DATE: 09.04.

2025
Time: 3.00 Hrs NEET FULL TEST-03 [Link]: 720

Important Instructions:
(a) Duration of the Exam is 3 Hours.
(b) The question paper consists of 180 questions, comprising of 45 questions in each subject.
(c) Each question carries four marks. One mark will be deducted for every incorrect response from
the total score. Maximum marks are 720.
PHYSICS
 
1. The equation of a simple harmonic oscillator is given as y  A sin  20 t   , where ‘t’ is in
 3
seconds. The frequency with which its kinetic energy oscillates is
1) 5 Hz 2) 10 Hz 3) 20 Hz 4) 20 Hz
2. There are two charges 1C and 2 C . The ratio of magnitudes of forces acting on them due to their
interaction will be
1) 1:2 2) 2:1 3) 1:1 4) 1:4
3. The electric field intensity which would be just sufficient to balance the weight of a particle of
charge 10 C and mass 10mg is (take g=10 m/s2)
1) 10 N/C, in upward direction 2) 103 N/C, in downward direction
3) 10 N/C, in downward direction 4) 104 N/C, in upward direction
4. A capacitor is charged up to 0.4 J of energy with a battery and after disconnecting it from the battery
the capacitor is completely filled with dielectric of dielectric constant 4, then final energy in the
capacitor is
1) 0.4 J 2) 0.3 J 3) 0.2 J 4) 0.1 J
5. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move?

1) towards the right as its potential energy will increase

2) towards the left as its potential energy will increase
3) towards the right as its potential energy will decrease
4) towards the left as its potential energy will decrease
6. Magnetic fields at two points on the axis of a circular coil at a distance of 1m and 5m from the centre
are in the ratio 27 : 1. The radius of the coil is
1
1) 1 m 2) 2 m 3) 2m 4) m
2

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7. Magnetic susceptibility of super conductor is
1) Zero 2) -1 3) +1 4) Infinity
8. Statement-I: Curie temperature is the temperature above which a ferromagnetic material becomes
paramagnetic.
Statement-II: If a charged body is moved within the field work must be done by electric field
1) Both statement are true 2) Both statement are false
3) Statement I is false, but statement II true 4) Statement I is true, but statement II is false
9. The slotting processes in a metallic sheet causes (when slots cut in a metal sheet)
1) The increase of the resistance in the path for circulation of current
2) Decrease in the strength of eddy current
3) Feeble the electromagnetic damping
4) All of these
10. The power factor of the given circuit is

1 1 3 
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 4
11. When YDSE is carried out in a liquid, 5th bright fringe lies at a point on the screen where 3rd dark
fringe lying in air. The refractive index of the medium is
1) 1.5 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1.2
h
12. The angular momentum of an electron in H-atom is where ‘h’ is Planck’s constant. The kinetic

energy of the electron is
1) 13.6 eV 2) 3.4 eV 3) 6.8 eV 4) 27.2 eV
13. Positron is a particle with (take magnitude of charge on electron as one unit)
1) Same mass as that of proton and with one unit positive charge
2) Same mass as that of proton but with one unit negative charge
3) Same mass as that of electron but with no charge
4) Same mass as that of electron but with one unit positive charge
14. At what distance from a convex mirror of focal length 2.5 m should a boy stand so that his image has
a height equal to half the original height?
1) 2.5 m from the mirror 2) 5 m from the mirror
3) 7.5 m from the mirror 4) 10 m from the mirror
15. Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for
copper?

1) 2) 3) 4)

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16. The following circuit acts as

1) AND gate 2) OR gate 3) NAND gate 4) NOR gate

17. 5 logic gates are connected as shown in the figure. If ‘A’ and ‘B’ are the inputs, ‘Y’ is the output
then the truth table of the circuit is

1) 2) 3) 4)
18. An electron (mass m) with an initial velocity v  v0iˆ is in an electric field E  E0 ˆj . If initial
wavelength 0  h / mv0 then its debroglie wavelength at time t is given by
e 2 E02 t 2 0 0
1) 0 2) 0 1  2 2 3) 4)
m v0 2
eE t 2 2
Et
1 0
2 2
1
mv 0
mv0
19. The conducting shells A and B are arranged as shown below. If charge on the shell B is ‘q’ then
electric flux linked with the spherical Gaussian surface S is

q q q q
1) 2)  3)  4)
0 2 0 0 2 0
20. Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor.
Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match Column-I and
Column-II with appropriate relations.
Column-I Column-II
m
A) Drift velocity P) 2
ne 
B) Electrical resistivity Q) nevd
eE
C) Relaxation period R) 
m
E
D) Current Density S)
J
1) (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P) 2) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)
3) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P) 4) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)
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21. A charged particle moves in a transverse magnetic field. The quantities that will remain unchanged
are
1) Kinetic energy 2) Speed
3) Magnitude of momentum 4) All of these
22. A rod of length 6m is rotated about the normal axis through C as shown. A uniform field of 0.5 T
exists parallel to axis of rotation of the rod. If angular velocity of rod is 4 rads−1, the potential
difference across the ends of rod is

1) 2 V 2) 6 V 3) 12 V 4) Zero
23. Average magnetic energy density in a plane electromagnetic wave is x. The average electric energy
density is
1) x 2) 2x 3) x/2 4) x
24. Let T1 and T2 be the energies of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atom,
respectively. According to the Bohr’s model of an atom, the ratio T1 T2: is
1) 1 : 4 2) 4 : 1 3) 4 : 9 4) 9 : 4
25. The network shown in figure is a part of a complete circuit. If at a certain instant, the current ‘i’ is 4
A and is increasing at a rate of 103 AS 1 . Then VB  VA  will be

1) – 3 V 2) 3 V 3) - 6 V 4) 12 V
26. Two stones are thrown simultaneously from the top of a cliff 100 m high, one upward with initial
velocity 30 m/s and another vertically downward with an initial velocity 10 m/s. If air resistance is
neglected, the separation between the stones 2 s later is
1) 40 m 2) 60 3 m 3) zero 4) 80 m
27. At a certain instant of time the mass of a rocket going up vertically is 100 kg. If it is ejecting 5 kg of
gas per second at a speed of 400 m/s, the acceleration of the rocket would be (taking g =10 m/s2)
1) 20 m/s2 2) 10m / s2 3) 2m / s 2 4) 1m / s 2
28. Two blocks of masses 5kg and 3 kg are connected by a light string as shown. If the coefficient of
friction between block and surface is 0.1 and system is released from rest then, the tension in the
string is (take g = 10 ms–2)

1) 30 N 2) 20.625 N 3) 12.875 N 4) 5 N
29. A body of mass 0.4 kg moving initially with a constant speed of 10 ms-1 to north is subjected to a
constant force of 8 N directed towards south. At t = 0 if it is at x =0, then its position at t = 5 s is
1) −200 m 2) zero 3) +500 m 4) −250 m

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30. A child sits stationary at one end of a trolley of mass 60 kg and length 5m moving with a constant
velocity 5 ms-1. He gets up on the trolley and moves towards the other end with 1 ms-1 velocity. The
velocity of center of mass of (trolley + child) system will be
1) 1.25 ms-1 2) 5 ms-1 3) 16 ms-1 4) zero
31. The 100 g bob of a pendulum of length 0.8 m is released from a position where string is horizontal.
The speed aquired by the bob when the string becomes vertical is (g = 10ms–2)
1) 4 m/s 2) 8 m/s 3) 2 m/s 4) 10 m/s
32. A capillary tube when placed vertically in a liquid, the capillary rise is 2 cm. Angle of contact
between the material of the capillary tube and liquid is 300. If the same capillary tube is inclined at an
angle 600 with vertical, the length of liquid in the capillary tube will be (sufficient length of tube is
available outside the liquid in each case)
4
1) 2 cm 2) cm 3) 4 cm 4) 3cm
3
33. Which of the following is wrong?
a) Average kinetic energy of a molecule of an ideal gas is independent of temperature of the gas.
b) A molecule confined to move in a plane has only two translational degrees of freedom
1) Both a and b 2) Neither a nor b 3) Only a 4) Only b
34. A meter scale is balanced on a knife edge at its center. When two coins of mass 5grams each are
placed at 12 cm and 20 cm mark, the scale is balanced at 40 cm. The mass of the meter scale is
1) 16 grams 2) 24 grams 3) 48 grams 4) 33 grams
35. The three identical rods each of mass ‘M’ and length ‘L’ are joined as shown in figure. Find the

moment of inertia about an axis

ML2 2 ML2 4 ML2 5ML2

1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 3 3
36. A water falls is 84m high. If half of the initial potential energy of the falling water gets converted to
heat, the rise in temperature of water will be (g=9.8 ms-2)
1) 0.098°C 2) 9.8°C 3) 411°C 4) 0.411°C
37. Match the thermodynamic processes taking place in a system with the correct conditions.
In the table : ∆Q is the heat supplied, ∆W is the work done and ∆U is change in internal energy of
the system
Process Condition
I) Adiabatic A) ∆W = 0
II) Isothermal B) ∆ Q= 0
III) Isochoric C) U  0, W  0, Q  0
IV) Isobaric D) ∆U = 0
1) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-D 2) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
3) I-A, II-A, III-B, IV-C 4) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C

