1. All of the following contributed to e.
None of the answers is correct
the discovery of the DNA molecule,
except for: 5. What is the role of
All topoisomerases in eukaryotic DNA
a. Francis Crick replication?
b. James Watson
c. Rosalind Franklin a. Topoisomerase enzymes cut,
d. Maurice Wilkins uncoil, and reseal the double-stranded
e. Alfred Hershey DNA
b. Topoisomerase enzymes bind to the
2. In 1983, he discovered the origin of replication sites within double-
Polymerase Chain Reaction, and stranded DNA
the subsequent wave of PCR- c. Topoisomerase enzymes open up the
based innovations opened new double-stranded DNA at the replication
research possibilities for countless fork
scientists. d. Topoisomerase enzymes join the
Okazaki fragments together with
a. Richard Roberts phosphodiester bonds
b. Philip Sharp e. Topoisomerase enzymes bind and
c. Hamilton Smith stabilize DNA to prevent reannealing
d. Claire Moore
e. Kary Mullis 6. It attaches to single-stranded
DNA to prevent reannealing.
3. What is the maximum number of
phosphate groups that can be a. Single-stranded DNA binding
attached to pentose sugars in protein
nucleotides? b. DNA ligase
c. DNA polymerase III
a. 1 d. DNA helicase
b. 2 e. DNA polymerase I
c. 3
d. 4 6. In prokaryotes, where does DNA
e. 5 replication occur?
4. Which of the following best a. Nucleus
describes the directionality of DNA b. Mitochondria
replication? c. Cytoplasm
d. Endoplasmic reticulum
a. 5' → 3' direction on both strands e. Cell membrane
b. 3' → 5' direction on both strands
c. 5' → 3' direction on the leading strand, 7. Relatively long strands that
3' → 5' on the lagging strand encode the information from a
d. 3' → 5' direction on the leading strand, single gene (DNA). It is the
5' → 3' on the lagging strand template for protein synthesis, and
this is the product of transcription. e. None of the above
a. rRNA 11. Inverted repeats create a
b. mRNA hairpin loop that triggers cleavage
c. tRNA enzymes to cleave nucleotides
d. snRNA after the hairpin loop away from the
e. NOTA RNA polymerase, causing the RNA
polymerase to hop off the DNA
8. It is a short (90 nucleotide) RNA strand.
molecule responsible for
translating nucleic acid language to a. Rho-dependent transcription
protein language. In other words, termination in prokaryotes
the "adapter" molecule converts b. Rho-independent transcription
nucleic acid sequence to protein termination in prokaryotes
sequence. c. Rho-dependent transcription
termination in eukaryotes
a. rRNA d. Rho-independent transcription
b. mRNA termination in eukaryotes
c. tRNA e. None of the above
d. snRNA
e. NOTA 12. Which of the following steps is
NOT correct for producing mature
9. The correct structure of RNA (mRNA)?
eukaryotic mRNA from 5’ to 3’ is
a. A poly-A tail is added to the 3'-end of
a. Cap – leader sequence – 3’UTR – poly- the RNA.
A tail – coding region b. Exons are joined together.
b. Coding region – cap – leader sequence c. Binding of miRNA to the 3'-
– 3’ UTR – poly-A tail untranslated region of mRNA.
c. Cap – leader sequence – coding d. Introns are removed from RNA.
region – 3’ UTR – poly-A tail e. Adding a cap to the 5'-untranslated
d. Cap – 3’ UTR – coding region – leader region (5'-UTR) of the RNA.
sequence – poly-A tail
e. Cap – leader sequence – 3’ UTR - 13. In eukaryotes, which of the
coding region – poly-A tail following general transcription
factors bind to the TATA box?
