 & 4

152) Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on
landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports
indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required
landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
a) 18 %
b) 176 %
c) 20 %
d) 15 %