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38. Two billiard balls each of mass 0.05 kg moving in opposite directions with speed 6ms-1. They
undergo headon elastic collision. The impulse imparted to each ball due to the other is
1) zero 2) 0.6 kgms-1 3) 1.2 kgms-1 4) 0.3 kgms-1
39. An aeroplane is in a level flight at constant speed and its wings have an area of 20 m2. If the speed of
the air is 60 m/s over the lower surface and 90 m/s over its upper surface of wing, then mass of
aeroplane is: (Density of air = 1 kg/m3, g = 10ms–2)
1) 3000 kg 2) 9000 kg 3) 4000 kg 4) 4500 kg
40. Time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum on the surface of the earth, at depth ‘d’ below the
surface and at a height d above the surface are T1, T2 and T3 respectively then (d<<Rearth)
1) T1 > T2 > T3 2) T1 < T2 > T3
3) T2 > T1 < T3 4) T1 < T2 < T3
0
41. A body of mass 2kg is projected at 60 with horizontal on level ground. At a point in its path its
velocity is 5 ms-1 and makes 370 with horizontal. The kinetic energy of projection of the body is (sin
370 = 0.6)
1) 1 J 2) 128 J 3) 64 J 4) 4 J
42. Assertion (A): The rate of change of total momentum of a many particle system is proportional to
the sum of the internal forces of the system.
Reason (R): Internal forces can change the kinetic energy and the momentum of the system
1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
43. A body of mass ‘m’ is tied to a string and revolved in a vertical circle of radius R. It has critical
speed at its highest point, then match the following
Set-I (position) Set-II (speed (V) or tension (T))
a. Lowest point e. T = 6 mg
b. Highest point f. T = 3 mg
c. When string is horizontal g. V  Rg
d. When string makes 600 with downward vertical h. V  4 Rg
1) a-e; b-g; c-f; d-h
2) a-h; b-g; c-f; d-e
3) a-e; b-g; c-h; d-f
4) a-g; b-a; c-f; d-h
44. A satellite of mass ‘m’ is revolving around a planet.
Statement-I: If its total energy is E then its potential energy is E/2.
Statement-II: If its total energy is E then its kinetic energy is 2E.
1) Both I & II are right 2) Both I & II are wrong
3) I is right & II is wrong 4) I is wrong & II is right
x
45. The equation of a stationary wave along a stretched string is given by y  5cos sin 40 t where x
3
and y are in cm and t in second. The phase difference between two particles which are at
x1  1.2cm and x2  1.6cm is
4 2
1)  rad 2) rad 3) zero 4) rad
3 3

6|Page
 CHEMISTRY
46. In17th group oxides, the correct order of stability is represented as
1) Cl  I  Br 2) Cl  Br  I 3) I  Br  Cl 4) I  Cl  Br
47. Organic compound Positive test
I) C6 H 5CHO A) 2,4 – DNP, Tollen’s, Fehling ‘s but not Iodoform
II) CH 3  CO  CH 3 B) 2,4-DNP,Haloform but not Tollen’s
III) CH 3  CHO C) 2,4-DNP, Tollen’s but not Fehling‟s
IV) HCHO D) 2,4-DNP,Fehling’s and Iodoform
I II III IV
1) A B C D
2) C B D A
3) C B A D
4) A B D C
48. Greatest tendency to convert from 2  3 in aqueous solution is for
1) Cr 2) Co 3) Mn 4) Fe
49. SF4 , CH 4 , ClF3 , SO3 . How many are non-polar molecules.
1) 0 2) 2 3) 1 4) 3
50. Statement -1: Specific conductivity of electrolyte solution decreases on dilution.
Statement -2: Effective number of ions per unit volume of electrolyte solution decreases on
dilution.
1) Both statements are correct.
2) Both statements are incorrect
3) Statement-1 is correct. Statement-2 is incorrect
4) Statement-1 is incorrect. Statement-2 is correct
51. Statement-I : Simple distillation is used to separate volatile liquids from non-volatile
impurities having sufficient difference in their boiling points
Statement-II : In thin layer choromatogrphy, ninhydrin is used to detect amino acids
1) I & II are correct 2) I is correct, II is incorrect
3) I is incorrect, II is correct 4) I and II are incorrect
NaNH 2 /  dil .H 2 SO4 , HgSO4 ZnHg / Conc .HCl O2
52. CH 2 Br  CH 2 Br   A  600 C
 B  C 
 CH3COO  Mn  D.
2

X Y
A   D. X and Y are respectively
 C ; B 

1) H 2 / Pd  BaSO4 ; PCC 2) H 2 / Ni, ;  Ag  NH 3  2  / H 
3) H 2 / Pt , 298 K ; NaOI / H  4) LiAlH 4 ; CrO2Cl2  CS 2 / H 3O 
2
53. Number of stereo isomers for  Pt  Br  Cl  NH 3  Py  and  Pt  en 2 Cl2  are ‘X’ and ‘Y’
X
respectively. =
Y
1) 0.666 2) 1 3) 1.33 4) 0.5
54. Total number of nodes (angular and radial) for 5f orbital is
1) 2 2) 0 3) 4 4) 1
55. Most electronegative element among the following on Pauling scale is
1) S 2) P 3) Br 4) H
56. A salt solution gives white ppt with NH 4 Cl  NH 4OH  H 2 S . If drops of NaOH are added to this
salt solution a dirty white ppt is formed which dissolves in excess of NaOH. The cation present
in the salt is
1) Ca 2 2) Fe3 3) Zn 2 4) Pb 2
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57. A catalyst lowers _____of a reaction
1) H 2) Ea 3) G 4) U
58. 2.45 grams of KClO3 on thermal decomposition liberates V ml of oxygen at STP. Value of ‘V’ is
1) 6720 2) 672 3) 67.2 4) 67200
ka kb
59. p of CH 3COOH is 4.82. p of NH 4OH is 4.78. pH of ammonium acetate solution at 298 K is
1) 6.92 2) 6.96 3) 7.02 4) 7
60. Identify incorrect statement from the following
1) Melting point of W  Mo  Cr 2) Density of Cu  Mn
3) IP2 of Cr  Mn 4) Stability of “+6” oxidation state in Cr  Mo  W
61. Which one of the following produces a secondary alcohol ?
RMgX RMgX
1) Acetone  2) Acetaldehyde 
H 2O H 2O
RMgX RMgX
3) Formaldehyde  4) Hydrogen cyanide 
H 2O H 2O
62. Number of water molecules in 18 ml of water is(density = 1 g /mL)
18 N A NA 18 N A
1) 2) N A 3) 4)
22400 22400 22.4
63. Osmotic pressure of 500 ml solution containing 18 grams of non-volatile solute is 4.926 atm at
300 K. Molar mass of solute is
1) 180 g/mole 2) 60 g/mole 3) 200 g/mole 4) 120 g/mole
64. Incorrect combination of organic structure and its IUPAC name is
1) HC  C  CH 2  CH  CH 2 ...... Pent-1-en-4-yne
2) OHC  C H  CH 2  CN ….3-formyl butane nitrile
|
CH 3

3) ….Cycloheptanoic acid
CH3 OH
| |
4) CH 3  C  CH 2  CH  CH 3 ……4, 4-dimethyl pentan-2-ol
|
CH3
65. According Bohr‟s theory, correct statements are
h
A) Angular momentum of electron in 2nd orbit of H-atom is

Z
B) Velocity of electron is proportional to
n
C) Radius of first orbit of H-atom is 52.9 A0
D) Energy difference between 2nd orbit and 1st orbit of H-atom is greater than the energy
difference between 3rd orbit and 5th orbit
1) A, B and D only 2) A,B,C,D 3) B and D only 4) B, C and D only
66. Which one of the following does not react with Hinsberg reagent.
1) R3 N 2) R3 NH 3) RNH 2 4) Ph  NH 2

KHnO4 / H
67. X 
 Carboxylic acid + Ketone ‘X’ is
1) Propene 2) 2-methyl-2-butene
3) 2,3-dimethyl -2-butene 4) 4-methyl-2-pentene
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68.

69. Regarding electron gain enthalpy (magnitude) the correct relation is

A) S  Se  Te  O B) Cl  Br  F  I C) Ne  Ar  Xe  He
1) A and C only 2) B and C only 3) A, B and C 4) A and B only
 w
70. Mole fraction of solvent in 10%   aqueous NaOH is
 w
1) 0.996 2) 0.952 3) 0.927 4) 0.973
71. Assertion : Melting of ice is spontaneous above 273K.
Reason : Above 273K, for the process of melting of ice, magnitude of H  T S
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) Both (A) and (R) are false
72. Incorrect statement is
1) PbF4 is ionic 2) C-14 is a radioactive isotope
3) CO is an acidic oxide 4) Catenation power of Ge  Sn
73. Molar conductance of 0.01M weak monoprotic acid (HA) is 40 mho cm2 mol-1. pH of the
solution is (Limiting molar conductance of HA is 400 mho cm2 mol-1).
1) 2 2) 4 3) 2.3 4) 3
74. A salt solution gives a white ppt with BaCl2 solution. The ppt is insoluble in Conc. HCl and also
insoluble in Conc. HNO3. The salt is
1) NH 4 Br 2) FeS 3)  NH 4  2 SO4 4) MgCl2
75. All the following paris have the same bond order except
1) N 2 , N 2 2) O2 , O2 3) B2 , O22  4) H 2 , He2
76. The correct sequence of reagents used for the above conversion are

1) LiAlH 4 ; Br2 / H 2O; NaNO2  HCl / 278K ; H 2 O / 283K

2) LiAlH 4 ; Br2 / CS2 : NaNO2  HCl / 283K ; C6 H 6
3) Sn  HCl ; Br2 / H 2 O; NaNO2  HCl / 278 K ; H 3 PO2  H 2O
4) H 2 / Pt ;  CH 3CO 2 O; Br2 / CH 3COOH ; NaNO2  HCl / 278 K ; H 2O
77. Assertion : Alkaline hydrolysis of methyl bromide gives a product with inversion in
configuration
Reason : Alkaline hydrolysis of methyl bromide follows SN2 mechanism
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
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78.  3 A  g  is carried out in one litre vessel at 630 K. At equilibrium, number moles of
A3  g  
products are twice the number of moles of reactants. Degree of decomposition of A3  g  is
1) 0.4 2) 0.33 3) 0.25 4) 0.45
10 2
79. Solubility product of AgCl is 1.96 10 M . Weight of AgCl dissolved in 696.8 ml of
saturated solution is x  104 g . Value of ‘x’ is (nearest integer) (GFW of AgCl = 143.5g)
1) 14 2) 18 3) 21 4) 24
80.

