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15. A radio beacon has a range of 10 NM. By what factor should the power be increased 22. In a conventional VOR the reference signal and the variable signal have a 30 Hz
to achieve a range of 20 NM? modulation. The variable signal modulation is produced by:

a. 16 a. adding 30 Hz to the transmitted signal

b. 2 b. a 30 Hz rotation producing a 30 Hz modulation
c. 4 c. varying the amplitude up and down at +/-30 Hz
d. 8 d. using Doppler techniques to produce a 30 Hz amplitude modulation

16. Which of the following is the most significant error in ADF? 23. If the VOR accuracy has a limit of 1.0°, what is the maximum cross-track error at 200
NM?
a. Quadrantal error
b. Coastal refraction a. 3.0 NM
c. Precipitation static b. 2.5 NM
d. Static from Cb c. 2.0 NM
d. 3.5 NM
17. Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings?
24. What is the maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and have the
a. Static interference, height effect, lack of failure warning same identification?
b. Station interference, mountain effect, selective availability
c. Coastal refraction, slant range, night effect a. 2000 m
d. Lack of failure warning, station interference, static interference b. 60 m
c. 600 m
18. The allocated frequency coverage of NDBs is: d. 6m

a. 250 – 450 kHz 25. What is the maximum distance between VOR beacons designating the centre line of
b. 190 – 1750 kHz an airway (10 NM wide), if the expected VOR bearing error is 5.5°?
c. 108 – 117.95 MHz
d. 200 – 500 kHz a. 120 NM
b. 109 NM
19. The principle used to measure VOR bearings is: c. 60 NM
d. 54 NM
a. phase comparison
b. switched cardioids 26. In a certain VORTAC installation the VOR is coding STN and the DME is coding STZ.
c. difference in depth of modulation This means that the distance between the two beacons is in excess of:
d. pulse technique

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a. 600 m
20. When converting VOR and ADF bearings to true, the variation at the …… should be b. 100 m
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used for VOR and at the …… for ADF. c. 2000 m
d. 300 m
a. aircraft aircraft
b. aircraft station 27. Using a 5 dot CDI, how many dots would show for an aircraft on the edge of an
c. station aircraft airway at 100 NM from the VOR beacon?
d. station station
a. 5
21. An aircraft flies from a VOR at 61N 013W to 58N 013W. The variation at the beacon b. 2.5
is 13W and the variation at the aircraft is 5W. What radial is the aircraft on? c. 1.5
d. 3
a. 013
b. 005 28. The maximum range an aircraft at FL370 can receive transmissions from a VOR/DME
c. 193 at 800 ft is:
d. 187
a. 275 NM
b. 200 NM
c. 243 NM
d. 220 NM

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43. Which of the following provides distance information? 50. The aircraft DME receiver accepts replies to its own transmissions but rejects replies
to other aircraft transmissions because:
a. DME
b. VOR a. the PRF of the interrogations is unique to each aircraft
c. ADF b. the pulse pairs from each aircraft have a unique amplitude modulation
d. VDF c. the interrogation frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
d. the interrogation and reply frequencies are separated by 63 MHz
44. Which of the following would give the best indication of speed?
51. When an aircraft at FL360 is directly above a DME, at mean sea level, the range
a. A VOR on the flight plan route displayed will be:
b. A VOR off the flight plan route
c. A DME on the flight plan route a. 6 NM
d. A DME off the flight plan route b. 9 NM
c. 0
45. What happens when a DME in the search mode fails to achieve lock-on? d. 12 NM