10. It cleaves off one of the
phosphates attached to the 5’ end a. TFIIA
of the RNA. b. TFIIB
c. TFIID
a. Poly-A-polymerase d. TFIIE
b. RNA triphosphatase e. TFIIF
c. Guanylyl transferase
d. Methyl transferase 14. In eukaryotes, all of the
following steps happen during the protein
translation elongation stage b. Secondary structure is determined by
EXCEPT: hydrogen bonding of the amino acid
backbone
a. Binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A c. Tertiary structure is the two-
site. dimensional structure of a protein
b. Formation of a peptide bond. d. Primary structure is the linear amino
c. Exit of aminoacyl-tRNA from E site acid sequence of a protein
d. Translocation of tRNA from A site to P e. None of the above
site.
e. Hydrolysis of GTP into GDP to provide 18. What is operon?
energy.
a. A unit of DNA containing a cluster of
15. What is the role of tRNA genes under control of a promoter and
during translation? a repressor
b. A protein that binds to an RNA segment
a. Bond to open the DNA strand to carry and blocks the attachment of DNA
the code for protein synthesis out of the polymerase, halting transcription
nucleus c. A protein around which DNA is coiled
b. Carry ribosomes to the site of protein until it is transcribed; also the chief protein
synthesis component of chromatin
c. Break apart mRNA and send it back to d. A reversibly bound protein that
the nucleus so that it can be reused enhances the transcription of a particular
d. Carry amino acids to the mRNA for segment of RNA
correct placement into the protein e. None of the above
chain
e. None of the above 19. A proto-oncogene can be
converted to an oncogene by all of
16. In prokaryotes what site on the the following EXCEPT:
mRNA does the ribosome bind to
initiate translation? a. Gene deletions
b. Increased repressor binding
a. The Shine-Delgarno sequence c. Gene amplification
b. The operator d. Chromosomal rearrangement
c. The 3' untranslated region e. None of the above
d. The promoter
e. The polyadenine tail 20. Below are two sequences of a
segment of DNA.
17. Which of the levels of protein CCG GTC TAG -> Normal
structure is incorrectly matched to sequence
its description? CCG GTC GTAG -> Mutated
sequence
a. Quaternary structure is the three- Which type of mutation has
dimensional structure of a multi-subunit occurred?
a. Substitution mutation 24. Progression through the cell
b. Deletion mutation cycle is controlled by:
c. Nonsense mutation
d. Insertion mutation a. Transcription factors and cyclins
e. Frameshift mutation b. Repressor proteins
c. Regulatory proteins
21. The wrong statement about d. Cyclins and CDKs
Deamination is: e. None of the above
a. The deamination of cytosine yields 25. All of the following statements
uracil. are true about CDKs, except:
b. The deamination of adenine yields
hypoxanthine. a. CDKs are a family of
c. The deamination of thymine yields glycine/alanine kinases that play a
methylated cytosine central role in regulating the cell cycle
d. Its induced mutation b. Their activity is dependent on binding
e. Statements C and D to cyclins, which activate the CDKs
c. CDKs regulate the cell cycle by
22. A gene normally expresses a phosphorylating target proteins involved
130-amino acid-long protein. A in various cell cycle events
point mutation occurred in the d. The activity of CDKs is tightly controlled
coding DNA of this protein that by several mechanisms including the
resulted in the production of an association with cyclins, phosphorylation,
abnormal protein with 112 amino and the presence of CDK inhibitors
acids. The mutation is: e. All of the statements are correct
a. Silent mutation 26. A type of polymorphism that
b. Nonsense mutation consists of a series of trinucleotide
c. Missense mutation repeats that can be two to seven
d. Conversion of a stop codon into base pairs in length and is known
Methionine codon as a microsatellite sequence is also
e. Insertion of three nucleotides in the referred to as a:
promoter region
a. Restriction Fragment Length
23. Down syndrome is caused by Polymorphism
the Robertsonian translocation of? b. Variable Number Tandem Repeats
c. Restriction endonuclease
a. Chromosome 19 and chromosome 21 d. Short Tandem Repeats
b. Chromosome 21 and chromosome e. Hybridization
14
c. Chromosome 14 and chromosome 18 27. Storage of DNA and RNA
d. Chromosome 13 and chromosome 18 should be controlled carefully, and
e. Chromosome 21 and chromosome 23 temperature logs should be
maintained. Which of the following
statements is true? nucleic acids in 1M NaCl, where
proteins remain in supernatant.
a. Store extracted DNA and RNA
samples, clearly labeled, at 20°C or lower a. Salting out
b. Store PCR products in a separate b. Ultrafiltration
freezer at 20°C or lower c. Polyethyleneimine
c. Store sequencing libraries in a separate d. Nonionic polymer
freezer at 20°C or lower e. Thermal
d. All of the above
e. None of the above 31. In DNA extraction, ________ is
included for chelating the _____
28. In PCR testing, the initial step ions needed for enzymes ______to
involves adding the DNA in prevent degradation of DNA.
