PRODUCTION ENGINEERING

CASTING DPP-01
CASTING INTRODUCTION

Q1. Which is the most widely used metal for castings?

(a) aluminium
(b) brass
(c) magnesium alloys
(d) cast iron
Q2. The main constituent of moulding sand is
(a) clay
(b) silica
(c) alumina
(d) iron oxide
Q3. Arrange the following materials/castings in the increasing order of the size of pattern required.
(a) 𝐶𝑢 < 𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑙 < 𝐴ℓ < 𝐵𝑟𝑎𝑠𝑠
(b) 𝐴ℓ < 𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑙 < 𝐶𝑢 < 𝐵𝑟𝑎𝑠𝑠
(c) 𝐴ℓ < 𝐶𝑢 < 𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑙 < 𝐵𝑟𝑎𝑠𝑠
(d) 𝐵𝑟𝑎𝑠𝑠 < 𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑙 < 𝐶𝑢 < 𝐴ℓ

Q4. Which is not the correct statement?

(a) loam is a mixture of 50% sand and 50% clay
(b) sharp and irregular shaped grains are preferred for foundry sand
(c) cohesiveness is the property of sand due to which sand grains cling to the sides of moulding box
(d) casting gives high strength and rigidity even to intricate parts
Q5. For small and intricate castings, the sand grains should be
(a) fine
(b) medium
(c) coarse
(d) rounded

Q6. The binder in case of synthetic sand is

(a) water
(b) clay
(c) molasses
(d) bentonite and water
Q7. Liquid and solidification shrinkage can be compensated by providing
(a) runner
(b) riser
(c) increasing the size of pattern
(d) padding

1
Q8. In sand moulding, the top flask is known as
(a) cope
(b) drag
(c) fillet
(d) cheek
Q9. The tool used for lifting the pattern from the mould is called
(a) lifter
(b) slick
(c) draw spike
(d) trowel
Q10. Match the appropriate combination between foundry tools (Column A) and the purpose served by
them (Column B)
Column A Column B
(a) swab (1) repairing and finishing the mould
(b) slick (2) standard wire mesh used for sieving sand
(c) lifter (3) moistening the sand around the edges before
removing the pattern
(d) riddle (4) smoothing and cleaning out depressions in the mould
(a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(d) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Q11. Which of the followings is not foundary tool?
(a) trowel
(b) arbor
(c) riddle
(d) slick
Q12. A gagger is a foundary tool used to
(a) remove bulging portions of the castings
(b) remove foreign particles from the sand
(c) support hanging bodies of sand in a core
(d) moisten the sand around the edges before removing the pattern
Q13. Gate is provided in moulds to
(a) feed the casting at a constant rate
(b) give passage to gases
(c) compensate for shrinkage
(d) avoid cavities
Q14. The vertical passage for bringing molten metal to mold cavity is called
(a) gate
(b) riser
(c) sprue
(d) runner

2
Q15. Which one of the following materials will require the largest size of riser for the same size of
casting?
(a) aluminium
(b) cast iron
(c) steel
(d) copper

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (d) S2. (b) S3. (c) S4. (c) S5. (a)
S6. (d) S7. (b) S8. (a) S9. (c) S10. (a)
S11. (b) S12. (c) S13. (a) S14. (c) S15. (b)

3
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
CASTING DPP-02
ALLOWANCES AND ITS TYPES-1

Q1. More Shrinkage allowance is considered in pattern making for casting of

(a) Aluminium
(b) Lead
(c) Copper
(d) Gunmetal
Q2. Which of the following allowances is given to a pattern to compensate for the dimensional problems
due to shaking of the pattern before removing the pattern from the mould?
(a) Machining allowance
(b) Corrosion allowance
(c) Rapping allowance
(d) Draft allowance
Q3. Which of the following types of shrinkage are compensated by the riser?
(a) Liquid Shrinkage
(b) Solid Shrinkage
(c) Solidification Shrinkage
(d) Liquid and solidification shrinkage
Q4. allowance is given to compensate the structural changes in the cavity occurring due to removal of
pattern in the casting process.
(a) Distortion
(b) Rapping
(c) Machining
(d) Shrinkage
Q5. Least shrinkage allowance is provided for the following:
(a) brass
(b) aluminium
(c) cast iron
(d) lead
Q6. Shrinkage allowance is added to pattern dimensions to take care of:
(a) Liquid shrinkage
(b) Liquid and solid shrinkage
(c) Solid shrinkage
(d) None of these
Q7. What is the value of the taper angle provided in draft allowances?
(a) 11∘ − 12∘
(b) 0∘ − 3∘
(c) 5∘ − 7∘
(d) 8∘ − 10∘