a. It stays in the search mode, but reduces to 60 pulse pairs per second (ppps) 52. A DME frequency could be:
after 100 seconds
b. It stays in the search mode, but reduces to 60 ppps after 15 000 pulse pairs a. 10 MHz
c. It stays in the search mode at 150 ppps b. 100 MHz
d. It alternates between search and memory modes every 10 seconds c. 1000 MHz
d. 10 000 MHz
46. The most accurate measurement of speed by DME for an aircraft at 30 000 ft will be
when the aircraft is: 53. An aircraft at FL360 is 10 NM plan range from a DME. The DME reading in the aircraft
will be:
a. tracking towards the beacon at 10 NM
b. overhead the beacon a. 8 NM
c. tracking away from the beacon at 100 NM b. 11.7 NM
d. passing abeam the beacon at 5 NM c. 10 NM
d. 13.6 NM
47. A DME beacon will become saturated when more than about ............... aircraft are
interrogating the transponder. 54. A DME transceiver does not lock onto its own reflections because:

a. 10 a. the PRF of the pulse pairs is jittered

b. 50 b. it uses MTI

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c. 100 c. the interrogation and reply frequencies differ
d. 200 d. the reflections will all fall within the flyback period
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48. A typical DME frequency is: 55. What information does military TACAN provide for civil aviation users?

a. 1000 MHz a. Magnetic bearing

b. 1300 MHz b. DME
c. 1000 kHz c. Nothing
d. 1575 MHz d. DME and magnetic bearing

49. The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve lock-on a DME at MSL at a 56. The DME in an aircraft flying at FL430 shows a range of 15 NM from a beacon at an
range of 210 NM. The reason for this is: elevation of 167 ft. The plan range is:

a. the beacon is saturated a. 13.5 NM

b. the aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME b. 16.5 NM
c. the aircraft is beyond line of sight range c. 15 NM
d. the aircraft signal is too weak at that range to trigger a response d. 17.6 NM

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71. The sequence of marker colours when flying an ILS approach is: 79. Distance on MLS is measured by:

a. white, blue, amber a. measuring the time taken for the primary radar pulse to travel from the MLS
b. blue, white, amber transmitter to the aircraft receiver
c. blue, amber, white b. measuring the time taken for the secondary radar pulse to travel from the MLS
d. amber, blue, white transmitter to the aircraft receiver
c. phase comparison between the azimuth and elevation beams
72. The sensitive area of an ILS is the area aircraft may not enter when: d. co-located DME

a. ILS operations are in progress 80. Which of the following is an advantage of MLS?
b. category I ILS operations are in progress
c. category II/III ILS operations are in progress a. Can be used in inhospitable terrain
d. the ILS is undergoing calibration b. Uses the same aircraft equipment as ILS
c. Has a selective access ability
73. The ILS localizer is normally positioned: d. Is not affected by heavy precipitation

a. 300 m from the downwind end of the runway 81. The frequency band of MLS is:
b. 300 m from the threshold
c. 300 m from the upwind end of the runway a. UHF
d. 200 m abeam the threshold b. VHF
c. SHF
74. The audio frequency of the outer marker is: d. VLF

a. 3000 Hz 82. Primary radar operates on the principle of:

b. 400 Hz
c. 1300 Hz a. transponder interrogation
d. 1000 Hz b. pulse technique
c. phase comparison
75. An aircraft is flying downwind outside the coverage of the ILS. The CDI indications d. continuous wave emission
will be:
83. The definition of a radar display will be best with:
a. unreliable in azimuth and elevation
b. reliable in azimuth, unreliable in elevation a. narrow beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth
c. no indications will be shown b. narrow beamwidth and wide pulsewidth
d. reliable in azimuth and elevation c. wide beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth

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d. wide beamwidth and wide pulsewidth
76. The frequency band of the ILS glide path is:
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84. The main advantage of a continuous wave radar over a pulsed radar is:
a. UHF
b. VHF a. more complex equipment but better resolution and accuracy
c. SHF b. removes the minimum range restriction
d. VLF c. smaller more compact equipment
d. permits measurement of Doppler in addition to improved range and bearing
77. In which band does the ILS glide path operate?
85. Which of the following systems use pulse technique?
a. metric
b. centimetric 1. secondary surveillance radar
c. decimetric 2. airborne weather radar
d. hectometric 3. distance measuring equipment
4. primary radar
78. The coverage of MLS is ............... either side of the centre line to a distance of
............... a. all the above
b. 2 and 4 only
a. 40° 40 NM c. 2 only
b. 40° 20 NM d. 1 and 3 only
c. 20° 20 NM
d. 20° 40 NM

