 ODPELS REAL ESTATE BROKER REVIEWER

 ODILIO PELENIO
 REAL ESTATE BROKERAGE AND PRACTICE
 CODE OF ETHICS AND RESPONSIBILITIES
PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE OF REAL ESTATE

 PRE-BOARD EXAM
Subject: GENERAL/FUNDAMENTALS OF REAL ESTATE
Weight 25% - 100 questions (Complete within 2 hours)

 Subject: SPECIAL AND TECHNICAL KNOWLEDGE

Weight 25% - 100 questions - Complete within 2 hours

1. The Real Estate Service Act of the Philippines is mandated under:

a. R.A. 9646
b. R.A. 9656
c. R.A. 9664
d. R.A. 9636
2. The Professional Board of Real Estate Service (PRB-RES) was created and composed of a chairperson and four (4) members. The present
Chairman of PRB-RES is:
a. Hon. Ofelia Binag
b. Mr. Bansan C. Choa
c. Mr. Rafael M. Fajardo
d. Mr. Florencio C. Dino II
e. Mr. Ramon C.F. Cuervo III
3. Any person either natural or juridical, who acts as an agent of another person for a fee or commission or other valuable consideration . He/She
performs any of the following acts: A. promotes B. lists C. advertises D. mediates E. offers F. negotiates G. effects the meeting of the minds for
the sale, purchase, exchange, mortgage, lease or joint venture or other transactions in real estate and any interest therein.
a. Real Estate Broker
b. Real Estate Salesman
c. Real Estate Appraiser
d. Real Estate Assessor
4. Refers to any person directly engaged as a principal in the business of buying, selling or exchanging real estate property whether on a full time
or part time basis. A Real Estate Dealer is either natural or juridical person who performs any acts comprised in real estate brokerage with
reference to his own property. Is the owner/developer of a land. Subdivision, condominium, resort, country club, memorial parks, owner/lessor
of an apartment, commercial building or other income generating properties, sells, mortgages, and exchanges real properties.
a. Real Estate Assessor
b. Real Estate Dealer
c. Real Estate Consultant
d. Real Estate Appraiser
5. A duly registered and licensed natural person who for a professional fee, compensation or other valuable consideration performs or renders
services in estimating and arriving at an opinion of or acts as an expert in real estate values, such services of which shall be finally rendered by
the preparation of the report in acceptable written form is known as:
a. Real Estate Broker
b. Real Estate Consultant
c. Real Estate Appraiser
d. Real Estate Assessor
6. The acts whereby a natural or juridical person in behalf of another person and for a fee, compensation or commission or other valuable
consideration performs any or all of the following acts: a. Lists; b. offers; c. advertises; d. solicits; e. promotes; f. mediates; negotiates; h. effects
the meeting of the minds for the sale, purchase, exchange, mortgage, lease or joint venture or other transactions in real estate and any interest
therein. The procurement of a loan or other financing to be secured by real estate property. These acts are referred to as:
a. Real Estate Brokerage
b. Real Estate Appraisal
c. Real Estate Consultancy
d. Real Estate Assessment
7. The act of the Broker which is instrumental in effecting the meeting of the minds between the seller and the buyer of the real property as to price
and terms and one of the requisites for a broker to be entitled to a commission is referred to as:
a. Escalation Clause
b. Grandfather’s Clause
c. Judicial Cause
d. Procuring Cause
8. A natural person licensed under a Real Estate Broker who performs functions for and in behalf of the Real estate Broker with an expectation of
fee.
a. Real Estate Appraiser
b. Real Estate Consultant
c. Real Estate Salesman
d. Real Estate Assessor
9. A duly registered and licensed natural person who for a professional fee, compensation or other valuable consideration, offers or renders and
judgment on: the acquisition or enhancement, preservation, utilization or disposition or lands or improvements thereon; and the conception,
planning, management and development or real estate properties.
a. Real Estate Appraiser
b. Real Estate Assessor
c. Real Estate Salesman
d. Real Estate Consultant
10. A duly registered licensed natural person who works in the government unit and performs appraisal and assessment of real properties, including
plants, equipments and machineries essentially for taxation purposes.
a. Real Estate Assessor
b. Real Estate Appraiser
c. Real Estate Salesman
d. Real Estate Consultant
11. It is s the national integrated organization of natural persons duly registered and licensed as Real Estate Service Practitioners.
a. Accredited Professional Organization (APO)
b. Accredited & Integrated Professional Organization (AIPO )
c. Accredited Service Organization (ASO)
d. none of the above
12. Name at least ten (10) subjects covering the Scope of Examinations For Real Estate Broker:
13. What are the acts constituting real estate service practices?
14. Who are the persons exempted from securing a Real Estate Broker’s License although
15. What are the qualifications of the Examination Committee Members?
16. What are the general steps in Real Estate Brokerage?

CODE OF ETHICS AND RESPONSIBILITIES

PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE OF REAL ESTATE

17. It governs the rules of conduct of the Realty practitioners. All persons, natural or juridical who are duly licensed by the DTI as Real Estate
Salesman, Broker, Appraiser or Consultant and other practitioners are covered by the Code of Ethics.
a. National Code of Ethics
b. Real Estate Code of Conduct
c. Ethical Standards in Real Estate
d. none of the above
18. The scope of brokerage are as follows, but not:
a. authority to look for a property
b. engagement to look for a buyer
c. procurement of insurance for properties secured by real estate
d. procurement of loans secured by real estate
e. procurement of tenants for rental properties
19. A licensed Real Estate Broker is qualified to be appointed as member of the Broker’s Licensure Examination Committee provided he/she has
been a licensed Real Estate Broker:
a. Twenty years
b. Five years
c. Fifteen years
d. Three years
e. Ten years
20. What is the minimum CPE units required in order to renew you Real Estate Broker License:
a. 18 units
b. 14 units
c. 20 units
d. 12 units
e. 16 units
New 15 units
21. Under the Code of Ethics, the following is considered ethical:
a. Negotiate a property listed directly with the owner if the listing broker goes out of town for a few days and cannot be contacted
b. Should cooperate with other brokers on property listed provided they are members of any national real estate broker’s association
c. Use the services of the salesman of another broker provided the salesman is paid the agreed upon commission
d. Willingly share with other brokers the lessons from his experience and study
e. Inform and criticize among fellow brokers another broker who is not handling the sale properly
22. Section 6 of Article 1. – Declaration of Principles of the Code of Ethics for Realty Service Practitioners clearly states the Golden Rule which
says :
a. “Treat others as you want them to be treated”
b. “Do not do unto others what you want others do to you”
c. “Do unto others what you do not want others do unto you
d. “Treat others the same as what others think they should be treated”
e. “Treat others as you like them to treat you”
23. A broker’s complaints for non-payments of commission by the developer shall be filed with:
a. Regular Court
b. HUDCC
c. BTRCP
d. HLURB
24. Who are the persons exempted from securing a Real Estate Broker’s License although they sell real properties?
a. Trustees selling under a deed of Trust
b. Public officials performing official functions and duties
c. Persons appointed as Attorney-in-fact
d. Persons who executes Court Order
e. All of the above
25. Under the RESA Law, In order that a candidate may be deemed to have successfully passed the examination, he/she must have obtained at
average of at least;
a. 75% in all subjects
b. 70% in all subjects
c. 75% in all subjects with no rating of less than 50% in any subject
d. 70% in all subjects with no rating of less than 50% in any subject
26. Under Rule 4, Sec. 27, the following acts constitute the practice of real estate service except:
a. Real Estate Brokerage
b. Real estate Appraisal
c. Real Estate Consultancy
d. Real Estate Management
27. The Code of Ethics for Real Estate Service Practitioners was promulgated and adopted by the PRB-RES. It was prescribed and issued by:
a. CHED
b. AIPO
c. Dep-Ed
d. PRC
28. Any violation of R.A. 9646, including that of the IRR shall be meted the penalty of a fine of not less than:
a. P10,000.00 plus imprisonment of 2 years or both
b. P100,000.00 plus imprisonment of 2 years or both
c. P100,000.00 plus 2 yrs imprisonment or imprisonment upon the discretion of the court.
d. P200,000.00 plus 2 yrs imprisonment or imprisonment upon the discretion of the court.
29. In case the violation of R.A. 9646, including that of the IRR is committed by an unlicensed real estate service practitioner, the penalty is:
a. P10,000.00 plus imprisonment of 2 years or both
b. P100,000.00 plus imprisonment of 2 years or both
c. P100,000.00 plus 2 yrs imprisonment or imprisonment upon the discretion of the court.
d. P200,000.00 plus 2 yrs imprisonment or imprisonment upon the discretion of the court .
30. R.A. 9646 was enacted into law on:
a. June 29, 2009
 b. May 12, 2009
c. July 21, 2010
d. July 28, 2008
31. How many CPE credit hours are required before the issuance or renewal of a broker’s license?
a. 20 credit hours – for those who failed to secure a license within 2 years from the date Of passing the examination
b. 16 credit hours – for those who shall renew its license every 3 years.
c. both A & B
d. none of the above
32. An application for registration of Real Estate Broker's license must be accompanied by:
a. Cash bond of P5,000.00
b. Surety Bond of P5,000.00
c. Cash bond of P10,000.00
d. Surety Bond of P20,000.00
33. The value placed on taxable property by the assessor for ad valorem tax purpose is:
a. Market value
b. Assessment value
c. Economic value
d. Appraised value
e. Assessed value
34. How many Areas for Priority Developments or APDS are there at present?
a. 225
b. 284
c. 248
d. 184
35. Period of lease if Lessee is a foreigner investor.
a. 25 years renewable to another 25 years
b. 50 years renewable to another 25 years
c. 99 years
d. 80 years
36. _______ is a provision in a mortgage contract which releases the property from encumbrance when the mortgaged obligation is fully paid.
a. Quit claim clause
b. Defeasance Clause
c. Obligation Clause
d. Mortgage Release
37. Maximum acquisition of former Filipino citizens for business purpose in Rural Land.
a. 1 Hectare
b. 5,000 sq.m.
c. 3 Hectares
d. 2 Hectares
38. Philippine Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Act of 2010
a. RA 10121
b. RA 2025
c. RA 12011
d. RA 10212
39. If an unmarried person dies, his estate shall be inherited by:
a. Parents only
b. Brother and sister only
c. Parents, brother and sister only
d. Parents, brother and sister and nephews and nieces
40. An artificial creation of entrepreneurs, designed to attract people, rather than a natural creation springing up on its own
a. NEWTOWN
b. Suburb
c. Brownfields
d. Spraw
41. When the Banko Sentral ng Pilipinas sells more treasury notes and bonds to mop up excess liquidity in the system, the government in
effect is using:
a. Political policy
b. Fiscal Policy
c. MONETARY POLICY
d. Social Policy Feedback
42. In a TACITA RECONDUCTA, if the lessee continues occupancy for at least ____ days from expiration of the lease with the acquiescence of the
lessor and without notice to vacate, it is understood that there is an implied new lease contract.
a. 15
b. 30
c. 10
d. 14
43. The part of man's real estate which his widow inherits for life
a. Capital property
b. Dower
c. Capital proceeds
d. Alimony
44. Results of the examination shall be released within ____ from the last day of the examination
a. 5 days
b. 15 days
c. 10 days
d. 20 days
45. Under BP 220 Doors clear width minimum for main door:
a. 0.80 meters
b. 1.00 meters
c. 1.5 meters
d. 1.2 meters
46. Legitime means:
a. That part of the property of the testator or estate that cannot be disposed of because the law has reserved it for compulsory
heirs.
b. The free portion of the property that the owner cannot dispose
c. The estate taxes that the heir has to pay before getting the property left by the deceased.
d. That free portion of the property that a person is permitted by law to control a certain part for his own disposition and will
47. Period of lease if Lessee is a foreigner
a. 50 years renewable to another 25 years
b. 25 YEARS RENEWABLE TO ANOTHER 25 YEARS
c. 99 years
d. 80 years
48. Believed that population growth was bound to reduce worker wages, higher rents and prices thus resulting in a lower standard of living:
a. Karl Max
 b. THOMAS MALTHUS
c. Johann Von Thunen
d. Jon Maynard Keynes
49. Which of the following terms would include the interests, benefits, and rights inherent in the Ownership of Real Estate?
a. Chattel
b. REAL PROPERTY
c. Personal Property
d. Trade
50. Land Registration Law:
a. ACT 496
b. Act 469
c. Act 946
d. Act 694
51. A symbiotic relationship in which one specie benefits and the other specie is neither benefited unharmed.
a. COMMENSALISM
b. Mutualism
c. Parasitism
d. Heterotrophs
52. Under the Urban Development and Housing Act (RA 7279) on balanced housing development, the 20% requirement for socialized housing
compliance shall be computed based on:
a. On the saleable area of the project
b. ON THE GROSS AREA OF THE MAIN SUBDIVISION PROJECT
c. On the total cost of development
d. On the total value of the project less cost of development
53. Dual Citizenship law
a. RA 6732
b. RA 6552
c. RA 9653
d. RA 9700
e. RA 9225
54. An agreement where the consideration of a contract is deposited with a third party who is authorized to release said consideration to the seller
after the latter has complied with certain condition.
a. Option
b. Hold-over clause
c. Escrow
d. Contract to sell
55. Condominium Law
a. RA 4726
b. RA 6552
c. PD 957
d. RA 9700 [Link] 9225
56. Cities grow from a number of separate centers and join together to form a single city
a. Strip development
b. Multiple Nuclei
c. Axial Growth
d. Sector Growth
57. The reference point or BBLM
a. Contour lines
b. Tie line
c. Point of beginning
d. TIE POINT
58. Is an example of a determinant of value.
a. Immovable
b. Availability
c. SCARCITY
d. Saleability
59. On documents executed abroad, like Special Power of Attorney, the documents, must be properly authenticated by any of the
following, except:
a. Phil. Ambassador or Secretary of Legation
b. Charge d' Affairs
c. Consul, Vice Consul, or Consular Agent
d. POEA
60. Providing for the preparation and implementation of Comprehensive Land Use Plans of Local Government Units pursuant to the Local
Government Code of 1991.
a. E.O. No. 70
b. E.O. No. 50
c. E.O. No. 72
d. E.O. No. 92
61. It is a flat presentation of earth's surface in paper.
a. MAP
b. Survey
c. Lot Plotting
d. Gridiron
62. A type of mortgage which is superior in lien or claim to another mortgage.
a. Junior mortgage
b. SENIOR MORTGAGE
c. Superior mortgage
d. First Class mortgage
63. A subdivision where no street or open space is delineated.
a. Residential subdivision
b. Complex subdivision
c. SIMPLE SUBDIVISION
d. Subdivision project
64. Joy has been informed that her land is being taken by the estate for the development of a new Highway. the estate will pay Joy for her land.
This process is called the right of
a. Police Power
b. Escheat
 c. Taxation
d. EMINENT DOMAIN
65. The displacement of an existing use by a non-conforming use:
a. Adverse use
b. Infiltration
c. ENCROACHMENT
d. Law of susceptibility
66. Pine trees and bougainvillea bushes on a property that were planted by the current owner are examples of
a. REAL ESTATE
b. Personal Property
c. Chattels
d. Trade fixtures
67. A grid pattern, popularized by Hippodamus, mark by four roads containing an average area of 73 square meters.
a. Fortress
b. INSULA
c. Block
d. Puerta
e. Nodal area
68. A development company had a real estate exhibit in one of the major mall in Quezon City. A couple inquired into different salesperson. The
husband inquired to Salesperson A, and the wife inquired to another salesperson B. Salesperson A close the sale after a week. Salesperson B
wrote a complaint letter to their Broker stating that he is the official agent of the buyer. The broker must do the following action to resolve the
dispute, except:
a. Look for signed prospect appointment slip
b. Investigate who showed and presented the project to the buyer
c. TERMINATE SALESPERSON B TO AVOID ARGUMENT
d. To arbitrate and resolve the dispute in the proper and ethical manner
69. The standard color scheme for parks and open spaces.
a. Red
b. Blue
c. Yellow
d. Violet
e. YELLOW GREEN
70. Represents the transfer of energy through a series of organisms in a community:
a. Energy Flow
b. FOOD CHAIN EVOLUTION
c. Evolution
d. Nutrient Cycle
71. In a Extrajudicial foreclosure, the right of redemption given to a corporation is:
a. 1 year
b. 6 months
c. 3 MONTHS
d. 120 days
72. Refers to law on acquisition by a natural born Filipino citizen on residential property.
a. RA 6732
b. RA 6552
c. RA 9653
d. RA 9700
e. BP 185
73. The water rights of a landowner adjacent to a stream are known as
a. Equitable Rights
b. Littoral Rights
c. Riparian Rights
d. Appropriation Rights
74. Maceda Law of 1972
a. RA 6732
b. RA 6552
c. RA 9653
d. RA 9700
e. RA 7279
75. A plan of a piece of land showing divisions, property lines, easements, etc and entered into a public record.
a. Survey plan
b. PLAT
c. Geographic plan
d. Topographic map/plan
76. What is the cost of the fence with total length of 75 meters, with height above the ground of 2 meters and 1/2 meters below, if cost per square is
P1,500.00
a. P 225,000.00
b. P 140,625.00
c. P 281,250.00
d. P 112,500.0
77. The use to which the property is principally or predominantly devoted as may be reflected in a tax declaration.
a. Declared use
b. ACTUAL USE
c. Proportionate use
d. Predominant Use
78. An appraisal principle which holds that the value of a replaceable property is inferred from the value of an equally desirable substitute
property.
a. Principle of Replacement
b. PRINCIPLE OF SUBSTITUTION
c. Exchange Principle
d. Highest and Best Use Principle
79. An earthquake tore away some of the land on your farm recently. This is an example of
a. Accession
b. AVULSION
c. Accretion
d. Erosion
80. Under BP 220 minimum floor area for socialized housing:
 a. 15 sq.m.
b. 20 sq.m.
c. 18 SQ.M.
d. 28 sq.m.
81. Urban Development and Housing Act
a. RA 6732
b. RA 6552
c. RA 9653
d. RA 9700
e. RA 7279
82. A process of taking advantage of a price or interest differential in order to make a profit.
a. ARBITRAGE
b. Prime rate
c. Creative financing
d. Wrap around loan
83. States that the value of property tends to be enhanced by association with superior properties.
a. Conformity
b. PROGRESSION
c. Regression
d. Contribution
84. Residential communities where inhabitants commute to work in other areas.
a. Suburb
b. BEDROOM COMMUNITIES
c. Newtown
d. Gentrification
85. Real property includes all of the following except
a. Land
b. Fixtures
c. Bundle of rights
d. TRADE FIXTURES
86. Alienable lands of public domain shall be limited to:
a. Industrial
b. Institutional
c. AGRICULTURAL
d. Forestry
87. Maximum acquisition of former Filipino citizens for residential purpose in Rural/Natural Land
a. 5,000.00 sq.m.
b. 3 hectares
c. 1 HECTARES
d. 2 hectares
88. States that the value of an item production is measured by its contribution to the net income of the enterprise.
a. CONTRIBUTION
b. Anticipation
c. Conformity
d. Progression
89. The validity of a development permit, as prescribed in the revised implementing Rules and Regulations (IRR) shall be:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 YEARS
d. 4 years
e. 5 years
90. The non-living part of an organism's environment
a. ABIOTIC FACTOR
b. Biotic factors
c. Biosphere
d. Autotrophs
91. In case of resignation or termination from employment of real estate service practitioners, his employer shall report to the PRBRES within
how many days from the date of effectivity of his/her resignation or termination.
a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 30 days
92. Local government Code of 1991
a. RA 8424
b. RA 7279
c. RA 9653
d. RA 9700
e. RA 7160
93. A type of foreclosure resorted to if there is no express authority in mortgage contract empowering the mortgagee to foreclose extra-judicially.
a. JUDICIAL
b. Sheriff's foreclosure
c. Administrative Foreclosure
d. Bank Foreclosure
94. The government's taxation power can be utilised to encourage or discourage real estate development, either by giving tax incentives to low cost
housing or increase taxes to purchases of luxury condominiums. This government policy is referred to as:
a. Political Policy
b. FISCAL POLICY
c. Monetary Policy
d. Budgetary Policy
95. Under PD 957 minimum floor are for medium cost housing
a. 30 sq.m.
b. 38 sq.m.
c. 28 sq.m.
d. 18 sq.m.
96. The standard color scheme for industrial land use
a. Red
b. Blue
 c. Yellow
d. VIOLET
e. Yellow green
97. The standard color scheme for commercial land use
a. RED
b. Blue
c. Yellow
d. Violet
98. The process of changing from personal to real property.
a. Severance
b. ATTACHMENT
c. Substitution
d. Consistent Use
99. In filing for payment of real estate taxes, a notice of death is required within _____ days from date of death in order not to be subject to
penalties and other fees.
a. 30 days
b. 60 DAYS
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
100. The minimum water supply requirement to provide the average daily demand (ADD) to all homeowners.
a. 100 liters/person/day
b. 150 LITERS/PERSON/DAY
c. 200 liters/person/day
d. 250 liters/person/day
e. 300 liters/person/day
101. A result of super-imposition or overlays of soil and slope maps taking into consideration rainfall intensity and tidal fluctuations of bodies of
water, it shows the degree of potentiality of an area to water inundation.
a. Land capability map
b. Land suitability map
c. Irrigation map
d. FLOODING HAZARD MAP
102. Refers to law on acquisition by a natural born Filipino citizen on property for business
a. RA 6732
b. BP 185
c. RA 9653
d. RA 9700
e. RA 8179
103. An adverse claim annotation has a life of how many days?
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
104. Commercial Real Estate includes all of the following except
a. OFFICE BUILDINGS FOR SALE
b. RETAIL SPACE FOR LEASE
c. APARTMENT FOR RENT
d. FAST-FOOD RESTAURANT FOR RENT
105. A licensed real estate broker can only hold _____ salespersons.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 50
106. Under RA 9904, the dissolution of the board only needs a signed petition of ______ of the association members :
a. Simple majority
b. 2/3
c. At least 10%
d. 75%
107. In the official seal of the Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service ______ represents the real estate service practitioners such as
real estate consultants, appraisers, assessors, brokers and salesperson:
a. Blue
b. GREEN LINES
c. Rising sun
d. Sun and rays
e. Green
108. The potential rental which a property can command, taking into consideration the rate of nearby properties :
a. Contract rent
b. ECONOMIC RENT
c. Deterred rent
d. Potential rent
109. A passageway with only one outlet, a blind alley
a. Gridiron
b. CUL DE SAC
c. Chaplan
d. Key Lot
110. Probate of a will means:
a. Dividing the state of the testator based on his will
b. FILING AND SUBMITTING THE WILL TO THE COURT TO DETERMINE AUTHENTICITY AND WHO WILL INHERIT THE PROPERTY
OF THE DECEASED PERSON.
c. To prepare a will before a notary public
d. To distribute the property based on the testator's will
111. Under BP 220 minimum lot are for row house for socialized housing:
a. 36 sq.m.
b. 28 sq.m.
c. 38 sq.m.
d. 38 sq.m.
112. The process of changing from real to personal property.
a. SEVERANCE
 b. Attachment
c. Substitution
d. Consistent use
113. When the principles and theory of general economics are paired and matched with the principles and practice of Real Estate, we see the
emergence of:
a. Industrial Economics
b. Real estate economics
c. Macroeconomics
d. Microeconomics
114. Licensed practitioner who violated RESA Law may be penalized by imprisonment of no less than
a. 6 months
b. 2 years
c. One year
d. 4 years
115. An act allowing reconstitution of title administratively destroyed by fire, flood, etc (June 1989).
a. PD 957
b. RA 6552
c. RA 4726
d. RA 9700
e. RA 6732
116. Within _____ years from the effectivity of RA 9646, all existing and new positions in the national or local government, shall be filled only by
registered and licensed real estate service practitioners.
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 2 years
d. 4 years
117. Your uncle died without a will, and you inherited his real estate. The way in which you would acquire his estate is by:
a. Accession
b. SUCCESSION
c. Escheat
d. Avulsion
118. Period of lease if Lessee is a Filipino
a. 99 YEARS
b. 80 years
c. 50 years renewable to another 25 years
d. 25 years renewable to another 25 years
119. Imaginary line connecting the known geographic position to the corner of the titled property.
a. TIE LINE
b. Tie point
c. Metes and bounds
d. Point of beginning
120. Rent Control Law
a. RA 9163
b. RA 6391
c. RA 3991
d. RA 6931
121. Prescribing the guidelines of Sec. 20, RA 7160 authorizing the cities/municipalities to reclassify lands into non-agricultural uses:
a. MC. No. 64
b. MC No. 54
c. MC No. 34
d. MC No. 43
122. Under BP 220 IRR minimum floor line to ceiling
a. 2 meters
b. 1.5 meters
c. 3 meters
d. 3.5 meters
123. Considered real estate practitioner except:
a. Developer
b. Appraiser
c. Broker
d. Consultant
124. Is the full seals of life and its processes, including genes species and ecosystems forming lineages that integrate into a complex and
regenerative spatial arrangements of types, forms and interactions.
a. Biodiversity
b. Ecology
c. Ecosystem
d. Biosphere
125. Refers to National Building Code
a. PD 1096
b. PD 1216
c. PD 27
d. PD 1185
126. Island at West Philippine Sea located 220 km West of Zambales Province and claimed by China and known as
a. HUANYU ISLAND
b. Yongshu Island
c. Tubbataha Island
d. Gaven Reef
127. Subdivision scheme where the resulting blocks are more or less rectangular traffic
a. GRIDIRON
b. Contour Planning
c. Chaplan
d. Square Planning
128. The best evidence of land/property ownership under the Philippine system of registration is:
a. Technical Description
b. Tax Declaration
c. TORRENS TITLE
d. Vicinity Map
 e. None of the Above
129. Forced value ; forced sale value
a. Insured value
b. UNREPRESENTATIVE VALUE
c. Liquidation value
d. Condemnation value
130. When you heard the word "command economy", it does refer to:
a. Capitalism
b. Opportunism
c. SOCIALISM
d. Traditionalism
131. A device which grant property owner relief from certain provisions of the zoning ordinance where, because of specific use, would result in a
particular hardship upon the owner as distinguished from a mere inconvenience or a desire to make more money.
a. Temporary use permit
b. VARIANCE
c. Deviation
d. Exception
132. On the minimum design standards under BP 220, the minimum lot area of a Duplex / Single attached for economic housing shall be:
a. 54 sq.m.
b. 48 sq. m
c. 36 sq. m
d. 28 sq. m.
133. Mr. santos hired the services of a broker to sell his property. The owner said he bought it at P7,000,000.00 and wants a 30% gross profit. If you
were the broker, how much would you add to the selling price if you desire a 5% commission without affecting the gross profit of Mr. Santos.

