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Final Test Series for NEET-2025(Phase-2)_Test-10C

Complete Syllabus of Class XI & XII

Q1:

In crossed electric and magnetic field, the velocity of charged particle which passes
undeflected through the region may be (where E is electric field and B is magnetic field)

1)

v = E 2B

2)

v = E
B

3)
2
v = E
B

4)

v = B
E

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Q2:

The number of electrons that should be removed from a metal coin such that coin
acquires a positive charge

of 10–10 C is

1)

1.6 × 10–19

2)

6.25 × 109

3)

6.25 × 108

4)

1.6 × 108

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Q3:

3 capacitors each of capacitance 2 µF are to be connected to obtain an equivalent

capacitance of 3 µF. Which of the following combination is possible?

1)

All in series

2)

All in parallel

3)

2 in parallel, 1 in series
4)

2 in series, 1 in parallel

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Q4:

For H-atom, Lyman spectral lines must lie in

1)

Ultraviolet region

2)

Visible region

3)

Infrared region

4)

All of these

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Q5:

The magnetic flux (ϕ) in a coil varies with time (t) as shown in figure. The variation of
induced emf (e) with time (t) would be
1)

2)

3)

4)

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Q6:

The diagram of a logic circuit is given below. The output F of the circuit is represented by

1)

W.(X + Y)
2)

W.(X.Y)

3)

W + (X.Y)

4)

W + (X + Y )

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Q7:

The capacitors are connected to a battery of 6 V as shown in figure. The total charge
drawn from the battery is

1)

0.5 μC

2)

2 μC

3)

72 μC

4)

36 μC
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Q8:

A person hums in a well and finds strong resonance at frequencies 180 Hz, 300 Hz and
420 Hz. The fundamental frequency of the well is (velocity of sound = 335 m/s)

1)

180 Hz

2)

100 Hz

3)

60 Hz

4)

120 Hz

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Q9:

If the kinetic energy of a particle is increased to 16 times, the percentage decrease in de

Broglie wavelength of particle is

1)

25%

2)

75%

3)

60%
4)

50%

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Q10:

Sixty four identical drops of water having equal charge combine to form a bigger drop.
The factor by which potential of bigger drop change in comparison to a small drop is

1)

64

2)

32

3)

16

4)

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Q11:

A series LCR circuit contains a capacitor of capacitance 10–6 F and an inductor of

inductance 10–4 H. The resonant frequency of the circuit will be

1)

105 Hz

2)

10 Hz
3)
5
10 Hz
2π

4)
10 Hz
2π

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Q12:

Displacement current exists within the gap between the plates of capacitor when the
electric field between its plates

1)

Increases with time

2)

Decreases with time

3)

Remains constant

4)

Both (1) and (2)

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Q13:

A charged particle enters a magnetic field at right angles to the magnetic field. The field
exists for a length equal to 1.5 times the radius of circular path of the circle. The particle
will be deviated from its path by angle

1)

90°
2)

sin − 1 23

3)

30°

4)

180°

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Q14:

In the displacement method, a convex lens is placed in between an object and a screen. If
magnification in the two positions are m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) and the distance between two
positions of the lens is x, the focal length of the lens is

1)
x
m1 + m2

2)
x
m1 − m2

3)
x
2
( m1 + m2 )

4)
x
2
( m1 − m2 )

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Q15:

The ratio of vrms : vmp : vavg is (symbols have their usual meaning)
1)

√3 : √2 : √ π8

2)

√3 : √2 : √ 83

3)

√3 : √ π8 : √2

4)

√3 : √2 : √ π8

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Q16:

The work done by 2 moles of polyatomic gas ( γ = 43 ) initially at room temperature to

increase its volume eight time during adiabatic process will be (Take R = 2 cal mol–1 K–1
and room temperature 27°C)

1) 900 cal

2) 600 cal

3) 1800 cal

4) 1200 cal

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Q17:

A fixed amount of an ideal monoatomic gas is taken through the cycle ABCD as shown in
the figure. The efficiency of the cycle will be

1)

22.2%

2)

33.33%

3)

20%

4)

40%

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Q18:

When a spring is stretched by 1 cm, it stores energy 50 J. If it is further stretched by 1 cm,

the stored energy will be

1)

50 J

2)

100 J
3)

150 J

4)

200 J

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Q19:

The Young’s modulus of brass and steel are 1 × 1011 N/m2 and 2 × 1011 N/m2
respectively. If wires of both materials, having same length, are loaded with same weight,
then they both extend by 4 mm. Ratio of the radii of two wires RB : RS is

1)

√2 : 1

2)

1 : √2

3)

4:1

4)

1:4

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Q20:

A : Bernoulli's theorem is based on energy conservation.

R : Bernoulli's theorem holds good for all liquids.

1)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.

2)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.

3)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

4)

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

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Q21:

The percentage change in length of 1 m iron rod if its temperature changes by 100ºC is

(α for iron is 2 × 10–5/ºC)

1)

0.2%

2)

0.3%

3)

0.5%

4)

0.9%

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Q22:
2
d y
The differential equation for a particle executing S.H.M. is given by
dt
2 + 4y = 0 , where
symbols have their usual meaning. The angular velocity of the particle is given by

1)

4 rad/s

2)

3 rad/s

3)

2 rad/s

4)

4π rad/s

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Q23:

The relative permeability of a ferromagnetic material is 5999. Its magnetic susceptibility

is

1)

6000

2)

6000 × 10–7

3)

5998
4)

5.999 × 107

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Q24:

The stopping potential in the photoelectric experiment is 1.6 V. The maximum kinetic
energy of photoelectrons emitted is

1)

2.4 × 10–19 J

2)

2.56 × 10–19 J

3)

1.86 × 10–19 J

4)

1.4 × 10–19 J

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Q25:

Match column I and Column II.

Column I Column II
(A) Coulomb's law (P) Charge/Area
→ →
(B) Surface charge density (Q) ∫ E . d s
(C) Quantisation of charge (R) q = ne
(D) Electric flux (S) Force is inversely propotional to square of distance
1)

A → P, B → Q, C → R, D → S

2)

A → S, B → P, C → R, D → Q

3)

A → S, B → R, C → P, D → Q

4)

A → S, B → P, C → Q, D → R

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Q26:

Dashrath measures the length of a wire using a meter scale with a least count of 1 mm
and finds it to be L = 75.0 cm. He also measures diameter of thin wire using a screw
gauge with a least count of 0.01 mm and finds it to be d = 0.500 cm. He uses these
measurements to calculate the volume of wire. The maximum percentage error in volume
of wire is nearly

1)

0.53%

2)

0.32%

3)

0.11%

4)

0.45%

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Q27:

The dimensional formula for impulse is

1)

[MLT–1]

2)

[M–1LT]

3)

[M–1LT–1]

4)

[ML–1T–1]

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Q28:

A particle moves along a straight line with velocity given by v = (6 – 3t) where v is in m/s
and t in seconds. Determine when the particle returns to its starting point.