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102. Which type of cloud does the AWR detect? 110. As a storm intensifies, the colour sequence on the AWR display will change:

a. Cirrocumulus a. black, yellow, amber

b. Altostratus b. green, yellow, red
c. Cumulus c. blue, green, orange
d. Stratus d. green, yellow, amber

103. The AWR uses the cosecant squared beam in the ............... mode. 111. The cosecant squared beam is used for mapping in the AWR because:

a. WEA a. a greater range can be achieved

b. CONT b. a wider beam is produced in azimuth to give a greater coverage
c. MAP c. a larger area of ground is illuminated by the beam
d. MAN d. it allows cloud detection to be effected whilst mapping

104. On the AWR display the most severe turbulence will be shown: 112. The AWR can be used on the ground provided:

a. in flashing red 1. the aircraft is clear of personnel, buildings and vehicles

b. by a black hole 2. conical beam is selected
c. by a steep colour gradient 3. maximum uptilt is selected
d. alternating red and white 4. the AWR must never be operated on the ground

105. On an AWR colour display, the sequence of colours indicating increasing water a. 4
droplet size is: b. 1 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 3
a. blue, green, red d. 2 and 3
b. green, yellow, red
c. black, amber, red 113. Doppler navigation systems use ............... to determine the aircraft ground speed
d. blue, amber, green and drift.

106. In an AWR with a 5° beamwidth, how do you orientate the scanner to receive returns a. DVOR
from clouds at or above your level? b. phase comparison of signals from ground stations
c. frequency shift in signals reflected from the ground
a. 0° tilt d. DME range measurement
b. 2.5° uptilt
c. 2.5° downtilt 114. Which axes is the AWR stabilized in?

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d. 5° uptilt
a. Pitch, roll and yaw
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107. The ISO-ECHO circuit is incorporated in the AWR: b. Roll and yaw
c. Pitch and roll
a. to allow ground mapping d. Pitch only
b. to alert pilots to the presence of cloud
c. to display areas of turbulence in cloud 115. With normal SSR mode C altitude coding the aircraft replies by sending back a train
d. to allow simultaneous mapping and cloud detection of up to 12 pulses contained between 2 framing pulses with:

108. The main factors which affect whether an AWR will detect a cloud are: a. 4096 codes in 4 blocks
b. 2048 codes in 3 blocks
a. the size of the water droplets and the diameter of the antenna reflector c. 4096 codes in 3 blocks
b. the scanner rotation rate and the frequency/wavelength d. 2048 codes in 4 blocks
c. the size of the water droplets and the wavelength/frequency
d. the size of the water droplets and the range of the cloud 116. Why is the effect of returns from storms not a problem with SSR?

109. In an AWR with a colour CRT, areas of greatest turbulence are indicated by: a. The frequency is too high
b. SSR does not use the echo principle
a. iso-echo areas coloured black c. The PRF is jittered
b. large areas of flashing red d. By the use of MTI to remove stationary and slow moving returns
c. iso-echo areas with no colour
d. most rapid change of colour

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132. The positioning of a GNSS aerial on an aircraft is: 139. The orbital height of geostationary satellites is:

a. in the fin a. 19 330 km

b. on the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver b. 35 800 km
c. on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity c. 10 898 NM
d. under the fuselage d. 10 313 NM

