Preparation Course

1. A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets

should be told to store the medication:
a) In the refrigerator.
b) In a plastic vial with a childproof cap.
c) With the original cotton.
d) In an amber glass bottle with a metal cap.

2. Solid dosage forms are better than Solution dosage

form because of all except:
a- Accurate dose
b- Easy to handle
c- More stable
d- Faster action

3. Controlled released drug delivery depends on:

a- Body fluid interaction
b- Enzymatic reactions
c- Ready programmed & no influence of the body fluid
d- Stomach PH

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4. The maximum volume that should be given as a single
intramuscular injection at one site is:
a. 20 mL
b. 0.1 mL
c. 1.0 mL
d. 5mL

5. Constituents of calamine lotion BP include calamine

and:
a. Aluminium oxide
b. Sodium chloride
c. Zinc oxide
d. Magnesium hydroxide

6. The use of a suspension as a parenteral preparation is

contraindicated when the route of administration is:
a. Subcutaneous
b. Intramuscular
c. Intravenous
d. Intradermal

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7. When a drug is administered as a solid oral dosage
form, the first process that occurs is:
a. Absorption
b. Disintegration
c. Dissolution
d. Ionisation

8. Factors that affect drug absorption include all EXCEPT:

a. Drug half-life
b. Gastric motility
c. Blood flow
d. Food intake
e. pH at absorption site

9. The volume of distribution of a drug describes:

a. The apparent distribution of the drug in the body
b. The concentration of the drug in plasma
c. The volume of plasma that is cleared from the body
d. The concentration of the drug in blood

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10. Enteric coated tablets
a. pass the stomach and release in the intestine
b. pass the stomach and intestine
c. release in the stomach
d. bypass the 1st pass metabolism.

11. Tween 20 is:

a. Deflocoulant
b. Lipophilic surfactant
c. Preservative
d. Hydrophilic surfactant

12. Natural emulsifying agent is:

a. Span
b. Acacia
c. Tween
d. Sodium laurayl sulphate

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13. Injection in spinal fluid called:
a. Intrathecal injection
b. Intramuscular
c. Intrapretonial
d. Intraarticular

14. Ophthalmic solutions should be formulated to include

which of the following?
a. Sterility
b. Isotonicity
c. Buffering
d. All of the above

15. The appropriate PH range for ophthalmic products is

a. 2.0 to 3.0
b. 4.0 to 6.0
c. 6.0 to 8.0
d. 8.0 to 10.0

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16. Drugs to pass B.B.B. should be:
a. Unionized hydrophilic.
b. Ionized hydrophilic.
c. Unionized lipophilic.
d. Ionized lipophilic

17. Most common process for sterilization: -

a. Filtration
b. Dry heat
c. Moist heat
d. Radiation

18. Drug after metabolized in liver it will become: -

a. Polar
b. Non polar
c. Lipophilic
d. Insoluble

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19. Infusion of hypotonic solution in blood cause:
a. Shrinking of blood cell
b. Haemolysis
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Hypoglycemia

20. (GMP) mean: -

a. Good Manufacturing Protocol or Good
Manufacturing Practice
b. Good Manu factor Product
c. General Manufacturing Protocol
d. General Manufacturing Product

21. One of following NOT used to cover bitter taste: -

a. Film coat
b. Enteric coat
c. Grinding of tablet
d. Capsule

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22. Aspartame is used as………
a. Binder
b. Diluent
c. Sweetner
d. Lubricating agent

23. The property of a solution that depends on the

number of the solute particles in solution is known as
a. Constitutive property
b. Additive property
c. Colligative property
d. Both colligative property and additive property
____________________________________________________

24. Cellulose acetate phthalate is used in pharmacy as a

(an)
a. Emulsifier
b. Enteric coating material
c. Suspending agent
d. Excipient

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25. Cocoa butter (Theobroma oil) is used as an
suppository base because of its
a. Solubility
b. Melting point
c. Miscibility
d. Reactivity

26. Vanishing creams are classified as

a. Oleaginous
b. Absorption bases
c. Water soluble
d. O/w base

27. Which of the following is a true statement regarding

transdermal delivery system
a. Product from different manufacturer require identical
amount of the active ingredient to yield equivalent
response
b. Skin thickness is not a factor in drug absorption
c. The transdermal unit should always be placed at the
same site
d. The transdermal unit contains more drug than is needed
for delivery into the body over the prescribed the period
of us

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28. The process of rubbing or grinding a substance in a
mortar is called
a. Trituration
b. Speculation
c. Levigation
d. Coating

29. Cocoa butter (Theobroma oil) exhibits all the following

properties except that
a. It melts between 33 and 35 degrees centigrade
b. It is a mixture of glycerides
c. It is useful in formulating suppositories
d. It is soluble in water