Correct statement is
1) ‘B’ is nitro derivative of ‘A’ 2) A & B are same compounds
3) ‘A’ is less acidic than ‘B’ 4) ‘A’ and ‘B’ are positional isomers
x
81. Half life of a first order reaction is . Time taken for the completion of 87.5% of
2
the same reaction is
1) 1.5x 2) x 3) 1.66 x 4) 3x
82. Which one of the following acts like a reducing agent in aqueous solution ?
1) Eu 2 2) Gd 3 3) Yb3 4) Ce4
83. Periodic trend Property
I) B  Al  Ga  In  Tl A) Ionization potential
II) B  Al  Tl  In  Ga B) Density
III) B  Al  Gl  In  Tl C) Electronegativity
IV) B  Tl  Ga  Al  In D) Boiling point
E) Melting point
Correct match regarding 13th group elements is
I II III IV I II III IV
1) E A B C 2) A E B C
3) A D C B 4) D E B A
ka
84. p is least for
1) BrCH 2CH 2COOH 2) C6 H 5COOH 3) HCOOH 4) ClCH 2  COOH
Na / dryether HCl KMnO4
85. C 2 H 5 Br  A 
anhydrous AlCl3
B   C . Regarding ‘C’ correct statement is

1) C is and gives a ketone with Cu/573K

2) C is and gives an aldehyde with PCC

3) C is and gives immediate turbidity with HCl + anhydrous ZnCl2

4) C is and gives a carboxylic acid containing four carbons with KMnO4 / H 

10 | P a g e
86. Assertion : Acetanilide on bromination in presence of ethanoic acid gives p-bromo
acetanilide as major product
Reason : CONHCH 3 group on benzene ring is an o, p-directing towards electrophilic
substitution reactions.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
87.

Correct match is
I II III IV I II III IV
1) D C A B 2) C A D B
3) C D A B 4) D A B C
3 3
88. A) Co  CN  6  B ) Co  H 2O 6 
Correct combination about the hybridization of central metal in these complexes is
1) sp 3 d 2 , sp 3 d 2 2) d 2 sp3 , d 2 sp 3 3) sp 3 d 2 , d 2 sp 3 4) d 2 sp 3 , sp 3 d 2
0 0
89. EZn 2
/ Zn
 0.76V ; ECu 2
/ Cu
 0.34V
Emf of Daniel cell is
1) 1.1V 2) -1.1 V 3) 0.42 V 4) -0.42 V
90. Negative diviations from Raoult‟s law are observed in
1) Chloroform + acetone 2) Benzene + toluene
3) n-hexane+n-heptane 4) Acetone+carbondisulphide
BOTANY
91. Assertion (A): Pollination is considered to be pre-requisite for fertilization
Reason (R): Pollination enables the delivery of male gametes to the female reproductive structure
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) explains (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) does not explain (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is false
(4) A is incorrect but (R) is correct
92. The principle of “insertional inactivation” is used in
1) Gel electrophoresis 2) Microinjection
3) Gene gun 4) Selection of recombinants
93. Given below are statements related to sporophytic generation of angiosperms
(A) Generation that produce the spores
(B) The generation that possesses vascular tissue
(C) The generation is diploid
Correct Statements are:
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Only A and B but not C (4) All A,B and C
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94. In the vascular bundles of dorsiventral leaf, xylem present towards A and phloem present towards B.
(1) A- Adaxial side B- abaxial side (2) A – Abaxial side, B – Adaxial side
(3) A and B – Both adaxial side (4) A and B – Both abaxial side
95. Match the following and select the correct option
Column –I Column –II
A. ATP synthase i) Complex –I
B. NADH dehydrogenase ii) Complex – IV
[Link]-bc1 complex iii) Complex – V
D. Cytochrome-c oxidase iv) Complex – III
(1) A(iii), B(i) C(iv), D(ii) (2) A(iii), B(ii) C(iv), D(i)
(3) A(ii), B(i) C(iv), D(iii) (4) A(iv), B(i) C(iii), D(ii)
96. Choose the correct match
(1) Valine - Basic amino acid (2) Tryptophan - Aromatic Amino acid
(3) Lysine - Acidic aminoacid (4) Glycine - R group is hydroxymethyl
97. Identify the below cell division stage

(1) Anaphase (2) Interphase (3) Telophase (4) Metaphase

98. Which one of the following crosses will have ratio 1: 1: 1: 1 in the progeny ?
(1) TtRR X ttrr (2) TTRR X ttrr (3) TtRr X ttrr (4) TtRR X TTrr
99. In the lac operon, what would happen if the lac ‘i’ gene encoding the repressor protein is mutated and
becomes non functional
1) The operon will always remain active
2) The operon will always remain inactive
3) The operon will function normally
4) The operon will function only in the presence of lactose.
100. Assertion (A): In DNA replication the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously.
Reason (R): DNA polymerase can synthesize DNA only in the 3 ' to 5 ' direction.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) explains A
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct (R) does not explains (A)
(3) A is true but (R) is false
(4) A is false but (R) is true
101. Match the following
Column –I Column –II
A) Opposite phyllotaxy I) Trifolium
B) Perigynous flower II) Guava
C) Monothecous anther III) Peach
D) Fodder yielding plant IV) Hibiscus
(1) A - II; B - IV; C - III; D - I (2) A - II; B - III; C - IV; D - I
(3) A - II; B - I; C - III; D – IV (4) A - III; B - II; C - IV; D – I

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102. What is correct for monocotyledon stems?
(1) Vascular bundles are collateral and open
(2) Separate radial exarchpolyarch
(3) Scattered vascular bundles
(4) Eustele
103. Photorespiration occurs when:
1) Rubisco fixes carbon dioxide during the Calvin cycle.
2) Oxygen competes with carbon dioxide for the active site of Rubisco.
3) ATP and NADPH are used efficiently to produce glucose.
4) Plants are exposed to high concentrations of carbon dioxide
104. In a typical sigmoidal growth curve for plants, the rapid phase of growth is represented by:
1) Lag phase. 2) Log phase. 3) Stationary phase. 4) Maturation phase.
105. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
(A) C4 plants give greater productivity of biomass.
(B) C4 plants have two carboxylations separated by time.
(C) Chloroplasts of bundle sheath cells lack RuBisco in C4 plants.
(D) Pyruvic acid is produced by oxidative decarboxylation in mesophyll cells in C4 plants.
(1) Except A, all are incorrect
(2) Except B, and C, remaining A and D are incorrect
(3) A,B and C are incorrect
(4) A,B,C and D - all are correct
106. Choose the correct option for the given image.

(1) Relative growth of leaf B is higher than leaf A

(2) Relative growth of leaf A and B are same
(3) Absolute growth of leaf A is higher than leaf B.
(4) Absolute growth is same in both of the leaves.
107. Assertion (A): Protein is a hetero polymer
Reason (R): A Protein is made up of different types of amino acids
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) explains A.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) does not explain (A)
(3) A is correct (R) is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect, (R) is correct
108. Which one of the following is correct?
(1) When proteins are respiratory substrates the R.Q value is 1.90.
(2) According to chemiosmotic theory, break down of proton gradient leads to the synthesis
of ATP
(3) Gibberellins inhibit seed germination by suppressing the synthesis of amylase.
(4) Cells in quiescent stage are also metabolically inactive, hence fail to proliferate
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109. Match Column - I with Column – II
Column –I Column –II
A) Hub (Proteinaceous) I) Golgi apparatus
B) Axoneme II) Middle lamella
C)Packaging materials III) Centriole
D) Glues the different neighbouring IV) Cilium
cells together
(1) A - IV; B - III; C - I; D - II (2) A - III; B - IV; C - I; D - II
(3) A - IV; B - I; C - II; D - III (4) A - IV; B - II; C - III; D – IV
110. The validity of GM research and the safety of introducing GM-organisms for public use has been
decided by
(1) GECAA (2) GEAC (3) UPSC (4) CSIR
111. In downstream processing, which of the following steps is/are used to purify recombinant protein?
1) Centrifugation 2) Chromatography 3) Precipitation 4) All of the above
112. How many of the following examples belongs to Solanaceae? Muliathi, Belladonna, Asparagus,
Colchicum, Sesbania, Makoi, Brinjal, Petunia, Lupin; Arhar, Sweet Pea.
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 10 (4) 8
113. In which one of the following examples the second whorl of floral leaves shows not only cohesion
among themselves, but also shows adhesion with third whorl of floral leaves?
(1) Garden Pea (2) Makoi (3) Mustard (4) Muliathi
114. Which one of the following are formed by redifferentiation?
(A) Primary medullary rays
(B) Cork cells
(C) Phellogen
(D) Phelloderm
(1) A, C and D (2) B, C and D (3) B and D only (4) A, B, C and D
115. Match the following
Column –I Column –II
A) Kinetochore I) Suckers
B) Primrose II) Centromere
C) Cucumber III) Epigynous
D) Pineapple IV) Free central placentation
(1) A - II ; B - IV ; C - I ; D - III (2) A - II ; B - I ; C - IV ; D - III
(3) A - III ; B - II ; C - IV ; D - I (4) A - II ; B - IV ; C - III ; D – I
116. Puccinia, Ustilago and Agaricus
(1) belongs to the class Ascomycetes
(2) lack of perfect stage
(3) asexual spores are generally not formed
(4) all the three are parasitic fungi
117. Tiger and cat belong to
(1) different genera, same family (2) same genus, same family
(3) different genera, different families (4) same species, same family
118. Statement -I : Cellulose, pectin and polysulphate esters are present in the cell wall structure of
phaeophyceae members.
Statement - II : Flagellated spores or gametes are absent in phaeophyceae members.
(1) S - I and S - II are correct (2) S - I and S - II are incorrect
(3) S - I is correct and S - II is incorrect (4) S - I is incorrect and S - II is correct
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119. Identify incorrect match
(1) Nucleolus - Not membrane bound
(2) Kinetochore - Nucleosome
(3) Centrioles - Basal body of cilia
(4) Amyloplasts – stores starch
120. Match the following
Column –I Column –II
A) Dioecy I. Grass Embryo
B) Monoecious II. Perispermic
C) Epiblast III. Out breading device
D)Black pepper IV. Castor
A B C D A B C D
(1) (IV) (III) (II) (I) (2) (III) (IV) (I) (II)
(3) (IV) (I) (II) (III) (4) (III) (I) (II) (IV)
121. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
(1) Adenylate residues are added at 5’-end to ‘hnRNA’
(2) GUG; GUA; GUC; GUU - Codes for valine
(3) In Lac - operon, RNA polymerase binds with promoter while inducer binds with operator.
(4) Lac operon is only under the control of positive regulation.
122. Identify the correct match
(1) UTR - for efficient translation process.
(2) Inducer in lac operon - galactose
(3) Biolistic method – gene transfer in animal cells
(4) Choloroform – precipitates out DNA
123. In a dihybrid cross between two heterozygous plants (TtRr  TtRr), what is the probability of
obtaining offspring that are tall with wrinkled seeds?
1) 3/16 2) 9/16 3) 1/16 4) 4/16
124. Why are Euglenoids considered a link between plants and animals?
1) They lack a true nucleus
2) They possess photosynthetic pigments like plants and exhibit heterotrophic behaviour like animals.
3) Their cell walls are composed of cellulose.
4) They reproduce only sexually like animals.
125. Pomato is a
(1) mutant variety (2) transgenic variety
(3) somatic hybrid (4) haploid variety
126. how many PCR cycles would be required to amplify a target DNA sequence 1024-fold?
1) 100 2) 20 3) 5 4) 10
127. Cry IAb gene controls
(1) Cotton bolloworm (2) Corn borer
(3) Beetles (4) Aphids
128. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to retrovirus?
(A) Have ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cell in animals.
(B) Retro viruses do not follow central dogma
(C) Disarmed retrovirus are used to deliver desirable genes into animal cells
(D) Retrovirus also causes tumors in plants
(1) A and B are correct (2) B, C, D are incorrect
(3) A, B and C are correct (4) Except D all are incorrect