a. 428,947.37
b. 455,000.00
c. 472,500.00
d. 478,947.37
134. States that land cannot be valued on the basis of one use while the improvements are valued on the basis of another.
a. Consistent use
b. Externalities
c. Balance
d. Surplus productivity
135. The seller realized a 35% gross profit over his cost. If the property is sold at P1,450,000.00, find the cost.
a. P 942,500.00
b. P 1,074,074.07
c. P 1,957,500.00
d. P 2,230,768.23
136. Under PD 957 minimum lot are for single detached for open market housing:
a. 110 sq.m.
b. 120 sq.m.
c. 100 sq.m.
d. 90 sq.m.
137. Section 18 of the Urban Development Housing Act (RA 7279) requires developers of a subdivision project to provide 20% of the main
subdivision for:
a. Roads and open spaces
b. Socialized housing
c. Economic housing
d. Medium cost housing
e. Parks and playgrounds
138. Maria objected to the violation of a deed of restriction in her subdivision but waited one year to request a court injunction to enforce the
restriction. The judge subsequently ruled that Maria had waited too long to request for court action. The judge would not issue the injunction.
Maria's loss is an example of
a. Accession
b. LACHES
c. Reliction
d. Annexation
139. Is the legal use of land that will produce the highest capitalised net income return to its owner is based on the following principle
a. Principle of comparative advantage
b. PRINCIPLE OF HIGHEST AND BEST USE
c. Principle of good asset management
d. Principle of substitution
140. The tracking provision in Pag-ibig Fund allows a maximum of _____ member in a single loan
a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
141. The zonal value of property can be obtained from:
a. Assessor's office
b. BUREAU OF INTERNAL REVENUE
c. Land Registration Authority
d. DENR
142. Qualified members of CPE council are representatives of, except:
a. PRBRES
b. ACADEME
c. AIPO
d. COMMISSION
143. Dual Citizenship Law
a. RA 9225
b. RA 2592
c. RA 2295
d. RA 5292
144. Condominium Act of the Philippines
a. R.A. 2646
b. R.A. 4726
c. R.A. 2546
 d. R.A. 2674
145. Indention along corner lots to allow better visibility to perpendicular traffic.
a. CHAPLAN
b. Cul de sac
c. Gridiron
d. Contour planning
146. The Certificate Authorizing Registration (CAR) has a validity of ______ from date of issue
a. 90 days
b. 1 YEAR
c. 2 years
d. 18 months
147. An individual's income derived after his salary is reduced by statutory contributions like SSS, Pag-IBIG, and Philhealth, and Withholding tax,
which is also referred to as "net take-home pay" is
a. Discretionary income
b. DISPOSABLE INCOME
c. Personal income
d. Family income
148. Amount considered on the basis of evaluating facts to be true or real worth .
a. INTRINSIC VALUE
b. Asking value
c. Investment value
d. Insured value
149. The Greatest Advocate of capitalism is an economist from Scotland who wrote The Wealth of Nations in 1776. His name is:
a. Karl Max
b. Adam Smith
c. John Maynard Keynes
d. Milton Friedman
150. Maximum acquisition of former natural born Filipino citizens for residential purpose in Urban Land.
a. 500 sq.m.
b. 1,500 sq.m.
c. 1,000 sq.m.
d. 2,000 sq.m.
151. Removing a cloud on a title or establishing title, by a proper action in court.
a. Quieting Title
b. Court Order
c. Cancellation of Lis Pendense
d. Reconveyance
152. Using other people's money to purchase real property.
a. Leverage
b. Multiplier effect
c. Economies of scale
d. Stagflation
153. In the country where there is only one telco provider, that specific company enjoy it.
a. Oligopolistic market
b. MONOPOLISTIC MARKET
c. Oligopsonic market
d. Monopsonic market
154. A real estate salesperson is employed by a Real Estate Broker who is accredited in John Doe Development Corporation. Said salesperson has
a serious prospect buyer but was interested in a competitor Developer project. What should the salesperson do to close the sale.
a. Affiliate with other broker who is accredited with the competitor developer.
b. Ask the buyer to give reservation fee to hold the unit without first obtaining an authority/accreditation from the competitor Developer.
c. Go to the competitor Developer and bring the buyer to be able to close the sale
d. CONVINCE THE BUYER TO BUY FROM THE PROJECT HE IS HANDLING BY GIVING ALL THE ADVANTAGES AND SELLING
POINTS OF THE PROJECT.
155. Increase in value of real estate without any effort or expense by the owner
a. Appreciation value
b. UNEARNED INCREMENT
c. Value-added principle
d. Market value
156. Centare is equivalent to
a. 1000 sq.m.
b. 1 SQ.M.
c. 200 sq.m
d. 2000 sq.m.
157. Using the 4-3-2-1 rule (depth rule) if a 5 hectares belonging to different owners was sold for P10,000,000.00. what is the share of lot owners
owning the first quarter abutting the road
a. P 2,500,000.00
b. P 5,000,000.00
c. P 4,000,000.00
d. P 6,000,000.00
158. Under BP 220 minimum lot area for single detached for economic housing:
a. 38 sq.m.
b. 40 sq.m.
c. 72 sq.m.
d. 64 sq.m.
159. The standard color scheme for institutional land use
a. Red
b. BLUE
c. Yellow
160. Are lines in a topographic map which indicate the elevation of the land at various sections.
a. Tie line
b. CONTOUR LINE
c. Tie point
d. Point of beginning
161. 1 ares is equal to ____ square meters
a. 10
b. 100
 c. 1000
d. 1
162. A market with few buyers and multiple seller
a. OLIGOPSONY
b. Oligopoly
c. Sellers Market
d. Monopsony
163. Real Estate Brokers Examination subjects in the PRC Licensure exam except.
a. FUNDAMENTALS OF PROPERTY OWNERSHIP
b. CODE OF ETHICS AND RESPONSIBILITIES
c. REAL ESTATE FINANCE AND ECONOMICS
d. REAL ESTATE CONSULTING AND INVESTMENT ANALYSIS
164. Cities grow out in all directions in the absence of physical obstructions:
a. Axial Growth
b. CONCENTRIC CIRCLE GROWTH
c. Sector Growth
d. Multiple Nuclei
165. Are chiefly animals which ingest other organisms
a. Producers
b. CONSUMERS
c. Decomposers
d. Parasites
166. Cities grow outward following principle transportation routes
a. AXIAL GROWTH
b. Concentric Circle Growth
c. Sector Growth
d. Strip Development
167. Under BP 220 minimum lot area for single detached for socialized housing:
a. 63 SQ.M.
b. 74 sq.m.
c. 54 sq.m.
d. 38 sq.m.
168. Market value of property arrived by income approach to value.
a. CAPITALIZED VALUE
b. Loan value
c. Assessed value
d. Market value
169. Under PD 957 minimum lot are for row house for medium cost housing
a. 50 SQ.M.
b. 40 sq.m.
c. 30 sq.m.
d. 60 sq.m.
170. Refers to positions in government requiring the services of registered and license Real Estate Service Practitioners.
a. Section 21
b. Section 17
c. Section 12
d. SECTION 30
171. The share of an illegitimate child is equivalent to
a. Same as the share of the spouse
b. 1/2 of the share of the spouse
c. Same as the share of a legitimate child
d. 1/2 SHARE OF A LEGITIMATE CHILD
172. Under IRR of RA 9646, the lawyers of the ______ shall act as prosecutors against illegal practitioners and violators of RA 9646,
a. PRBRES
b. HLURB
c. PRC
d. RTC
173. Law which discontinue the Spanish Mortgage Law system of registration (Feb. 16, 1976)
a. PD 957
b. PD 1096
c. PD 1529
d. PD 772
e. PD 892
174. Under BP 220 minimum lot area for row house for economic housing:
a. 26 sq.m.
b. 72 sq.m.
c. 36 SQ.M.
d. 28 sq.m.
175. Under BP 220 minimum lot area for single detached for socialized housing:
a. 64 SQ.M.
b. 74 sq.m.
c. 54 sq.m.
d. 38 sq.m.
176. One where the mortgage obligation can be paid off at any time before maturity.
a. OPEN MORTGAGE
b. Close mortgage
c. Senior mortgage
d. Junior mortgage
177. One where the mortgage obligation cannot be paid earlier than maturity, unless the mortgagee agrees to accept early payment.
a. CLOSED MORTGAGE
b. Open mortgage
c. Senior mortgage
d. Junior mortgage
178. Is an example of an ecosystem except:
a. TERRESTRIAL
b. SALT WATER
c. FRESHWATER
 d. DESERT
179. A process of determining fair market value of a land by comparing it with nearby or comparable properties which were subject of recent sales or
offerings is an example of:
a. Market analysis
b. MARKET DATA APPROACH
c. Appraiser's approach
D. Valuation approach
d. Valuation approach
180. Cadastral surveys done by the Bureau of Lands is represented by the symbol:
a. Csc
b. Csb
c. Csbl
d. Bllm
181. Subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protective Decree
a. PD 957
b. PD 1529
c. PD 1517
d. PD 1216
e. PD 471
182. Home Guaranty Act / Magna Carta for Homeowners & Homeowners Association
a. RA 6732
b. RA 6552
c. RA 8763
d. RA 9653
e. BP 185
183. Revision of assessment by assessor shall be made:
a. Every 2 years
b. Every 3 years
c. Every 4 years
d. Every 5 years
184. Refers to movement of young professional to the central city
a. Gentrification
b. Sprawl
c. Brownfields
d. Newtown
185. Which of the following is physical characteristic of land?
a. Scarcity
b. Situs
c. Permanence of Investment
d. IMMOBILITY
186. Considered founder of modern macroeconomics which is the study of the entire economic system as a whole, rather thru its individual parts
a. Thomas Malthus
b. Jon Maynard Keynes
c. Johann Heinrich Von Thunen
d. Karl Max
187. Under the Code of Ethics and Responsibilities the real estate service practitioner is obligated to observe in all dealings and relations with
clients, fellow practitioners, and general public the principle of treating others as you like them to treat you, or referred to as:
a. The ten commandments
b. Silver rule of practice
c. Golden rule
d. Good manners and right conduct
188. A document issued by the DENR Secretary that the proposed project will not cause a significant negative environmental impact.
a. ENVIRONMENTAL COMPLIANCE CERTIFICATE
b. Environmental Impact Assessment
c. Environmental Impact Statement
d. Environmental Assessment Survey
189. ________ is the present worth of future benefits arising from ownership of real estate.
a. Capitalization
b. VALUE
c. Income
d. Effective Gross Income
190. 1Extrajudicial settlement of estate means:
a. Settling the estate of the testator based on his will
b. Filing a petition in court to divide the estate of the deceased or testator
c. SETTLING THE ESTATE AMONG THE HEIRS WITHOUT GOING TO THE COURT
d. Settling the estate by self adjudication
191. Pactum commissorium means:
a. Commission pact or agreement
b. Commission that has been earned and therefore demandable
c. A STIPULATION WHICH AUTHORIZES MORTGAGEE TO APPROPRIATE THE PROPERTY AS HIS OWN UPON DEFAULT OF THE
MORTGAGOR
d. Commission payment shall be agreed upon between buyer and seller.
192. Sometimes called the lot-block-tract method.
a. FLAT SURVEY METHOD
b. Rectangular survey method
c. Lot plotting
d. Relocation survey
193. The standard color scheme for residential land use
a. Red
b. Blue
c. YELLOW
d. Violet
e. Yellow green
194. Considered founder of modern macroeconomics which is the study of the entire economic system as a whole, rather thru it's individual parts
a. Thomas Malthus
b. Jon Maynard Keynes
c. Johann Von Thunen
 d. Karl Max
195. Under B.P. 220 minimum lot area for single detached for economic housing:
a. 38 sq.m.
b. 30 sq.m.
c. 72 sq.m.
d. 63 sq.m.
196. The Priority right of a tenant to buy the land located in an urban land reform area is known as:
a. Tenant's Possessory Right
b. Tenant's Retention Right
c. Tenant's Incremental Right
d. Tenant's Right of First Refusal
197. Value of recoverable materials from a depreciated property.
a. Salvage value
b. Scrap value
c. Unrepresentative value
d. Intrinsic value
198. Affirms that value is the present worth of all present and future benefits arising from ownership and use of real estate.
a. Contribution
b. Conformity
c. ANTICIPATION
d. Surplus productivity
199. Industry, commerce and housing all seem to grow outward from central area in wedged-shaped patters
a. SECTOR GROWTH
b. Multiple nuclei
c. Axial growth
d. Strip development
200. Law defining "open space" in residential subdivision
a. PD 957
b. RA 6552
c. RA 9653
d. RA 9700
e. PD 1216
201. Under PD 957 minimum lot area for row house for open market housing
a. 40 sq.m.
b. 60 sq.m.
c. 30 sq.m.
d. 48 sq.m.
202. Which of the following would be considered to be real property?
a. A leasehold estate
b. FIXTURES
c. Chattels
d. Trade Fixtures
203. National Shelter Program, designated HLURB as the sole regulatory body of housing and land development
a. PD 957
b. RA 9653
c. EO 90
d. RA 9700
e. EO 209
204. A holographic will must be the following except.
a. MUST BE DATED
b. MUST BE ENTIRELY WRITTEN BY THE HAND OF THE TESTATOR HIMSELF
c. MUST BE SIGNED BY 3 WITNESSES AND ACKNOWLEDGED BEFORE A NOTARY PUBLIC
d. Must be signed by a testator himself
205. What is PRC Modernization Act of 2000?
a. RA 9646
b. RA 8981
c. RA 9603
d. RA 8763
206. Believed that population growth was bound to reduce worker wages, higher rents and prices thus resulting in a lower standard of
living
a. Karl Max
b. Thomas Malthus
c. Johann Von Thunen
d. John Maynard Keynes
207. States that land has the last claim to the net income after the cost of the other factors of production has been paid.
a. Contribution
b. SURPLUS PRODUCTIVITY
c. Progression
d. Conformity
208. Under PD 957 minimum floor area for open market housing
a. 30 sq.m.
b. 42 sq.m.
c. 22 sq.m.
d. 28 sq.m.
209. Which land use classification can be considered a mixed-use development?
a. COMMERCIAL
b. Residential
c. Planned unit development
d. Institutional
e. None of the above
210. The following are types of Property Description ordinarily used in deeds, contracts, offer to sell and lease, except:
a. Lot number
b. Bearings and azimuth
c. Monuments
d. Rectangular Survey
e. Metes and Bounds
211. ________ represents the final payment in an installment plan which is bigger than the previous installments and which liquidates the entire
obligation.
a. One-time payment
b. BALLOON PAYMENT
c. Final payment
d. Settlement Payment
212. _______ Tribes compose The Philippine Indigenous People:
a. 125 tribes
b. 100 tribes
c. 99 tribes
d. 110 tribes
213. Examples of abiotic factors are:
a. Carbohydrates and nitrogen
b. Plants
c. Decomposers
d. Animals
214. Under BP 220 IRR minimum floor line to ceiling for mezzanine
a. 1.8 METERS
b. 2 meters
c. 2.5 meters
d. 1.5 meters
215. Under BP 220 minimum floor area for economic housing
a. 20 sq.m.
b. 22 sq.m.
c. 32 sq.m.
d. 38 sq.m.
216. A market with multiple buyers and few sellers
a. Oligopsony
b. OLIGOPOLY
c. Imperfect Market
d. Buyer's Market
217. The minimum area allocated for a park and playground
a. 50 sq.m.
b. 100 SQ.M
c. 150 sq.m
d. 200 sq.m.
e. 250 sq.m.
218. A revoked license maybe reinstated in ________.
a. 6 months
b. 2 years
c. 1 years
d. 3 years
219. Exchange value; objective value.
a. MARKET VALUE
b. Capitalized value
c. Investment vale
d. Asking value
220. Section 4 Rule 74 of the Rules of Court specifies a _____ year prescriptive period for any claim in inheritance on the estate of the deceased;
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
221. Maximum acquisition of former natural born Filipino citizens for business purpose in Urban Land.
a. 3 hectares
b. 5,000 sq.m.
c. 2,000 sq.m.
d. 1 hectare
222. Money that binds oneself to reserve the property for the latter to purchase/lease at a stipulated price and within a stipulated period.
a. Escrow money
b. Hold-over money
c. Earnest money
d. Option money
223. 192) An act regulating the practice of Real Estate service
a. R.A. 4696
b. R.A. 2676
c. R.A. 7646
d. R.A. 9646
224. Julie was born in the Philippines of Filipino parents. She went to the United States and married an American and thereby obtaining a US
citizenship. She together with her husband went back to the Philippines and wants to work at her own time and decided to enter real estate
practice. Julie applied with the PRC and her application was not accepted because of citizenship. What should Julie do to be able to take the
PRC Real Estate Board Examination:
a. Divorce her husband
b. Apply for Dual Citizenship under RA 9225
c. Go to DFA and apply for Filipino citizenship
d. File and annulment of marriage and apply for reversion of her Filipino Citizenship
225. Under BP 220 minimum lot area for row house for economic housing
a. 26 sq.m.
b. 72 sq.m.
c. 36 sq.m.
d. 28 sq.m.
226. Island where China made it's 4th project:
a. Yangshu Reef
b. Wangshu Reef
c. Shuyong Reef
d. Cuantum Reef
227. Cities grow along a central highway artery
a. Sector growth
 b. Multiple nuclei
c. Axial growth
d. STRIP DEVELOPMENT
228. It is an encumbrance imposed upon an immovable for the benefit of another immovable belonging to another.
a. Right of way
b. Nuisance per se
c. Private nuisance
d. EASEMENT
e. None of the above
229. A core city with suburbs or satellite communities that have physically become one sprawling metropolitan urban center
a. Suburb
b. METROPOLIS
c. Megapolis
d. Spawl
230. Is an example of an Environmentally Critical Project (ECP):
a. Subdivision project
b. GOLF COURSES
c. Reforestation project
d. Agricultural farm lots
231. The Servient estate in an easement appurtenant is the property
a. Owned by the landlord
b. ON WHICH THE EASEMENT IS PLACED
c. That benefits from the easement
d. Owned by the tenant