1)

4s

2)

2s

3)

3s
4)

5s

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Q29:

A car is moving with velocity of 20 m/s on a straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake
the car in 60 s. If the car is at a distance of 1.5 km ahead, then the velocity with which the
scooterist has to chase the car is

1)

25 m/s

2)

20 m/s

3)

45 m/s

4)

50 m/s

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Q30:

Two particles A and B are projected from ground at an angle of 30° with the horizontal
with velocity 20 m/s and 40 m/s respectively. The maximum height and time of flight are
both greater for which particle?

1)

A
2)

3)

Same for both

4)

Data insufficient

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Q31:

Two boys are standing at two points A and B of a ground where AB = 10 m. The boy at B
starts running in a direction perpendicular to AB, with velocity 3 m/s. The boy at A starts
running simultaneously with velocity 5 m/s and catches the other boy in a time t, then t is

1)

5s

2)

2.5 s

3)

4s

4)

3.5 s
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Q32:

If a cloth covers a table and some dishes are kept on it, then the cloth can be pulled out
without dislodging the dishes from the table by pulling the cloth suddenly. The dishes will
remain on table due to

1)

Work-energy theorem

2)

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

3)

Inertia of motion

4)

Inertia of rest

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Q33:
th
If moment of inertia of a spinning object drops to 14 of its initial value, the ratio of new
rotational kinetic energy to initial rotational kinetic energy will be (Assume net external
torque about the axis of rotation is zero)

1)

1:4

2)

4:1
3)

2:1

4)

1:2

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Q34:

Read the statements marked as assertion (A) and reason (R) and choose the correct
option.

Assertion (A): If no external force acts on a system, the velocity of the centre of mass
remains constant.

Reason (R): If there is no external force on system, then momentum of system is

conserved.

1)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

2)

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

3)

(A) is true but (R) is false

4)

(A) is false but (R) is true

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Q35:

Statement A: If a particle is outside a uniform spherical shell or solid sphere with a

spherically symmetric internal mass distribution, the sphere attracts the particle.

Statement B: If a particle is inside a uniform spherical shell, the gravitational force on the
particle is zero.

Statement C: If a particle is inside a uniform solid sphere, the gravitational force on the
particle is zero.

In light of above statements choose the correct option.

1)

Only statement C is correct

2)

Only statements A and B are correct

3)

Only statements C and B are correct

4)

Only statements A and C are correct

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Q36:

By what percentage will the acceleration due to gravity at a height of 1600 km from the
surface of the Earth differ from that on the surface of the Earth? (Take radius of Earth to
be 6400 km)

1)

20%

2)

15%
3)

24%

4)

36%

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Q37:

A uniform rod AB of mass M is suspended from a point C, at a variable distance x from A,

as shown. To make the rod horizontal, a mass m is suspended from its end A. A set of (m,
x) values are recorded. The appropriate variables that give a straight line, when plotted,
are

1)
1
m, 2
x

2)

m , x2

3)

m, x

4)

m, 1
x

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Q38:

Choose the incorrect statement among the following.

1)

Nuclear density is independent of A and it is of the order of 1017 kg/m3

2)

Neutrons and protons are bound in a nucleus by the short-range strong nuclear force.

3)

Nuclides with same atomic number Z, but different neutron number N are called isotones

4)

In nuclear reaction, the total number of neutrons and protons is the same on either side of a
reaction

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Q39:

The circuit shown contains two diodes each with a forward resistance of 50 Ω and with
infinite backward resistance. If the battery voltage is 6 V, the current through 100 Ω
resistance is

1)

0.02 A
2)

0.036 A

3)

0.086 A

4)

0.094 A

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Q40:

Consider the given circuit resembling with a Wheatstone bridge. If 2 A current source is
applied between A and C as shown, then (VB – VD ) will be equal to

1)
9​ V
2

2)
2
9​ V

3)
3
8​ V
4)
1 V
8

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Q41:

The network shown in figure is part of a complete circuit. The potential difference VB – VA
when current I = 5 A and is decreasing at rate of 103 (A/s), is

1)

12 V

2)

30 V

3)

15 V

4)

10 V

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Q42:

For an a.c. circuit connected to a capacitor, choose the curve between capacitive
reactance XC and source frequency f
1)

2)

3)

4)

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Q43:

The refractive index of material of a plano-convex lens, if the radius of curvature of

convex surface is 10 cm and focal length of lens is 30 cm is

1)
2
μ= 3

2)
1
μ= 3

3)
4
μ= 3
4)

μ= 1
2

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Q44:

If an equiconvex lens of focal length f is divided into two equal parts as shown and then
they are put in contact, so the resultant focal length of the combination will be

1)

2f

2)
f
2

3)

4)
1
2f

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Q45:

A screen is placed 50 cm from a single slit, which is illuminated with 6000 Å light. If
distance between the first and third minima in the diffraction patten is 3 mm, the width of
the slit is

1)

0.1 mm
2)

0.2 mm

3)

0.4 mm

4)

0.5 mm

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Q46:

The correct decreasing order of pKb of given amines in aqueous phase is

1)

Benzenamine > N,N-Dimethylaniline > N-Methylaniline > Phenylmethanamine

2)

N,N-Dimethylaniline > Benzenamine > N-Methylaniline> Phenylmethanamine

3)

N,N-Dimethylaniline > N-Methylaniline > Phenylmethanamine > Benzenamine

4)

Benzenamine > N-Methylaniline > N,N-Dimethylaniline > Phenylmethanamine

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Q47:

If mass percentage of Zn2+ in a biomolecule is 0.04% then minimum molecular mass of

the biomolecule will be (Atomic mass of Zn = 65.4 u )
1)

1.6 ×105 u

2)

3.2 ×103 u

3)

3.2 ×104 u

4)

1.6 ×106 u

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Q48:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(Quantum Number) (Orbital)
(a) n = 3, l = 1 (i) 3s
(b) n = 4, l = 2 (ii) 3p
(c) n = 3, l = 0 (iii) 4d
(d) n = 4, l = 3 (iv) 4f

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1)

(a)-(iii), (b) – (iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

2)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

3)

(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

4)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

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Q49:

The ratio of the wavelength of the second line of Balmer series to the third line of Balmer
series of H-atom is

1)

21 : 25

2)

28 : 25

3)

25 : 28

4)

21 : 17

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Q50:

Match List-I with List-II

List I (Element) List II (Classification)

a. Vanadium (i) Halogen
b. Iodine (ii) Lanthanoid
c. Cerium (iii) Actinoid
d. Thorium (iv) Transition metal

The correct match is

1)

a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

2)

a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

3)

a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

4)

a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

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Q51:

Given below are two statements

Statement I: The magnitude of hydrogen bonding depends on the physical state of the
compound.