133. The NAVSTAR/GPS space segment: 140. The best accuracy from satellite systems will be provided by:

a. provides X, Y & Z coordinates and monitoring of the accuracy of the satellite a. NAVSTAR/GPS and TNSS transit
data b. GLONASS and COSPAS/SARSAT
b. provides X, Y, Z & T coordinates and the constellation data c. GLONASS and TNSS transit
c. monitors the accuracy of the satellite data and provides system time d. NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS
d. provides geographic position and UTC
141. The azimuth and elevation of the satellites is:
134. Concerning NAVSTAR/GPS orbits, which of the following statements is correct?
a. determined by the satellite and transmitted to the receiver
a. The inclination of the orbits is 55° with an orbital period of 12 hours b. determined by the receiver from the satellite almanac data
b. The inclination of the orbits is 55° with an orbital period of 24 hours c. transmitted by the satellite as part of the almanac
c. The orbits are geostationary to provide global coverage d. determined by the receiver from the broadcast satellite X, Y, Z & T data
d. The orbits are inclined at 65° with an orbital period of 11 hours 15 minutes
142. The skysearch carried out by a GNSS receiver:
135. NAVSTAR GPS receiver clock error is removed by:
a. is done prior to each fix
a. regular auto-synchronization with the satellite clocks b. is done when the receiver position is in error
b. adjusting the pseudo-ranges to determine the error c. involves the receiver downloading the almanac from each satellite before
c. synchronization with the satellite clocks on initialization determining which satellites are in view
d. having an appropriate atomic time standard within the receiver d. is the procedure carried out by the monitoring stations to check the accuracy of
the satellite data
136. 
The contents of the navigation and systems message from NAVSTAR/GPS SVs
include: 143. An aircraft GNSS receiver is using 5 satellites for RAIM. If the receiver deselects one
satellite then the flight should be continued:
a. satellite clock error, almanac data, ionospheric propagation information
b. satellite clock error, almanac data, satellite position error a. using 4 satellites with the pilot monitoring the receiver output
c. position accuracy verification, satellite clock time and clock error b. using alternative navigation systems

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d. ionospheric propagation information, X, Y & Z coordinates and corrections, c. using alternative radio navigation systems only
satellite clock time and error d. using inertial reference systems only
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137. The NAVSTAR/GPS segments are: 144. The WGS84 model of the earth is:

a. space, control, user a. a geoid

b. space, control, ground b. a sphere
c. space, control, air c. an exact model of the earth
d. space, ground, air d. an ellipse

138. The preferred GNSS receiver for airborne application is: 145. The frequency band of the NAVSTAR/GPS L1 and L2 frequencies is:

a. multiplex a. VHF
b. multi-channel b. UHF
c. sequential c. EHF
d. fast multiplex d. SHF

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160. In GNSS a fix is obtained by: 167. An ‘all in view’ satellite navigation receiver is one which:

a. measuring the time taken for signals from a minimum number of satellites to a. monitors all 24 satellites
reach the aircraft b. tracks selected satellites
b. measuring the time taken for the aircraft transmissions to travel to a number of c. selects and tracks all (in view) satellites and selects the best four
satellites in known positions and return to the aircraft d. tracks the closest satellites
c. measuring the pulse lengths of the sequential signals from a number of satellites
in known positions 168. Which GPS frequencies are available for commercial air transport?
d. measuring the phase angle of the signals from a number of satellites in known
positions a. 1227.6 MHz only
b. 1575.42 MHz only
161. The inclination of a satellite is: c. 1227.6 MHz and 1575.42 MHz
d. 1227.6 MHz or 1575.42 MHz
a. the angle between the SV orbit and the equator
b. the angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane 169. Which GNSS is authorized for use on European airways?
c. 90° minus the angle between the SV orbit and the equator
d. 90° minus the angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane a. GLONASS
b. NAVSTAR/GPS
162. How is the distance between the NAVSTAR/GPS SV and the receiver determined? c. Galileo
d. COSPAS/SARSAT
a. By referencing the SV and receiver positions to WGS84
b. By synchronizing the receiver clock with the SV clock 170. In GPS on which frequencies are both the C/A and P codes transmitted?
c. By measuring the time from transmission to reception and multiplying by the
speed of light a. Both frequencies
d. By measuring the time from transmission to reception and dividing by the speed b. The higher frequency
of light c. Neither frequency
d. The lower frequency
163. The distance measured between a satellite and a receiver is known as a pseudo-
range because: 171. The orbits of the NAVSTAR GPS satellites are inclined at:

a. it is measured using pseudo-random codes a. 55° to the earth’s axis

b. it includes receiver clock error b. 55° to the plane of the equator
c. satellite and receiver are continually moving in relation to each other c. 99° to the earth’s axis
d. it is measured against idealized Keplerian orbits d. 99° to the plane of the equator