PRE-BOARD EXAM

Subject: GENERAL/FUNDAMENTALS OF REAL ESTATE

Weight 25% - 100 questions (Complete within 2 hours)

232. The total collection of rights which may be claimed by private ownership is best described as:
a. An estate
b. The fee simple system
c. The bundle of rights
d. Freehold
e. Tenant’s possessory rights
233. For real estate salespersons, no examination shall be given, but they shall be accredited by the Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate
Service provided that they have completed at least the following educational requirement
a. High school graduate
b. 144 units of undergraduate college study
c. One (1) year of college
d. Two (2) years of college
e. Bachelor’s Degree in Real Estate Service
234. The following are the requirements for any person to practice or offer to practice real estate service in the Philippines or offer himself/herself as
real estate service practitioner, except
a. HE/SHE HAS SATISFACTORILY PASSED THE LICENSURE EXAMINATION GIVEN BY THE BOARD, EXCEPT AS OTHERWISE
PROVIDED IN R.A. NO. 9646 AND THE IRR
b. IS A HOLDER OF A VALID CERTIFICATE OF REGISTRATION
c. IS A HOLDER OF A VALID PROFESSIONAL IDENTIFICATION CARD
d. HAS PAID THE REQUIRED BOND AS PROVIDED FOR IN R.A. NO. 9646
e. HAS REGISTERED WITH THE SEC
235. An 800 sqm. lot with house was sold for P3,500,000. Per tax declaration, the market value of the house is P1.5 M and lot is P1.6 M. The zonal
value of the lot is P3,500.00/sqm. The sale is subject to capital gain tax. What is the basis for Capital Gains Tax?
a. P 4,300,000
b. P 4,150,00
c. P 4,250,000
d. P 4,200,000
e. P 4,350,000
236. How much is the capital gains tax to be paid?
a. P 258,000
b. P 249,000
c. P 255,000
d. P 252,000
e. P 261,000
237. How much is the documentary stamp tax to be paid?
a. P 64,500
b. P 62,250
c. P 63,750
d. P 63,000
e. P 65,250
238. The Chairperson and the Members of the Board may be reappointed for a second term but in no case shall he/she serve continuously for more
than
a. Two (2) years
b. Three (3) years
c. Four (4) years
d. Five (5) years
e. SIX (6) YEARS
239. It is the reversion of private property to the state due to intestate death of principal.
a. Escheat
b. Devise
c. Patent
d. Expropriation
e. Adjudication
240. Filling of submerged land.
a. Reclamation
b. Accretion
c. Avulsion
 d. Accumulation
e. Alluvium
241. Any natural or judicial person engaged in the business of developing real estate development project for his/her or its own account and offering
them for sale or lease.
a. Real Estate Dealer
b. Real Estate Entrepreneur
c. Real Estate Businessman
d. Real Estate Developer
e. Real Estate Contractor
242. In his advertisements, brochures or announcements, the real estate broker should do the following, except:
a. PRESENT A TRUE PICTURE OF THE PROPERTY AND ITS IMPROVEMENTS
b. PRESENT LIENS AND ENCUMBRANCES ON THE PROPERTY AND ITS IMPROVEMENTS
c. CONCEAL PERTINENT AND MATERIAL FACTS ON THE SUBJECT PROPERTY
d. INDICATE NAME, FIRM, ADDRESS AND LICENSE NUMBER
243. The Real Estate Service Act of the Philippines governs the following service practitioners, except:
a. REAL ESTATE BROKERS .
b. REAL ESTATE DEALERS
c. REAL ESTATE APPRAISERS
d. REAL ESTATE ASSESSORS
e. REAL ESTATE SALESPERSONS
244. Penalty for professional squatters or squatting syndicates per RA 7279:
a. 10 years imprisonment or fine from P 60,000 to P 100,000 or both at the discretion of the court.
b. 6 YEARS IMPRISONMENT OR FINE OF NOT LESS THAN P 60,000 BUT NOT MORE THAN P 100,000 OR BOTH AT THE
DISCRETION OF THE COURT.
c. 5 years imprisonment or fine of not less than P 70,000 but not more than P 100,000 or both at the discretion of the court.
d. 2 years imprisonment or fine of not less than P 20,000 but not more than P 100,000 or both at the discretion of the court.
e. 3 years imprisonment or fine of not less than P 100,000 but not more than P 200,000 or both at the discretion of the court.
245. Real estate practitioners should not seek to obtain clients by solicitation. Advertising is a form of solicitation. Publication of announcement is
permitted only for the following, except:
a. Opening of a new office
b. Change in office location or telephone numbers
c. Reorganization of firm or office practice
d. Listing of firm name in lobby directory of an office building and entrance door in good taste and modest size
e. GETTING A LARGE CORPORATION AS CLIENT
246. The following real estate service practitioner must be accredited by the PRBRES in order to engage in real estate service practice
a. REAL ESTATE SALESPERSON
b. Real Estate Broker
c. Real Estate Developer
d. Real Estate Appraiser
e. Real Estate Consultant
247. Title to an inherited property may be transferred to the sole heir upon payment of real estate tax and execution and registration of a legal
document called:
a. Extra judicial settlement
b. Extra judicial partition of estate
c. AFFIDAVIT OF ADJUDICATION
d. Affidavit of inheritance
248. It is the right of the state to take property for public use at fair price.
a. EMINENT DOMAIN
b. Ownership
c. Expropriation
d. Res nulius
e. Regalian doctrine
249. The real estate brokerin his relation with his client must observe the following, except
a. ENDEAVOR TO BE WELL INFORMED OF CURRENT LEGISLATION
b. ASSIST HIS CLIENT TO ACQUIRE POSSESSION AND OWNERSHIP OF THE REAL PROPERTY
c. COLLECT VALUABLE CONSIDERATIONFROM THE PARTY WHO IS NOT HIS CLIENT WITHOUT THE FULL KNOWLEDGE AND
CONSENT OF ALL THE PARTIES
d. PROTECT AND PROMOTE THE INTEREST OF THE CLIENT WITHOUT SACRIFICING THE LEGITIMATE INTEREST OF THE OTHER
PARTY IN THE TRANSACTION
e. PRESENT ALL OFFERS TO THE OWNER
250. Easement is to real property, usufruct is to ______.
a. Public property
b. Stewardship concept
c. PERSONAL OR REAL PROPERTY
d. Property protection
e. Intangible property
251. Acquisition through the will of the owner or testator is:
a. Possession
b. DEVISE
c. Involuntary grant
d. Regime of separation of property
e. Patent
252. Under the RESA, there must be one broker for every
a. Five (5) Real Estate Salespersons
b. Ten (10) accredited real estate salespersons
c. Twenty (20) real estate salespersons
d. Fifty (50) real estate salespersons
e. Twenty (20) accredited real estate salespersons
253. The special court proceedings to be instituted to determine the validity of the testamentary disposition of a deceased as to his/her last will:
a. Reconstitution of land title
b. Probate proceeding
c. Petition to remove cloud on title
d. Petition for partition of property
e. Petition to quiet title
254. The following are some of the subjects for the real estate broker’s examinations, except
a. CONDOMINIUM CONCEPT AND OTHER TYPES OF REAL ESTATE HOLDINGS
b. DOCUMENTATION AND REGISTRATION
 c. VALUATION PROCEDURES AND RESEARCH
d. BASIC PRINCIPLES OF ECOLOGY
e. URBAN AND RURAL LAND USE
255. The Board may reinstate any revoked certificate of registration and reissue a suspended professional identification card and, at its discretion,
exempt the applicant from taking another examination after the expiration of ____ years from the date of revocation of a certificate of
registration and/or professional identification card
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. Five
256. Under this Act, a natural born citizen of the Philippines who lost his/her Philippine citizenship by reason of their naturalization as citizen of
another country are deemed to have reacquired Philippine citizenship after taking an oath of allegiance
a. RA 9225 Citizenship Retention and Re-acquisition Act of 2003
b. RA 426 Citizen Retention Act of 2004
c. RA 579 Citizen Re-acquisition Act
d. RA 659 Citizen Acquisition Act
e. RA 259 Citizen Return Act
257. A natural-born Filipino who has lost his Filipino citizenship may, in addition to acquiring residential land, still acquire land for business or other
purpose provided the area does not exceed.
a. 1 hectare of urban land or 2 hectares of rural land
b. 5,000 sq m of urban land or 3 hectares of rural land
c. 5,000 sq m of urban land or 5 hectares of rural land
d. 1,000 sq m of urban land or 3 hectares of rural land
e. 1,000 sq m of urban land or 1 hectare of rural land
258. Instances where foreigner can acquire real estate property in the Philippines except:
a. ACQUISITION BEFORE THE 1935 CONSTITUTION;
b. FORMER NATURAL BORN CITIZEN FOR RESIDENTIAL PURPOSE OR FOR BUSINESS
c. PURCHASE OF CONDOMINIUM UNIT NOT EXCEEDING 40% INTEREST IN THE PROJECT.
d. ACQUISITION THROUGH HEREDITARY SUCCESSION PROVIDED HE/SHE IS A LEGAL HEIR.
e. UPON MARRIAGE TO A FILIPINO CITIZEN
259. Under the Constitution, lands of the public domain are classified into the following except
a. AGRICULTURAL
b. FOREST OR TIMBER
c. MINERAL
d. NATIONAL PARKS
e. SPECIAL
260. The real estate broker is required to post a professional indemnity insurance/cash or surety bond, in an amount to be determined by the Board,
which in no case shall be less than
a. P 5,000
b. P 10,000
c. P 20,000
d. P 1,000
e. P 3,000
261. A bank’s acquired assets which is part of real estate inventories at the close of its accounting period shall be classified as
a. Ordinary assets
b. Capital assets
c. Fixed assets
d. Temporary assets
e. Other assets
262. Alienable lands of the public domain are limited to
a. Agricultural lands
b. Prime lands
c. Mineral lands
d. Private land
e. Special Lands
263. Refers to acquisition of private property against the consent of the former owner via foreclosure sale, execution sale, etc.
a. Public grant
b. Private grant
c. Adverse claim
d. Involuntary grant
e. Personal grant
264. Whenever it is necessary to acquire real property for the right-of-way or location for any national government infrastructure project through
expropriation, the appropriate implementing agency shall file the complaint, and after due notice to the defendant, the implementing agency
shall immediately pay the owner of the land the amount equivalent to 100% of the value of the property based on the
a. Offered amount
b. Assessed value
c. Current market value
d. Appraised value
e. CURRENT ZONAL VALUE
265. It is a claim of a person against the property of another which is effective for only 30 days and no second filing shall be allowed for the same.
a. Lispendens
b. ADVERSE CLAIM
c. Attachment
d. Annotation
e. Escheat
266. An applicant for the licensure examination for real estate consultants must show proof that he/she has at least _______ experience as a
licensed real estate broker or assessor
a. Five years
b. TEN YEARS
c. Three years
d. Two years
e. Fifteen years
267. The best evidence of fee simple ownership is a Torrens Title because it is indefeasible and :
a. IMPRESCRIBABLE& BINDING AGAINST THE WHOLE WORLD
b. Has priority against tax declaration,
c. Has priority against realty tax receipts
 d. In writing
e. Is notarized
268. A case was filed by the buyer against the seller covering the sale of a house and lot and the real estate broker was asked to testify in the case.
In such case, the real estate broker must
a. Protect the rights of the owner no matter what
b. Tell the truth only if it favors the owner
c. GIVE HIS TESTIMONY IN AN UNBIASED,HONEST AND TRUTHFUL MANNER
d. Give his testimony to the extent If will be for the owner
e. Not consider the side of the buyer as the owner is the one paying the commission
269. It is the right of a dweller of anuntitled land to own it provided that the dweller has been living in that particular property continuously for 30
years
a. Claims
b. ADVERSE POSSESSION
c. Informal residence
d. Possession
e. Technical possession
270. The priority right of a tenant to buy the land located in an urban land reform area is :
a. Tenant’s possessory rights
b. Escheat
c. Adverse claim
d. Right of first refusal
e. Res nulius
271. In the licensure examination for the applicants for real estate brokers, a subject for examination common to all real estate service practitioners
is
a. Fundamentals of property ownership
b. Legal requirements for real estate service practice
c. Subdivision development
d. REAL ESTATE FINANCE AND ECONOMICS
e. Basic principles of ecology
272. A parcel of land through which a right-of-way is granted in favor of an adjoining land is:
a. SERVIENT ESTATE
b. Roc estate
c. Dominant estate
d. Row estate
e. Inner estate
273. It is the act of acquiring ownership of property by occupying it in open, continuous, exclusive, notorious in the concept of an owner (OCENO), in
good faith (10 years), in bad faith (30 years)
a. PRESCRIPTION
b. Land grant
c. Reclamation
d. Succession
274. Two brokers belonging to the same organization were in a controversy involving the sale of a house and lot. Under the code of ethics, the real
estate brokers should first bring the controversy for arbitration
a. WITHIN THE ACCREDITED INTEGRATED PROFESSIONAL ORGANIZATION
b. With the Professional Regulation Commission
c. With the Housing Land Use and Regulatory Board
d. With the barangay
e. With the court
275. Under Agrarian Reform Law, tenants may be awarded 5 hectares of unirrigated land and __if irrigated land.
a. 5 hectares
b. 4 hectares
c. 2 hectares
d. 6 hectares
e. 3 HECTARES
276. In addition to the basic real property tax, a province may levy an annual tax on an agricultural land, planted to perennial crops with less than 50
trees to a hectare at the rate not exceeding __of the assessed value of the property>
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 6%
d. 2%
e. 7%
277. Under BIR Revenue Regulation No. 17-2003, the seller of family home who failed to utilize the proceeds to acquire a new residence within 18
months from the sale shall be assessed ____ inclusive of penalties and 20% interest per annum.
a. Deficit tax
b. Capital gains tax
c. Insufficient capital tax
d. DEFICIENCY CAPITAL GAINS TAX
278. Unpaid real property tax is subject to 2% per month interest up to a maximum period of
a. 12 months
b. 36 months
c. until paid
d. 24 months
e. 48 months
279. A taxpayer has to redeem his real property which was levied and subsequently forfeited and acquired by the Local Government Unit due to tax
delinquency within.
a. 1 year
b. 60 days
c. 5 years
d. 4 years
e. 3 years
280. The law allowing a natural-born citizen of the Philippines who has lost his Philippine citizenship to be a transferee of a maximum area of five
thousand (5,000) square meters in the case of urban land or three (3) hectares in the case of rural land to be used by him for business or other
purposes
a. RA 8179
b. RA 7279
c. BP 220
d. PD 1529
 e. BP 185
281. A duly registered and licensed natural person who, for a professional fee, compensation or other valuable consideration, performs or renders,
or offers to perform services in estimating and arriving at an opinion of or acts as an expert on real estate values under the RESA
a. Real Estate Appraiser
b. Real Estate Assessor
c. Real Estate Valuer
d. Real Estate Estimator
e. Real Estate Underwriter
282. The creditable withholding tax for the sale of a residential condominium unit worth P 1.8M which is being used as a residence by owner is.
a. 1.5%
b. 5%
c. 6%
d. 3%
e. 0% or none
283. A parcel of land owned by the owner for more than 20 years will be declared for the first time with the municipal assessor. The owner shall be
subject to taxes for a maximum period of
a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 20 years
d. 3 years
e. 10 years
284. Family Code of 1988
a. a. EO 209
b. RA 8533
c. PD 8179
d. b. EO 190
e. RA 8355
285. A family residence was sold at P 4,500,000. The BIR FMV is P 5,000,000. The owner then bought a new residential home worth P 3,000,000
from the proceeds. What is the capital gains tax on the unutilized portion ?
a. P 98,000
b. P 100,000
c. P 103,000
d. P 105,000
e. P 99,000
286. Eviction or demolition of squatters allowed under RA 7279 except:
a. SQUATTERS OCCUPY DANGER AREAS SUCH AS ESTEROS, RAILROAD TRACK.
b. GOVERNMENT INFRASTRUCTURE WITH AVAILABLE FUNDS ARE ABOUT TO BE CONSTRUCTED.
c. WHEN THERE IS COURT ORDER FOR EVICTION AND DEMOLITION.
d. MALLS WITH FUNDS ARE ABOUT TO BE CONSTRUCTED
e. WHEN STRUCTURES TO BE DEMOLISHED ARE OWNED BY A PROFESSIONAL squatter and squatting syndicate
287. As provided for by the Agrarian Reform Law, lands awarded to a tenant beneficiary cannot be subject of a conversion permit within:
a. Within 1 year from grant of emancipation patent
b. Within 2 years from grant of emancipation patent
c. Within 3 years from grant of emancipation patent
d. Within 5 years from grant of emancipation patent
e. WITHIN 10 YEARS FROM GRANT OF EMANCIPATION PATENT
288. A broker had an exclusive listing for the sale of a condominium unit including parking space and another broker had a buyer who was interested