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129. Ethidium bromide is used to
(1) extract DNA fragments from gel piece
(2) identify the DNA fragments as they are stained, exposed to UV light
(3) separate purified DNA strands by spooling
(4) operate PCR technology.
130. Stem tendrils are present in
(1) Garden Pea and sweet pea
(2) Zaminkand and Colocasia
(3) Citrus and grapevine
(4) Pumpkins and watermelons
131. How many of the following statements are true?
(A) Thymine is also called 5 – methyl uracil
(B) The two ploynucleotide chains of DNA have anti - parallel polarity
(C) DNA is more reactive and less stable
AG
(D) In the DNA of any species is always one
T C
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4
132. Which one of the following is species - specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal application?
(1) Trichoderma polysporus
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Nucleo polyhedrovirus
(4) Retro viruses
133. Statement - 1: A key belief of the organic farmer is that, biodiversity furthers health.
Statement - 2: The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its polluting potential.
(1) S - 1 ; S - 2 are correct
(2) S - 1 ; S - 2 are incorrect
(3) S - 1 is true, S - 2 is incorrect
(4) S - 1 is incorrect, S - 2 is correct
134. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) LHC (antenna) is made up of only chlorophyll-a molecules
(2) Non – cyclic photophosphorylation occurs in the stroma of chloroplasts
(3) Ingenhousz showed that it is only the green part of the plant that could release O2
(4) In the structure of ATP synthase, CF0 acts as a catalyst, and CF1 acts as proton channel.
135. Cyt-a; Cyt-a3 and Cu+ are associated to
(1) Cytochrome -C reductase (2) Cytochrome -C oxidase
(3) NADH dehydrogenase (4) Succinic dehydrogenase
ZOOLOGY
136. Read the following statements with respect to IUDs:
(i) These decreases the phagocytosis of sperms whithin the uterus.
(ii) Cu ions released from CuT suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
(iii) The hormone-releasing IUDs, make uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to
the sperms.
(iv) These can be self-insereted in the uterus.
(v) These are ideal contraceptives for those who want to delay pregnancy and/or space children.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1) (ii), (iii), (iv) 2) (i), (iv) 3) (i), (ii) 4) (ii), (iii), (v)

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137. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1:When body is dehydrated the final reabsorption of water from the filtrate into the
blood occurs through the collecting duct of a mammalian nephron resulting in the production of
hyperosmotic urine.
Statement 2: The loop of Henle creates a sodium gradient in the interstitial fluid.
1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
138. Identify the correct statement for the sequence (M, N, P) of muscular contraction:

1) M = Relaxed, N = Contracting, P = Maximally contracted

The length of 'A-band' is same in all the sequential conditions of M, N and P.
2) M = Maximally contracted, N = Contracting, P = Relaxed
The length of 'A-band' is same in all the sequential conditions of M, N and P.
3) M = Relaxed, N = Contracting, P = Maximally contracted
The length of 'A-band' is maximum in condition M and minimum in condition P.
4) M = Relaxed, N = Contracting, P = Maximally contracted
The length of 'I-band' is minimum in condition M and maximum in condition P.
139. Match the following organisms with their respective characteristics:
a) Pila i) Flame cells
b) Bombyx ii) Comb plates
c) Pleurobrachia iii) Radula
d) Taenia iv) malpighian tubules
Select the correct option from the following:
1) a  iii, b  ii, c  i, d  iv 2) a  iii, b  iv, c  ii, d  i
3) a  ii, b  iv, c  iii , d  i 4) a  iii, b  ii, c  iv, d  i
140. Refer to the given figure:

The drug obtained from this plant affects:

1) Reproductive system 2) Respiratory system
3) Nervous system 4) None of the above
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141. Notochord is:
1) Mesodermally derived, dorsally placed structure during embryonic development
2) Replaced by neurons in vertebrates
3) Seen during embryonic development in nonchordates but absent in adult non-chordates
4) More than one option is correct
142. Arrange the stages of life cycle of Plasmodium starting from human host and ending in mosquito
host.
I. RBC releases the toxic haemozoin.
II. Parasite reproduces asexually in liver cells.
III. Parasites attack RBC.
IV. Sporozoites enter human body through the mosquito bite.
V. Mature sporozoites escape from intestine and migrate to the mosquito's salivary gland.
VI. Fertilization of gametocytes occur in mosquito's intestine.
VII. Mosquito takes up gametocytes while sucking blood of an infected person.
1) IV → II → I → III → VII → V → VI
2) I → II → III → V → VI → IV → VII
3) IV → II → III → I → VII → VI → V
4) III → IV → II → I → V → VII → VI
143. Match List I with List II:
List-I List-II
A. Expiratory capacity i) EC + IRV
B. Functional residual capacity ii) TLC – (IRV + RV)
C. Vital capacity iii) IRV+EC+RV - FRC
D. Inspiratory capacity iv) VC + RV - IC
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A  ii, B  iv, C  i , D  iii 2) A  iii, B  ii , C  iv, D  i
3) A  ii, B  i, C  iv, D  iii 4) A  i, B  iii , C  ii , D  iv
144. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) Female cockroach possesses sixteen ovarioles in each ovary.
2) Cockroaches exhibit mosaic vision with more sensitivity and less resolution.
3) A mushroom-shaped gland is present in the 6th - 7th abdominal segment of male cockroach.
4) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th segment of female cockroach.
145. Which of the following statements is false when a skeletal muscle relaxes after contraction?
1) The I-band widens
2) The A-band shortens
3) The H-zone becomes wide
4) All of the above
146. Read the following statements (assertion-A and reason-R) and select the correct option
A: Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre.
R: Neural signal from pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration of inspiration and thereby alter the
respiratory centre.
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false statements

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147. If due to some injury chordae tendineae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart are partially non-
functional, what will be the immediate effect?
1) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down
2) The 'pacemaker' will stop working
3) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium
4) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced
148. Statements related to human Insulin are given below. Which statement(s) is/are correct
about genetically engineered Insulin?
(a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide
(b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E. coli, extracted and
combined by creating disulphide bond between them
(c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.
(d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone
(e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) (c) and (d) only
2) (c), (d) and (e) only
3) (a), (b) and (d) only
4) (b) only
149. Read the following statements (assertion-A and reason-R) and select the correct option.
A: There are 27 documented varieties of Basmati rice grown in India
R: In 1997, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice through the US patent and
Trademark office.
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false statements
150. Choose the correct option for Na   K  pump acting in neuron:
1) Transports 3Na  out and 2K  into the cell
2) Performs active transport at the expense of ADP
3) Both Na  and K  are transported against the concentration gradient
4) More than one option is correct
151. Which of the following statement is a narrowly ultilitarian aspect for biodiversity conservation?
1) 25,000 species of plant contribute to traditional medicines
2) Pollination provides fruits and seeds
3) Plant and animal diversity is our biological legacy and it should be passed in good order to future
generations
4) 20% of the total oxygen in earth's atmosphere is produced by photosynthesis of Amazon forest
152. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its locations?
1) Tissue-Areolar tissue, Location-Tendons
2) Tissue-Transitional epithelium, Location-Tip of nose
3) Tissue-Cuboidal epithelium, Location-Lining of stomach
4) Tissue-Smooth muscles, Location-Wall of intestine

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153. Match List I with List II:
List-I List-II
(Type of Joint) (Found between)
A. Cartillagenous Joint i. Between flat skull bones
B. Ball and Socket Joint ii. Between adjacent vertenbrae in vertebral column
C. Fibrous Joint iii. Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
D. Saddle Joint iv. Between Humerus and Pectoral girdle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (iii) 2) A - (i), B - (iv), C - (iii), D - (ii)
3) A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (iii), D - (i) 4) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iv)
154. Choose the correct option for the reasons of population explosion:
I. Decline in maternal mortality rate
II. Increase in infant mortality rate
III. Increased medical facililties and sanitation
IV. Increased birth-control awareness
V. Popularity of RCH programmes
1) II, III, IV 2) I, III 3) II, IV, V 4) II, IV
155. Read the following statements (assertion-A and reason-R) and select the correct option.
A: A pregnant woman cannot concieve again during pregnancy.
R: Corpus luteum secretes high level of progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy which inhibits
the secretion of gonadotropins and thereby prevent ovulation.
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false statements
156. Statement I: Louis Pasteur demonstrated that life comes only from pre-existing life
Statement II: Oparin of England and Haldane of Russia proposed that the first forms of life could
have come from pre-existing non-living organic molecules.
1) Both statements are correct
2) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct
4) Both statements are incorrect
157. Select the correct statement
1) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia
2) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis
3) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycaemia
4) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes
158. Extinction is a natural phenomenon. It is estimated that 99% of all species that ever lived are now
extinct. Why then do we say that we are now experiencing an extinction/loss of biodiversity crisis?
1) Most biodiversity hot spots have been destroyed by recent ecological disasters
2) Humans have greater medical needs than at any other time in history, and many potential
medicinal compounds are being lost as plant species become extinct
3) Humans are ethically responsible for protecting endangered species
4) The current rate of extinction is high and human activities threaten biodiversity at all levels

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159. Find out the true (T) / false (F) statements and choose the correct option:
I. Infectious diseases like polio, diptheria, pneumonia and tetanus have been controlled to a large
extent by the use of vaccines.
II. Memory-based innate immunity evolved in higher vertebrates based on the ability to differentiate
foreign organisms from self-cells.
III. Due to decrease in helper T-cells, the AIDS patient starts suffering from infections
like Mycobacterium, viruses, fungi and even parasites like Toxoplasma.
IV. Small pox has been eradicated from the world by the use of vaccines.
1) I - T, II - F, III - T, IV – F
2) I - F, II - F, III - T, IV – T
3) I - T, II - F, III - F, IV – T
4) I - T, II - F, III - T, IV – T
160. Which of the following statements is wrong?
1) Test tube baby begins growth outside the mother's body
2) Test tube baby completes growth within mother's womb
3) Ova from the wife/donor and sperms from the husband/donor are induced to form zygote under
laboratory conditions in test tube baby program
4) Test tube baby grows following uterine fertilization
161. The common ancestor of all the dinosaurs, modern reptiles and birds is:
1) Synapsids 2) Sauropsids 3) Therapsids 4) Pelycosaurs
162. The given figure represents a single nephron from a mammalian kidney. Identify which of the
labelled parts, match with the functions and select the correct option.