Statement II: Hydrogen bonding is maximum in the gaseous state and minimum in the
solid state.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer

1)

Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

2)

Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

3)

Both statement I and statement II are correct

4)

Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

 @luie_papers_aiats

Q52:

In the following reaction sequence

(i) Ba ( OH )
2CH3 - CO - CH3 → 2
(A)
( ii ) Δ Major

The product (A) will be

1)

4-Hydroxy-4-methylpentan-2-one

2)

3-Methylpent-3-en-2-one

3)

4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one

4)

2-Methylpent-2-en-3-ol

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Q53:

The difference between heat of reaction at constant pressure and constant volume for the
reaction

2C6H6(l) + 15O2(g) → 12CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) at 25°C in kJ is

1)

+7.43

2)

+4.83
3)

–7.43

4)

–4.83

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Q54:

For the reaction,

o
N2 H2 ( g ) + H2 ( g ) → N2 H4 ( g ) , Δr ​H = − 109 kJ / mol
The bond energy of (N – N) bond will be
Given : BE of (N = N) = 400 kJ/mol
BE of (H – H) = 436 kJ/mol
BE of (N – H) = 391 kJ/mol

1)

163 kJ/mol

2)

206 kJ/mol

3)

90 kJ/mol

4)

360 kJ/mol

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Q55:

The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react completely with one mole of
Fe2(C2O4)3 in acidic solution is
1) 5

2) 6

3)
6
5

4)
3
5

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Q56:

Given below are two statements.

Statement I: Distillation under reduced pressure is used to purify liquids having very high
boiling points and those, which decompose at or below their boiling points.

Statement II: Fractional distillation is used to separate different fractions of crude oil in
petroleum industry.

In the light of above statements, select the correct option

1)

Statement I is true but statement II is false

2)

Statement I is false but statement II is true

3)

Both statement I and II are true

4)

Both statement I and II are false

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Q57:

Arrange the following free radicals in decreasing order of stability.

1)

I > II > III > IV

2)

IV > I > III > II

3)

IV > I > II > III

4)

III > IV > II > I

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Q58:

Correct order of freezing point of the given aqueous solutions is

I. 0.1 m NaCl (α = 60%)

II. 0.1 m MgCl2 (α = 50%)

III. 0.1 m AlCl3 (α = 40%)

1)

II > l > III

2)

I > II > III

3)

II > III > I

4)

III > II > I

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Q59:

Given below are two statements

Statement I: Propene on treatment with diborane gives an addition product with the
formula ( CH3 − CH2 − CH2 ) B
3

Statement II: Oxidation of [ ( CH3 ) CH ] B with hydrogen peroxide in the presence of

2 3
NaOH gives propan-2-ol as major product.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1)

Both statement I and statement II are correct

2)

Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

3)

Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

4)

Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

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Q60:

A solution of AgNO3 is electrolysed for 20 minutes with a current of 9.65 ampere using
inert electrode. The mass of silver deposited at cathode is (Atomic mass of silver = 108 u)

1)

18.25 g

2)

10.8 g

3)

12.96 g

4)

21.6 g

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Q61:

Consider the following statements

a. Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc.

b. Mn2O7 is a covalent green oil.

c. Manganate ion is diamagnetic and green in colour

d. Scandium show only +3 oxidation sate.

The correct statements are

1)

a and c only

2)

a, b, c and d
3)

b and d only

4)

a, b and d only

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Q62:

If rate of disappearance of H2O2 during its decomposition is 0.2 mol L–1s–1 then rate of
appearance of O2 is (given : H2O2 → H2O + 1/2 O2)

1)

0.2 mol L–1s–1

2)

0.1 mol L–1s–1

3)

0.3 mol L–1s–1

4)

0.4 mol L–1s–1

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Q63:

In the following reaction

CO , HCl
Benzene → (P) Major
Anhyd . AlCl3 / CuCI

Choose the incorrect statement about (P)

1)

On clemmensen reduction, it gives methylbenzene

2)

It does not give haloform reaction

3)

It gives Fehling’s test

4)

It reacts with acetophenone in the presence of dilute alkali and followed by heating at 293
K gives benzalacetophenone as a major product

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Q64:

Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
Reason (R)

Assertion (A) : Boiling points of methyl halides decreases in the order : CH3I > CH3Br >
CH3Cl > CH3F

Reason (R) : With the increase in size and mass of halogen atom, the magnitude of vander
Waal forces increases.

In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.

1)

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

2)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

3)

Both (A) and (R) are false

4)

(A) is true but (R) is false

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Q65:

Reagent which is not used in the synthesis of methyl fluoride from methyl bromide in
Swarts reaction is

1)

AgF

2)

CoF2

3)

Hg2F2

4)

F2

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Q66:

The compound which reacts fastest with Lucas reagent at room temperature is

1) Butan-2-ol

2) Butan-1-ol

3) 2-methyl propan-1-ol

4) 2-methyl propan-2-ol

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Q67:

Which among the following is incorrect statement about polysaccharides?

1) Cellulose is found exclusively in plants

2) Cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide composed only of β-D-glucose units

3) Starch is polymer of α-D-glucose units

4) Amylose is water insoluble component of starch

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Q68:

Which among the following pair is the example of globular proteins ?

1)

Keratin and myosin

2)

Keratin and insulin

3)

Insulin and albumin

4)

Albumin and myosin

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Q69:

The colour of the methyl orange in basic medium is

1)

Red

2)

Green

3)

Orange

4)

Yellow

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Q70:

Match the column I with column II

Column I Column II

(Cations) (Group)

a. Ba2+ (i) Group III

b. Mg2+ (ii) Group II

c. As3+ (iii) Group VI

d. Al3+ (iv) Group V

Choose the correct option.

