Biotechnology : Principles and Processes

Class 12 Chapter 11
NEET PYQ 2013-24

NEET 2013

Qu = 1 DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction

can be separated by
(a) electrophoresis
(b) restriction mapping
(c) centrifugation
(d) polymerase chain reaction.

Qu = 2 The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-
recombinant bacteria because of
(a) insertional inactivation of alpha galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
(b) inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria

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(c) non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase

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(d) insertional inactivation of alpha galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria.
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Qu = 3 Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall
degrading enzyme?
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(a) Algae – Methylase

(b) Fungi – Chitinase
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(c) Bacteria – Lysozyme

(d) Plant cells – Cellulase

NEET 2013 (Karnataka)

B
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Qu = 4 During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled ethanol is added to

(a) precipitate DNA
(b) break open the cell to release DNA
(c) facilitate action of restriction enzymes
(d) remove proteins such as histones.

NEET 2014

Qu = 5 Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA?

(a) Bacterial artificial chromosome
(b) Yeast artificial chromosome
(c) Plasmid
(d) Cosmid

Qu = 6 Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are

(a) T - DNA
(b) BAC and YAC
(c) expression vectors
(d) T/A cloning vectors
Qu = 7 An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the Southern hybridization technique does
not use
(a) electrophoresis
(b) blotting
(c) autoradiography
(d) PCR

Qu = 8 In vitro clonal propagation in plants is characterized by

(a) PCR and RAPD
(b) Northern blotting
(c) electrophoresis and HPLC
(d) microscopy

NEET 2015

Qu = 9 The introduction of T-DNA into plants involves

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(a) exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
(b) allowing the plant roots to stand in water

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(c) infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
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(d) altering the pH of the soil, then heat-shocking the plants.
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Qu = 10 The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called
(a) template
(b) carrier
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(c) transformer
(d) vector
B

Qu = 11 The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of
(a) selectable markers
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(b) ligases
(c) restriction enzymes
(d) probes

NEET 2015 (Cancelled)

No Question

NEET 2016 (Phase I)

Qu = 12 The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from

(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) Pseudomonas putida
(c) Thermus aquaticus
(d) Thiobacillus ferroxidans.
Qu = 13 Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids ?
(a) Transferable
(b) Single-stranded
(c) Independent replication
(d) Circular structure

Qu = 14 Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease ?

(a) DNase I (b) RNase
(c) Hind II (d) Protease

NEET 2016 (Phase II)

Qu = 15 A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined
to form a recombinant plasmid using
(a) EcoRI
(b) Taq polymerase
(c) polymerase III

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(d) ligase.

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Qu = 16 Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends ?
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(a) Sal I (b) Eco R V
(c) Xho I (d) Hind III
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Qu = 17 Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for

(a) purification of product
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(b) addition of preservatives to the product

(c) availability of oxygen throughout the process
(d) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel.
B

Qu = 18 Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?

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(a) Separation
(b) Purification
(c) Preservation
(d) Expression

Ques 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Ans a a a a c b d a c d
Ques 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Ans c c b c d b c d
 NEET 2017 NEET 2019
Qu -1 The process of separation and Qu - 6 Which one of the following
purification of expressed protein before equipments is essentially required for
marketing is called growing microbes on a large scale, for
(a) upstream processing industrial production of enzymes ?
(b) downstream processing (a) Sludge digester (b) Industrial oven
(c) bio processing (c) Bioreactor (d) BOD incubator
(d) post production processing
Qu -7 The following statements describe the
Qu -2 What is the criterion for DNA characteristics of the enzyme Restriction
fragments movement on agrose gel during Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect
gel electrophoresis ? statement.
(a) The larger the fragment size, the farther it (a) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites
moves and cuts only one of the two strands
(b) the smaller the fragment size, the farther (b) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate
it moves backbone at specific sites on each strand

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(c) Positively charged fragments move to (c) The enzyme recognizes a specific
farther end
(d) Negatively charged fragments do not
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palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA
(d) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at
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move identified position within the DNA
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Qu -3 A gene, whose expression helps to NEET 2019 (Odisha)

identify transformed cells is known as
(a) selectable marker (b) vector Qu – 8 A selectable marker is used to :
ed