in buying the condominium unit. The broker of the buyer may negotiate directly with the owner provided that
a. He has submitted the offer of his buyer to the other broker
b. He has submitted the offer to the owner
c. The offer of the buyer was coursed through the broker of the owner
d. THE EXCLUSIVE BROKER OF THE OWNER AGREES AND GIVES HIS CONSENT
e. The offer of the buyer is the only offer made to the owner
289. Concept of ownership which refers to the right of owner to conserve and utilize property for the people.
a. STEWARDSHIP
b. Custody
c. Regalian
d. Guardianship
e. Intestate
290. A house and lot was being rented out by the owner and the property listed through several brokers. A broker who also obtained the listing can
place his for rent sign if authorized by the owner and only if
a. It does not exceed two signs for rent
b. It is placed not less than 2 meters away from the other sign
c. His sign is not more than 2 meters by 2 meters in size
d. THERE IS NO SIGN PLACED ON THE PROPERTY
e. The sign indicates the expiration date of his authority
291. A real estate broker was asked by the buyer to look for a house and lot for him to buy and also told the broker that the buyer will give a
commission and when the broker talked with the owner of the house, the broker was also going to be given a commission. The real estate
broker can accept the commissions and still be within the bounds of the code of ethics provided
a. He only accepts the commission from the seller
b. He only accepts the commission from the buyer
c. HE ACCEPTS THE COMMISSION FROM THE BUYER AND SELLER IF THEY BOTH KNOW AND AGREE
d. He accepts the commission from the buyer and seller, even If the seller does not know
e. He accepts the commission from the seller and buyer, even if the buyer does not know
292. A donation is valid
a. Without acceptance of donee during lifetime of donor
b. UPON ACCEPTANCE OF DONEE DURING LIFETIME OF DONOR
c. Upon acceptance by donee
d. Without acceptance of donee
293. Under Conjugal Partnership of Gain ,the following shall be the exclusive property of each spouse except :
a. BROUGHT TO THE MARRIAGE AS HIS OR HER OWN
b. WINNINGS FROM LOTTERY OF ANY OF THE SPOUSES
c. THAT WHICH EACH ACQUIRES DURING THE MARRIAGE BY GRATUITOUS TITLE
d. ACQUIRED BY RIGHT OF REDEMPTION, BY BARTER OR BY EXCHANGE WITH PROPERTY BELONGING TO ONLY ONE OF THE
SPOUSES
e. PURCHASED WITH EXCLUSIVE MONEY OF THE WIFE OR OF THE HUSBAND
294. In a regime of absolute community or conjugal partnership of gains, either spouse may exercise any legitimate profession, occupation, business
or activity without the consent of the other. The latter may object only on valid, serious, and moral grounds. In case of disagreement, the court
shall decide whether or not the objection is proper, and whether benefit has accrued to the family prior to the objection or thereafter.
a. RA 10572, AMENDMENT TO EO 209
b. RA 10573, amendment to EO 209
c. RA 10572, amendment to BP 209
d. RA 10573, amendment to BP 209
e. RA 10572, amendment to PD 209
295. Broker Cruz got a listing which was an exclusive listing of broker Cara. Broker Cruz can solicit the listing only if the listing agreement between
Broker Cara and the owner has been revoked and
a. Broker Cara is unable to renew the listing with the owner
b. Broker Cara failed to ask for reconsideration from the owner to extend the listing
c. THE OWNER OFFERS TO LIST THE SAME TO BROKER CRUZ WITHOUT SOLICITATION FROM BROKER CRUZ
d. The owner does not offer the listing again to Broker Cara
e. Broker Cara no longer wants to sell the property
296. When accepting a listing from another broker, the broker should respect the agency of the other broker who offered the listing until:
a. THE AGENCY AGREEMENT HAS EXPIRED
b. The property has come to the attention of the accepting broker from a different source
c. The owner, without solicitation, offers to list with the accepting broker
d. He/she sees the notice of the property for sale and walk-in within the period of broker’s agreement.
297. A real estate broker discussed with the owner the property the owner wanted to sell at a price of P10,000,000. The broker mentioned that the
zonal value was P8,000,000 and the fair market value of the assessor was already P11,000,000, although the broker said the property can be
offered for sale at P12.000.000, but the owner only finally agreed to offer the property at P10,500,000. At what price should the broker offer the
property for sale
a. P 8,000,000
b. P 10,000,000
c. P 10,500,000
d. P 11,000,000
e. P 12.000.000
298. Several offers for the purchase of the property were submitted by the real estate broker to the owner on April 4 and then on April 6, another
offer to purchase the property was received by the real estate broker. What must the real estate broker do?
a. Wait for the owner to decide first before giving the latest offer
b. Tell the purchaser that his offer will have to wait till owner decides
c. THE LATEST OFFER SHOULD BE PRESENTED TO THE OWNER FOR HIS DECISION
d. The real estate broker should tell the buyer to revise his offer
e. The real estate broker must tell the buyer the property s presently on hold
299. The professional identification card shall be renewed every
a. Year
b. THREE YEARS
c. Five years
d. Two years
e. December 31 in the year of expiration
300. The following are conjugal partnership properties except:
a. THOSE ACQUIRED BY ONEROUS TITLE DURING THE MARRIAGE AT THE EXPENSE OF THE COMMON FUND
b. THOSE OBTAINED FROM THE LABOR, INDUSTRY, WORK OR PROFESSION OF EITHER OR BOTH OF THE SPOUSES
c. THE FRUITS, NATURAL, INDUSTRIAL OR CIVIL, DUE OR RECEIVED DURING THE MARRIAGE FROM THE COMMON PROPERTY,
AS WELL AS THE NET FRUITS FROM THE EXCLUSIVE PROPERTY OF EACH SPOUSE
d. LOSSES FROM GAMBLING
e. THOSE ACQUIRED THROUGH OCCUPATION SUCH AS FISHING OR HUNTING
301. Which of the following acts can be considered to be unethical for a real estate broker under the code of ethics
a. COOPERATE WITH OTHER BROKERS ON PROPERTY LISTED
b. WRITE ARTICLES ON REAL ESTATE FOR A NEWSPAPER
c. SHARE THE COMMISSION ON AN AGREED BASIS
d. SEEK NO UNFAIR ADVANTAGE OVER HIS FELLOW BROKERS
e. USE THE SERVICES OF THE SALESPERSON OF ANOTHER BROKER WITHOUT WRITTEN CONSENT OF THE SALESPERSON’S
EMPLOYER PROVIDED HE PAYS THE SALESPERSON A COMMISSION
302. Each spouse shall own, dispose, possess and administer his/her own separate estate without need of consent of the other.
a. Regime of Joint Undertaking
b. Regime of Union with Marriage
c. REGIME OF SEPARATION OF PROPERTY
d. Regime of Segregation of Property
e. Regime of Conjugal Partnership of Gains
303. Upon application and payment of the required fees and subject to the approval of the Commission, the Board may issue special/temporary
permit to real estate service practitioners from foreign countries whose services are urgently needed in the absence or unavailability of local
real estate service practitioners provided that
a. He/she becomes a dual citizen
b. He/she has ten (10) years residence in the country
c. THERE IS FOREIGN RECIPROCITY BETWEEN HIS/HER COUNTRY AND THE PHILIPPINES
d. He/she is a resident of the Philippines
e. He/she has taken the examinations for licensing
304. To each spouse shall belong all earnings from his/her possession, business per industry and all fruits, natural, individual or civil, due or received
during the marriagefrom his or her separate proper.
a. Regime of Joint Undertaking
b. Property Regime of Union with Marriage
c. REGIME OF SEPARATION OF PROPERTY
d. Regime of Segregation of Property
305. The Real estate service practitioner shall be required to indicate on the documents he/she signs, uses or issues in connection with the practice
of his/her profession the following, except:
a. CERTIFICATE OF REGISTRATION
b. PROFESSIONAL IDENTIFICATION CARD
c. COMMUNITY TAX CERTIFICATE NUMBER
d. PRIVILEGE TAX RECEIPT NUMBER
e. ALPO MEMBERSHIP AND/OR RECEIPT NUMBER
306. After sufficient notice to the developer, a buyer of a subdivision lot on installment discontinued paying amortization because the developer failed
to develop the subdivision as certified by the HLURB. In such a situation and under P.D. 957, the buyer is entitled to a refund which would be:
a. Total payment made less penalty charges.
b. Total payments made less penalty and interest charges.
 c. TOTAL PAYMENTS MADE LESS PENALTY CHARGES PLUS INTEREST ON TOTAL PAYMENT .
d. Total payments including penalty charges
e. None of the above.
307. The real estate service practitioner is obligated to observe in all the dealings and relation of the practitioners with clients, fellow practitioners,
the organizations to which they belong, and the public the principle of treating others as you like them to treat you referred to as
a. Good Manners and Right Conduct
b. Silver Rule of Practice
c. GOLDEN RULE
d. The Seventh Commandment
e. Ethical Business Conduct
308. In the absence of a valid pre-nuptial agreement, the governing property relations of a married couple
a. Complete separation of property
b. ABSOLUTE COMMUNITY OF PROPERTY
c. Conjugal partnership
d. Regime of separation of property
309. Judicial separation of property may be voluntary or for sufficient cause. Any of the following shall be considered sufficient cause for
judicial separation of property except:
a. SPOUSE OF PETITIONER HAS BEEN SENTENCED TO A PENALTY WHICH CARRIES WITH IT CIVIL INTERDICTION
b. SPOUSE OF PETITIONER HAS BEEN JUDICIALLY DECLARED AN ABSENTEE.
c. SPOUSE OF PETITIONER HAS ABANDONED THE LATTER OR FAILED TO COMPLY WITH HIS/HER OBLIGATION TO THE FAMILY
d. THE SPOUSE GRANTED THE POWER OF ADMINISTRATION IN THE MARRIAGE SETTLEMENTS HAS ABUSED THE POWER
e. THE SPOUSES HAVE BEEN SEPARATED FOR 10 MONTHS
310. In relation to the government, the real estate broker must follow the rules of conduct and practice mentioned below, except
a. Secure all licenses and permits from the government
b. Pay all taxes and fees imposed by the government
c. RECOMMEND THE UNDERVALUATION OF THE SELLING PRICE
d. Indicate license number in his letterhead
311. An act allowing illegitimate children to use the surname of their father. The legitime of each illegitimate child shall consist of ½ of the
legitime of a legitimate child.
a. RA 9256 amending Art 175, EO 209
b. RA 9254 amending Art 175, EO 209
c. RA 9254 amending Art 176, EO 209
d. RA 9255 amending Art 175, EO 209
e. RA 9255 AMENDING ART 176, EO 209
312. The chairperson or any member of the Board may be suspended or removed by the President of the Philippines, upon the recommendation of
the Commission and after due notice and hearing in a proper administrative investigation to be conducted by the Commission on the following
grounds, except
a. NEGLECT OF DUTY,
b. CHARGE OF A CRIME INVOLVING MORAL TURPITUDE
c. UNPROFESSIONAL, UNETHICAL CONDUCT,
d. IMMORAL CONDUCT,
e. COMMISSION OR TOLERATION OF IRREGULARITIES IN THE CONDUCT OF EXAMINATION
313. Seizure of a property by a court order, usually done to have it available in the event of adverse judgment of a pending suit, is:
a. Escheat
b. Foreclosure
c. ATTACHMENT
d. Forfeiture
e. Conveyance
314. Modes of acquiring land ownership except :
a. PRIVATE GRANT, PUBLIC GRANT, INVOLUNTARY GRANT
b. INHERITANCE OR DESCENT; RECLAMATION, ACCRETION
c. ADVERSE POSSESSION, DEVISE
d. ALLUVIUM
315. There is created a Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service, hereinafter referred to as the Board, under the supervision and
administrative control of the
a. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
b. Professional Regulatory Commission
c. Professional Board of Real Estate Service
d. Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council
e. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
316. The chairperson and the members of the Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service shall hold office for a term of
a. One year
b. Two years
c. THREE YEARS
d. Five years
e. One year subject to reappointment for another three years
317. Refers to grant of public land to persons seeking to establish and maintain agricultural homes on condition of actual, continuous and personal
occupancy of the area as a home including cultivation and improvement of the land.
a. Free Patent
b. Miscellaneous Sales Patent
c. HOMESTEAD PATENT
d. Sale Patent
318. The estate tax return shall be filed with the BIR within :
a. 60 days from death of decedent
b. 90 days from death of decedent
c. 180 DAYS FROM DEATH OF DECEDENT
d. 120 days from death of decedent
319. The National Code of Ethics and Responsibilities for Real Estate Service Practice covers thefollowing, except
a. REAL ESTATE SALESPERSON
b. REAL ESTATE DEVELOPER
c. REAL ESTATE BROKER
d. REAL ESTATE APPRAISER
e. REAL ESTATE CONSULTANT
320. Any violation of R.A. 9646, including violations of the IRR committed by a licensed real estate appraiser, shall be meted the penalty of a fine of
not lower than
a. P 50,000
b. P 100,000
 c. P 20,000
d. Double the amount of P100,000
e. Double time amount of P 200,00
321. A bank sold to the highest bidder a 3-story building which it had foreclosed from its owner. The bank shall be liable to pay the following tax for
the sale.
a. Value-added Tax
b. Transfer tax
c. CAPITAL GAINS TAX
d. Percentage Tax
e. Creditable withholding tax
322. If it is an LGU expropriating a real property, the deposit should be equal to 15% of the
a. Assessed value
b. Appraised value from licensed real estate appraiser
c. Current zonal valuation of the BIR
d. MARKET VALUE OF THE PROPERTY BASED ON THE TAX DECLARATION
e. Offered amount
323. With regards to the relation with a client or customer, the practitioner, in accepting an appointment or authority to act for and in behalf of the
client / customer, can perform such acts, except:
a. acquire an interest or buy for himself or members of his family within the 4th civil degree
b. endeavor to make buyer and seller conclude a fair contract, advantageous to both parties
c. assist his client acquire possession and ownership of the property bought in accordance with the terms and conditions agreed upon.
d. should not accept any commission or fee from any party in any transaction except from his client unless with the full knowledge and
consent of all the parties concern in the transaction.
324. A broker has secured a written offer to purchase a commercial property at a price of P 60 Million together with a check for the 30% down
payment. He is certain that the seller will accept the offer. Before he can present the offer to the seller, he receives unverified information that a
planned government infrastructure project will eat up a significant portion of the property. Several steps have to be taken by the broker to save
the sale and protect the interest of all parties concerned. Which of the following is inappropriate at the moment?
a. Secure the detailed information from the proper government agencies as to actual scope of the project.
b. Inform the prospect about the forthcoming government project and the possible effect it will have on the property.
c. PRESENT THE OFFER TO THE SELLER FOR SIGNING AND ACCEPTANCE TO ENSURE THE CONSUMMATION OF THE SALE.
d. Inform the seller about the forthcoming government project and the possible effects it will have on the property.
325. In case of real property, prescription in good faith is
a. 5 years
b. 15 years
c. 30 years
d. 10 YEARS
e. 20 years
326. Mr. Juan dela Cruz sold his property at P 5M inclusive of the capital gain tax, documentary stamp tax, and broker’s commission of 5%. What
will be his net proceed after deduction of expenses.
a. P4, 375,000
b. P 4,455,000
c. P 3,575,000
d. P 3,875,000
e. P 4,555,000
327. After a deed of absolute sale was made, signed and notarized, when should the documentary stamp tax on sale of real property be paid?
a. Within 24 hours
b. Within 30 days from the date of notarization
c. Within 10 days after close of month
d. WITHIN 5 DAYS AFTER CLOSE OF MONTH
e. Within 6 months
328. The law allowing a natural-born citizen of the Philippines who has lost his Philippine citizenship to be a transferee of private land for use as
residence
a. RA 8179
b. RA 7279
c. BP 220
d. PD 1529
e. BP 185
329. Effective 2012, a real estate broker shall be subject to VAT if the aggregate amount of actual gross receipts exceed
a. P 700,000
b. P 1,500,000
c. P 1,919,500
d. P 2,500,000
e. P 3,919,200
330. The following liens can be found at the back of the TCT, except
a. REAL ESTATE TAXES LIEN
b. MORTGAGE LIEN
c. MECHANIC’S LIEN
d. JUDGMENT LIEN
331. The law that governs the Professional Regulation Commission
a. RA 8981
b. RA 8424
c. RA 8179
d. RA 8646
e. RA 6557