4
Q8. In small, castings, which of the following allowances can be ignored.
(a) Shrinkage Allowance
(b) Rapping Allowance
(c) Draft Allowance
(d) Machining Allowance

Q9. Withdrawal of the pattern from the sand mould, without breaking the mould, is possible by providing
(a) shrinkage allowance
(b) draft allowance
(c) rapping allowance
(d) finish allowance

Q10. Gray cast iron blocks 200 x 100 x 10 mm are to be cast in sand moulds. Shrinkage allowance for
pattern making is 1%. The ratio of the volume of pattern to that of the casing will be
(a) 0.97
(b) 0.99
(c) 1.01
(d) 1.03

Q11. Shrinkage allowance may be expressed in:

(a) mm/kg. f
(b) mm/meter
(c) mm/kg
(d) radian/sec

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (c) S3. (d) S4. (b) S5. (c)
S6. (c) S7. (b) S8. (b) S9. (b) S10. (d)
S11. (b)

5
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
CASTING DPP-03
ALLOWANCES AND ITS TYPES PART-2

Q1. Draft on pattern for casting is provided for

(a) Shrinkage allowance
(b) Identification
(c) Taper to facilitate removal from mould
(d) Machining allowance

Q2. The pattern allowance which takes care of contraction of a casting is known as :
(a) shrinkage allowance
(b) machining allowance
(c) draft
(d) none of the above

Q3. While cooling a cubical casting of side 40 mm undergoes 3%, 4% and 5% volume shrinkage during
liquid state, phase transition and solid state, respectively. The volume of the metal compensated
from the riser is
(a) 2%
(b) 7%
(c) 8%
(d) 9%

Q4. Match plate pattern is used in

(a) green sand moulding
(b) bench moulding
(c) pit moulding
(d) machine moulding

Q5. The negative allowance on the pattern is

(a) Draft allowance
(b) Machining allowance
(c) Distortion allowance
(d) Rapping allowance

Q6. A casting of size 100 mm × 100 mm × 50 mm is required. Assume volume shrinkage of casting is
2.6%. If the height of the riser is 80 mm and riser volume desired is 𝟒 times the shrinkage in casting,
what is the appropriate riser diameter in mm ?
(a) 14.38
(b) 20.34
(c) 28.76
(d) 57.52

6
Q7. During solidification of a pure metal, the grains in the casting near the mould wall are
(a) coarse and randomly oriented.
(b) fine and randomly oriented.
(c) fine and ordered.
(d) coarse and ordered.

Q8. Which of the following is NOT a preferred material for the making of patterns?
(a) Metal
(b) Plastic
(c) Wood
(d) Ceramic

Q9. _________is a replica of the final product and used to prepare mould cavity
(a) sprue
(b) pattern
(c) core
(d) riser

Q10. In sand casting, the following allowance is added to all linear dimensions of the casting?
(a) Shake allowance
(b) Draft allowance
(c) Machining allowance
(d) Shrinkage allowance

Q11. Distortion allowance is not provided in the following shape of casting.

(a) U
(b) T
(c) C
(d) O

Q12. A pattern marker's shrinkage rule considers

(a) All pattern allowances
(b) Only shrinkage allowance
(c) All materials to be cast
(d) All materials of the pattern

Q13. Metal patterns are used for

(a) Small castings
(b) Large castings
(c) Complicated castings
(d) Large scale production of castings

Q14. Large size symmetrical moulds and cores are shaped by:
(a) Shell pattern
(b) Loose piece pattern
(c) Sweep pattern
(d) Skeleton pattern

7
Q15. The pattern which is made in two or more pieces are called-
(a) Follow board pattern
(b) Split pattern
(c) Gated pattern
(d) Sweep pattern

Q16. A cubic casting of 100 mm side undergoes solidification shrinkage of 5% and phase transformation
shrinkage of 4%. The net side of cube after solidification would be, in mm :
(a) 96.26
(b) 95.43
(c) 96.97
(d) 91.00