(i) The site of ultrafiltration.

(ii) Particularly sensitive to ADH.
(iii) The main site for the reabsorption of glucose and amino acids
(iv) Largely responsible for the maintenance of blood pH.
1) (i) – A; (ii) – E; (iii) – C; (iv) – D
2) (i) – A; (ii) – B; (iii) – C; (iv) – D
3) (i) – A; (ii) – B; (iii) – C; (iv) – E
4) (i) – A; (ii) – B; (iii) – D; (iv) – E
163. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1) ADH is a vasoconstrictor
2) Aldosterone facilitates water reabsorption
3) ANF enhances sodium reabsorption
4) ANF causes vasodilation

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164. Identify the labelled parts I - IV in the given figure of human foetus within the uterus:

1) I - Umbilical cord, II - Placental villi, III - Yolk sac, IV – Embryo

2) I - Yolk sac, II - Umbilical cord, III - Embryo, IV - Placental villi (b) I - Placental villi
3) I - Placental villi, II - Yolk sac, III - Embryo, IV - Umbilical cord
4) I - Placental villi, II - Embryo, III - Yolk sac, IV - Umbilical cord
165. __(i) in CO2 in your blood, which causes __(ii) in pH, would cause your breathing to speed up
1) (i) An increase, (ii) a rise 2) (i) An increase, (ii) a drop
3) (i) An decrease, (ii) a rise 4) (i) An decrease, (ii) a drop
166. Identify A, B and C in the given below blood clotting process.

1) A-Thromoplastin, B-Prothrombin, C-Fibrinogen

2) A-Thrombin, B-Fibrinogen, C-Thrombokinase
3) A-Thromboplastin, B-Thrombin, C-Fibrinogen
4) A-Prothrombin, B-Thrombin, C-Fibrinogen
167. Resting membrane stage  (A)
Depolarization stage  (B)
Repolarization stage  (C)
'A', 'B' and ‘C’ are the ions which have high permeability during above stage, respectively. 'A' and 'B'
are
1) A  Na  ; B  K  ; C  K  2) A  K  ; B  Na  ; C  K 
3) A  Na  ; B  Na  , C  Na  4) A  K  ; B  K  ; C  Na 
168. Which of the following gastro-intestinal hormones acts on exocrine pancreas and stimulates secretion
of water and bicarbonate ions?
1) Enterocrinin 2) Duocrinin 3) Secretin 4) Enterokinase
169. The rate of evolution of new species in fishes is slower than that of in bacterial populations because:
1) The evolution of new species is linked to their lifespan.
2) Evolution of new species is linked to the habitat.
3) Both fishes and bacteria exhibit the same rate of evolution.
4) Species do not evolve at all.
170. Which phase of menstrual cycle remains fairly constant even if cycle is of 34 days?
1) Follicular phase 2) Secretory phase 3) Proliferative phase 4) Both 1 & 3

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171. Read the following statements and select the incorrect ones:
(i) Pyramids of energy can never be inverted, since this would violate the laws of thermodynamics.
(ii) Pyramids of biomass in sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of
phytoplankton.
(iii) There are certain limitations of ecological pyramids such as they do not take into account the
same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
(iv) Saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids even though they play a vital role in
the ecosystem.
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (iii) and (iv) 3) (ii) and (iii) 4) None of these
172. In the given figure if 'III' is the DNA collected from crime site and 'I' and 'II' are samples from
suspects, then who is the criminal?

1) II 2) I 3) Both I and II 4) None of the above

173. If father is colour blind and mother is carrier then what would be the percentage of colour blind
daughters in the progeny?
1) 25% 2) 50% 3) 75% 4) 100%
174. Pyramids of biomass represent
1) Standing crop 2) Standing state 3) Standing state 4) Rate of production
175. Match the items of Column I with Column II:
Column-I Column-II
A. XX-XO method of sex determination i) Turner’s syndrome
B. XX-XY method of sex determination ii) Heterogametic female
C. Karyotype – 45 iii) Grasshopper
D. ZW-ZZ method of sex determination iv) Homogametic female
1) A - (iv), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iii) 2) A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (iii)
3) A - (i), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (iii) 4) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)

23 | P a g e
176. 20 chromosome are present in a diploid organism, if a chromosomal mutation found in species, than
choose correct option with respect to aneuploidy:
1) 21 chromosomes with nullisomy 2) 22 chromosomes with trisomy
3) 19 chromosomes with monosomy 4) 21 chromosomes with tetrasomy
177. The pedigree chart given below depicts:

1) Cystic fibrosis 2) Myotonic dystrophy

3) Haemophilia 4) Hairy ear pinna inheritance
178. Which of the following group is not an example of commensalism?
1) Orchid growing on Mango branch
2) Algae and fungi in lichen
3) Cattle egret and grazing cattle
4) Sea Anemone and Clown fish
179. In the technique of DNA fingerprinting, digestion of DNA is followed by:
1) Electrophoresis 2) Hybridisation
3) Denaturation 4) Southern blotting
180. Refer to the given table that summarises the interactions between two organisms (organism 1 and
organism 2). Identify the types of interaction (A, B and C) and select the correct option.

Benefit Effect on organism 2

Benefit Harm No Effect
Effects on Benefit Mutualism Predation B
organism 1 Harm A Competition Amensalism
No Effect Commensalism C -
(i) Cuckoo laying eggs in crows nest could be A type of interaction.
(ii) Orchid growing on a mango branch shows B type of interaction.
(iii) C is shown by flamingoes and resident fishes in south American lakes.
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (ii) and (iii) 3) (iii) only 4) (i) and (iii)

* * All the Best * *

24 | P a g e
 DATE: 09.04.2025
Time: 3.00 Hrs NEET FULL TEST-03 [Link]: 720

KEY
PHYSICS
1) 3 2) 3 3) 3 4) 4 5) 3 6) 3 7) 2 8) 4 9) 4 10) 2
11) 3 12) 2 13) 4 14) 1 15) 3 16) 1 17) 1 18) 3 19) 2 20) 2
21) 4 22) 3 23) 1 24) 4 25) 2 26) 4 27) 2 28) 2 29) 1 30) 2
31) 1 32) 3 33) 3 34) 2 35) 3 36) 1 37) 4 38) 2 39) 4 40) 4
41) 3 42) 4 43) 1 44) 2 45) 1
CHEMISTRY
46) 4 47) 2 48) 1 49) 2 50) 1 51) 1 52) 2 53) 2 54) 3 55) 3
56) 3 57) 2 58) 2 59) 3 60) 4 61) 2 62) 2 63) 1 64) 3 65) 1
66) 1 67) 2 68) 1 69) 1 70) 1 71) 3 72) 3 73) 2 74) 3 75) 2
76) 3 77) 4 78) 1 79) 1 80) 2 81) 1 82) 1 83) 4 84) 4 85) 3
86) 3 87) 3 88) 2 89) 1 90) 1
BOTANY
91) 1 92) 4 93) 4 94) 1 95) 1 96) 2 97) 4 98) 3 99) 1 100) 3
101) 2 102) 3 103) 2 104) 2 105) 1 106) 4 107) 1 108) 2 109) 2 110) 2
111) 4 112) 2 113) 2 114) 3 115) 4 116) 3 117) 1 118) 2 119) 2 120) 2
121) 2 122) 1 123) 1 124) 2 125) 3 126) 4 127) 2 128) 3 129) 2 130) 4
131) 3 132) 3 133) 1 134) 3 135) 2
ZOOLOGY
136) 4 137) 1 138) 1 139) 2 140) 3 141) 1 142) 3 143) 1 144) 1 145) 2
146) 1 147) 4 148) 4 149) 2 150) 4 151) 1 152) 4 153) 1 154) 2 155) 1
156) 2 157) 2 158) 4 159) 4 160) 4 161) 2 162) 1 163) 3 164) 3 165) 2
166) 3 167) 2 168) 3 169) 1 170) 2 171) 4 172) 1 173) 2 174) 1 175) 4
176) 3 177) 1 178) 2 179) 1 180) 1

Pg. 1
 HINTS & SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS
1. 2 f  20
Freq. of variation of KE = 2f = 20Hz
2. F1 : F2 = 1:1
105 10
3. E 5
NC 1  10 NC 1 downward
10
Q2 Q2
4. Ui   0.4 J  U f   0.1J
2C 2 KC
5. Electric field is always direct from high potential to low potential. For the given situation the electric
potential is decreasing from left to right therefore, potential energy of the dipole will also decrease.
Thus dipole will move from left towards the right
B0
6. BA  3/2
 x2 
1  r 2 
 
3/ 2
 25 
1
B1  x 2  27
 3/ 2

B2  1 1
1  2 
 r 
r  2m
7. Magnetic susceptibility of super conductor is= -1
8. S-I: Curie temperature is the temperature above which a ferromagnetic material becomes
paramagnetic is correct
S-II: If a charged body is moved within the field work must be done by electric field is false
9. Given options all are correct
R V 2 2 1
10. cos    R   
Z E 22   6  4 
2
2 2 2
11. 5m  2.50
5 
5m  0  0    2
2 m
12. n  2  KE  3.4eV
13. Positron is same mass as that of electron but with one unit positive charge
f
14. m
f u
1 2.5
  u  2.5
2 2.5  u
15. For metals, resistivity versus temp. graph is
16. A  B  A.B
17.   
Boolean expression for the combination of logic gates Y  A.B . A.B
The truth table of the circuit is
A B A B A.B A.B   
Y  A.B . A.B
0 0 1 1 0 0 0
0 1 1 0 0 1 0
1 0 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 0 0 0 0