Subject: SPECIAL AND TECHNICAL KNOWLEDGE

Weight 25% - 100 questions - Complete within 2 hours

332. A petition may be filed by one or more unit owners of condominium project when damage to the project has rendered one-half or more units
untenantable and unit owners holding more than __ percent interest in the common areas are opposed to repair or restoration of the project
a. 50%
b. 30%
c. 40%
d. 20%
333. It is the amount included in the Offer to Purchase to show good faith of the buyer and can form part of the principal amount and refundable if
offer is rejected
 a. EARNEST MONEY
b. Reservation
c. Option
d. Loan
334. It is a condensed history of the title consisting of chain of title, together with indication of all liens, charges, encumbrances
a. ABSTRACT OF TITLE
b. Chain of title
c. Condensed history
d. History of liens
e. Summary of title, liens, charges and encumbrances
335. It refers to a grid north and south (meridians), and east and west (parallels) lines surveyed by the government in identifying Philippine
boundaries.
a. Metes and Bounds
b. Cardinal Directions
c. RECTANGULAR SURVEY
d. Monuments
336. An Active PAG-IBIG member with at least 24 months contributions at the time of the loan application should be not more than___years old at
the age of loan maturity.
a. 70
b. 72
c. 80
d. 75
e. 77
337. A building has the following measurements
Ground floor = 15 meters x 10 meters
Mezzanine = ½ of ground floor
Second floor = 50 sq. m. less than the ground floor Third floor = 2/3 bigger than mezzanine The total floor area of building is:
a. 550 sq. m.
b. 450 sq. m.
c. 430sq.m.
d. 500 sq. m.
e. 420 sq. m.
338. Minimum lot frontage for row house
a. 4 meters
b. 3 meters
c. 3.5 METERS
d. 2.5 meters
339. In mixed used condominium projects, the master deed may be amended by simple majority of the unit owners. Majority is based on
a. Number of Condominium unit
b. FLOOR AREA OF OWNERSHIP
c. Total area of Condominium unit
d. Provision in Articles of Incorporation
e. Provision in by-laws of condominium corporation
340. Right of borrower to redeem his property upon full payment of his obligation
a. Open mortgage
b. Blanket mortgage
c. Prior right
d. DEFEASANCE CLAUSE
e. Promissory bank notes
341. Documents that can be registered with the registry of deeds even without presenting the owner’s duplicate copy of the title
a. LISPENDENS NOTICE
b. ADVERSE CLAIM NOTICE
c. WRIT OF PRELIMINARY ATTACHMENT
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE
e. None of the above
342. It is usually specified on a map to determine actual distances
a. Bearing
b. SCALE
c. Tie line
d. Azimuth
e. 1 degree = 60 minutes
343. Under HDMF Circular No. 247, in order to refinance an existing loan, a borrower’s account must have at least ___ years of repayment history
and latest year must not reflect default.
a. 1 year
b. 2 ½ years
c. 4 years
d. 2 YEARS
e. 3 years
344. A perimeter wall will be constructed on a 240 sq. m. rectangular lot having a frontage of 12 m. the wall is one (1) meter below ground level and
3m. above the ground level. If the cost is P400 per sq. m. compute the total cost of the wall excluding a 3m. wide gate. What is total cost of wall:
a. P 97,605
b. P 98,000
c. P 98,900
d. P 97,600
e. P 98,500
345. Not included on exemptions of items allowed for developers of socialized housing projects
a. Project-related income taxes,
b. Capital gains tax on raw lands used for the project
c. VAT for the project contractor
d. Transfer tax for both raw and completed projects
e. Donor’s tax for lands that have been donated for socialized housing purposes
346. Rights of a condominium unit owner, except
a. OWNERSHIP OF LAND AND COMMON AREA IN PROPORTION TO UNIT/S OWNED;
b. EXCLUSIVE EASEMENT OF THE AIRSPACE WITHIN HIS UNIT
c. SELL, LEASE, MORTGAGE HIS UNIT;
d. VOTE AND BE VOTED UPON DURING THE MEETINGS OF THE CONDOMINIUM CORPORATION.
e. RIGHT TO REPAIR, PAINT, DECORATE THE COMMON AREAS
347. If Contract of Sale is to Deed of Sale; Contract to Sell is to
a. Pacto de Retro Sale
b. Deed of Sale with Mortgage
c. DEED OF CONDITIONAL SALE
d. Dacion en Pago
348. An annotation on the Certificate of Title that refers to the right granted to a property to have access to a public road through an adjoining land.
a. Mortgage
b. Writ of Preliminary Attachment
c. Notice of LisPendens
d. EASEMENT OF RIGHT-OF- WAY
349. A professional person who determines the shape, contour and measurement of land:
a. Architect
b. Broker
c. Appraiser
d. Consultant
e. GEODETIC ENGINEER
350. A Pag-IBIG member’s capacity to pay shall be limited to an amount for which themonthly amortization shall not exceed _____ of the member’s
net disposableincome
a. 40%
b. 33.33%
c. 30%
d. 35%
e. 45%
351. Unless extended for justifiable cause, the period of completion of development of a subdivision project, counted from issuance of license to sell
is:
a. 24 months C. 12 MONTHS e. 36 months
b. 18 months d. 6 months
352. When the interest of participation of condominium unit owners in the common area is proportionate, the formula applied is:
a. Unit area divided by total area of the common area
b. UNIT AREA DIVIDED BY TOTAL AREA OF ALL CONDOMINIUM UNITS
c. Unit area divided by total area of all condominium units and common areas
d. Unit area divided by total floor area of condominium building
e. Unit area divided by total lot area of condominum
353. The legal principle that if at the end of the lease period the lessee continues occupancy with the lot acquiescence of the lessor and without
notice to vacate, it is understood that there is an implied new lease
a. Pactum de non aliendo
b. TACITARECONDUCCION
c. Dacion en pago
d. Pactumcommissorium
e. Pacto de retro
354. The best evidence of land /property ownership under the Philippine system of registration is
a. Technical description
b. TORRENS TITLE
c. Realty tax receipts
d. Tax declaration
e. Vicinity map
355. Psd means
a. Subdivision of titled properties by government GE
b. Subdivision of untitled property
c. SUBDIVISION OF TITLED PROPERTIES BY PRIVATE GE
d. Cadastral survey by private CE
e. Private land survey (original) by private GE
356. Under the Amended Guidelines on the Pag-IBIG Fund End-User Home Financing Program, the maximum loanable amount that a member
could avail is:
a. P 3.0 M
b. P 4.0 M
c. P 6.0 M
d. P 3.5 M
e. P 5.0 M
357. X Company bought a ten- hectare land for P30, 000,000. If the development cost is P35, 000,000 based on the gross area, compute for the unit
cost per sq. m.
a. P982.57
b. P928.57
c. P957.28
d. P998.57
e. P938.57
358. The life term of a condominium corporation is:
a. Fifty years
b. Agreement between condo corporation and unit owner
c. Twenty five years
d. CO-TERMINUS WITH THE DURATION OF CONDOMINIUM PROJECT
e. None of the above
359. A stipulation in a mortgage of several properties which provides that when a buyer of one or more lots pays in full the purchase price, a portion
of the payment shall be applied and the mortgagee shall correspondingly release said lot or lots from the mortgage
a. Acceleration Clause
b. Hold over Clause
c. AUTOMATIC REDEMPTION CLAUSE
d. Defeasance Clause
360. The following liens can be found at the back of the TCT, except
a. Real estate taxes lien
b. Mortgage lien
c. MECHANIC’S LIEN
d. Judgment lien
361. Which of the following reasons is not a valid justification to conduct a topographic survey?
a. AS A BASIS FOR DETERMINING THE COST OF LAND DEVELOPMENT
b. AS A BASIS FOR ESTABLISHING POINTS AND LOCATING THE LAND BOUNDARIES
c. AS A BASIS FOR DESIGNING AND DRAINAGE SYSTEM
 d. AS A BASIS FOR PLANNING THE ROAD NETWORKS
362. Monthly amortization of Pag-IBIG loan shall commence on
a. MONTH IMMEDIATELY FOLLOWING THE LOAN TAKE OUT
b. Succeeding month
c. Month immediately following the 2nd month from takeout
d. A month before long take out
363. No owner or developer shall change or alter the roads, open spaces, infrastructures, facilities for public use and/or other form of subdivision
development as contained in the approved subdivision plan and/or represented in its advertisements, without the permission of the HLURB and
the written conformity or consent of the duly organized homeowners association, or in the absence of the latter, by the majority of the
a. barangay council members
b. municipal/city council members
c. LOT BUYERS IN THE SUBDIVISION
d. fully paid lot buyers in the subdivision
e. residents in the subdivision
364. For a space to be considered a condominium unit, it must
a. Be encompassed by the interior surface of the walls, floors, ceilings
b. Be managed by a condominium corporation
c. BE SUSCEPTIBLE OF INDEPENDENT USE AND OWNERSHIP
d. Be unencumbered by any restriction
365. When a property is sold to 2 or more buyers, the property goes to
a. BUYER IN GOOD FAITH AND WHO FIRST REGISTERED WITH REGISTER OF DEEDS
b. Buyer who pays the highest price
c. Buyer who was first in possession
d. Buyer who comes first
366. This may be removed by a quit claim deed or court action.
a. Adverse claim
b. Homestead
c. CLOUD ON TITLE
d. Patency law
367. It is a kind of surveying in which photographs are used to determine configuration of land, man-made and natural features
a. Hydrographic survey
b. Relocation survey
c. Aerial survey
d. PHOTOGRAMMETRIC SURVEY
368. Refers to failure to pay three (3) consecutive monthly amortizations, membership contributions and other loan obligations to Pag-IBIG
a. Forfeiture
b. DEFAULT
c. Foreclosure
d. Bad debt
369. A document granting authority to any registered owner / developer to sell lots or units within an approved subdivision or condominium project
and providing for the duties and obligations of said owner / developer
a. Certificate of registration
b. Development permit
c. LICENSE TO SELL
d. Locational clearance
370. In the absence of any provision in the master deed of a condominium project, the share of the unit owners in the common area is.
a. Proportionate to his unit area
b. EQUAL TO ALL OTHER UNIT OWNERS
c. Based on the value of his unit
d. Decided by the majority of owners
e. Decided by the corporation
371. A buyer on installment who has paid at least two years of installments, under Republic Act No. 6552, is entitled to a refund of 50% of total
payments effected during the first five years and an additional __ every year but not to exceed 90% of total payments made.
a. 5%
b. 20%
c. 10%
d. 50%
e. 30%
372. Not among the instances when an offer becomes ineffective
a. DEATH
b. CIVIL INTERDICTION
c. INSOLVENCY OF EITHER PARTY
d. INSANITY
e. ILLNESS
373. A map that shows the location of the property, indicating known landmarks such as church, bridge, school, commercial
establishment and name of roadways leading to the property.
a. LOCATION MAP
b. Resurvey map
c. Lot plan
d. Subdivision map
374. A financing scheme under the Unified Home Lending Program to enable residents in depressed areas to acquire their lot by organizing
themselves into a cooperative
a. Socialized housing program
b. COMMUNITY MORTGAGE PROGRAM
c. Pag-ibig housing loan program
d. Open-end mortgage
375. Law that devolves approval of preliminary as well as final subdivision schemes and development plans of all subdivisions to local government
units
a. RA 7160
b. RA 584
c. PD 957
d. RA 7279
e. EO 70
376. Amendment to the master deed of a condominium project approved by majority of registered unit owners is based on:
a. NUMBER OF CONDOMINIUM UNITS
b. Floor area of ownership
c. Total area of condominium unit
 d. Any of the above
377. A contract which is merely an executory contract or a mere promise to sell with no transfer of ownership
a. Contract of Sale
b. Deed of Sale with ‘’Pacto de Retro’’
c. Conditional Contract of sale
d. CONTRACT TO SELL
378. Refers to annotation on a title which serves as notice that the property is being held in reserve for whatever court judgment may be rendered
against the owner
a. LISPENDENS
b. encumbrances
c. Liens
d. Liabilities
379. The following types of property descriptions ordinarily used in deeds, contracts, offer to sell, and lease, except:
a. Lot number
b. BEARING AND AZIMUTH
c. MONUMENTS
d. RECTANGULAR SURVEY
e. METES AND BOUNDS
380. Borrower shall be allowed to lengthen or shorten the long term only __ during the life of the loan.
a. Twice
b. Thrice
c. Four times
d. ONCE
e. Five times
381. The areas reserved for parks, playgrounds and recreational areas in a subdivision project are:
a. Exclusively owned by owner-developer
b. Co-owned by the developer and purchasers of subdivision lots
c. NON-ALIENABLE PUBLIC LOTS
d. Alienable lots
382. The documents which provides guidelines, rules and regulations regarding the rights of condominium unit owners in the use, occupation,
ownership and disposition of units is called
a. Master Deed
b. Condominium Articles of incorporation
c. DECLARATION OF RESTRICTIONS
d. Condominium Association Rules
383. Jane, owner of a 10-door apartment rented a unit to Emma for one year. Under the law on lease, Emma, without the consent of Jane,
may perform any of the following acts, except:
a. SUBLEASE THE UNIT
b. ASSIGN HER RIGHTS
c. SUSPEND PAYMENT IF JANE FAILS TO MAKE THE NECESSARY REPAIRS
d. DEMAND REIMBURSEMENT CONSTITUTING ONE HALF THE VALUE OF THE USEFUL IMPROVEMENT INTRODUCED IN GOOD
FAITH
384. A notice of adverse claim annotated on the title can be cancelled after the expiration of 30 days after its annotation by
a. Verified petition with the register of deeds
b. Verified petition with the LRA
c. Verified petition with the court
d. Verified petition with the registry
385. A scale of 1:200 in surveying means:
a. 1 cm is equal to 200 meters
b. 1 meter is equal to 200 meters
c. 1 cm is equal to 2 meters
d. None of the above
386. Full medical examination needed for Pag-IBIG loan applicant for loan over P 2,000,000 and age of__and above
a. 60 YEARS
b. 70 years
c. 75 years
d. 65years
e. 68 years
387. Effects when a socialized housing beneficiary unlawfully sell, transfer, or otherwise dispose of his lot or any right thereon, except
a. THE TRANSACTION SHALL BE NULL AND VOID
b. BENEFICIARY SHALL ALSO LOSE HIS RIGHT TO THE LAND
c. BENEFICIARY SHALL FORFEIT THE TOTAL AMORTIZATION PAID ON THE LOT
d. BENEFICIARY SHALL BE BARRED FROM THE BENEFITS OF SOCIALIZED HOUSING FOR A PERIOD OF TEN (10) YEARS FROM
THE DATE OF VIOLATION
e. IF BENEFICIARY DIES BEFORE FULL TRANSFER OF OWNERSHIP TO HIM OF THE PROPERTY UNLAWFULLY TRANSFERRED,
HIS HEIRS ARE IMMEDIATELY AWARDED THE PROPERTY
388. Provisions on sharing schemes in the Master Deed, except
a. EQUAL SHARING
b. SHARING BASED ON VALUE
c. SHARING BASED ON AREA
d. SHARING BASED ON SIMPLE MAJORITY VOTE
389. Under the Rent Control Law, the lessor may ask for a deposit rental not exceeding;
a. 1 month
b. 3 months .
c. 5 months
d. 2 MONTHS
e. 4 months
390. The sale and transfer of title from a real estate dealer to a buyer of a house and lot at P2,000,000.00 is subject to the following except:
a. CREDITABLE WITHHOLDING TAX
b. TRANSFER AND REGISTRATION FEES
c. EXPANDED VALUE ADDED TAX
d. CAPITAL GAINS TAX
391. A kind of survey where the shape of the earth is taken into account in computing results is known as
a. Plane survey
b. Topographic survey
c. Global survey
 d. GEODETIC SURVEY
e. Cadastral survey
392. Minimum lot area to avail of housing loan from Pag-IBIG Fund
a. 24 sq.m
b. 36 sq.m
c. 18sq.m.
d. 32 sq m
e. 28 SQ.M
393. Land valuation guidelines for socialized housing is set by the
a. HUDCC
b. DEPARTMENT OF FINANCE
c. LRA
d. Provincial/City Assessor
e. NHA
394. Any amendment to the master deed of a condominium project decided by the majority of owners must be approved by the HLURB and
a. City/Municipal Mayor
b. City/Municipal Council
c. CITY/MUNICIPAL ENGINEER
d. City/Municipal Assessor
395. Registration of a mortgage covering a subdivision project can only be effected when the deed is accompanied by a permit to mortgage issued
by.
a. National Home Mortgage Finance Corporation
b. National Housing Authority
c. Home Guarantee Corporation
d. HOUSING AND LAND USE REGULATORY BOARD
396. Under RA 6732, administrative reconstitution of lost or destroyed original copies of certificate of title may be availed of when the lost or