1)

a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

2)

a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

3)

a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

4)

a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

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Q71:

Consider the following statements

Statement I: Total number of electrons present in π antibonding molecular orbital of N2 is

zero.

Statement II: Total number of antibonding electrons in N2 is 4.

In light with above statements choose the correct option.

1)

Both the statements I and II are correct

2)

Both the statements I and II are incorrect

3)

Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

4)

Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

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Q72:

Given below are two statements

Statement I: Prop-1-yne is more acidic than But-2-yne.

Statement II: Reaction of propyne with one molecule of water in the presence of mercuric
sulphate and dilute sulphuric acid at 333 K to form propanal as a major product.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1)

Both statement I and statement II are correct

2)

Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

3)

Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

4)

Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

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Q73:

In the following reaction sequence

Red hot Cl2 ( excess ) , Anhyd . AlCl3

Ethyne → (A) → (B)
Iron tube Major Dark , cold Major
(873 K)

The product (B) will be

1)
2)

3)

4)

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Q74:

In the following reaction sequence

The product (B) will be

1)

2)

3)
4)

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Q75:

If the mole fraction of methanol in aqueous solution is 0.2 then the molality of the solution
will be

1)

8.5

2)

10.2

3)

11.7

4)

13.9

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Q76:

In the following reaction

The product (A) will be

1)

2)

3)

4)

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Q77:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

Compound Boiling point/(K)

a. Methoxyethane (i) 329

b. Propanal (ii) 370

c. Acetone (iii) 322

d. Propan-1-ol (iv) 281

The correct match is

1)

a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

2)

a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

3)

a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

4)

a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

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Q78:

99% of a first order reaction is completed in 32 minutes. Time required for 99.9%
completion is

1)

50 minutes

2)

46 minutes

3)

48 minutes

4)

64 minutes

@luie_papers_aiats

Q79:

50 g of calcium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give calcium oxide and 20 g

of carbon dioxide. The approximate % purity of calcium carbonate sample is
1)

95%

2)

78%

3)

91%

4)

82%

@luie_papers_aiats

Q80:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Tetrahedral complexes do not show geometrical isomerism with unidentate
ligands.

Reason (R): In tetrahedral complexes, the relative positions of the unidentate ligands
attached to the central metal atom are the same with respect to each other.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

2)

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

3)

(A) is true but (R) is false

4)

Both (A) and (R) are false

@luie_papers_aiats

Q81:

The correct order of decreasing field strength of ligands in spectrochemical series is

1)

en > NCS– > OH– > SCN–

2)

NCS– > OH– > en > SCN–

3)

SCN– > OH– > en > NCS–

4)

OH– > en > NCS– > SCN–

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Q82:

In the following reaction sequence

The product (P) will be

1)

2)

3)

4)

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Q83:
0
Molar conductivities ( Λm ) at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are x, y and z
0
S cm2 mol–1 respectively. Λm for CH3COOH will be

1) x + y + z

2) x – y – z

3) y + z – x

4) y – z – x

@luie_papers_aiats
Q84:

Consider the following actinoids

a. Uranium

b. Neptunium

c. Americium

d. Plutonium

Choose the element(s) which show +7 oxidation state

1)

b and d only

2)

a and c only

3)

b and c only

4)

d only

@luie_papers_aiats

Q85:

For the reaction,

NH4 SH ( s ) ⇌ NH3 ( g ) + H2 S ( g ) ,

If total pressure at equilibrium is 20 atm, then Kp for the above equilibrium will be

1)

100
2)

200

3)

400

4)

300

@luie_papers_aiats

Q86:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

Salt pH (at 298 K)

a. Ammonium acetate (i) pH = 7 + 12 pKa − pKb

b. Sodium chloride (ii) pH = 7 + 12 pKa + logC

c. Sodium acetate (iii) pH = 7

d. Ammonium chloride (iv) pH = 7 − 12 pKb + logC

The correct match is

1)

a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

2)

a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)

3)

a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

4)

a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

@luie_papers_aiats

Q87:

The solubility product of BaSO4 is 1.1 × 10–10.

The solubility of BaSO4 in the presence of 0.2 M H2SO4 aqueous solution is

1)

2.2 × 10–11 M

2)

1.05 × 10–5 M

3)

4.02 × 10–11 M

4)

5.5 × 10–10 M

@luie_papers_aiats
Q88:

Given below are two statements

Statement I: Orthophosphorous acid on heating disproportionates to give orthophosphoric

acid and phosphine.

Statement II: PCl3 hydrolyses in the presence of moisture giving fumes of HCl and
orthophosphoric acid.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1)

Both statement I and statement II are correct

2)

Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

3)

Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

4)

Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

@luie_papers_aiats

Q89:

Complete hydrolysis of XeF6 gives

1)

Xe and XeO3 only

2)

XeO3 and HF only

3)

XeOF4 and XeO2F2 only

4)

XeO2F2 and HF only

@luie_papers_aiats

Q90:

Choose the incorrect match

1)

Pb > Sn > Ge > Si – Covalent radius

2)

Si > Ge > Sn > Pb – First ionization enthalpy

3)

Si > Ge > Pb > Sn – Melting point

4)

Si > Ge > Sn > Pb – Boiling point

@luie_papers_aiats

Q91:

Read the statements given below and choose the correct option.

(i) A family comprises a group of related genera.

(ii) Petunia and Datura are placed under Solanaceae.

(iii) Order primata is placed in the class Mammalia.

1)

Only (i) and (ii) are correct

2)

Only (ii) is incorrect

3)

(i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

4)

Only (ii) and (iii) are incorrect

@luie_papers_aiats

Q92:

Who demonstrated that the extract of infected plants of tobacco could cause infection in
healthy plants?

1)

Dmitri Ivanowsky

2)

M.W. Beijerinek

3)

W.M. Stanley

4)

T.O. Diener

@luie_papers_aiats
Q93:

Identify the organism in the given figure and select the correct feature of the class to
which this organism belongs to

1)

Mostly found in fresh water

2)

Pear shaped gametes

3)

Pyrenoids stores food in them

4)

Sexual reproduction only by oogamy

@luie_papers_aiats

Q94:

Which of the following is not true?

1)

False septum is seen in the ovary of mustard

2)

Gynoecium is syncarpous in tomato

3)

Axile placentation is seen in lemon

4)

Diadelphous condition is seen in China rose

@luie_papers_aiats

Q95:

Read the characteristics given below.

a. Epitepalous stamens

b. Valvate aestivation of petals

c. Superior ovary

d. Persistent petals

How many of the above characteristics is/are true for the members of Solanaceae?