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (a) S3. (b) S4. (d) S5. (d)
S6. (d) S7. (b) S8. (d) S9. (b) S10. (d)
S11. (d) S12. (b) S13. (d) S14. (c) S15. (b)
S16. (c)

8
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
CASTING DPP-04
MOULDING SAND AND ITS PROPERTIES-1

Q1. Green sand is a mixture of

(a) 30% sand and 70% clay
(b) 50% sand and 50% clay
(c) 70% sand and 30% clay
(d) 90% sand and 10% clay
Q2. Core prints are used for
(a) Strengthen core
(b) Form seat to support and hold the core in place
(c) Fabricate core
(d) None of the above
Q3. Cores are used
(a) In symmetrical casting only
(b) To get smooth surface on casting
(c) To get cavity or recess in a casting
(d) To strengthen mould
Q4. What is the function of 'skim-bob' provided in the gating system of moulds?
(a) To trap heavier and lighter impurities.
(b) To promote directional solidification.
(c) To control the flow of molten metal
(d) To smoothen the flow of molten metal.
Q5. _________are used to support cores inside the mould cavity to take care of its own weight and
overcome the metallostatic forces.
(a) Sprue
(b) Chill
(c) Chaplet
(d) Striker
Q6. Sweep patterns are used for moulding parts having the shape of
(a) rectangular
(b) complex shape
(c) square
(d) symmetrical
Q7. The pattern used for the production of large quantity is
(a) Skeleton
(b) Match plate
(c) Split
(d) Single plate

9
Q8. _________pattern is adopted for those castings where there are some portions which are structurally
weak and if not supported properly are likely to break under the force of ramming.
(a) Skeleton
(b) Sweep
(c) Loose Piece
(d) Follow Board

Q9. Permeability of a moulding sand is increased with

(a) Increase in the moisture content
(b) Coarse grain size
(c) Increasing the compacting pressure
(d) Fine grain size

Q10. Loam sand comprises of

(a) 40% of clay and 10% moisture
(b) 50% of clay and 10% moisture
(c) 80% of clay and 20% moisture
(d) 50% of clay and 18% moisture

Q11. Fluidity in casting (CI) operation is greatly influenced by

(a) Melting temperature of molten metal
(b) Pouring temperature of molten metal
(c) Finish of the mould
(d) Carbon content of molten metal

Q12. The property of sand due to which the sand grains stick together is called
(a) Collapsibility
(b) Permeability
(c) Cohesiveness
(d) Adhesiveness

Q13. The addition of iron oxide to the foundry sand improves the
(a) Bonding
(b) Green strength
(c) Hot strength
(d) Permeability

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (b) S3. (c) S4. (a) S5. (c)
S6. (d) S7. (b) S8. (d) S9. (b) S10. (d)
S11. (b) S12. (c) S13. (c)

10
 PRODUCTION
CASTING DPP-05
MOULDING SAND AND ITS PROPERTIES-02

Q1. Facing sand used in foundry work comprises of.

(a) aluminal, silica and clay
(b) silica and clay
(c) silica and alumina
(d) clay and alumina

Q2. Strength and permeability of served sand are related to:

(a) grain size
(b) clay-content
(c) hardness
(d) moisture content

Q3. For steel castings, the following type of sand is better .......
(a) fine-grain
(b) coarser-gain
(c) medium grain
(d) fine-grain, coarser-gain and medium grain all are equally good

Q4. Green sand mould indicates that :

(a) Polymeric mould has been cured
(b) Mould has been totally dried
(c) Mould is green in colour
(d) Mould contains moisture

Q5. The essential elements of gating system for sand casting are:-
(a) Gates
(b) Pouring basin
(c) Riser
(d) All of the above

Q6. The shape and size of sand grains affects the following property
(a) Adhesiveness
(b) Strength
(c) Porosity
(d) Refractoriness

Q7. Sodium silicate in sand is often used as

(a) Substitute of clay
(b) Binder
(c) Refractory material
(d) Permeability promotion agent

11
Q8. Sands are graded according to their :-
(a) Source of origin
(b) Strength
(c) Permeability
(d) Clay content and grain size

Q9. Wood flour is added to core sand to improve :

(a) Collapsibility of core
(b) Dry strength of core
(c) Shear strength of core
(d) Tolerance on casting