destroyed certificates in the Registry of Deeds consist of at least
a. 40% of all titles in the registry
b. 30% of all titles in the registry
c. 10% OF ALL TITLES IN THE REGISTRY
d. 5% of all titles in the registry
397. It refers to an imaginary line connecting from a reference point’’1’’ of any given lot plan
a. Boundary line
b. Cardinal direction
c. Azimuth
d. TIE LINE
398. Loan amount from government financing agency for housing shall be based on the following except.
a. ACTUAL NEED
b. 40% OF NET DISPOSABLE INCOME
c. LOAN TO COLLATERAL RATIO
d. MEMBERSHIP CONTRIBUTION
e. ENDORSEMENT
399. Under PD 957, no real estate dealer, broker or salesman shall engage in the business of selling subdivision lots or condominium units unless
he has registered himself with the
a. DTI
b. BIR
c. HDMF
d. HLURB
e. PRC
400. A lot owner and developer may convert property into a condominium project by executing a legal document and registering the same with the
Register of deeds. The document is called:
a. Transfer certificate of title
b. Condominium certificate of title
c. MASTER DEED
d. Deed of sale
401. In case of refusal by the lessor to accept payment of the rent agreed upon, the lessee may deposit, by way of consignation, the amount
a. IN COURT
b. WITH THE BARANGAY CHAIRMAN
c. WITH THE LESSOR’S RELATIVE
d. WITH THE CITY/MUNICIPAL TREASURER
e. IN A BANK IN THE NAME OF AND WITH NOTICE TO THE LESSOR
402. It embraces the art of open space design, building design and road and pathways design:
a. Socialized housing plan
b. Contour planning
c. SITE PLANNING
d. Table survey planning
403. This shall be paid on the 5th day of the following month after notarization of Deed of Absolute sale.
a. Capital gain tax
b. Creditable withholding tax
c. DOCUMENTARY STAMP
d. Value added tax
404. NOA in the Pag-IBIG Fund scheme means
a. Notice of Acceptance
b. Notice of Adjustment
c. Notice of Amendment
d. NOTICE OF APPROVAL
405. Minimum lot frontage for single detached regular lot
a. 12 meters
b. 10.5 meters
c. 8 METERS
d. 10 meters
406. The Articles of Incorporation of homeowners association is registered with
a. Securities and Exchange Commission
b. HOUSING AND LAND USE REGULATORY BOARD
c. Home Guaranty Corporation
d. Bureau of Trade Regulations & Consumers Protection
407. Your client has agreed to be a mortgagee of a big property that straddles two cities. You have to inform him that the mortgage has to be
registered in
a. The bigger city
b. The city where the bigger part of the property lies
c. Both cities
d. THE CITY INDICATED IN THE PROPERTY’S REGISTERED ADDRESS
408. A standard term used to identify a fixed object as reference point established and set by a Geodetic Engineer to identify the land boundaries
a. CYLINDRICAL CONCRETE MONUMENT
b. Concrete m monument
c. Boundary mark
d. Post
409. Monthly amortizations may be paid to Pag-IBIG Fund through the following modes of payment
a. COLLECTION SERVICING AGREEMENT (CSA) WITH ACCREDITED DEVELOPERS
b. OVER-THE-COUNTER
c. AUTO DEBIT ARRANGEMENT WITH BANKS
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE
e. NONE OF THE ABOVE
410. In order for a developer to comply with balanced housing requirement of RA 7279, the following modes of compliance are acceptable, except
a. DEVELOPMENT OF NEW SETTLEMENT
b. SLUM UPGRADING OR RENEWAL OF AREAS FOR PRIORITY DEVELOPMENT
c. PURCHASE OF SOCIALIZED HOUSING BONDS OF PAG-IBIG
d. PARTICIPATION IN THE COMMUNITY MORTGAGE PROGRAM
e. PURCHASE OF ASSET-BACKED SECURITIES OF ANY GOVERNMENT FINANCING INSTITUTION
411. Title to condominium unit is vested in
a. Lot owner of condominium project
b. Homeowner association of the building
c. OWNER OF THE CONDOMINIUM UNIT
d. Corporation owning the building
412. It is a legal provision which requires that sales agreement should be in writing to be enforceable.
a. MOA
b. Jurat
c. Deed
d. STATUTE OF FRAUD
e. Notarization
413. A law that requires planting of trees for owners of existing subdivision
a. PD 9567
b. PD 1216
c. PD 957
d. PD 953
e. PD 7278
414. As defined in RA 7279, a project Intended for the underprivileged and homeless covered by the lowest interest rate and long term financing
scheme
a. Affordable homes
b. medium cost housing
c. open market housing
d. Low cost housing
e. SOCIALIZED HOUSING
415. An agreement where the consideration of the contract is deposited with a third party who is authorized to release said consideration to the seller
after the latter has complied with certain condition
a. Option
b. Contract to sell
c. ESCROW
d. Hold-over-clause
416. Under RA 7279,____shall be resorted to only when other modes of acquisition have been exhausted.
a. Negotiated Purchase
b. EXPROPRIATION
c. Lend Consolidation
d. Joint- Venture Agreement
417. Under DILG Memorandum Order No. 15-2002, the time frame for processing and action on application for approval of subdivision
plan is
a. 15 days
b. 45 days
c. 30 DAYS
d. 60 days
418. The acquisition of land in advance of actual need based on present value for future planned development is referred to in the Urban Land
Reform Law as:
a. Land Assembly
b. Urban renewal
c. LAND BANKING
d. New settlement development
419. The minimum carriage way of major roads of socialized housing projects under the Implementing Rules and Regulations implementing BP
220 and PD 957 is:
a. 5 METERS
b. 7 meters
c. 6 meters
d. 8 meters
420. A contract where real estate is hypothecated to secure an obligation where the creditor is given the right to possess the property and collect the
fruits thereof is known as
a. Equitable mortgage
b. ANTICHRESIS
c. Real estate mortgage
d. Blanket mortgage
421. The following are priorities of lands that may be acquired for socialized housing purposes under RA No. 7279, except
a. LANDS OWNED BY THE GOVERNMENT
b. PRIVATELY OWNED LAND
c. THOSE WITHIN THE DECLARED AREAS FOR PRIORITY DEVELOPMENT
d. ALIENABLE LANDS OF PUBLIC DOMAIN
 e. REGISTERED BUT IDLE LAND
422. The right of an owner-lessor to receive the contract rent and reversion of the property at the end of the lease is called
a. Fee simple
b. LEASE FEE ESTATE
c. Leasehold
d. Net lease
423. Jurisdiction for adjudication of buyer’s, complaints against subdivision developers is with the
a. DTI Bureau of Trade Regulation and Consumer Protection
b. National Housing Authority
c. HOUSING AND LAND USE REGULATORY BOARD
d. Regular Courts
e. None of the above
424. Added value inherent on a lot bounded by two streets.
a. Cooperative interest
b. Social value
c. Plottage value
d. CORNER INFLUENCE
425. A subdivision plan prepared for a flat terrain condition is:
a. Contour planning
b. Square planning
c. CHAPLAN PLANNING
d. Topographic planning
426. A real estate mortgage that cover several properties is called
a. Closed mortgage
b. BLANKET MORTGAGE
c. Conventional mortgage
d. Equitable mortgage
427. When a borrower who is behind payment of his Pag-IBIG loan pays, the payment made shall be applied according to the following order of
priority:
a. PENALTIES, UPGRADING MEMBERSHIP CONTRIBUTION, INSURANCE PREMIUMS, INTEREST & PRINCIPAL.
b. Upgrade contribution, penalties, insurance premium, principal, interest
c. Interest, insurance, penalties, upgrade contribution
d. Principal, interest & penalties, insurance, upgrade membership
428. Right to foreclosure of real estate mortgage prescribes in
a. 1 year
b. 10 YEARS
c. 5 years
d. 12 years
429. Under Ra 891, the maximum redemption period after extra judicial foreclosure of mortgage executed by a corporation in favor of a bank is
a. 9 months
b. 3 MONTHS
c. 18 months
d. 6 months
430. The contract of lease shall be binding even on third parties if the contract of lease is
a. Recorded with the Civil Registry
b. In writing
c. Duly notarized
d. RECORDED IN THE REGISTRY OF PROPERTY
431. On a Pacto de Retro contract of sale which there is no stipulation of the period to which the vendor shall have the right to buy back or redeem of
the property. The period of redemption shall be
a. 2 years
b. 6 years
c. None of the above
d. 4 YEARS
e. 8 years
432. A multi-sectoral team organized for the primary purpose of monitoring compliance by the proponent with the ECC, the EMP
and applicable laws ,rules and regulations.
a. Multi-Party Monitoring Team
b. MULTI-PARTITE MONITORING TEAM
c. Stakeholders Monitoring Group
d. BantayKalikasan Group
433. The selling price if house and lot is P880,000. If its appraised value is P800,000.00 and loan to collateral ratio is 90%, what is the
loan value?
a. P640,000.00
b. P720,000.00
c. P720, 000
d. P648,000.00
434. It is a stock corporation established in accordance with the corporation code of the Philippines and the rules and regulations
promulgated by the commission principally for the purpose of owning income-generating real estate assets.
a. RATE
b. RETI
c. RIET
d. REIT
e. RITE
435. By Philippine standards, how far should a striptease joint, beerhouse, casa, or place of ill-repute be allowed to locate in relation to
a school?
a. 50 meters away or more
b. 100 meters away or more
c. AT LEAST 200 METERS AWAY
d. at least 500 meters away
e. at least 1 km away
436. Using the 4-3-2-1 rule (depth rule), if a 5-hectare belonging to different owners was sold for P 10M, what is the share of lot owners
owning the first quarter abutting the road?
a. P 2.5 M
 b. P 5M
c. P 4M
d. P 6M
437. Government agencies mandated to regulate environment
a. DENR; HLURB; LGU
b. NHA; DENR; DAR
c. UHLP; DPWH; LGU
d. SanggunianPanlalawigan; NHA; DENR
438. A general area declared thru Proclamation 2146 as environmentally sensitive such that significant environmental impacts are
expected if certain types / thresholds of proposed project are located, developed or implemented in it.
a. ECA
b. ECC
c. CNC
d. ECD
e. ECO
439. The act of authorizing the change of the current use of a piece of agricultural land into nonagricultural use; such permit is
proper only upon issuance of a clearance from the Department of Agrarian Reform
a. Transformation
b. CONVERSION
c. Translation
d. equivalence
440. Indigenous People’s Rights Act is the title of which legal issuance?
a. PD 957
b. EO 71
c. None of the above
d. RA 7279
e. RA 8371
441. Market value of a replaceable real estate is inferred from the value of an equally desirable substitute real estate, assuming there is
no costly delay in acquiring the substitute.
a. SUBSTITUTION
b. Conformity
c. Regression
d. Anticipation
442. Refer to land devoted to or suitable to agriculture as defined in RA 6657 and owned by natural or juridical persons, or by the
government in its proprietary capacity.
a. Private land
b. Prime land
c. AGRICULTURAL LAND
d. Agroland
443. Does not belong among Environmentally Critical areas
a. AREA OF SCIENTIFIC INTEREST & CRITICAL SLOPE AREA,
b. WITH CRITICAL SLOPES & PRIME AGRICULTURAL LAND
c. PRIME AGRICULTURAL LAND & POTENTIAL TOURIST SPOTS
d. POTENTIAL TOURIST SPOT & RAVINES
444. A ‘single detached dwelling unit’ is defined as a house that is ___, except
a. GOOD FOR ONE HOUSEHOLD
b. INTENDED FOR OWNERSHIP
c. COMPLETELY SURROUNDED BY YARD OR OPEN SPACE
d. WITH ONE OR MORE OF ITS SIDES ABUTTING THE PROPERTY LINE
445. An international treaty that entered into force on 16 February 2005 and commits countries to reduce greenhouse gases emissions,
based on the premise that (a) global warming exists and (b) man-made CO2 emissions have caused it.
a. Climate Change Treaty
b. Agenda 21
c. Montreal Protocol
d. KYOTO PROTOCOL
e. Sustainability Protocol
446. A written authorization to develop or use certain areas of any parcel of land based on approved land use plan or zoning ordinance
or in the absence of such ordinance, could be based on HLURB planning standards & guidelines.
a. LOCATIONAL CLEARANCE
b. Zoning clearance
c. Situational clearance
d. Ordinance clearance
447. An appraisal technique in which comparative estimates are made between prices paid in actual transactions and the current
listings:
a. Cost approach
b. MARKET APPROACH
c. Income approach
d. Economic approach
448. What should be the minimum distance between a drinking water-well or spring from the drainfield of a septic tank?
a. 15 m
b. 25 m
c. 35 m
d. 45 m
e. 55 m
449. Law enacted providing for the preparation & implementation of the comprehensive land use plans of local government units
pursuant to the local government code of 1991 & other pertinent law.
a. Executive Order No. 71
b. Executive Order No.73
c. EXECUTIVE ORDER NO. 72
 d. Executive Order No. 74
450. It is the use of scientific methods and information to define the probability and magnitude of potentially adverse effects which
can result from exposure to hazardous materials or situations.
a. INITIAL ENVIRONMENTAL FINDINGS
b. IMPACT ASSESSMENT
c. SCOPING
d. ENVIRONMENTAL RISK ASSESSMENT
451. Z corporation purchased a 5 – storey building 10 years ago at a cost of P 5 million. The building is being depreciated on a
straight line method using 50 years as its estimated useful [Link] appraiser estimated the reproduction cost of the new building at
P 15 million and just used the depreciation rate being used by the company in estimating the building’s accumulated depreciation
for 10 years. What is the fair market value of the building?
a. P 10 M
b. P 12 M
c. P 11 M
d. P12.5 M
452. The strengthening of a harmful and usually toxic substance as it moves up the food chain
a. BIOMAGNIFICATION
b. Adaptation
c. Attenuation
d. Food chain
e. Trophic leve
453. Under the Urban Land Reform Law ( PD 1517), an area is considered urban when it has a population density of at least____and
where 50% of economically active residents are engaged in non-agricultural activities.
a. 500 residents per square kilometer
b. 1,500 residents per square kilometer
c. 1,000 RESIDENTS PER SQUARE KILOMETER
d. 2,000 residents per square kilometer
454. Several houses valued at P 1M and P 2M were built in an area where an existing house valued at P 300,000 is located. As a
result, the value of the latter increased. The real estate principle of value that applies to this situation is called the principle of:
a. Substitution
b. PROGRESSION
c. Diminishing Returns
d. Improvement
e. Regression
455. Prescribes the guidelines of Sec 20, RA 7160, authorizing cities/ municipalities to reclassify land into non-agricultural
uses.
a. Executive order no. 72
b. Executive order no.71
c. MEMORANDUM CIRCULAR NO. 54
d. Memorandum circular no. 52
456. It is the entire process of organizations, administration, and procedures institutionalized for purposes of assessing the significance
of the effects of any project or undertaking on the quality of the physical, biological and socio-economic environment, and
designing appropriate preventive, mitigating and enhancement measures.
a. Environmental Assessment Group
b. ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT STATEMENT (EIS) SYSTEM
c. Multi-partite monitoring committee
d. Environmental Initial Requirements
457. The estimated useful life of a building is ___ depreciated at 2.5% per year on a straight line basis.
a. 40 YEARS
b. 75 years
c. 50 years
d. 100 years
458. Establishes priorities and procedures in evaluating areas for land conversion in regional agricultural industrial centers, tourism
development, areas sites for socialized housing.
a. EXECUTIVE ORDER NO. 124
b. Executive order no.110
c. Executive order no. 122
d. Executive order no. 123
459. Refers to that use which in all probability will give the maximum return or best advantage as of a given time.
a. Substitution
b. HIGHEST & BEST USE
c. Regression
d. Anticipation
460. In Third World countries where majority of people have low purchasing power, the biggest pressure to alter current ‘land
use’ comes from
a. Transport system layout
b. natural hazards
c. GDP growth
d. POPULATION GROWTH
e. popularity of automobile
461. Provides that LGUs, in conformity with existing laws, shall continue to prepare their respective comprehensive land use plans
enacted through zoning ordinances
a. EXECUTIVE ORDER NO. 124
b. Sec 8, RA 7172
c. Memorandum circular n. 54
d. Sec 20 RA 7160
462. Refer to the proponent’s technical staff or a competent professional group commissioned by the proponent to PREPARE THE