1)

2)

3)

4)

@luie_papers_aiats
Q96:

Final shape to the cell theory was given by

1)

Matthias Schleiden

2)

Theodore Schwann

3)

Rudolf Virchow

4)

A.V. Leeuwenhoek

@luie_papers_aiats

Q97:

Which of the following structure is not bound by any membrane and seen in all
eukaryotes?

1)

Centriole

2)

Ribosome

3)

Vacuole

4)

Cilia
 @luie_papers_aiats

Q98:

Match the Column I with Column II and select the correct option.

Column I Column II

a. Mesosome (i) Formation of glycolipids

b. Golgi complex (ii) Helps in DNA replication

c. Lysosomes (iii) Storage of sap

d. Vacuoles (iv) Digestion of proteins

1)

a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

2)

a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)

3)

a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

4)

a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

@luie_papers_aiats

Q99:

Choose the incorrect statement from the following

1)

Chlorophyll a appears bright or blue green in the chromatogram.

2)

Reaction centre in PS II has absorption maxima at 680nm wavelength.

3)

Xanthophylls and carotenoids absorb light and transfer energy to the chlorophyll b
molecule present in reaction centre.

4)

Photochemical phase or light reactions of photosynthesis include water splitting.

@luie_papers_aiats

Q100:

The enzyme involved in the phosphorylation of fructose during glycolysis is

1)

Invertase

2)

Hexokinase

3)

Enolase

4)

Dehydrogenase

@luie_papers_aiats
Q101:

Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. growth in plants.

1)

Plants retain the capacity for unlimited growth throughout their life.

2)

Root and shoot apical meristem contribute to the primary growth of a plant.

3)

Increase in the girth of a plant is a form of secondary growth.

4)

Plants show closed form of growth due to the presence of meristems.

@luie_papers_aiats

Q102:

Which phytohormone is used in preparing weed-free lawns by gardeners?

1)

Cytokinin

2)

Gibberellin

3)

Auxin

4)

Ethylene
 @luie_papers_aiats

Q103:

Vegetative cell of pollen grain

1)

Is smaller in size

2)

Floats in the cytoplasm of generative cell

3)

Has abundant food reserve

4)

Has spindle shaped nucleus

@luie_papers_aiats

Q104:

Male and female flowers are present on different plants in

1)

Papaya

2)

Hibiscus

3)

Castor
4)

Maize

@luie_papers_aiats

Q105:

Read the statements given below and choose the correct option

Statement A: If a female parent produces unisexual flowers, there is no need for

emasculation during artificial hybridisation.

Statement B: Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo before seed

maturation in castor.

1)

Both statements A and B are correct

2)

Both statements A and B are incorrect

3)

Only statement A is correct

4)

Only statement B is correct

@luie_papers_aiats

Q106:

In all connective tissues found in humans except blood, fibroblasts secrete fibres of
structural proteins called collagen or elastin. Which of the following is not true w.r.t the
above given statement?

1)

These fibers provide strength and elasticity to the tissues.

2)

Fibroblasts secrete modified polysaccharides which act as matrix

3)

These fibres are absent in lymph

4)

These fibres provide contractility and excitability to the tissues.

@luie_papers_aiats

Q107:

Complete the following analogy

Cockroach : Malpighian tubules : : Prawn : ____

Choose the correct option.

1)

Protonephridia

2)

Green glands

3)

Nephridia

4)

Flame cells

@luie_papers_aiats
Q108:

All of the following are the factors that can shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the left
side, except

1)

Lower temperature

2)

High pO2

3)

Low pCO2

4)

Low pH

@luie_papers_aiats

Q109:

All of the following are nucleosides, except

1)

Adenosine

2)

Guanosine

3)

Cytosine
4)

Thymidine

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Q110:

In mammals, the most toxic nitrogenous excretory waste, named ‘X’, produced by
metabolic reactions is converted into _______ in _______ .

Select the correct option to fill in the blanks respectively.

1)

Uric acid; Kidney

2)

Urea; Liver

3)

Ammonia; Kidney

4)

Ammonia Liver

@luie_papers_aiats

Q111:

In humans, synovial joint is not present between

1)

12th thoracic and 1st lumbar vertebrae

2)

Humerus and scapula

3)

Femur and coxal bone

4)

Femur and tibia

@luie_papers_aiats

Q112:

In humans, unmyelinated nerve fibres of PNS are

1)

Not enclosed by Schwann cells

2)

Covered with myelin sheath around the axons

3)

Not present in the somatic neural system

4)

Enclosed by axolemma

@luie_papers_aiats

Q113:

Thyrocalcitonin, a hypocalcaemic proteinaceous hormone, is secreted by

1)

Adrenal medulla
2)

Parathyroid gland

3)

Adrenal cortex

4)

Thyroid gland

@luie_papers_aiats

Q114:

All of the following animals are dioecious and exhibit sexual dimorphism, except

1)

Ascaris

2)

Rana tigrina

3)

Periplaneta americana

4)

Pheretima

@luie_papers_aiats

Q115:

Members of the class chondrichthyes can be identified by the presence of

1)

Persistent notochord and claspers in males

2)

Cycloid scales all over the body

3)

An air bladder which regulates buoyancy

4)

Four pairs of gill slits covered with operculum on each side

@luie_papers_aiats

Q116:

In Mendel’s experiment, the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation in a monohybrid cross

between true breeding tall plants and true-breeding dwarf plants of pea is

1)

3:1

2)

[Link]

3)

[Link]

4)

1:1

@luie_papers_aiats
Q117:

Incomplete dominance is characterized by

1)

One allele completely masking the effect of other allele

2)

Both alleles being expressed equally

3)

Expression of a third phenotype which does not resemble either of the two parents with
contrasting traits

4)

The expression of the recessive allele only

@luie_papers_aiats

Q118:

In peas, the allele for tall plant (T) is dominant over the allele for dwarf plants (t). If two
heterozygous tall plants are crossed, what percentage of the offsprings will be
homozygous dominant?

1)

25%

2)

50%

3)

75%
4)

100%

@luie_papers_aiats

Q119:

Choose the incorrect option from the following.

1)

Cytosine is a common nitrogenous base for both DNA and RNA.

2)

A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 5′C of a pentose sugar.