question to a mixture of Taq
polymerase, excess nucleotides, a. Chelating agent, Mg2+, ribonuclease
MgCl2, and primers. This mixture is b. EDTA, Mg2+, deoxyribonuclease
placed in which of the following c. Enzyme, Mn2+, deoxyribonuclease
instruments to allow the d. EDTA, Ca2+, deoxyribonuclease
amplification to take place? e. Enzyme, Ca2+, ribonuclease
a. Flow cytometer 32. Which of the following
b. Capillary array sequencer specimens would be least likely to
c. Electrophoresis chamber yield DNA?
d. Thermal cycler
e. None of the above a. Buccal cells
b. Liver tissue
29. Which of the following c. Purified red blood cells
statements is accurate for the PCR d. Purified white blood cells
– polymerase chain reaction? e. None of the above
a. Automated PCR machines are called 33. A major risk of gene therapy for
thermal cyclers reconstitution of immune deficiency
b. thermostable DNA polymerase is in T cells is
required
c. Millions to billions of desired DNA a. Leukaemia due to the aberrant
copies can be produced from microgram insertion of retrovirus vectors
quantities of DNA b. Poor reconstitution efficacy
d. All of the above c. Rejection of the engrafted cells
e. None of the above d. Immune reconstitution inflammatory
syndrome
30. A technique to remove e. None of the above
contaminants and detergent from
proteomic samples which uses a 34. The Artificial gene for Rennin is
cationic polymer to precipitate derived from __________.
a. mRNA (Calf Stomach) a. The probability of having normal allele
b. DNA (Calf Kidneys) b. The probability of having the mutated
c. tRNA (Bovine Liver) allele
d. DNA (Calf Stomach) c. The probability of being a carrier for
e. rRNA (Pig pancreas) the disease in the population
d. The probability of genotype NN
35. Identify which of the following is e. The probability of having the disease
mismatched about protein products
of recombinant DNA technology 39. A couple is evaluated in the
genetics clinic, and the male is
a. Insulin : E. coli : Diabetes found to be a carrier of an X-linked
b. Hepatitis B vaccine : Saccharomyces dominant disorder. The couple asks
cerevisae : Prevention of viral hepatitis the nurse what this means in
c. Erythropoietin : Mammalian cells : regard to their future children. The
Anemia nurse’s response will include the
d. Factor VIII : Mammalian cells : information that:
Hemophilia
e. None of the above a. All girls born to the family will be
affected.
36. It is a wider application to cover b. All girls born to the family will not be
a number of recessive defects affected.
which identify the individuals for c. All boys born to the family will be
any particular defect by screening. affected.
d. All boys and girls born to the family will
a. Prospective genetic counseling be affected
b. Retrospective genetic counseling e. of the above
c. Subjective genetic counseling
d. Objective genetic counseling 40. All of the following statements
e. None of the above are correct about meiosis, except:
37. Aims of genetic counseling, a. It is a type of cell division that
except: results in two daughter cells, each
with half the number of chromosomes
a. Establish an accurate diagnosis of the parent cell
b. Obtain full history b. A process in which a single cell divides
c. Future pregnancy risk estimation of twice to form four haploid daughter cells.
being affected or carrying a disorder c. Meiosis is responsible for the formation
d. Continued Support and Follow-Up of sex cells or gametes that are
e. None of the above responsible for sexual reproduction
d. The daughter cells are identical to the
38. In the Hardy-Weinberg mother cell in shape and size but different
equation, what does 2pq in chromosome number
represent? e. The process is divided into two types-
Meiosis-I reduces the chromosome
number to half and is known as mutated gene to each child.
reductional division. Meiosis II is just like A. 0%
the mitotic division B. 25%
C. 50%
41. A female patient has a son with D. 75%
hemophilia A. The patient's father E. 100%
also had hemophilia A, but her
husband does not have the 45. Autosomal dominant disorders
disorder. The patient's karyotype is occur when a single copy of a
normal. What is the probability that mutated gene on a non-sex
her next son will have hemophilia chromosome (autosome) is
A? sufficient to cause the disorder. If
a.0% an affected parent and another
b. 25% unaffected parent had a child,
c. 50% which of the following probabilities
d. 75% is correct?