EIS/IEE and other related documents.
a. SCOPER
 b. PREPARER
c. PROPONENT
d. REVIEWER
463. A city or municipality, through an ordinance passed by the Sanggunian after conducting public hearings , may_____
lands.
a. Classify
b. Convert
c. Regroup
d. RECLASSIFY
e. Transform
464. Natural or juridical person intending to IMPLEMENT A PROJECT or undertaking
a. Preparer
b. Principal
c. PROPONENT
d. Investor
465. The ___ shall determine if a particular land ceases to be economically and sound for agricultural purpose .
a. DENR
b. RD
c. NIA
d. DAR
e. NHA
466. In the cost approach to value, physical deterioration is estimated by the formula.
a. Economic life divided by chronological age.
b. Chronological life divided by economic life
c. ECONOMIC LIFE DIVIDED BY EFFECTIVE AGE
d. Effective age divided by economic life
467. The territorial jurisdiction of any local government territory may be classified into three major “divisions” These are:
a. Ancestral Domain, Strategic Agricultural and Fisheries Development Zone and Timberlands Ancestral Domain, Lands of the
Public Domain, Coastal Management Zone
b. LANDS OF THE PRIVATE DOMAIN, ANCESTRAL DOMAIN AND LANDS OF THE PUBLIC DOMAIN
c. Forest Lands, Settlement Areas and Infrastructure Areas
468. The study of interrelationships between organisms and their environment
a. ECOLOGY
b. Biology
c. Biome
d. Geology
e. Ecosystem
469. Reclassification shall be done by the Sanggunian provided that it shall be.
a. Fixed percentage of total land in area at time of passage of ordinance.
b. FIXED PERCENTAGE OF TOTAL AGRICULTURAL LAND USE AT TIME OF PASSAGE OF ORDINANCE.
c. Fixed percentage of gross area of municipality
d. Fixed percentage of total prime land in the area.
470. It is the lack of desirability in lay-out, and design as compared with a property designed to serve the same function.
a. Regression
b. Surplus productivity
c. FUNCTIONAL OBSOLESCENCE
d. Economic obsolescence
471. Refers to fund that proponents required or opting to submit an EIS shall commit to establish when an ECC is issued by the DENR
for its project or undertaking, to be used to support the activities of the multipartite monitoring team.
a. Guarantee Fund
b. Contingency Plan
c. ENVIRONMENTAL MONITORING FUND
d. Mitigation Plan
472. The ____upon recommendation of NEDA may authorize a city /municipality to reclassify lands in excess of set limits.
a. Speaker of the House
b. Mayor
c. DENR Secretary
d. Governor
e. PRESIDENT
473. The “SMART TEST” BY GEORGE DORAN means that both ‘task objectives’ and ‘process objectives’ have to be SPECIFIC,
MEASURABLE, ATTAINABLE, REALISTIC, and ____
a. Tenable
b. Truthful
c. TIME-BOUND
d. Testable
e. Treatable
474. The value of a property tends to be enhanced when there is reasonable homogeneity in use:
a. Principle of highest and best use
b. Principle of increasing returns
c. PRINCIPLE OF CONFORMITY
d. Principle of progression
475. Division of community into function zones based on present and potential use of properties to regulate use and growth of
properties per comprehensive plan.
a. Code
b. ZONING
c. Decree
d. Ordinance
476. What color is used to represent residential areas in zoning map?
a. YELLOW
 b. Brown
c. Aqua Marine
d. Red
e. Dark Green
477. PD 1517 1978 provided protection for legitimate tenants & requires clearance for development proposals & land transactions in
proclaimed areas in Urban Land Reform Zones ( ULRZ) & ___.
a. AREAS FOR PRIORITY DEVELOPMENT
b. Areas for potential growth
c. Areas for population increase
d. Areas for growth
478. Presidential Decree 2146 defines ‘amenity areas’ as those with high aesthetic values such as the following, except one.
a. OUTSTANDING LANDSCAPES, SEASCAPES, AND VIEWSCAPES
b. PLANETARIUM, SPACE OBSERVATORY, AND SCIENCE CENTRUM
c. HERITAGE SITES AND HISTORIC PLACES
d. MUNICIPAL PLAZAS AND PUBLIC PARKS
479. It is the reduction of usefulness of a property
a. Worned out
b. OBSOLESCENE
c. Zero value
d. Not significant
480. Which of the following is never considered as a factor in the valuation of a house & lot?
a. MODIFICATION OF ZONING REGULATIONS
b. TOPOGRAPHY OF THE LOT
c. FUNCTIONAL OBSOLESCENCE
d. CONVICTION OF PREVIOUS OWNER ON CHARGE OF MORAL TURPITUDE
481. Refers to project declared thru Proclamation 2146 & Proclamation 803 which may pose significant negative environmental
impact at certain thresholds of operation regardless of location.
a. ECO
b. ECA
c. ECA
d. ECP
482. The following are determinants of value in appraisal of realty, except
a. CONTRIBUTION
b. PURCHASING VALUE
c. DEMAND
d. SCARCITY
483. In HLURB Guidelines, which of the following does not fall under the ‘economic sector’?
a. HOUSING
b. MINING
c. MARICULTURE
d. ICT AND BUSINESS PROCESS OUTSOURCING
e. SMALL SCALE INDUSTRIES
484. An estimate and opinion of value
a. Computation
b. Comprehension
c. APPRAISAL
d. Adjustment
485. These areas are so called because they pose serious dangers to human settlements due to their high susceptibility to,
among others, landslides, subsidence, sinkholes, erosion once their topsoil is exposed.
a. GEOHAZARDS
b. Brownfields’
c. Environmentally critical’
d. Naturally forbidden’
e. Sink holes
486. States that the value of an item of production is measured by its contribution to the net income of the enterprise .
a. ANTICIPATION
b. CONTRIBUTION
c. PROGRESSION
d. VOLUMINOUS
487. Refers to approach to determine value of a property by comparing with other properties that were recently sold.
a. MARKET DATA APPROACH
b. Data approach
c. Comparable approach
d. Cost approach
488. It is the division of the locality into districts to regulate land use in accordance with the Comprehensive Land Use Plan .
a. Community planning
b. District planning
c. ZONING
d. Area planning
e. Strategic planning
489. The selling price of a house & lot is P 800,000. If the appraised value is P 720,000 and loan to collateral ratio is 80%, What is the
loan value?
a. P 640,000
b. P 720,000
c. P 576,000 (720Kx80%)
d. P 648,000
490. States that the net income of a real estate tends to increase by application of more factors of production up to a certain point,
beyond w/c the application of more factors of production will tend to decrease net income.
a. Conformity
 b. INCREASING & DIMINISHING RETURN
c. Progression
d. Anticipation
491. This broad category refers to land deliberately kept undeveloped for its contribution to the amenity value of the environment. It
offers opportunities for adventure recreation or passive leisure at low-cost, and at the same time, serves as protection buffer
around sensitive areas and hazardous installations
a. Wilderness
b. Tourism & Recreation Zone
c. Rangeland
d. Open Space
e. PROTECTION LAND
492. Functions of zoning, except
a. DIVIDES COMMUNITY INTO DISTRICTS & IMPOSES DIFFERENT LAND USE CONTROL.
b. SPECIFY ALLOWED USE OF LAND USE OF LAND & BUILDING AND INTENSITY DENSITY OF EACH USE.
c. IMPOSES CURFEW AREAS
d. SPECIFY NUMBERS OF BUILDINGS ALLOWABLE PER PARTICULAR AREA’S
493. The Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Law which implements a comprehensive agrarian reform with the intention that any
conversion of private land to non-agricultural uses should first be cleared before hand by the Department of Agrarian Reform.
a. PD 6557
b. RA 6557
c. None of the above
d. PD 6657
e. RA 6657
494. Refers to land devoted to or suitable to agriculture as defined in RA 6657 and owned by natural or juridical persons, or by the
government in its proprietary capacity.
a. Private land
b. AGRICULTURAL LAND
c. Prime land
d. Agroland
495. For mass-housing projects, the official appraiser shall be the.
a. HGC
b. HDMF
c. NHA
d. SHFC
496. If comparative approach is to substitution; income approach is to:
a. ANTICIPATION
b. Progression
c. Reproduction
d. Cost contribution
497. The leading international body established by the United Nations for the assessment of climate change
a. INTERGOVERNMENTAL PANEL ON CLIMATE CHANGE
b. International Panel on Climate Change
c. Agenda 21 International
d. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
e. United Nations Climate Change Panel
498. The ratio that expresses the relation between gross income and sales price of property is.
a. Recapture rate
b. Gross Income
c. Effective gross income
d. GROSS INCOME MULTIPLIER
499. The income approach to value is an application of the principle of.
a. Highest and best use
b. Progression
c. Substitution
d. ANTICIPATION
500. It refers to the physical land and appurtenances, including structures permanently attached thereto.
a. REAL ESTATE
b. Chattel
c. Appurtenances
d. Real property
e. Real land
501. Refers to the interests, benefits, and rights inherent in the ownership of real estate. It is the bundle of rights with which the
ownership of real estate is endowed.
a. REAL PROPERTY
b. Usufruct
c. Reality properties
d. Ownership
502. Not included in purpose of appraisal:
a. IN CONNECTION WITH PURCHASE AND SALE; WITH FINANCING AND CREDIT
b. IN CONNECTION W/ CORPORATE AFFAIRS; PARTITION OF ESTATE
c. IN CONNECTION W/ EMINENT DOMAIN
d. IN CONNECTION WITH ADVERSE CLAIM
503. A project that has high potential for significant negative environmental impact and is listed under PP no. 2146, series of 1981 and
Pres. No. 803, series of 1996, as well as other projects which the president may proclaim as environmentally critical in
accordance with sec 4 of PD 1586.
a. Environmentally critical proposal
b. Environmentally critical proponents
c. ENVIRONMENTALLY CRITICAL PROJECTS
d. Environmentally critical undertaking
504. Value of real estate tends to be adversely affected by association w/ inferior realty.
a. REGRESSION
b. Anticipation
c. Conformity
d. Progression
505. A detailed guide on the procedure to be observed by the parties concerned in the Environmental Impact Statement
System. It shall include among others, guidelines on public participation and social acceptability, the EIS/ IEE review criteria in
accordance with sec 4 of PD 1586.
a. Environmental impact Assessment
b. Environmental Monitoring Manual
c. ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT STATEMENT PROCEDURAL MANUAL
d. Environmental Impact Assessment Procedures
506. Refers to a certificate issued by the EMB certifying that , based on submitted project description, the project is not covered by the
EIS System and is not required to secure an ECC.
a. CERTIFICATE OF NON-COVERAGE
b. Certificate of Non- Compliance
c. Certificate of Exemption
d. Certificate from EMB
507. Document allowing proponent to undertake particular critical project in a critical area with various conditions
a. Environmental Certificate of Compliance
b. Environmental Project Permit
c. ENVIRONMENTAL COMPLIANCE CERTIFICATE
d. Environmental Permit on Project
508. Value of a realty tends to be enhanced by association w/ superior real estate:
a. PROGRESSION
b. Regression
c. Highest & best use
d. Anticipation
509. ECA means ___ as listed under PP No. 2146.
a. Environmental Centers Areas
b. ENVIRONMENTAL CRITICAL AREA
c. Environmental Cleared Areas
d. Environmental Classified Areas
510. Represents losses from the upper limit of value.
a. DETERIORATION OR THE PHYSICAL WEARING OUT OF THE PROPERTY
b. FUNCTIONAL OBSOLESCENCE
c. ECONOMIC OBSOLESCENCE
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE
e. None of the above
511. Ecology could be synonymous to__.
a. NATURAL ENVIRONMENT
b. Natural resources
c. Interaction
d. Interrelationship
512. Land has the last claim to the net income after the cost of the other factors of production has been paid.
a. Conformity
b. Homogeneity
c. Surplus productivity
d. CONTRIBUTION
513. Does not belong among Environmentally Critical projects:
a. HEAVY & RESOURCE EXTRACTIVE INDUSTRIES.
b. INFRASTRUCTURE PROJECTS
c. FOOTBALL FIELD
d. GOLF COURSE
514. The translation of a land use plan into legally enforceable documents, complete with penal provision and adopted by the
Sangguniang Bayan/ Panglunsod.
a. Zoning
b. Zoning clearance
c. ZONING ORDINANCE
d. Zoning order
515. In this approach to value, physical deterioration is estimated by the formula- Effective age divided by economic life .
a. Market data approach
b. COST APPROACH VALUE
c. Comparable valuation
d. Value approach
516. COLUMBARIUM falls under:
a. High Density Commercial Zone ( C-3)
b. MEDIUM DENSITY COMMERCIAL ZONE ( C-2)
c. High Density Residential Zone ( R-3)
d. General Commercial Zone ( GCZ)
517. It is caused by solar energy being absorbed by the earth’s surface, causing earth to warm and emit infrared radiation.
a. Greenhouse gas
b. Sulphuric oxide
c. GLOBAL WARMING
d. Carbon dioxide
e. Ultraviolet radiation
518. All project location under PD 957; BP 220 Economic & Socialized housing should be outside of _____.
a. ECC
b. ECA
 c. EDA
d. EPA
519. As annual levy on real estate equivalent to 1% of the assessed value which shall be in addition to the basic real estate tax is
a. Special assessment tax
b. SPECIAL EDUCATION FUND TAX
c. Excise tax
d. Special real estate tax
520. Refers to the affirmation that value is the present worth of all present and future benefits arising from ownership and use
of real estate.
a. Progression
b. Forecasting
c. Conversion
d. ANTICIPATION
521. Based on the 2010 NSO Census of Population and Housing, the total urban population of the Philippines is
a. larger than the total rural population
b. plateauing at a steady growth rate
c. STABILIZING AT THE LEVEL ALMOST EQUAL TO THE RURAL POPULATION
d. fluctuating because of numerous urban calamities and terrorist attacks
522. Gross leasable area is
a. COMMONLY USED IN RETAIL CENTERS
b. COMMONLY USED IN RESIDENTIAL PROPERTIES
c. COMMONLY USED IN INDUSTRIAL PROPERTIES
d. COMMONLY USED IN APARTMENTS
523. TERRA-COTTA IS
a. HARD-BURNED UNGLAZED CLAY, USUALLY MOLDED INTO SHAPES FOR THE ORNAMENTATION OF
STRUCTURES
b. a foundation built of locally mined stone
c. a type of electrical service
d. a green mold that forms on the top of chimneys
524. GUNITE IS
a. PNEUMATICALLY PLACED CONCRETE USUALLY ASSOCIATED WITH IN GROUND POOL
b. a type of insulating material
c. a type of roof shingle
d. part of a staircase
525. ROMEX IS
a. a type of window blind
b. A TYPE OF WIRING
c. a type of asphalt
d. a type of title
526. A JALOUSIE IS
a. A TYPE OF WINDOW WITH SEVERAL WINDOW PANES
b. a type of furnace
c. a type of wood framing
d. a type of earthen dam
527. GROSS LIVING AREA IS
a. commonly used in retail centers
b. COMMONLY USED IN RESIDENTIAL PROPERTIES
c. commonly used in industrial properties
d. commonly used in apartments
528. SUPERSTRUCTURE REFERS TO
a. THE AREA OF A BUILDING ABOVE GRADE
b. the area of a building that is not needed to meet minimum standards
c. land that is not needed to support the existing improvement
d. an over improvement
529. SHORT LIVED ITEMS DO NOT INCLUDE
a. INTERIOR PAINT
b. ROOF COVERING
c. WATER HEATER
d. STRUCTURAL STEEL
530. FOOTINGS ARE
a. the layout of a building's ground floor
b. BELOW THE FROST LINE IN MOST BUILDING
c. the foundation walls of a structure
d. usually the same thickness as the framing wade
531. GUTTERS ARE
a. construction workers specializing in demolition
b. designed to trap water on the roof to keep it off the heads of the property's inhabitants
c. only needed in special purpose properties
d. DESIGNED TO CHANNEL WATER AWAY FROM THE BUILDING'S FOUNDATION
532. A SITE IS
a. platted subdivision lot
b. a telescope on a gun barrel
c. land underneath buildings
d. LAND THAT IS IMPROVED SO THAT IT IS READY TO BE USED FOR A SPECIFIC PURPOSE
533. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. LAND AND SITES CAN BE CREATED BY PEOPLE
b. SITES CAN BE CREATED BUT LAND IS FIXED IN AMOUNT
c. LAND CAN BE CREATED AND DESTROYED, BUT SITES ARE FIXED IN AMOUNT.
d. NEITHER LAND NOR SITES CAN BE CREATED OR DESTROYED BECAUSE BOTH ARE FIXED IN AMOUNT
534. An example of a rectangular survey legal description is
a. PART OF THE NORTHWEST QUARTER OF SECTION 25, TOWNSHIP 17N, RANGE 3E
b. Lot 27 in Pleasant View Acres
c. a parcel of land beginning at the oak tree in Bill Jone's farm
d. Unit 27, in Mark's Horizontal Property regime
535. Which of the following statements about zoning is correct?