3)

Uracil is present in RNA at the place of thymine.

4)

Sugar and phosphates form the backbone of a polynucleotide chain.

@luie_papers_aiats

Q120:

Who observed that in a double stranded DNA, the ratios between Adenine and Thymine
and Guanine and Cytosine are constant and equals one?

1)

Maurice Wilkins

2)

Rosalind Franklin
3)

Friedrich Meischer

4)

Erwin Chargaff

@luie_papers_aiats

Q121:

Okazaki fragments are formed during

1)

Transcription

2)

Reverse transcription

3)

Translation

4)

DNA replication

@luie_papers_aiats

Q122:

Which of the following is false with respect to a pond ecosystem?

1)

Phytoplanktons play the role of autotrophic component.

2)

Unidirectional flow of energy is observed.

3)

Zooplanktons and bottom dwellers majorily decompose the organic matter.

4)

It is self-sustainable and shows complex interactions among organisms.

@luie_papers_aiats

Q123:

Read the statements given below and choose the correct option

(i) Tropical rain forests once covered 14 percent of earth’s land surface.

(ii) Passenger pigeon became extinct due to over-exploitation by humans.

(iii) Sacred groves of Khasi and Jaintia Hills are located in Madhya Pradesh.

1)

Only (ii) and (iii) are incorrect

2)

Only (i) and (ii) are correct

3)

Only (i) and (iii) are incorrect

4)

All (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

@luie_papers_aiats
Q124:

Identify the incorrect match

1)

Predation – Plant and herbivore

2)

Competition – Balanus and Chathamalus

3)

Parasitism – Liver fluke on snail

4)

Commensalism – Fig and wasp

@luie_papers_aiats

Q125:

Observe the figure given below.

Identify the correct option for ‘X’.

1)

It is formed by a unit of eight molecules

2)

It is negatively charged

3)

It typically contains 200 bp of DNA helix

4)

It is not the core of histone molecules

@luie_papers_aiats

Q126:

Select the odd one out w.r.t. Lichens

1)

Mutually useful association, between algae and fungi

2)

They do not grow in polluted areas

3)

Mycobionts are autotrophic and phycobionts are heterotrophic

4)

Fungi provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients and water for its partner

@luie_papers_aiats

Q127:

Select the incorrectly matched pair of the given algae w.r.t. economic importance.
1)

Gelidium – Agar is obtained

2)

Fucus – Rich source of iodine

3)

Gracilaria – It gives algin , a hydrocolloid

4)

Chlorella – Rich in proteins

@luie_papers_aiats

Q128:

Companion cells are

1)

Specialised sclerenchymatous cells

2)

Specialised parenchymatous cells

3)

In close association with phloem fibres

4)

Without cell wall

@luie_papers_aiats
Q129:

Stomatal apparatus

1)

Consists of stomatal aperture, guard cell and subsidiary cells

2)

Is present on epidermis of root, stem and leaf

3)

Has guard cells with thick outer wall and thin inner wall

4)

Consists of subsidiary cells which surround the stomatal pore

@luie_papers_aiats

Q130:

Which of the given is/are not true for lipid component of plasma membrane?

a. Tail is made up of saturated hydrocarbons

b. Head is hydrophobic
c. It gives quasi fluid nature to plasma membrane
d. In human erythrocyte membrane, lipid fraction is more than proteins

1)

Only b

2)

Only b & d

3)

Only a & b
4)

Only a & c

@luie_papers_aiats

Q131:

In human females, the inner glandular layer of uterus

1)

Exhibits strong contractions during the delivery of the baby

2)

Undergoes cyclical changes during the course of menstrual cycle

3)

Is not the site of implantation

4)

Is avascular and unstretchable

@luie_papers_aiats

Q132:

Which of the following sets is categorised as chemical contraceptives?

1)

Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams

2)

Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults

3)

Progestasert, LNG-20 and Multiload-375

4)

Lippes loop, jellies and foams

@luie_papers_aiats

Q133:

How many of the bones mentioned in the box below have similar pattern of arrangement
in both bat and cheetah?

Humerus, radius, carpals, metacarpals, ulna, phalanges

Choose the correct option.

1)

Three

2)

Five

3)

Six

4)

Four

@luie_papers_aiats

Q134:

The enzyme which is termed as the molecular glue is _______ whereas the enzyme which
is termed as the molecular scissor is _______. Select the correct option to fill in the
respective blanks.
1)

DNA ligase; Restriction endonuclease

2)

Restriction enzyme; DNA ligase

3)

DNA polymerase; DNA ligase

4)

DNA ligase; Reverse transcriptase

@luie_papers_aiats

Q135:

Which of the following methods/vectors can be used to insert the functional ADA cDNA
into the lymphocytes of an individual suffering from ADA deficiency?

1)

Biolistics

2)

Gene gun

3)

Disarmed retrovirus

4)

Disarmed Agrobacterium tumefaciens

@luie_papers_aiats
Q136:

Select the correct match w.r.t the events occurring during the course of pregnancy in
humans.

1)

End of the first trimester – First movements of foetus is observed

2)

During the fifth month – Eye-lids separate and eye-lashes are formed

3)

End of about 4th week – Appearance of hair on the head

4)

End of second month - Development of limbs and digits

@luie_papers_aiats

Q137:

Choose the correct match w.r.t number of bones present in an adult human.

1)

Facial bones- 22

2)

Vertebral column - 24

3)

False ribs - 4

4)

Palm bones in one forelimb - 5

 @luie_papers_aiats

Q138:

Select the correct statement w.r.t. human heart.

1)

AV bundle continues just after the Purkinje fibers and emerges on the top of the
interventricular septum.

2)

It is neurogenic in nature, not myogenic

3)

The mitral valve regulates the flow of oxygenated blood from the atria to the ventricle.

4)

The conduction of impulses is initiated only by the AV node.

@luie_papers_aiats

Q139:

Major difference between enzyme and inorganic catalysts is

1)

Former works efficiently on all range of temperatures

2)

Latter works efficiently at high temperature and high pressure

3)

Former works only at 95°C and above that it gets inactive

4)

Latter is specific about temperature and would not work above 40°C

@luie_papers_aiats

Q140:

Binding of a hormone to its receptor leads to the formation of a hormone-receptor

complex. Which of the following hormones do not form this complex inside the cell?