e. 100% A. Each child has a 50% chance of
inheriting the mutated gene and
42. A 28-year-old woman with a being affected by the disorder.
family history of breast cancer tests B. Each child has a 25% chance of
positive for a BRCA1 mutation. inheriting the mutated gene and
Despite having this mutation, she being affected by the disorder.
may never develop breast cancer C. Each child also has a 25% chance of
due to: inheriting the normal gene and not
A. X-inactivation being affected.
B. Genomic imprinting D. Each child also has a 75% chance of
C. Incomplete penetrance inheriting the normal gene and not
D. Mitochondrial heteroplasmy being affected.
E. Variable expressivity E. NOTA
43. If both parents are carriers of 46. Autosomal recessive disorders
an autosomal recessive disorder, occur when an individual inherits
what is the probability that their two copies of a mutated gene—one
child will be affected by the from each parent. Parents who
disorder? each carry one copy of the mutated
A. 0% gene are typically asymptomatic
B. 25% carriers. When both parents are
C. 50% carriers, all of the following
D. 75% probabilities are correct, EXCEPT?
E. 100% A. 25% chance of inheriting two
mutated genes, resulting in the child
44. In autosomal dominant being affected by the disorder.
inheritance, an affected parent has B. 50% chance of inheriting one
a ______ chance of passing the mutated gene and one normal gene,
making the child an unaffected E. NOTA
carrier.
C. 50% chance of inheriting two normal 50. X-linked dominant inheritance
genes, meaning the child is neither refers to genetic conditions caused
affected nor a carrier. by mutations in genes on the X
D. All of the following are correct chromosome, where a single copy
E. NOTA of the mutated gene can cause the
disorder in both males and females.
47. Klinefelter syndrome: If the father is affected, which of the
A. 47,XX,+21 for females or 47,XY,+21 following should be correct?
for males A. Each child, regardless of sex, has a
B. 47,XX,+13 for females or 47,XY,+13 50%chance of inheriting the mutated
for males X chromosome from the mother and
C. 47,XX,+18 for females or 47,XY,+18 being affected by the disorder
for males B. All daughters (100%) will inherit the
D. 47,XXY mutated gene and be affected by the
E. 47,XXX disorder
F. 45, X C. All sons (100%) will inherit the
G. NOTA mutated gene and be affected by the
disorder
48. Patau syndrome: D. None of the above
A. 47,XX,+21 for females or 47,XY,+21
for males 51. During DNA extraction, which
B. 47,XX,+13 for females or 47,XY,+13 of the following statements
for males correctly describes the sequence of
C. 47,XX,+18 for females or 47,XY,+18 events?
for males A. Cell lysis → Purification →
D. 47,XXY Precipitation→ DNA resuspension
E. 47,XXX B. Precipitation → Cell lysis →
F. 45, X Purification→ DNA resuspension
G. NOTA C. Cell lysis → Precipitation →
Purification → DNA resuspension
49. Which of the following is correct D. Purification → Cell lysis →
about the Barr body? Precipitation→ DNA resuspension
A. Inactivate X chromosome found in E. NOTA
the somatic cells of female
mammals 52. When comparing the Phenol-
B. Inactive X chromosome found in the Chloroform and Silica Gel-based
somatic cells of male mammals. DNA extraction methods, which
C. A Y chromosome found in the statement is CORRECT?
somatic cells of female mammals. A. Phenol-Chloroform is safer and
D. A mitochondrial DNA fragment found produce lower quality DNA than
in the somatic cells of female Silica Gel-basedmethods
mammals.
B. Silica Gel-based methods are more happens if the concentration of
time-consuming but yield higher template DNA is too high?
purity DNA than Phenol-Chloroform A. PCR reaction fails completely with
C. Phenol-Chloroform yields higher no product formation
quantities of DNA but poses more B. Only specific amplification occurs
safety hazards than Silica Gel-based with high yield
methods C. Non-specific amplification increases
D. Both methods yield identical DNA D. Extension time must be increased
purity,but Silica Gel requires more significantly
specialized equipment E. NOTA
E. NOTA
56. In the Central Dogma of
53. When analyzing DNA by gel molecular biology, PCR is MOST
electrophoresis, which statement is directly related to which process?