Q10. Cereals are added to the moulding sand to improve the following :
(a) Porosity
(b) Green strength
(c) Hot strength
(d) Edge hardness

Q11. Which of the following material is added to base sand to impart bonding strength :
(a) bentonite
(b) wood flour
(c) sea coal
(d) silica

Q12. Non uniform ramming of moulding sand may lead to the following casting defect :
(a) blow holes
(b) bends
(c) scabs
(d) swells

Q13. An important factor to be taken into account while designing a core print is
(a) Type of mould
(b) Moulding sand characteristics
(c) Pouring temperature
(d) Pattern material

Q14. The main constituent of moulding sand is

(a) Clay
(b) Silica
(c) Alumina
(d) Iron Oxide

Q15. For small and intricate castings, the sanc grains should be
(a) fine
(b) medium
(c) coarse
(d) rounded

12
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (d) S3. (b) S4. (d) S5. (d)
S6. (c) S7. (b) S8. (d) S9. (a) S10. (b)
S11. (a) S12. (d) S13. (b) S14. (b) S15. (a)

13
 PRODUCTION
CASTING DPP-06
RISER-01

Q1. Which of the following acts as reservoir of molten metal and supply it as required to overcome
porosity because of shrinkage while solidification?
(a) Sprue
(b) Riser
(c) Pouring basin
(d) Runner

Q2. Riser is used in a sand casting to reduce:

(a) mould erosion
(b) the slag inclusion
(c) shrinkage cavities
(d) cold shut

Q3. Which of the following is true about riser?

(i) It permits the molten metal to rise above the highest point in the casting
(ii) Filling up of mould cavity can be visually checked from it
(iii) The casting solidifies directionally towards the riser
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) only (ii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Q4. The portion of gate assembly that connects the sprue to the casting is known as
(a) Riser
(b) Gate
(c) Runner
(d) Cope

Q5. Sprue in casting refers to:

(a) Gate
(b) Riser
(c) Runner
(d) Vertical passage

Q6. The two parts of a sand casting mould are called :

(a) Gate and sprue
(b) Cope and drag
(c) Upper and drag
(d) Cope and bottom

14
Q7. The function of the riser is to
(a) Ensure the complete filling of molten metal in the mould cavity
(b) Supplying extra molten metal during shrinkage
(c) Escape of hot gases
(d) All of the above

Q8. An allowance that is given along the vertical walls of the pattern for ease of withdrawal of pattern
from sand is known as :
(a) Shrinkages allowance
(b) Machining allowance
(c) Draft allowance
(d) Chamber allowance

Q9. The purpose of a gate in casting is to :

(a) Deliver molten metal into the mould cavity
(b) Act as a reservoir for the molten metal
(c) Vent out trapped gases
(d) Provide shape to the mould cavity

Q10. In a gating system, the ratio 1: 2: 4 represents

(a) Sprue base area : runner area : ingate area
(b) Pouring basin area : ingate area : runner area
(c) Spue base area : ingate area : casting area
(d) Runner area : ingate area : casting area

Q11. Strength and permeability of served sand are related to :

(a) grain size
(b) clay-content
(c) hardness
(d) moisture content

Q12. Riser is designed so as to

(a) Freeze after the casting freezes
(b) Freeze before the casting freezes
(c) Freeze at the same time as the casting
(d) Minimize the time of pouring

Q13. Pouring basin is provided in sand moulds

(a) to maintain high temperature of liquid metal
(b) to reduce the turbulence in the liquid metal
(c) to increase fluidity
(d) to improve properties of sand

Q14. The ability of casting material to fill the mould cavity is described by
(a) cohesiveness
(b) reactiveness
(c) fluidity
(d) permeability

15
Q15. Which one does not form a part of the gating system for a casting:
(a) Pouring basin
(c) Choke
(b) Sprue
(d) Pattern

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (c) S3. (d) S4. (c) S5. (d)

S6. (b) S7. (d) S8. (c) S9. (a) S10. (a)

S11. (d) S12. (a) S13. (b) S14. (c) S15. (d)

16
 PRODUCTION ENGG.
CASTING DPP-07
RISER DESIGN-02

Q1. Riser is generally located

(a) near the deepest section of the mould
(b) near the parting line
(c) on the upper most section of the casting
(d) Opposite to the pouring end