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164. The task of the control segment is to: 172. RAIM is achieved:

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a. determine availability to users a. by ground monitoring stations determining the satellite range errors which are
b. monitor the SV ephemeris and clock relayed to receivers via geo-stationary satellites
c. apply selective availability b. by ground stations determining the X, Y & Z errors and passing the corrections
d. all of the above to receivers using pseudolites
c. within the receiver
165. To provide 3D fixing with RAIM and allowing for the loss of one satellite requires d. any of the above
............... SVs:
173. The function of the receiver in the GNSS user segment is to:
a. 4
b. 5 a. interrogate the satellites to determine range
c. 6 b. track the satellites to calculate time
d. 7 c. track the satellites to calculate range
d. determine position and assess the accuracy of that position
166. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:
174. In which frequency band are the L1 and L2 frequencies of GNSS?
a. differentiate between satellites
b. pass satellite ephemeris information a. SHF
c. pass satellite time and ephemeris information b. VHF
d. pass satellite time, ephemeris and other information c. UHF
d. EHF

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189. In RNAV mode one dot on the EHSI represents: 197. Refer to diagram E of Appendix A. The track from ZAPPO to BURDY is:

a. 2 NM a. 205°(T)
b. 2° b. 205°(M)
c. 5 NM c. 064°(T)
d. 5° d. 064°(M)

190. The phantom station in a 2D RNAV system may be generated by: 198. Refer to diagram B of Appendix A. The aircraft is:

a. VOR/DME a. right of the centre line and above the glide path
b. twin VOR b. left of the centre line and below the glide path
c. twin DME c. right of the centre line and below the glide path
d. any of the above d. left of the centre line and above the glide path

191. The operation of a 2D RNAV system may be seriously downgraded: 199. Refer to Appendix A. Diagram F represents:

a. because the computer cannot determine if the aircraft is within the DOC of the a. MAP
programmed facilities b. EXP VOR
b. because the computer cannot determine if the heading and altitude input are c. VOR
in error d. ILS
c. because the pilot cannot verify the correct frequency has been selected
d. if the selected navigation facility is in excess of about 70 NM 200. The navigation database in the FMS:

192. The FMS database can be: a. may be modified by the pilot to meet routing requirements
b. is read only
a. altered by the pilots between the 28 day updates c. may be modified by the operations staff to meet routing requirements
b. read and altered by the pilots d. may be modified by national aviation authorities to meet national requirements
c. only read by the pilots
d. altered by the pilots every 28 days 201. In an EHSI the navigation information comes from:

193. Refer to Appendix A diagram C. What is the current drift? a. INS, weather mapping, radio navigation
b. FMC, radio navigation
a. 4° left c. IRS, radio navigation, TAS and drift
b. 12° left d. FMC, weather mapping, radio navigation
c. 4° right

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d. 12° right 202. On an EFIS display the pictured symbol represents:

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194. In the B737-400 EFIS which component generates the visual display? a. DME
b. VOR/DME
a. Flight control computer (FCC) c. VORTAC
b. FMC d. aerodrome
c. Symbol generator
d. Navigation database 203. According to ICAO (Annex 11), the definition of an RNAV system is:

195. When is the IRS position updated? a. one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the
coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified
a. Continuously by the FMC limits of self-contained on-board systems or a combination of the two
b. At VOR beacons on route by the pilots b. one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the
c. At significant waypoints only coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified
d. On the ground only limits of self-contained on-board systems but not a combination of the two
c. one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the
196 Refer to Appendix A. Which diagram is the MAP mode? coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids only
d. one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the
a. D specified limits of self-contained on-board systems
b. F
c. E
d. C