30. Which one of the following chemicals is not suitable as

drug excipient?
a. Methyl paraben
b. Starch
c. Glycerine
d. Benzocaine

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31. The term “impalpable” refers to a substance that is
a. Bad tasting
b. Not perceptible to the touch
c. Greasy
d. Non greasy

32. Benzalkonium chloride is germicidal surfactant that is

rendered inactive in the presence of
a. Organic acids
b. Gram negative organisms
c. Cationic surfactants
d. Soaps

33. What is the approximate maximum volume of fluid

that should be administered daily by intravenous infusion
to stabilized patient?
a. 1 L
b. 4L
c. 8L
d. 12L

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34. Which one of the following chemicals is not suitable
for use as an antioxidant?
a. Ascorbyl palmitate
b. Ascorbic acid
c. Butylated hydroxytoluene
d. Chlorobutanol
e. Vitamin E

35. Which of the following is not used primarily as

diluents in tablet formulations?
a. Magnesium stearate
b. Dicalcium phosphate
c. Lactose
d. Mannitol

36. Which of the following is not a function of the

lubricant in a tablet formulation?
a. Improves flow properties of granules
b. Reduces powder adhesion on to the dies and
punches
c. Improves tablet wetting in the stomach
d. Reduces punches and die wear

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37. A sweetener that is widely employed in chewable
tablet formulas id
a. Aspartame
b. Glucose
c. Lactose
d. Mannitol
e. Sucrose

38. Benzyl alcohol is present in some parentral solutions

as an
a. Antimicrobial preservatives
b. Antioxidant
c. Chelating agent
d. Buffering agent

39. Colligative properties are useful in determining

a. Tonicity
b. pH
c. solubility
d. stability

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40. Which of the following statements concerning the
blood protein albumin are/is true?
a. It is a very site-specific binding agent
b. Blood levels are approximately 3.5 to 5.0 g/L
c. It will generally bind acidic drugs
d. It will generally bind basic drugs

41. The pharmacokinetic parameter known as clearance

is essentially the
a. Rate at which the plasma is cleared of all waste
materials and foreign substances eg. Drug
b. Volume of the blood that passes through the
kidneys per unit of time
c. Volume of blood that passes through the liver per
unit of time
d. Volume of blood that is completely cleared of drug
per unit of time

42. Which of the following sugar has bitter taste

a. Glucose
b. Sucrose
c. Saccharine
d. None

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43. The term ‘prodrug’ refers to a
a. Chemical substance that is a part of the synthesis
procedure in preparing a drug
b. Compound that liberates an active drug in the body
c. Compound that may be therapeutically active but is
still under clinical trials
d. Drug that has only prophylactic activity in the body
e. Drug that is classified as being ‘probably effective’

44. Water number means

a. Maximum amount of water that can be added to
100 g of a base at given temperature
b. Maximum amount of water that can be added to 10
g of a base at given temperature
c. Maximum amount of water that can be added to 5 g
of a base at given temperature
d. All

45. Weight of rectal suppository for adults is

a. 1 g
b. 2 g
c. 5 g
d. None

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46. You are compounding a topical preparation which
requires a vanishing cream base. Vanishing cream is best
described as:
a. Cold cream
b. Hydrophilic ointment
c. White petrolatum
d. Anhydrous lanolin

47. Acetaminophen toxicity most well-known complication

is:
a. Cardiovascular failure
b. Pulmonary edema
c. Liver necrosis
d. CNS lethargy

48. A patient who has over dosed on diazepam would best

be treated with:
a. Flumazenil
b. Fomepizole
c. Naloxone
d. Pralidoxime chloride

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49. The mandatory first steps in the initial management of
drug ingestions are:
a. Evaluating and supporting vital functions
b. Identifying the agent responsible for the
poisoning.
c. Laboratory assessment
d. Obtaining past medical history of the patient

50. All the following are true about dialysis EXCEPT:

a. Substances that are removed by hemodialysis
generally are lipid soluble.
b. Most of the Substances removed by hemodialysis
have low molecular weight and small volume of
distribution.
c. It is indicated for life threatening ingestions of
ethylene glycol, methanol or paraquat.
d. B and C

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1 d 26 d
2 d 27 d
3 c 28 a
4 d 29 d
5 c 30 d
6 c 31 b
7 b 32 d
8 a 33 b
9 a 34 d
10 a 35 a
11 d 36 c
12 b 37 d
13 a 38 a
14 d 39 a
15 c 40 c
16 c 41 d
17 c 42 c
18 a 43 b
19 b 44 a
20 a 45 b
21 c 46 b
22 c 47 c
23 c 48 a
24 b 49 a
25 b 50 a

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