Pg. 2
 e ˆ
18. F  eE0 ˆj a E0 j
m
e
V  u  at  v0iˆ  E0tjˆ
m
2e 2 E0 2t 2 h
V v 0 2

m mv
h

 e 2 E 2t 2 
m v02  1  2 0 2 
 m v0 
h 0
 
2 2 2
eEt 0 e 2 E02t 2
mv0 1  2 2
1 2 2
mv 0 m v0
1  qA q 
19. VA    0
4 0  r 2r 
q qA q
qA    
2  0 2 0
20. The formula of drift velocity is
eE
vd  
m
I neAvd
Current density j    nevd
A A
m m
Resistivity is   2    2
ne  ne 
V
Resistance is R 
l
l El EA E
   
A I I J
Where, E= electric field, A = area of cross section
E = electron charge, n=number of density of electrons,  = relaxation time
21. All options are correct
1
22. V  Bw  l22  l12 
2
1
  0.5  4 16  4   12V
2
23. Magnetic average energy density is = Electric average energy density
24. For 1st excited state, n = 2
For 2nd excited slate, n = 3
T1 n22 32 9
  
T2 n12 22 4
di
25. VA  IR  E  L  VB  0
dt
VB  VA  4  12  5 103 103  3V
1
26. S1  u1t  gt 2
2
1
 30  2   10  22
2
= 40 m, upwards
Pg. 3
 1 2
S 2  u 2t  gt
2
1
 10  2  10  22
2
= 40 downwards
= separation = 80m
Alternate
vr  30   10   40ms 1
ar  10   10   0
Distance  vr t  40  2  80m
dm
27. ma  v  mg
dt
400  5  100 10
a  10ms 2
100
 m   m2  g 30  0.1 5 10
28. a 1 
m1  m2 3 5
25
 ms 2
8
T  m1  g  a 
 25 
 3  10   N
 8 
 20.625N
1
29. S  ut  at 2
2
1  8  2
x  10  5   5
2  0.4 
  50  250  m  200m
30. Internal forces don’t change state of C.O.M
31. V  2 gl 1  cos  
 2 10  0.8ms 1  4ms 1
h 2cm
32. l   4cm
cos  cos 600
33. Average kinetic energy of a molecule of an ideal gas is independent of temperature is wrong
34. mg 10  5 g  20  28 
48  5
m  24 gram
10
ML2 4ML2
35. I  ML2 
3 3
1 9.8  84
36. ms   mgH    
2 2  4200
37. I  B, II  D; III  A, IV  C
1 1
38. P  m  v  u 
 
 P  0.05  6  6   0.6kg ms 1
1
39. mg   V22  V12  A
2
Pg. 4
 1
   902  60 2   20
2
10  4500
m kg
10

40. T ; g surface  g d  g k
g
 T3  T2  T1
4
5
41. u cos   V cos  u  5  8ms 1
1
2
1
KE   2  82 J  64 J
2
42. A: Rate of change of momentum is proportional to external force acting on system
R: Internal force can change only kinetic energy
mv 2
43. T  mg cos and v 2  u 2  2 gr cos 
r
Where u  5 gr
44. PE : TE : KE = -2:-1:1
 2
45.     6cm
3 
 3
Nodes at x  ,
4 4
i.e x  1.5cm, 4.5cm
    radian
CHEMISTRY
46. Oxides of Bromine are unstable (middle row anamoly)
47. I) Ketones do not give positive Tollen‟s and Fehling‟s test.
II) Aromatic aldehydes do not give positive Fehling‟s test
III) HCHO does not give positive haloform test
0
48. ECr 3
/ Cr 2
is most negative in 3d series
49. CH4 and SO3
50. Both statements are correct.
51. Both statements are correct
52.

53. X=3(Cis +1trans);Y = 3

(Cis isomer has dextro and laevo whereas trans isomer is a meso compound)
54. Total nodes = (n-1) = 5-1 = 4
55. Br > S > H = P

Pg. 5
56.

57. Only Ea
58.

1 1
59. pH  7   4.82    4.78  ; pH  7.02
2 2
60. Down the group stability of higher oxidation states increases in transition elements.
H 2O
61. CH 3CHO  RMgX   CH 3  CH  OH   R
62. Density of water = 1 g/ml
 18 g (18 ml) contain NA molecules
63.

64.

65. (C) is incorrect …….. r1  0.529 A0

66. R3 N has no hydrogen atom to condense with Hinsberg reagent.
67.

Conc .HI
68.  CH 3 3 C  O  CH 2  CH 3  
   CH 3 3 C  I  C2 H 5OH
S N 1 mechanism
69. (B) …….Cl > F > Br > I
70.

71. ‘C’ gives immdediate turbidity with Lucas reagent.

Pg. 6
72. 3) CO………neutral
73.

74.

75. O2 ……Bond order …..2.5

O2 ……..Bond order …….1.5
76.

77. There is no chiral centre in methyl alcohol form hence there is no meaning for inversion in
configuration
78.

79.

80. A = B = picric acid

81. t87.5%  3t1/2

82. In aqueous solution, “+3” state is most stable for all lanthanoids.
83. Boiling point - B  Al  Ga  In  Tl
Melting point - B  Al  Tl  In  Ga
Density – B  Al  Gl  In  Tl
Ionization potential - B  Tl  Ga  Al  In
84. 4>3>1>2
85.

Pg. 7
86. CONHCH 3 group on benzene ring is an m-directing towards electrophilic substitution
reactions.
87. I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
3
88. All Co3 octa hedral complexes except  CoF3  are diamagnetic, inner orbital complexes
0 0 0
89. Ecell  Ecath  Eanode  0.34   0.76   1.1V
90.

ZOOLOGY
136. Statements (ii), (iii) and (v) are correct.
One of the effective and popular methods of contraception is the use of Intra Uterine Devices
(IUDs).
These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus through vagina. These Intra
Uterine Devices are presently available as the non-medicated IUDs (e.g., Lippes loop), copper
releasing IUDs (CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375) and the hormone releasing IUDs (Progestasert, LNG-20).
IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm
motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms. The hormone releasing IUDs, in addition make the
uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms.
IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the females who want to delay pregnancy and/or space children. It
is one of most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
137. Both statements I and II are correct.
Collecting duct extends from the cortex of the kidney to the inner parts of the medulla. Large
amounts of water could be reabsorbed from this region to produce a concentrated urine. This
segment allows passage of small amounts of urea into the medullary interstitium to keep up the
osmolarity.
The proximity between the Henle’s loop and vasa recta, as well as the counter current in them help in
maintaining an increasing osmolarity towards the inner medullary interstitium, i.e., from 300
mOsmolL–1 in the cortex to about 1200 mOsmolL–1 in the inner medulla. This gradient is mainly
caused by NaCl and urea.
NaCl is transported by the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is exchanged with the descending
limb of vasa recta. NaCl is returned to the interstitium by the ascending portion of vasa recta.
Similarly, small amounts of urea enter the thin segment of the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which
is transported back to the interstitium by the collecting tubule.
138. Cross-bridge formed by binding of myosin head to exposed active sites on actin pulls the attached
actin filaments towards the centre of ‘A’ band. The ‘Z’ line attached to these actins are also pulled
inwards thereby causing a shortening of the sarcomere, i.e., contraction.
Hence, during shortening of the muscle, i.e., contraction, the ‘I’ bands get reduced, whereas the ‘A’
bands retain the length.
139. 1) Pila is a Mollusc. The mouth contains a file - like rasping organ for feeding called radula.
2) Bombyx is an Arthropod. In Bombyx, excretion takes place through malpighan tubules.
3) Pleurobrachia is Ctenophore. The body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb plates, which
help in locomotion.
4) Taenia is a Platyhelminth with specialised cells called flame cells for excretion and
osmoregulation.

Pg. 8
140. The plant shown in the diagram is opium poppy (Papaver somniferum) from which opioids are
obtained. Opioidsare the drugs, which bind to specific opioid receptors present in central nervous
system and gastrointestinal tract.
Heroin, commonly called smack, is chemically diacetylmorphine, which is a white, odourless, bitter
crystalline compound. This is obtained by acetylation of morphine, which is extracted from the latex
of poppy plant Papaver somniferum. Generally taken by snorting and injection, heroin is a
depressant and slows down body functions. Morphine is a very effective sedative and painkiller, and
is very useful in patients who have undergone surgery.
141. Notochord is a mesodermally derived rod-like structure formed on the dorsal side during embryonic
development in some animals. Animals with notochord are called chordates and those animals which
do not form this structure are called non-chordates. The notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or
bony vertebral column in the adult vertebrates. Thus all vertebrates are chordates but all chordates
are not vertebrates.
142. The correct sequence of events during life cycle of Plsmodium from human host to mosquito host is:
IV → II → III → I → VII → VI → V
Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites (infectious form) through the bite of infected
female Anopheles mosquito. The parasites initially multiply within the liver cells in the form of
sporozoites and then attack the red blood cells (RBCs) resulting in their rupture. The rupture of
RBCs is associated with release of a toxic substance, haemozoin, which is responsible for the chill
and high fever recurring every three to four days. The pathogen reproduces asexually in the RBCs to
increase in number. Later the sexual stages also develop in the RBCs. Gametocytes are sexual
precursor cells of the malaria parasite that mediate the transmission of the parasite from its
mammalian host (man) to the Anopheles mosquito.
When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person, these parasites enter the mosquito’s
body and undergo further development. Fertilization takes place in the intestine of mosquito. The
parasites multiply within the cells of mosquito gut to form sporozoites that later migrate and are
stored in the mosquito salivary glands. When these mosquitoes bite a human, the sporozoites are
introduced into his/her body, thereby initiating the events mentioned above.
143.
List-I List-II
A. Expiratory capacity ii. TLC – (IRV + RV)
B. Functional residual capacity iv) VC + RV - IC
C. Vital capacity i) EC + IRV
D. Inspiratory capacity iii) IRV + EC + RV – FRC