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219. The normal maximum range for an ATC surveillance radar is: 226. The emissions from a non-directional beacon (NDB) are:

a. 50 NM a. a cardioid with a 30 Hz rotation rate

b. 150 NM b. omni-directional
c. 250 NM c. a phase-compared signal
d. 350 NM d. a frequency modulated continuous wave (FMCW)

220. The cause of a RNAV giving erratic readings would be: 227. How does night effect affect ADF?

a. the aircraft is in the cone of confusion of the phantom station a. Causes false bearings as the goniometer locks onto the sky wave
b. the aircraft is beyond line of sight range of the phantom station b. Sky wave interference which affects the null and is worst at dawn and dusk
c. the aircraft is beyond line of sight range of the reference station c. Interference from other NDBs which is worst at dusk and when due east of the
d. the aircraft is outside the DOC of the reference station station
d. Phase shift in the received signal giving random bearing errors
221. Flying an ILS approach with a 3° glide slope referenced to 50 ft above the threshold,
an aircraft at 4.6 NM should be at an approximate height of: 228. What is an ADC input to the FMC?

a. 1 400 ft a. Heading
b. 1 380 ft b. VOR/DME position
c. 1 500 ft c. TAS
d. 1 450 ft d. Ground speed and drift

222. The height of the GPS constellation is: 229. A typical frequency for DME would be:

a. 19 300 km a. 300 MHz

b. 20 200 km b. 600 MHz
c. 10 900 km c. 900 MHz
d. 35 800 km d. 1200 MHz

223. What are the ground components of MLS? 230. When flying under IFR using GPS and a multi-sensor system:

a. Separate azimuth and elevation antennae with DME a. if there is a discrepancy between the GPS and multi-sensor positions, then the
b. Separate azimuth and elevation antennae with middle and outer markers multi-sensor position must be regarded as suspect
c. Combined azimuth and elevation antennae with DME b. the GPS must be operating and its information displayed
d. Combined azimuth and elevation antennae with middle and outer markers c. the multi-sensor system must be operating and its information displayed

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d. both systems must be operating but only the primary system information needs
224. The accuracy required of a basic area navigation (B-RNAV) system is: to be displayed
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a. +/-5 NM on 90% of occasions 231. The indications from a basic RNAV are behaving erratically. The reason is likely to
b. all the time be:
c. +/-5 NM on 95% of occasions
d. +/-5 NM on 75% of occasions a. the aircraft is in the cone of confusion of the phantom station
b. the aircraft is outside the DOC of the reference VOR/DME
225. What function does the course line computer perform? c. the aircraft is below line of sight range of the reference VOR/DME
d. the aircraft is in the cone of confusion of the reference VOR
a. Uses VOR/DME information to direct the aircraft to the facility
b. Uses VOR/DME information to direct the aircraft along a specified track 232. What is the maximum PRF that allows detection of targets to a range of 50 km?
c. Converts VOR/DME information into HSI directions to maintain the planned (ignoreany flyback time).
track
d. Uses VOR/DME information to determine track and distance to a waypoint a. 330 pulses per second (pps)
b. 617 pps
c. 3000 pps
d. 1620 pps

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Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
d a c a d c b c a b c c

13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
c a c d d b a c c b d c

25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
b a c a b d b c b a a c

37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
a d b c a a a c b c c a

49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
c a a c b c b a d c b a

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72
c d b a c c a b c c c c

73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84
c b a a c b d a c b a b

85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96
a d b d b c a b a c b b

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97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108

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Answers
d a a a c c c c b b c d

109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
d b c c c c a b b b b b

121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132
d d b b a b a c c a b c

133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144
b a b a a b b d b c b a

145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156
b b c c a a c d a b a b

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