MOST accurate? A. Transcription only
A. Larger DNA fragments migrate B. DNA replication only
faster toward the positive electrode C. Translation only
due to their greater charge density D. Both transcription and translation
B. DNA fragments migrate toward the E. NOTA
negative electrode due to the
positive charge of nitrogenous bases 57. Which of the following banding
C. Smaller DNA fragments migrate techniques in karyotyping is best
faster toward the positive electrode suited to distinguish between G-C
due to less resistance through the and A-T rich regions in
gel matrix chromosomes?
D. DNA fragment migration rate is A. C BANDING
independent of fragment size and B. Q BANDING
depends only on applied voltage C. G BANDING
E. NOTA D. R BANDING
54. Which statement about 58. Loss of Heterozygosity (LOH) is
Proteinase K in DNA extraction is commonly detected in which type of
CORRECT? molecular study?
A. It functions optimally at pH 2-4 and A. Microsatellite instability (MSI) assays
degrades nucleic acids B. Southern blot analysis
B. It is used primarily to digest lipids in C. Karyotyping
the cell membrane D. PCR
C. It is stable across pH 4-12 and E. B&C
deactivates nucleases
D. It increases DNA yield but requires 59. Which of the following is a key
incubation at 94°C advantage of PCR over FISH in
E. NOTA detecting genetic abnormalities?
A. PCR is more sensitive in detecting
55. When performing PCR, what large chromosomal translocations.
B. PCR can amplify very small amounts 63. Hemoglobin beta gene (HBB)
of DNA, making it highly sensitive. is found on chromosome 11p15.4.
C. PCR can visualize abnormalities Which arm is it found?
directly without additional staining. A. Long arm
D. PCR is more effective than FISH for B. Short arm
whole chromosome painting. C. Middle arm
E. NOTA D. Telomeric arm
E. NOTA
60. Which of the following
statements regarding Fluorescence 64. Which refers to the regular and
In Situ Hybridization (FISH) is repetitive physical and chemical
FALSE? process taking place within a cell?
A. FISH requires viable cells and can A. Cytokinesis
only be performed on metaphase B. Cell cycle
chromosomes. C. Mitosis
B. FISH utilizes DNA oligonucleotide D. Diakinesis
probes that hybridize to specific E. NOTA
genomic regions
C. FISH is useful for detecting 65. In transcription, the non-coding
chromosomal translocations using sequences (introns) undergo
break-apart and fusion probes. A. Interpretation
D. Compared to PCR, FISH is better at B. Splicing
detecting structural rearrangements C. Evolution
but less sensitive to small mutations. D. Mutation
E. NOTA E. Extension
61. These are complex structures 66. Which refers to the phase
located in the cell nucleus that are during which the growth of the cells
composed of DNA, histone and take place with metabolic activities?
non-histone proteins, RNA and A. Interphase
polysaccharides B. Prophase
A. Chromosome C. Anaphase
B. Telomere D. Telophase
C. Centromere E. Metaphase
D. Chromatin
E. NOTA 67. Sex cells are not ______
A. Reproductive cells
62. Human chromosome 14 is what B. Haploid cells
kind of chromosome? C. Diploid cells
A. Metacentric D. Gametes
B. Sub-metacentric E. NOTA
C. Acrocentric
D. Telocentric 68. This involves exchange of
E. NOTA material between two non-
homologous chromosomes E. NOTA
A. Recombination
B. Translocation 73. Which of the following is a
C. Transversion characteristic of silent mutations?
D. Both A&B A. They create stop codons
E. A,B,C B. They change the amino acid
sequence
69. A number of chromosomes that is C. They don't affect the amino acid
not a multiple of the haploid number (23) sequence
usually resulting from a nondisjunction D. They cause frameshifts
event during meiosis.
A. Aneuploid 74. In Cystic Fibrosis, what type of
B. Euploid mutation commonly occurs?
C. Polyploid A. Point mutation
D. Diploid B. Deletion of three nucleotides
E. Haploid C. Insertion mutation
D. Chromosomal translocation
70. Which of the following phases E. NOTA
of the cell cycle make up what is
known as interphase? 75. Which type of repair
A. G1, S, and M mechanism is used as a "last
B. M, S, and G2 resort" when DNA damage
C. G1, S, and G2 prevents replication?
D. G1, G2, and M A. Base Excision Repair
E. NOTA B. Nucleotide Excision Repair
C. Translesion synthesis
71. What type of mutation occurs D. Mismatch repair
when a purine is replaced by E. NOTA
another purine or a pyrimidine is
replaced by another pyrimidine? 76. Which of these is a type of point
A. Transversion mutation?
B. Transition A. Silent mutation
C. Tautomerism B. Chromosome deletion
D. Deamination C. Chromosome duplication
E. Dealkylation D. Chromosome inversion
E. AOTA
72. In trinucleotide repeat diseases,
what characterizes Type I 77. Formation of thymine dimer
diseases? will?