1)

Estrogen

2)

Progesterone

3)

Oxytocin

4)

Androgens

@luie_papers_aiats

Q141:

Natural selection in which more individuals acquire peripheral character values at both
ends of the distribution curve is called

1) Stabilising selection

2) Directional selection

3) Disruptive selection

4) Cyclic selection

@luie_papers_aiats
Q142:

Read the given statements w.r.t humans:

(a) Decline in hCG leads to regression of corpus luteum in a pregnant female.

(b) All contraceptive pills contain steroidal preparations and cause ovulation but no
menstruation.

(c) Hydrolytic secretions from acrosome of sperms results in insemination.

(d) Level of gonadotrophins increases markedly upon removal of ovaries.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

1)

One

2)

Three

3)

Two

4)

Four

@luie_papers_aiats
Q143:

Read the following statements w.r.t mammals

(a) They have two pairs of limbs.
(b) Their skin possess hair.
(c) They have heterodont dentition.
(d) Fertilization is internal and they are always viviparous.
Choose the option that correctly mentions above statements as true (T) or false (F).

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) T T F F
(2) T T T F
(3) T F F T
(4) F T T F

1)

(1)

2)

(2)

3)

(3)

4)

(4)

@luie_papers_aiats

Q144:

In patients suffering from AIDS, the virus destroys majorly

1)

B-lymphocytes
2)

Helper T-cells

3)

Macrophages

4)

NK cells

@luie_papers_aiats

Q145:

Match column I and column II w.r.t enzymes required for isolation of genetic material.

Column I Column II
a. Bacteria (i) Cellulase
b. Plant cell (ii) Chitinase
c. Fungus (iii) Lysozyme

Choose the correct option

1)

a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

2)

a(i), b(ii), c(iii)

3)

a(ii), b(i), c(iii)

4)

a(iii), b(ii), c(i)

@luie_papers_aiats
Q146:

The value of pO2 in deoxygenated blood is equal to the value of

1)

pCO2 in atmospheric air

2)

pO2 in alveoli

3)

pCO2 in deoxygenated blood

4)

pCO2 in oxygenated blood

@luie_papers_aiats

Q147:

Choose a correct statement about the digestive system of frog.

1)

Bile of frog is responsible for the emulsification of proteins.

2)

Frog captures food by bilobed tongue attached with buccal cavity at anterior end.

3)

Bile juice and pancreatic juices transfer into alimentary canal by a common duct which
opens into last part of small intestine.
4)

Gall bladder is absent in frogs.

@luie_papers_aiats

Q148:

The normal leucocyte count per mm3 of blood in case of humans is

1)

5-5.5 million

2)

6000-8000

3)

1,50,000-3,50,000

4)

25,000-30,000

@luie_papers_aiats

Q149:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Proteins are very sensitive towards any pH deviation from their optimum
level.

Reason (R): Proteins are homopolymers of amino acids in which the ionizable –NH2 and
–COOH groups are present.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
1)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

2)

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

3)

(A) is true but (R) is false

4)

(A) is false but (R) is true

@luie_papers_aiats

Q150:

How many visual units are found in both the compound eyes of a cockroach?

1) 2000

2) 4000

3) 1000

4) 20000

@luie_papers_aiats

Q151:

In which of the following the genus name, its two characters and respective phylum is not
correctly matched?

Genus name Characters Phylum

(1) Wuchereria Tissue level of organisation, monoecious Aschelminthes
(2) Culex Internal fertilisation, bilateral symmetry Arthropoda
(3) Pila Mouth contains radula, feather like gills in mantle cavity Mollusca
(4) Echinus Water vascular system, indirect development Echinodermata
1)

(1)

2)

(2)

3)

(3)

4)

(4)

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Q152:

A branch of renal artery forming the glomerulus is

1)

Efferent arteriole

2)

Afferent arteriole

3)

Vasa recta

4)

Peritubular capillary network

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Q153:

When a restriction endonuclease ‘X’ cuts a DNA molecule, the cuts are uneven so that the
DNA fragments have single-stranded ends. These ends are useful in recombinant DNA
technology because

1)

They work as starting point for DNA replication

2)

Only single stranded DNA segments can code for proteins

3)

They enable researchers to use the fragments as molecular probe

4)

The fragments will bond to other DNA fragments with complementary ends easily

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Q154:

The Graafian follicle ruptures to release the _________ from the ovary by a process called
ovulation

1)

Primary oocyte

2)

Secondary oocyte

3)

Secondary follicle
4)

Tertiary follicle

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Q155:

Read the following statements and select the correct option stating which ones are true
(T) and which ones are false (F).

a. In RNAi, foreign DNA introduced in the host plant directly prevents the transcription of
parasitic RNA.

b. Transgenic sheep Rosie produced human protein-enriched milk.

c. ADA deficiency could be permanently cured if gene isolated from marrow cells
producing ADA is introduced into stem cells at early embryonic stage.

d. At present about 30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved globally.

1)

a(F), b(F), c(T), d(T)

2)

a(T), b(F), c(T), d(T)

3)

a(F), b(T), c(F), d(T)

4)

a(T), b(F), c(F), d(T)

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Q156:

Prophase is marked by the

1)

Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material

2)

Duplication of centrosome

3)

Duplication of cell organelles

4)

Development of nuclear envelope

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Q157:

Homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their

centromeres. This statement holds true for

1)

Mitotic anaphase

2)

Anaphase I

3)

Anaphase II

4)

Mitotic telophase

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Q158:

A tetrad
(a) Is a pair of two homologous chromosomes
(b) Is clearly visible in zygotene stage
(c) Consists of four chromatids

The correct one(s) is/are

1)

(a) only

2)

(a) and (c) only

3)

(b) only

4)

(a) and (b) only

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Q159:

Read the given Assertion and Reason, and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): The splitting of the water molecule takes place on the inner side of
thylakoid membrane.

Reason (R): Protons or hydrogen ions that are produced by the splitting of water
accumulate within the lumen of the thylakoids.

1)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

2)

Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3)

Only Assertion is true

4)

Both Assertion and Reason are false

@luie_papers_aiats

Q160:

Study the given pedigree chart and choose the correct option regarding it.

1)

The trait under the study can be Haemophilia

2)

Both parents are heterozygous for the trait

3)

The genotype of (P) can be Aa and shows myotonic dystrophy

4)

Female (Q) and (R) are not affected because parents are not carrying the trait

@luie_papers_aiats
Q161:
' '
RNA formed from the transcription of DNA has base sequence 5 AUUAUGAAA 3 . What
would be the sequence of coding strand of DNA?