144. Statement A is incorrect.

The female reproductive sysytem consists of two large ovaries, lying laterally in the 2nd – 6th
abdominal segments. Each ovary is formed of a group of eight SOLUTIONS ZOOLOGY GT
ovarian tubules or ovarioles, containing a chain of developing ova. Oviducts of each ovary unite into
a single median oviduct (also called vagina) which opens into the genital chamber. A pair of
spermatheca is present in the 6 th segment which opens into the genital chamber. In male
cockroaches, a characteristic mushroomshaped gland is present in the 6th-7th abdominal segments
which functions as an accessory reproductive gland. Each eye of cockroach consists of about 2000
hexagonal ommatidia. With the help of several ommatidia, a cockroach can receive several images of
an object. This kind of vision is known as mosaic vision with more sensitivity but less resolution,
being common during night (hence called nocturnal vision).
145. The A-band shortens.
146. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A. Humans have an ability to maintain and
moderate the respiratory rhythm to suit the demands of the body tissues. This is done by the neural
system. A specialised centre present in the medulla region of the brain called respiratory rhythm
centre is primarily responsible for this regulation. Another centre present in the pons region of the
brain called pneumotaxic centre can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre. Neural
signal from this centre can reduce the duration of inspiration and thereby alter the respiratory rate.
Pg. 9
147. Chordae tendinae are the special fibrous cords that are attached to the flaps of the bicuspid and
tricuspid valves at one end and their other ends are attached to the ventricular wall with the special
muscles known as papillary muscle. Chordae tendinae prevent reverting of the valves during
contraction of ventricles. The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by
a valve formed of three muscular flaps or cusps, the tricuspid valve. If the chordae tendinae attached
to the tricuspid valve are injured and malfunction, the blood will flow back to right atrium during
ventricular systole leading to reduced blood flow to pulmonary artery.
148. Statements (a), (c), (d) and (e) are not related to genetically engineered Insulin.
Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs. Insulin
from an animal source, though caused some patients to develop allergy or other types of reactions to
the foreign protein. Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains: chain A and chain B, that are
linked together by disulphide bridges. In mammals, including humans, insulin is synthesised as a
pro-hormone (like a pro-enzyme, the prohormone also needs to be processed before it becomes a
fully mature and functional hormone) which contains an extra stretch called the C peptide. This C
peptide is not present in the mature insulin and is removed during maturation into insulin.
The main challenge for production of insulin using rDNA techniques was getting insulin assembled
into a mature form. In 1983, Eli Lilly an American company prepared two DNA sequences
corresponding to A and B, chains of human insulin and introduced them in plasmids of E. coli to
produce insulin chains. Chains A and B were produced separately, extracted and combined by
creating disulfide bonds to form human insulin.
149. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Rice is an important food grain, the presence of which goes back thousands of years in Asia’s
agricultural history. There are an estimated 200,000 varieties of rice in India alone. The diversity of
rice in India is one of the richest in the world. Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma and
flavour and 27 documented varieties of Basmati are grown in India. There is reference to Basmati in
ancient texts, folklore and poetry, as it has been grown for centuries.
In 1997, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice through the US Patent and
Trademark Office. This allowed the company to sell a ‘new’ variety of Basmati, in the US and
abroad. This ‘new’ variety of Basmati had actually been derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
Indian Basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf varieties and claimed as an invention or a novelty.
150. When a neuron is not conducting any impulse, i.e., resting, the axonal membrane is comparatively
more permeable to potassium ions (K+) and nearly impermeable to sodium ions (Na+). Similarly, the
membrane is impermeable to negatively charged proteins present in the axoplasm. Consequently, the
axoplasm inside the axon contains high concentration of K+ and negatively charged proteins and low
concentration of Na+. In contrast, the fluid outside the axon contains a low concentration of K+, a
high concentration of Na+ and thus form a concentration gradient.
These ionic gradients across the resting membrane are maintained by the active transport of ions by
the sodiumpotassium pump which transports 3 Na+ outwards for 2 K+ into the cell. Since this
transport is against concentration gradient for both sodium and potassium ions, it requires ATP and
hence is an active transport.
151. The reasons for biodiversity conservation can be grouped into three categories: narrowly utilitarian,
broadly utilitarian, and ethical.
The narrowly utilitarian arguments mainly look at the direct economic benefits derived from nature
like food (cereals, pulses, fruits), firewood, fibre, construction material, industrial products (tannins,
lubricants, dyes, resins, perfumes ) and products of medicinal importance.
More than 25% of the drugs currently sold in the market worldwide are derived from plants and
25,000 species of plants contribute to the traditional medicines used by native peoples around the
world.
Pollination, production of oxygen, the aesthetic pleasures of walking through thick woods, watching
spring flowers in full bloom or waking up to a bulbul’s song in the morning are broadly utilitarian
argument for conservation of biodiversity. Conserving plant and animal diversity which is a form of
biological legacy should be conserved and passed on to the future generations in a good order. This
is one of the ethical arguments for conservation of biodiversity.

Pg. 10
152. The smooth muscle fibres taper at both ends (fusiform) and do not show striations. The wall of
internal organs such as the blood vessels, stomach and intestine contains this type of muscle tissue.
The cuboidal epithelium is composed of a single layer of cube-like cells. This is commonly found in
ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons in kidneys and its main functions are secretion and
absorption.
Loose connective tissue has cells and fibres loosely arranged in a semi-fluid ground substance, for
example, areolar tissue present beneath the skin. Often it serves as a support framework for
epithelium. In the dense regular connective tissues, the collagen fibres are present in rows between
many parallel bundles of fibres. Tendons, which attach skeletal muscles to bones and ligaments
which attach one bone to another are examples of this tissue.
Transitional epithelium has multiple layers of cells with an ability to contract and expand for
distension. It is found lining the organs of urinary system and hence is also called as urothelium.
153.

154. In the last century an all-round development in various fields significantly improved the quality of
life of the people. However, increased health facilities along with better living conditions had an
explosive impact on the growth of population.
A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality rate (IMR) as well
as an increase in number of people in reproducible age are probable reasons for this.
155. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A. During pregnancy all events of the
menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation. The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of
progesterone which is essential for maintenance of the endometrium. Such an endometrium is
necessary for implantation of the fertilised ovum and other events of pregnancy. High levels of
progesterone and estrogen secreted by the placenta prevent the secretion of gonadotropins from
pituitary and hence there is no further development of ovarian follicles. Due to failure of maturation
of follicles and lack of ovulation by the inhibitory effect of luteal hormones, a pregnant woman
cannot concieve again during pregnancy.
156. Statement I is correct and II is incorrect.
For a long time it was believed that life came out of decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud, etc.
This was the theory of spontaneous generation. Louis Pasteur by careful experimentation
demonstrated that life comes only from pre-existing life. He showed that in pre-sterilised flasks, life
did not come from killed yeast while in another flask open to air, new living organisms arose from
‘killed yeast’. Spontaneous generation theory was thus dismissed once and for all. Oparin of Russia
and Haldane of England proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-
living organic molecules (e.g. RNA, protein, etc.) and that formation of life was preceded by
chemical evolution, i.e., formation of diverse organic molecules from inorganic constituents.
157. The corticoids, which are involved in carbohydrate metabolism are called glucocorticoids. In our
body, cortisol is the main glucocorticoid. Corticoids, which regulate the balance of water and
electrolytes in our body are called mineralocorticoids. Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid in
our body. Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis; and inhibit cellular
uptake and utilisation of amino acids.
Due to action of insulin, there is a rapid movement of glucose from blood to hepatocytes and
adipocytes resulting in decreased blood glucose levels (hypoglycemia).
Glucagon is a peptide hormone, and plays an important role in maintaining the normal blood glucose
levels. Glucagon acts mainly on the liver cells (hepatocytes) and stimulates glycogenolysis resulting
in an increased blood sugar (hyperglycemia).
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158. From a study of the history of life on earth through fossil records, it is clear that large-scale loss of
species being currently witnessed has also happened earlier, even before humans appeared on the
scene. During the long period (> 3 billion years) since the origin and diversification of life on earth,
there were five episodes of mass extinction of species.
The ‘Sixth Extinction’ presently in progress is different from the previous episodes in the rates. The
current species extinction rates are estimated to be 100 to 1,000 times faster than in the pre-human
times and human activities are responsible for the faster rates.
159. Statement II is false, all other statements are true.
Memory-based acquired immunity evolved in higher vertebrates based on the ability to differentiate
foreign organisms (e.g., pathogens) from self-cells.
The use of vaccines and immunisation programmes have enabled us to completely eradicate a
deadly disease like smallpox. A large number of other infectious diseases like polio, diphtheria,
pneumonia and tetanus have been controlled to a large extent by the use of vaccines.
Due to decrease in the number of helper T-lymphocytes, the AIDS patient starts suffering from
infections that could have been otherwise overcome such as those due to bacteria especially
Mycobacterium, viruses, fungi and even parasites like Toxoplasma. The patient becomes so
immuno-deficient that he/she is unable to protect himself/herself against these infections.
160. Statement D is incorrect. In uterine fertilization, either through natural or by IUI, the baby grows
from the zygote stage itself within the uterus and hence it is not a test tube baby.
In vitro fertilisation (IVF–fertilisation outside the body in almost similar conditions as that in the
body) followed by embryo transfer (ET) is one of the methods of assisted reproductive technologies.
In this method, popularly known as test tube baby programme, ova from the wife/donor (female) and
sperms from the husband/donor (male) are collected and are induced to form zygote under simulated
conditions in the laboratory.
The zygote or early embryos (with upto 8 blastomeres) could then be transferred into the fallopian
tube (ZIFT– zygote intra fallopian transfer) and embryos with more than 8 blastomeres, into the
uterus (IUT – intra uterine transfer), to complete its further development. Embryos formed by in-vivo
fertilisation (fusion of gametes within the female) also could be used for such transfer to assist those
females who cannot conceive.
Hence, in test tube baby program, the test tube baby begins growth outside the mother's body but
completes the growth till fully developed foetal stage inside the uterus.
161. The extinct early reptiles about 350 mya during carboniferous period evolved into Synapsids which
further evolved into Pelycosaurs → Therapsids → Mammals. Some of the extinct early reptiles
evolved into Sauropsids which further evolved into Thecodonts late Permian and early Triassic
period. Thecodonts evolved into giant reptiles which dominated the land duirng Triassic and Jurassic
periods. The reptiles and birds evolved from the dinosaus. During the Cretaceous period, the
dinosaurs became extinct. Hence, Sauropsids are the common ancestors of all the dinosaurs, modern
reptiles and birds.
162. The diagram shows the structure of a juxta-medullary nephron of a mammalian kidney.
“A” is the glomerulus where ultrafiltration takes place. “B” is Henle’s loop where concentration of
glomerular filtrate occurs. “C” shows PCT, which is the main site of tubular reabsorption of essential
nutrients and 70-80% of water. “D” shows DCT where selective secretion of hydrogen and
potassium ions and NH3 occurs to maintain the pH and sodium-potassium balance in blood. Large
amounts of water could be reabsorbed from collecting duct indicated by “E” to produce a
concentrated urine and is sensitive to ADH.
163. An excessive loss of fluid from the body can activate these receptors which stimulate the
hypothalamus to release antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin from the neurohypophysis. In
addition to water reabsorption from nephrons, ADH can also affect the kidney function by its
constrictory effects on blood vessels.
Angiotensin II also activates the adrenal cortex to release Aldosterone. Aldosterone causes
reabsorption of Na+ and water from the distal parts of the tubule. This also leads to an increase in
blood pressure and GFR.
An increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart can cause the release of Atrial Natriuretic Factor
(ANF). ANF can cause vasodilation (dilation of blood vessels) and thereby decrease the blood