A. CTG expansions in non-coding A. Prevent the DNA ligase from
regions connecting other thymine
B. CAG expansions in coding regions B. Prevent the DNA polymerase from
C. GCC expansions in introns replicating the DNA strand beyond
D. GAA expansions at the 5' end the dimer
C. Prevent the helicase from unwinding D. Erwin Chargaff
the DNA E. NOTA
D. AOTA
E. NOTA 83. The sequencing of the Human
Genome was completed in the
78. UV radiation can form dimers in year?
the skin causing which of the A. 1998
following conditions? B. 2000
A. Huntington's disease C. 2003
B. Xeroderma pigmentosum D. 2004
C. Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal E. 2005
cancer
D. AOTA 84. What is the name of the
E. NOTA process in which DNA is copied into
messenger RNA?
79. Defects in the enzymes A. Reverse transcription
responsible for mismatch repair will B. Transcription
put a person at risk for developing? C. Translation
A. Huntington's disease D. Translocation
B. Xeroderma pigmentosum E. NOTA
C. Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal
cancer 85. What process is used to copy
D. AOTA DNA to produce another identical
E. NOTA strand?
A. Replication
80. Fill the gap using the sister B. Translation
strand as template C. Transcription
A. Endonuclease D. Duplication
B. UvrD Helicase E. NOTA
C. DNA pol III
D. DNA ligase 86. It is the primary DNA
E. AOTA polymerase in cellular replication.
A. DNA Pol I
81. Transfer RNAb structure B. DNA Pol II alpha
A. Robert Holley C. DNA Pol II beta
B. Carl Woese D. DNA Pol III
C. Barbara McClintock E. AOTA
D. Erwin Chargaff
E. NOTA 87. Which of the ff statements
concerning the genetic code is
82. Mobile genetic elements false?
A. Robert Holley A. It is based on triplets
B. Carl Woese B. It is non-overlapping
C. Barbara McClintock C. Commas are not used
D. It is never redundant E. NOTA
E. NOTA
93. How many hydrogen bonds link
88. The most common DNA Adenine and Thymine?
conformational type is: A. 1
A. A-DNA B. 2
B. B-DNA C. 3
C. D-DNA D. 4
D. Z-DNA E. 5
E. NOTA
94. How many hydrogen bonds
89. Creating an identical copy of a link Cytosine and Guanine?
biological entity A. 1
A. Blotting B. 2
B. Cloning C. 3
C. Ligation D. 4
D. Restriction digest E. 5
E. NOTA
95. All of the following are Stop
90. Extended the nascent model Codons, Except:
now known as the central dogma of A. UGA
molecular biology by proposing that B. UAG
RNA acts as an intermediary C. UAA
between DNA and protein. D. UGG
A. Francis Crick E. NOTA
B. Alexander Todd
C. Thomas Morgan 96. Promoters in prokaryotes
D. Alfred Heshey contain the consensus sequence
E. NOTA A. TAATAT
B. TATAAT
91. Central dogma of molecular C. ATATTA
biology D. ATTATA
A. DNA — mRNA— hnRNA —- Protein E. NOTA
B. DNA — hnRNA — mRNA — Protein
C. hnRNA — mRNA — DNA — Protein 97. Which of the following has a
D. mRNA — hnRNA — DNA — Protein characteristic cloverleaf structure?
E. NOTA A. rRNA
B. tRNA
92. Suggests that the strands can C. mRNA
separate D. A,B,C
A. Semiconservative model E. NOTA
B. Conservative model
C. Dispersive model 98. Protects the 3’ end of mRNA
D. Double helical model from enzyme degradation
A. CAP
B. Poly A tail
C. Both
D. NOTA
99. Splicing removes:
A. Exons
B. Introns
C. Both
D. Neither