1)
' '
5 AUUAUGAAA 3

2)
' '
3 UAAUACUUU 5

3)
' '
5 ATTATGAAA 3

4)
' '
3 AUUAUGAAA 5

@luie_papers_aiats

Q162:

Match the following columns and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

a. RNA polymerase II (i) Addition of adenylate residues at 3' end

b. Tailing of hnRNA (ii) Required for termination of transcription

c. ρ factor in prokaryotes (iii) Removal of introns and joining of exons

d. Splicing (iv) Catalyse the synthesis of primary transcript

1)

a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)

2)

a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

3)

a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

4)

a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

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Q163:

Choose the wrong statement regarding Trichoderma.

1)

It is an alga and used as biofertiliser

2)

It is free living fungus

3)

It is very common in root ecosystem

4)

It is an effective biocontrol agent

@luie_papers_aiats
Q164:

Amongst animals, the most species rich taxonomic group is of

1)

Birds

2)

Insects

3)

Fishes

4)

Mammals

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Q165:

Select the mismatched pair.

(1) Collenchyma – Assimilates food when contains chloroplasts

(2) Sclerenchyma – Lignified cell wall has few or numerous pits

(3) Parenchyma – Intercellular spaces are never present

(4) Sclereids – Spherical, oval or cylindrical cells

1)

1
2)

3)

4)

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Q166:

State true (T) or false (F) for the given statements and select the correct option.

(A) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear division and two cycles of DNA
replication to form four daughter cells.

(B) During pachytene, crossing over occurs between the non-sister chromatids of the
homologous chromosomes.

(C) In oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene can last for months or years.

(A) (B) (C)

(1) T T F
(2) T F T
(3) F T T
(4) F T F

1)

(1)

2)

(2)

3)

(3)
4)

(4)

@luie_papers_aiats

Q167:

Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Krebs cycle.

1)

During conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinic acid substrate level phosphorylation occurs

2)

It occurs in mitochondrial matrix

3)

In this cycle, there are three steps where decarboxylation occur

4)

During this cycle, FAD is reduced to FADH2

@luie_papers_aiats

Q168:

Aeration tank in sewage treatment plant

1)

Involves tertiary treatment of effluents by reverse osmosis

2)

Has vigorous growth of only prokaryotic microbes

3)

Is a part of secondary treatment involving aerobic microbes

4)

Involves sequential filtration and sedimentation of sewage

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Q169:

The intrinsic rate of natural increase in population is called

1)

Standing state

2)

Carrying capacity

3)

Standing crop

4)

Biotic potential

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Q170:

Ecological pyramid is upright w.r.t.

a. Number of organisms in terrestrial ecosystem.

b. Biomass of organisms in all aquatic ecosystem.

c. Number of organisms in aquatic ecosystem.

d. Energy present at different trophic levels.

e. Number of organisms in a single tree ecosystem.

The correct ones are

1)

a, c and d

2)

Only a and e

3)

Only a and b

4)

c, d and e

@luie_papers_aiats

Q171:

Which of the following is true for Australopithecus?

1)

Brain capacity – 650 to 800 cc

2)

First human-like being the hominid

3)

Two mya, they probably lived in Africa

4)

Developed pre-historic cave art

@luie_papers_aiats

Q172:

A secondary metabolite which can also be used as a drug is

1)

Monoterpene

2)

Diterpene

3)

Vinblastin

4)

Carotenoid

@luie_papers_aiats
Q173:

Read the following statements.

a. Medical termination of pregnancy during second trimester is always safe.

b. The test-tube baby programme includes zygote intra fallopian transfer technique.

c. The females who cannot produce ovum but wants to conceive can opt for gamete intra
fallopian transfer technique.

d. Copper-releasing intra uterine devices cause increased phagocytosis of sperms.

Choose the option with only correct statement(s).

1)

Only a and b

2)

Only c and d

3) Only a

4)

Only b, c and d

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Q174:

Read the following statements.

Statement A: A closed circulatory system is more advantageous than an open circulatory

system.

Statement B: Fluid can be more precisely regulated in a closed circulatory system as

compared to an open circulatory system.

Select the correct option.

1)

Both statements A and B are correct

2)

Both statements A and B are incorrect

3)

Only statement A is correct

4)

Only statement B is correct

@luie_papers_aiats

Q175:

Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t gel electrophoresis?

1)

Without the gel, if DNA is run under an electric field, then separation of DNA fragments of
different molecular weights will not occur.

2)

DNA, which is a negatively charged molecule, moves toward the cathode under an electric
field.

3)

Smaller DNA fragments move faster than the larger fragments in the gel.

4)

Ethidium bromide is used to visualise DNA.

@luie_papers_aiats

Q176:

The stress hormones which are secreted from the adrenal medulla in case of emergency
1)

Are amino acid-derivatives by their chemical nature

2)

Stimulate the process of glycogenesis and inhibit proteolysis

3)

Cause pupillary constriction and a decrease in the rate of heart beat

4)

Initiate deep breathing and decreases the rate of respiration

@luie_papers_aiats

Q177:

Which of the of following initiates the process of RNAi in the nematode [Link]
infecting the transgenic tobacco plant?

1)

ssRNA

2)

mRNA

3)

dsDNA

4)

dsRNA

@luie_papers_aiats
Q178:

Select the correct option w.r.t humans.

1)

The spinal cord passes through the neural canal present in each vertebra.

2)

Have monocondylic skull where the axis articulates with the occipital condyles.

3)

The femur articulates with the glenoid cavity formed by the fusion of ilium, ischium and
pubis.

4)

The pelvic girdle meets dorsally to form the pubic symphysis containing fibrous cartilage.

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Q179:

Assertion (A) : All venereal diseases are completely curable.

Reason (R) : All Venereal diseases can be detected and cured at any stage.

In the light of above statements, select the correct option.

1)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

2)

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

3)

(A) is true statement but (R) is false

4)

Both (A) and (R) are false statements

@luie_papers_aiats

Q180:

Given is the structure of an immunoglobulin molecule. Identify labelled parts P, Q, R and S

Select the option which represents P, Q, R and S correctly.

P Q R S
(1) Antigen binding site Disulphide bond Light chain Heavy chain
(2) Antibody binding site Glycosidic bond Light chain Heavy chain
(3) Antigen binding site Disulphide bond Heavy chain Light chain
(4) Antibody binding site Phos­phodiester bond Heavy chain Light chain

1)

(1)

2)

(2)

3)

(3)

4)

(4)
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