(c) plasmid (d) structural gene (a) Mark a gene on a chromosome for
isolation using restriction enzyme
Qu -4 The DNA fragments separated on an (b) Help in eliminating the non
B

agarose gel can be visualized after staining transformants, so that the transformants can
with be regenerated
IM

(a) bromo phenol blue (c) Identify the gene for a desired trait in an
(b) aceto carmine alien organism
(c) aniline blue (d) Select a suitable vector for transformation
(d) ethidium bromide in a specific crop

NEET 2018 Qu – 9 The two antibiotic resistance genes on

vector pBR322 are for
Qu -5 The correct order of steps in (1) Tetracycline and Kanamycin
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is (2) Ampicillin and Tetracycline
(a) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing (3) Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
(b) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation (4) Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline
(c) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(d) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension:
 NEET 2020
Qu – 10 Given below are four statements Qu- 13 In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA
pertaining to separation of DNA fragments fragments can be visualized with the help of
using Gel electrophoresis. Identify the (a) Aceto carmine in bright blue light
incorrect statements. (b) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(1) DNA is negatively charged molecule and (c) Aceto carmine in UV radiation
so it is loaded on gel towards the Anode (d) Ethidium bromide in infra red radiation
terminal.
(2) DNA fragments travel along the surface of Qu – 14 Identify the wrong statement with
the gel whose concentration does not regard to Restriction Enzymes.
affect movement of DNA. (a) Each restriction enzyme functions by
(3) Smaller the size of DNA fragment, larger inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
is the distance it travels through it. (b) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
(4) Pure DNA can be visualized directly by sites.
exposing to UV radiation. (c) They are useful in genetic engineering.
Choose correct answer from the options (d) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA

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given below : ligases.
(a) (1), (2) and (4)
(c) (1), (2) and (3)
(b) (1), (3) and (4)
(d) (2), (3) and (4)
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Qu – 15 The sequence that controls the copy
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number of the linked DNA in the vector, is
Qu -11 An enzyme catalysing the removal of termed
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nucleotides from ends of DNA is : (a) Selectable marker

(a) Protease (b) DNA ligase (b) Ori site
(c) Endonuclease (d) Exonuclease (c) Palindromic sequence
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(d) Recognition site

Qu – 12 Match the following enzymes with
their functions: Qu – 16 Choose the correct pair from the
B

A. Restriction (i) Joins the DNA following

endonuclease fragments (a) Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules
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(b) Polymerases – Break the DNA into

B. Restriction (ii) Extends primers fragments
exonuclease on genomic DNA (c) Nucleases - Separate the two strands of
template DNA
C. DNA ligase (iii) Cuts DNA at (d) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
specific position positions within DNA
D. Tag polymerase (iv) Removes
nucleotides from Qu – 17 The specific palindromic sequence
the ends of DNA which is recognized by EcoRI is
Select the correct option from the following:
(a) A (ii), B (iv), C (i), D (iii) (a) 5 -GAATTC-3, 3 -CTTAAG-5
(b) A (iii), B (i), C (iv), D (ii) (b) 5 -GGAACC-3, 3 -CCTTGG-5
(c) A (iii), B (iv), C (i), D (ii) (c) 5 -CTTAAG-3, 3 -GAATTC-5
(d) A (iv), B (iii), C (i), D (ii) (d) 5 -GGATCC-3, 3 -CCTAGG-5
Qu- 18 Match the organism with its use in Qu – 22 Match the following techniques or
biotechnology. instruments with their usage.
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis (i) Cloning vector (1) Bioreacter (i) Separation of DNA
(2) Thermus aquaticus (ii) Construction of fragments
first rDNA molecule (2) Eletrophoresis (ii) Production of large
(3) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase quantities of products
tumefaciens (3) PCR (iii) Amplification of
(4) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins nucleic acid
typhimurium (4) ELISA (iv) Detection of
pathogen, based on
(1) (2) (3) (4) antigen-antibody rxn
(a) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(b) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (a) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (b) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(d) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (d) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

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NEET 2020 (Phase II)

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Qu – 23 Spooling is
(a) Cutting of separated DNA bands from the
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Qu – 19 First discovered restriction agarose gel
endonuclease that always cuts DNA molecule (b) Transfer of separated DNA fragments to
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at a particular point by recognising a specific synthetic membranes

sequence of six base pairs is (c) Collection of isolated DNA
(a) Adenosine deaminase (d) Amplification of DNA
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(b) Thermostable DNA polymerase