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 pressure. ANF causes excretion of Na+ and water in the glomerular filtrate. Hence its effect is
antagonistic to renin-angiotensin mechanism.
164. Figure shows the developing foetus in the uterine cavity.
'IV' in the figure is umbillical cord through which placenta is connected to the embryo. It helps in
transporting the substances to and from the embryo ('III; in the figure). 'I' in the figure indicates
placental villi which are finger-like projections seen in the placenta.
Enbryo develops in the uterine cavity. 'II' indicates the yolk sac which is a membranous sac attached
to the embryo and is devoid of yolk in humans.
165. Nearly 20-25% of CO2 is transported by RBCs whereas 70% of it is carried as bicarbonate. About
7% of CO2 is carried in a dissolved state through plasma. RBCs contain a very high concentration of
the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase and minute quantities of the same is present in the plasma too. This
enzymes catalyses the dissolution of carbon dioxide in plasma and formation of carbonic acid as well
as the reverse of this reaction. The enzyme is also involved in dissociation of carbonic acid into
biocarbonate ion and H+.
At the tissue site where partial pressure of CO2 is high due to catabolism, CO2 diffuses into blood
(RBCs and plasma) and forms HCO3 – and H+. Therefore, if there is increase in CO2 concentration in
blood, it causes a drop in pH leading to increase in the rate of breathing to remove the excess carbon
dioxide by exchange at the alveolar surface and expiration.
166. The diagram shows Macferlane's cascade for the process of blood clotting.
The injured platelates release thromboplastin (A) which converts prothrombin (D) to thrombin (B) in
presence of Ca2+ ions. Thrombin then converts soluble fibrinogen (C) to insoluble fibrin fibers. The
insoluble fibrin fibers form a network in which formed elements of the blood are trapped and
coagulation or clotting of blood takes place.
167. When a neuron is not conducting any impulse, i.e., resting, the axonal membrane is comparatively
more permeable to potassium ions (K+) and nearly impermeable to sodium ions (Na+).
When a stimulus is applied, the membrane at the site becomes freely permeable to Na+. This leads to
a rapid influx of Na+ followed by the reversal of the polarity at that site, i.e., the outer surface of the
membrane becomes negatively charged and the inner side becomes positively charged.
The polarity of the membrane at the site is thus reversed and hence the membrane is depolarised.
168. Endocrine cells present in different parts of the gastrointestinal tract secrete four major peptide
hormones, namely gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin (CCK) and gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP).
Gastrin acts on the gastric glands and stimulates the secretion of hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen.
Secretin acts on the exocrine pancreas and stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions. CCK
acts on both pancreas and gall bladder and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile
juice, respectively.
GIP inhibits gastric secretion and motility.
169. The essence of Darwinian theory about evolution is natural selection. The rate of appearance of new
forms is linked to the life cycle or the life span. Microbes that divide fast have the ability to multiply
and become millions of individuals within hours. A colony of bacteria (say A) growing on a given
medium has built-in variation in terms of ability to utilise a feed component. A change in the
medium composition would bring out only that part of the population (say B) that can survive under
the new conditions. In due course of time this variant population outgrows the others and appears as
new species. This would happen within days.
For the same thing to happen in a fish or fowl would take million of years as life spans of these
animals are in years. Here we say that fitness of B is better than that of A under the new conditions.
Nature selects for fitness. The above mentioned fitness is based on characteristics which are
inherited.
170. Secretory phase or luteal phase of menstrual cycle is postovulatory phase and remains fairly constant
for 14 days post-ovulation. If the released egg is not fertilized, the corpus luteum degenerates leading
to fall in progesterone levels and breakdown of endometrium.
171. All statements are correct.
Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a
particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step. Each
bar in the energy pyramid indicates the amount of energy present at each trophic level in a given time
or annually per unit area. Pyramid of energy, hence is as per the laws of thermodynamics.
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 The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of
phytoplankton.
There are certain limitations of ecological pyramids such as it does not take into account the same
species belonging to two or more trophic levels. It assumes a simple food chain, something that
almost never exists in nature; it does not accommodate a food web. Moreover, saprophytes are not
given any place in ecological pyramids even though they play a vital role in the ecosystem.
172. Since the DNA fingerprint/banding pattern of DNA collected from the crime site matches with the
DNA fingerprint of suspect 'II', the suspect 'II' is a criminal.
173. Colour blindness is X-linked recessive disorder. If the Xchromosomes with allele for colour
blindness is indicated as X' and that with allele for normal vision as X, then the genotype of affected
father would be X'Y and that of the carrier mother would be X'X.
In the above mentioned case, the 50% of the sperms would have X' while 50% would have Y and
50% of the eggs would have X' and 50% would have X. If completerandom events of fertilization are
considered, then the possibilities of genotype of offspring are X'X', X'X, X'Y and XY. Hence, the
probability of the child from the above marriage being colour blind is 50%; since X'X' would be
colour blind daughter and X'Y would be colour blind son. X'X would be a carrier daughter with
normal colour vision while XY would be a normal son with normal colour vision.
174. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the standing
crop. The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a
unit area. The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight..
The base of each pyramid represents the producers or the first trophic level while the apex represents
tertiary or top level consumer. The three types of ecological pyramids that are usually studied
are pyramid of numbers; pyramid of biomass and pyramid of energy. Since the pyramid of biomass
represents the biomass of organisms at different trophic levels, it represents the standing crop.
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium, etc., present in the soil at
any given time, is referred to as the standing state. It varies in different kinds of ecosystems and also
on a seasonal basis.
175.

176. In aneuploidy, one or more chromosomes are added or are less in the set of chromosomes. In
euploidy, entire set of chromosomes is added to make a cell polyploid.
Aneuploidy leads to variation in the number of chromosomes. If a chromosome is lost during mitotic
division or due to failure of splitting of the centromere during anaphase, a cell with one less
chromosome may be formed. The cell will have 19 chromosomes with monosomic condtion.
The other cell may have one additional chromosome to normal set of chromosomes. This cell will
have 21 chromosomes with trisomic condition.
177. Since the pedigree chart shows that phenotypically healthy parents have affected children, the
disorder in autsomal recessive. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal (recessive) disorder. Let 'a' be the
disease causing recessive allele and 'A' be the normal dominant allele.

Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder, Haemophilia is a recessive X-linked

disorder and Hairy pinna is a Y-linked trait.
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178. A, C and D are examples of commensalism while algae and fungi in lichens show mutualism or
symbiosis.
Commensalism is the interaction in which one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor
benefited. An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a Mango branch, and barnacles growing on the back
of a whale benefit while neither the Mango tree nor the whale derives any apparent benefit.
The cattle egret and grazing cattle in close association is also an example of commensalism. The
egrets always forage close to where the cattle are grazing because the cattle, as they move, stir up
and flush out insects from the vegetation that otherwise might be difficult for the egrets to find and
catch.
Another example of commensalism is the interaction between sea anemone that has stinging
tentacles and the clown fish that lives among them. The fish gets protection from predators which
stay away from the stinging tentacles. The anemone does not appear to derive any benefit by hosting
the clown fish.
179. Gel electrophoresis, which is performed after digestion of DNA with restriction enzymes, separates
the DNA segments.
The technique of DNA Fingerprinting was initially developed by Alec Jeffreys. He used a satellite
DNA as probe that shows very high degree of polymorphism. It was called as Variable Number of
Tandem Repeats (VNTR). The technique, as used earlier, involved Southern blot hybridisation using
radiolabelled VNTR as a probe. It included the following sequential steps:
(i) Isolation of DNA,
(ii) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases,
(iii) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis,
(iv) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes, such as
nitrocellulose or nylon,
(v) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe, and
(vi) Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography.
180. Statements (i) and (ii) correctly identify the interaction. Statement (iii) is an example of competition
where one interacting species derives benefit while the other is harmed. In some shallow South
American lakes, visiting flamingoes and resident fishes compete for their common food, the
zooplankton in the lake. Statement (i) is an example of parasitism where one of the species derives
benefits and the other interacting species is harmed. Brood parasitism in birds is one of the examples
of parasitism in which the parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host and lets the host incubate
them. During the course of evolution, the eggs of the parasitic bird have evolved to resemble the
host’s egg in size and colour to reduce the chances of the host bird detecting the foreign eggs and
ejecting them from the nest. The cukoo (koel) laying eggs during the breeding season (spring to
summer) in the crow's nest is an example of brood parastitism.
Statement (ii) is an example of commensalism where one of the interacting species derives benefit
while the other interacting species is neither benefited nor harmed. An orchid growing as an
epiphyte on a mango branch, and barnacles growing on the back of a whale benefit while neither the
mango tree nor the whale derives any apparent benefit. These are the examples of commensalism.

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