a. ZONING CONTROLS LAND USE
b. zoning controls building construction
c. zoning is controlled and regulated by the federal government
d. zoning is only used in cities and metropolitan areas
536. PLOTTAGE IS
a. the process by which large parcels of land are divided into lots
b. the assemblage of two or more parcels of land
c. the name of the discount given when larger parcels sell for more than smaller one
d. AN INCREMENTAL INCREASE IN VALUE THAT RESULTS WHEN TWO OR MORE SITES ARE COMBINED TO
PRODUCE GREATER UTILITY
537. Excess land is
a. LAND THAT IS NOT NEEDED TO SUPPORT THE SUBJECT'S PRIMARY HIGHEST AND BEST USE OR NOT NEEDED
TO SUPPORT EXISTING IMPROVEMENTS
b. land that is not needed according the zoning requirements
c. land included with the subject that is above the lender's limits
d. land value that is above the assessor's estimate of value
538. A rectangular site measures 125 feet (frontage) by 256 feed (depth) of which 26 feet is in the public right of way. What is the gross
and net site area?
a. 0.66 acre gross and 0.73 acre net
b. 35,100 square feet gross area and 32,000 square feet net area
c. 38,656 square feet gross area and 32,000 square feet net area
d. 32,000 square feet gross area and 28,750 square feet net area
539. A full section of land usually
a. Measures 5,000 feet by 5,000 feet
b. Measures 2,650 feet by 2,650 feet
c. Includes 27,878,400 square feet
d. Is 600 acres
540. FLOOD MAPS ARE PUBLISHED BY
a. the army corps of engineers
b. FHA/ HUD
c. THE FEDERAL EMERGENCY MANAGEMENT AGENCY
d. the federal land bank
541. A NEIGHBORHOOD IS
a. a residential subdivision
b. an area with similar zoning and density
c. A GROUP OF COMPLEMENTARY LAND USES
d. and area with homes of the same price
542. A DISTRICT IS
a. an area within a neighborhood where all the properties are vacant
b. A TYPE OF NEIGHBORHOOD THAT IS CHARACTERIZED BY HOMOGENEOUS LAND USE
c. the delineation of zoning classifications
d. and area where city attorneys reside
543. neighborhood social influences include all of the following except.
a. POPULATION DENSITY
b. OCCUPANT SKILL LEVELS
c. OCCUPANT AGE LEVELS
d. VACANCY RATES
544. economic influences include all of the following except
a. OCCUPANT INCOME LEVEL
b. CRIME LEVELS
c. PROPERTY RENT LEVELS
d. PROPERTY VALUE LEVELS
545. governmental influences include all of the following except
a. TAX BURDENS
b. SPECIAL ASSESSMENTS
c. ZONING, BUILDING, AND HOUSING CODES
d. CHANGES IN PROPERTY USE
546. LINKAGES ARE
a. THE DEVICES USED TO CHANGE A PROPERTY FROM ONE USE TO ANOTHER
b. THE RELATIONSHIPS BETWEEN A BUYER AND A SELLER IN REAL ESTATE DEAL
c. TIME DISTANCE RELATIONSHIPS BETWEEN A PROPERTY USE AND THE SUPPORTING FACILITIES
d. THE TOOLS NECESSARY TO MARKET REAL ESTATE
547. A TRADE AREA IS
a. AN AREA WHERE PROPERTY OWNERS TRADE RATHER THAN SELL THE PROPERTIES
b. A GEOGRAPHIC AREA FROM WHICH A RETAIL CENTER WILL DRAW ITS CUSTOMERS
c. AN AREA WHERE THE OWNERS- INHABITANTS ARE GENERALLY EMPLOYED
d. AN AREA WHERE AN OFFICE BUILDING ONER WILL TRADE TENANTS WITH OTHER OFFICE BUILDING OWNERS
548. The value of improved residential real estate is most influenced by.
a. THE PASSAGE OF TIME
b. THE BROKERS' OPINIONS OF THE PROPERTY VALUES
c. CHANGES IN SHOPPING PATTERNS FOR CONSUMERS OF GOODS AND SERVICES
d. CONSTRUCTION COST INCREASES
549. The four forces that influence real estate values are.
 a. SOCIAL, ECONOMIC, GOVERNMENTAL, AND ENVIRONMENTA
b. LAND, LABOR, CAPITAL, AND GREEN SPACE
c. EMINENT DOMAIN, SOCIAL, TAXATION, AND ECONOMIC CONDITIONS
550. The economic base is
a. THE LOWER LINE IN A GRAPH SHOWING THE ECONOMIC OUTPUT OF A COMMUNITY
b. THE RATIO OF BASIC INDUSTRIES TO TECHNICAL INDUSTRIES IN A COMMUNITY
c. AN INEXPENSIVE, LARGE STRINGED INSTRUMENT
d. THE ECUMENIC ACTIVITY THAT ENABLES A COMMUNITY TO ATTRACT INCOME FROM OUTSIDE ITS BORDERS
551. EAVES ARE
a. THE PORTION OF A ROOF PROJECTING BEYOND THE VERTICAL WALL OF THE BUILDING
b. THE PART OF THE FLOOR SYSTEM THAT IS UNDER THE FRAMING
c. THE LOWEST PART OF THE FOUNDATION
d. THE TOP OF THE ROOF AT ITS HIGHEST POINT
552. HVAC is an acronym for
a. HIGH, VACANT, AND COLD
b. HEATING, VENTILATION, AND AIR-CONDITIONING
c. HOT, VERTICAL, AND CRAMPED
d. HEATING, VENTILATION, AND COOLING
553. Functional inutility is
a. a weak market segment
b. AN IMPAIRED OF THE FUNCTIONAL CAPACITY OF A PROPERTY OR BUILDING
c. the lack of utility room in a house
d. a weak market due to the oversupply of homes
554. A baluster is
a. a railed platform the projects from the face of a building above the ground level
b. ONE OF THE CLOSELY SPACED VERTICAL MEMBERS IN A STAIRWAY OR BALCONY
c. the fabric top in a curtain that is usually located on kitchen windows
d. a weak or insignificant performance by an appraiser or other real estate professional
555. A casement window is
a. A VERTICALLY HINGED WINDOW THAT OPENS LIKE A DOOR
b. a horizontally hinged window that opens from the bottom up to shed water
c. a shaded window that is designed to prevent criminals from "casing the joint"
d. a window that does not open at all
556. Ceiling joists are
a. THE STRUCTURAL MEMBERS THAT THE CEILING IS ATTACHED TO
b. The structural members that the roof shingles and underlayment are attached to
c. The boards that the gutters are attached to
d. The steel supports for the first floor that run to the basement
557. Clapboard is
A) A TYPE OF WOOD SLIDING
b) a place to put dishes and other kitchen utensils
c) a place in a house where the ironing board is usually stored
d) a type of roofing material
558. Brick is
a) a natural material that is used only in building houses
B) MADE OF CLAY AND BAKED
c) a natural material found in the earth that is cut into small pieces
d) a construction item that hold up the residence and is used for structural strength in modern housing
559. Coping is
a) a type of power saw used to crosscut logs
b) a small run of caulk around the front door
c) the space between bricks that is filled with mortar
D) THE MASONRY CAP PUT ON A WALL TO PROVIDE FOR WATERSHED
560. A small building used to manufacture saw blades is an example of
a) commercial land use
B) INDUSTRIAL LAND USE
c) residential land use
d) special-purpose land use
561. Extreme values in a data set have the greatest effect on
A) THE MEAN
b) the median
c) the mode
d) the confidence interval
562. A statistic that describes a characteristic of a population is a
a) sample
b) variable
C) PARAMETER
d) mean
563. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency?
A) VARIANCE
B) MEAN
C) MEDIAN
D) MODE
564. Under which of the following circumstances is the mean most amendable to statistical inference
A) WHEN THE SAME DATA INCLUDES VALUES AT EACH EXTREME
b) when the same data includes values at one extreme
c) when the same data for values cannot be estimated reliably
d) when the sample data for values is quite large
565. Which of the following series of property values represents an ordered array of data?
a) $375,000; $355,000; $350,000; $325,000; $319,000; $310,000
b) $310,000; $319,000; $325,000; $350,000; $35,000;
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
566. Which of the following is not an illustration of the distribution of a data set?
a)scatter diagram
b) box and whisker plot
C) BELL CURVE
d) histogram
567. A normally distributed population that shows no skewness would be represented best as a(n)
a) bell curve
b) measure of central tendency
c) scatter diagram
d) automated valuation model
568. Appraisers might use custom valuation models to apply statistics to each of the following situations except
A) TO PERFORM PROPERTY TAX ASSESSMENT AND EQUITY STUDIES
B) FOR PRICE OR RENT TREND ANALYSIS
C) TO PRODUCE AND REVIEW DESCRIPTIVE STATISTICS BY USER DEFINED PROPERTY CHARACTERISTICS
D) TO PREPARE VALUE ESTIMATES FOR LITIGATION
569. What is the difference between descriptive statistics and inferential statistics
a) descriptive statistics are always reported in graphic form while inferential statistics are always reported in tabular form
b) inferential statistics support conclusions about the population data while descriptive statistics only reflect the
characteristics of the sample data set
c) unlike descriptive statistics, inferential statistics cannot be used in the analysis of historical data
d) descriptive statistics include the measures of central tendency and variance, while inferential statistics include linear regression
coefficients and t-statistics
570. In statistical terminology, the term population refers to
a) the residents of a community in a given real estate market
b) the total number of residents responding to a market survey
c) the complete data set used in the statistical analysis
d) the complete data set from which the sample data set is derived
571. Among the factors that affect the accuracy of an inference are
a) population size
b) sample size and the degree to which the sample reflects the population
c) the confidence interval of the distribution
d) the assumption of normality of the data set
572. the median is calculated by
a) totaling the values of all observations and diving the sum by the sample size
b) finding the middle value of the ordered array of data values
c) adding the lowest and highest value and dividing by 2
d) finding the most frequently appearing value in the data set
573. Of the three measures of central tendency, the least practical for making inferences is
a) the mean
b) the median
c) the mode
d) all three measures are equally practical
574. Which measure of dispersion is the best indicator of which two data sets is more variable?
a) the standard deviation
b) the coefficient variance
c) the skewness
d) the range
575. In a normal distribution, which measures of central tendency are equal?
a) the mean and median
b) the mean and mode
c) the median and mode
d) all three
a. the mean and median
576. When a data set is left skewed
a) the mean will be greater than the median
b) the mean will be less than the mode
c) the range will remain normal
d) the variance will decrease
a. the mean will be greater than the median
577. automated valuation models (AVMs) are currently perceived as technology designed to
a) replace human appraisers
b) help appraisers increase efficiency and cut costs
c) help home owners set listing prices
d) all of the above
578. Which of the following has the most efficient market?
a. One-unit residences
b. Two- to four-family homes
c. Five- to 50-unit apartments
d. 51- to 500-unit apartment projects
579. A small town (population 2,500) has only two home builders. These two companies have each been building about five houses per
year for the last 15 years. The subcontractors they used all came from neighboring towns, but occasionally they would need to
import a tradesperson from farther away. The state recently decided to build a new law enforcement academy in the town, which
would cause an influx of about 500 people and an increase of about 200 households. There is almost no excess capacity of
residences now. What will most likely happen?
 a. The existing builders will gear up to handle the demand, and prices will remain stable.
b. The existing builders will gear up to handle some of the demand, but some subcontractors will become builders and
some workers will become subcontractors. Prices will increase in the short run.
c. The demand will wait for the supply to catch up, and no new players will enter the business. Prices will remain stable.
d. The majority of the new households will double up, and demand for housing will not increase.
580. The residential real estate market is much more efficient than the nonresidential real estate market in most cities because:
a. Homes are better designed and thus more efficient
b. Houses make more economic sense as investments than nonresidential properties
c. There are more buyers and sellers and the MLS system organizes data
d. Residential real estate brokers are smarter than nonresidential brokers
581. The current MLS system shows the following data for 5- to 10-year-old homes priced from $100,000 to $125,000: 13 current
listings, 4 pending sales (offer accepted but not closed), and 12 sales within the last 12 months. Over the last five years, the same
market usually has had about a six-month supply of homes for sale. New home builders and brokers are advertising for the first
time in many years. The average number of days on the market is 10% longer than in previous years. Which of the following
statements is correct?
A. THIS MARKET IS OVERSUPPLIED AND PRICES WILL BE STABLE AT BEST
b. This market is fine and prices will increase slightly
c. This market is great and prices will increase rapidly
d. This market is weak and prices will be unaffected
582. Market analysis is included in appraisals
A. TO TELL THE READER ABOUT CHANGES IN THE NEIGHBORHOOD'S ECONOMY
B. TO SHOW SUPPORT FOR THE ESTIMATED HIGHEST AND BEST USE AND THE EXISTENCE OF A MARKET
C. TO ADD BULK TO THE APPRAISAL REPORT AND THUS RAISE THE FEE
D. TO SHOW THE READER THE DIRECTION THE MARKET IS GOING
583. A real estate market is:
A. A SHOPPING CENTER OFFICE OF A REALTY COMPANY
B. A GROUP OF INDIVIDUALS OR FIRMS THAT ARE IN CONTACT WITH ONE ANOTHER FOR THE PURPOSE OF
CONDUCTING REAL ESTATE TRANSACTIONS
C. A LIST OF POTENTIAL BUYERS FOR THE SUBJECT PROPERTY
D. A LIST OF POTENTIAL SELLERS WHO HAVE PROPERTIES SIMILAR TO THE ONE REQUESTED BY THE BUYER
584. Office demand is most affected by:
A. THE PERCENTAGE OF OWNER-OCCUPIED RESIDENCES
B. THE AVAILABILITY OF WATER AND SEWER SERVICES
C. SCHOOL TAXES
D. THE EXPANSION TRENDS OF LOCAL BUSINESSES
585. Office supply is most affected by:
A. CHANGES IN THE POPULATION OF THE SUBJECT PROPERTY'S AREA
B. CHANGES IN RETAIL BUYING HABITS
C. THE CONVERSION OR NEW CONSTRUCTION OF OFFICE BUILDINGS
D. INCREASES IN THE REGULATION OF RETAIL CONSTRUCTION
586. Retail space demand is affected by:
A. CHANGES IN EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITIES
B. CHANGES IN TRAFFIC PATTERNS
C. INCREASES OR DECREASES IN DISPOSABLE INCOME
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
587. To analyze the market for a one-unit home, an appraiser should investigate:
a. The number of listings and recent sales of home that would appeal to the same buyer as the subject property
b. The number of expired listings in the same geographic area as the subject property
c. The number of listings and recent sales within the subject property's platted subdivision
d. The number of vacant apartments in the same geographic area as the subject property
588. Which of the following statements about the security market line (SML) are true?
a. The SML provides a benchmark for evaluating expected investment performance.
b. The SML leads all investors to invest in the same portfolio of risky assets.
c. The SML is a graphic representation of the relationship between expected return and beta.
d. Properly valued assets plot exactly on the SML

QUESTION

589. Which of the following can shift the factor demand curve to the right? I. an increase in the price of the good being produced II. an
increase in the factor's marginal productivity III. a technological advance A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II only E. I, II, and III

590. Reproduction cost is defined as the cost of

591. building the improvements exactly as they would appear if they were new on the effective date of appraisal
592. replacement cost is defined as the cost of
593. building the improvements with a structure of like utility but new as of the effective date of valuation
594. indirect construction costs do not include
595. builder's overhead
596. site improvements may be valued at
597. depreciated reproduction costs
598. replacement cost is best used
599. to eliminate some functional obsolescence from the cost approach
600. the cost approach is based on the
601. cost of production
602. the cost approach is
603. most applicable when the subject improvements represent the highest and best use of the site as though vacant and are relatively
new
604. Sign up and see the remaining cards. It’s free!
605. Improve your results with unlimited access to millions of flashcards, games and more.