(c) Hind II Qu – 24 Select the correct statement from the
(d) EcoR I following
B

(a) The polymerase enzyme joins the gene of

Qu – 20 In a mixture, DNA fragments are interest and the vector DNA
IM

separated by : (b) Restriction enzyme digestions are

(a) Restriction digestion performed by incubating purified DNA
(b) Electrophoresis molecules with the restriction enzymes of
(c) Polymerase Chain reaction optimum conditions.
(d) Bioprocess engineering (c) PCR is used for isolation and separation of
gene of intreset.
Qu – 21 In Recombination DNA technology (d) Gel electrophoresis is used for
antibiotics are used : amplification of a DNA segment.
(a) to detect alien DNA
(b) to impart disease-resistance to the host
plant
(c) as selectable marker
(d) to keep medium bacteria free
 NEET 2021

Qu = 25 Which of the following is a correct Qu = 30 A specific recognition sequence

sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase identified by endonucleases to make cuts at
Chain Reaction) ? specific positions within the DNA is :
(a) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (a) Degenerate primer sequence
(b) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing (b) Okazaki sequences
(c) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing (c) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
(d) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension (d) Poly(A) tail sequences

Qu = 26 During the purification process for Qu = 31 During the process of gene

recombinant DNA technology, addition of amplification using PCR, if very high
chilled ethanol precipitates out: temperature is not maintained in the
(a) RNA (b) DNA beginning, then which of the following steps
(c) Histones (d) Polysaccharides of PCR will be affected first ?
(a) Annealing (b) Extension

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Qu = 27 Which of the following is not an (c) Denaturation (d) Ligation
application of PCR (Polymerase Chain
Reaction) ?
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(a) Molecular diagnosis
(b) Gene amplification Qu = 32 Which one of the following
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(c) Purification of isolated protein statement is not true regarding gel

(d) Detection of gene mutation electrophoresis technique?
(a) Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can
ed

Qu = 28 DNA strands on a gel stained with be observed in the gel when exposed to UV
ethidium bromide when viewed under UV light.
radiation, appear as : (b) The process of extraction of separated
B

(a) Yellow bands DNA strands from gel is called elution.

(b) Bright orange bands (c) The separated DNA fragments are stained
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(c) Dark red bands by using ethidium bromide.

(d) Bright blue bands (d) The presence of chromogenic substrate
gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.
Qu = 29 Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction
enzyme site within gene ampR that confers Qu = 33 In the following palindromic base
ampicillin resistance. sequences of DNA, which one can be cut
If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for easily by particular restriction enzyme ?
β-galactoside production and the
recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli (a) - 5' G T A T T C 3' ; 3' C A T A A G 5'
strain (b) - 5' G A T A C T 3' ; 3' C T A T G A 5'
(a) it will not be able to confer ampicillin (c) - 5' G A A T T C 3' ; 3' C T T A A G 5'
resistance to the host cell. (d) - 5' C T C A G T 3' ; 3' G A G T C A 5'
(b) the transformed cells will have the ability
to resist ampicillin as well as produce -
galactoside.
(c) it will lead to lysis of host cell.
(d) it will be able to produce a novel protein
with dual ability.
Qu = 34 Given below are two statements: one NEET 2023
is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R). Qu = 37 During the purification process for
Assertion (A): Polymerase chain reaction is recombinant DNA technology, addition of
used in DNA amplification chilled ethanol precipitates out
Reason (R): The ampicillin resistant gene is (1) DNA (2) Histones
used as a selectable marker to check (3) Polysaccharides (4) RNA
transformation
Qu = 38 In gene gun method used to
In the light of the above statements, choose introduce alien DNA into host cells,
the correct answer from the options given microparticles of ________ metal are used.
below. (1) Zinc (2) Tungsten or gold
(a) - (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (3) Silver (4) Copper
(b) - Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) Qu = 39 Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA

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(c) - Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not stained with ethidium bromide will show
the correct explanation of (A)
(d) - (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
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(1) Bright blue colour
(2) Bright yellow colour
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(3) Bright orange colour
Qu = 35 Which of the following is not a (4) Bright red colour
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desirable feature of a cloning vector ?

(a) Presence of two or more recognition sites Qu = 40 Main steps in the formation of
(b) Presence of origin of replication Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange
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(c) Presence of a marker gene these steps in a correct sequence.

(d) Presence of single restriction enzyme site A Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host
cell
B

Qu = 36 Given below are two statements: B Cutting of DNA at specific location by

Statement I: Restriction endonucleases restriction enzyme
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recognise specific sequence to cut DNA C Isolation of desired DNA fragment

known as palindromic nucleotide sequence. D Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut
the DNA strand a little away from the centre Choose the correct answer from the options
of the palindromic site given below :
(1) C, A, B, D (2) C, B, D, A
In the light of the above statements, choose (3) B, D, A, C (4) B, C, D, A
the most appropriate answer from the
options given below.
(a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(c) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
 NEET 2023 (Manipur)
Qu = 45 Which of the following can act as
Qu = 41 Ligation of foreign DNA at which of molecular scissors?
the following site will result in loss of (1) RNA polymerase
tetracycline resistance of pBR322? (2) DNA polymerase
(1) EcoR I (3) Restriction enzymes
(2) BamH I (4) DNA ligase
(3) Pst I
(4) Pvu I NEET 2024

Qu = 42 Thermostable DNA polymerase used Qu = 46 Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at

in PCR was isolated from : a particular point called recognition
(1) Agrobacterium tumifaciens sequence and it consists of:
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis (1) 8 bp (2) 6 bp
(3) Thermus aquaticus (3) 4 bp (4) 10 bp

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(4) Escherichia coli

Qu = 43 Match List-I with List-II.

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Qu = 47 What is the fate of a piece of DNA
carrying only gene of interest which is
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List-I List-II transferred into an alien organism?
(A) Kanamycin (I) Delivers genes into A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply
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animal cells itself independently in the progeny cells of

(B) ClaI (II) Selectable marker the organism.
(C) Disarmed (III) Restriction site
B. It may get integrated into the genome of
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retroviruses
the recipient.
(D) Kanamycin Rgene (IV) Antibiotic resistance
C. It may multiply and be inherited along
with the host DNA.
Choose the correct answer from the options
B

D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral

given below.
part of chromosome.
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(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

E. It shows ability to replicate.
(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
given below:
(1) A and B only (2) D and E only
Qu = 44 Which of the following statement is
(3) B and C only (4) A and E only
incorrect about Agrobacterium tumifaciens?
(1) It transforms normal plant cells into
Qu = 48 The “Ti plasmid” of Agrobacterium
tumorous cells.
tumefaciens stands for
(2) It delivers ‘T-DNA’ into plant cell.
(1) Tumour inhibiting plasmid
(3) It is used to deliver gene of interest in
(2) Tumor independent plasmid
both prokaryotic as well as eukaryotic host
(3) Tumor inducing plasmid
cells.
(4) Temperature independent plasmid
(4) ‘Ti’ plasmid from Agrobacterium
tumifaciens used for gene transfer is not
pathogenic to plant cells.
Qu = 49 Which of the following statements is Qu = 50 The following diagram showing
incorrect? restriction sites in E. coli cloning vector
(1) A bio-reactor provides optimal growth pBR322. Find the role of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ genes :
conditions for achieving the desired product
(2) Most commonly used bio-reactors are of
stirring type
(3) Bio-reactors are used to produce small
scale bacterial cultures
(4) Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an
oxygen delivery system and foam control
system

(1) The gene ‘X’ is responsible for resistance

to antibiotics and ‘Y’ for protein involved in

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the replication of Plasmid.

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(2) The gene ‘X’ is responsible for controlling
the copy number of the linked DNA and ‘Y’ for
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protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
(3) The gene ‘X’ is for protein involved in
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replication of Plasmid and ‘Y’ for resistance to

antibiotics.
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(4) Gene ’X’ is responsible for recognitions

sites and ‘Y’ is responsible for antibiotic
resistance.
B
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Quest 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans b b a d d c a b b a
Quest 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans d c b d b a a a c b
Quest 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans c c c b a b c b a c
Quest 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans c d c c a b 1 2 3 2
Quest 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans 2 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 3 2