Q2. Refractoriness in the moulding sand is due to the presence of

(a) clay
(b) silica
(c) additives and binders
(d) dust

Q3. Fetling of casting is done to

(a) produce uniformly cooled casting
(b) remove extra metals from casting
(c) smoothen surface
(d) All of the above

Q4. Chaplets are made of :

(a) graphite
(b) plastic
(c) same metal as the cast metal
(d) None of the above

Q5. A riser compensates for the shrinkage that happens in the casting process during-
(a) only molten stage
(b) only solidification stage
(c) solid stage
(d) both molten and solidification stage

Q6. The solidification time in castings is proportional to

volume 2
(a) { surface area }
volume 4
(b) { surfacearea }
volume 3
(c) { surface area }
volume 1
(d) { surfacearea }

17
Q7. While cooling a cubical casting of side 40 mm undergoes 3%, 4% and 5% volume shrinkage during
liquid state, phase transition and solid state, respectively. The volume of the metal compensated
from the riser is
(a) 2%
(b) 7%
(c) 8%
(d) 9%

Q8. What is the function of 'skim-bob' provided in the gating system of moulds?
(a) To trap heavier and lighter impurities.
(b) To promote directional solidification.
(c) To control the flow of molten metal
(d) To smoothen the flow of molten metal.

Q9. According to Chvorinov, following is the correct formula for solidification time (𝑇𝑠 ), where 𝑘 = Mould
casting constant, 𝑉 = volume of casting, 𝑆𝐴 = surface area.
SA 2
(a) Ts = V ( k )
SA 2
(b) Ts = k ( V )
V 2
(c) Ts = k (SA)
k 2
(d) Ts = V ( )
SA

Q10. Skeleton patterns are generally used for-

(a) Small castings
(b) Non-ferrous castings
(c) Large castings
(d) Hollow castings

Q11. The essential elements of gating system for sand casting are:-
(a) Gates
(b) Pouring basin
(c) Riser
(d) All of the above

Q12. Permeability of a foundry sand is

(a) Fineness of sand
(b) Distribution of binder in sand
(c) Capacity to hold moisture
(d) Porosity to permit the escape of gases/air

Q13. Bottom gating system is sometimes preferred in casting because :

(a) It enables rapid filling of mould cavity
(b) It is easier to provide in the mould
(c) It provides cleaner metal
(d) It reduces splashing and turbulence

18
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (b) S3. (b) S4. (c) S5. (d)
S6. (a) S7. (b) S8. (a) S9. (c) S10. (c)
S11. (d) S12. (d) S13. (d)

19
 PRODUCTION ENGG.
CASTING DPP-08
CLASSIFICATION OF CASTING TECHNIQUE-1

Q1. Which one of the following moulding processes does not require use of core?
(a) Sand moulding
(b) Shell moulding
(c) Centrifugal casting
(d) Plaster moulding
Q2. In Investment casting, the pattern is made of
(a) Wax
(b) Plastics
(c) Plaster of Paris
(d) Ceramics
Q3. Cores are used
(a) In symmetrical casting only
(b) To get smooth surface on casting
(c) To get cavity or recess in a casting
(d) To strengthen mould
Q4. Centrifugally cast automotive parts have:
(a) Rough grain structure with low density
(b) Fine grain structure with high density
(c) Very large grain structure with low density
(d) Very large grain structure with high density
Q5. The pattern allowance which takes care of contraction of a casting is known as :
(a) shrinkage allowance
(b) machining allowance
(c) draft
(d) none of the above
Q6. A casting process in which molten metal is poured in a mould and allowed to solidify while the mould
is revolving is known as:
(a) Die casting
(b) Investment casting
(c) Centrifugal casting
(d) Continuous casting
Q7. Cylinder blocks of internal combustion engine are made by
(a) Forging
(b) Extrusion
(c) Casting
(d) Drilling

20
Q8. Which of the following processes is suitable for making hollow parts with thin sections?
(a) Thermoforming
(b) Blow moulding
(c) Injection moulding
(d) Reaction injection moulding
Q9. Which one of the following is the permanent mould casting process?
(a) Investment casting process
(b) Full mould process
(c) Vacuum casting process
(d) Die casting process
Q10. In carbon dioxide moulding process, binder used is:
(a) Sodium silicate
(b) Sodium bentonite
(c) Calcium bentonite
(d) Phenol formaldehyde
[Link] engine carburetors are manufactured by:
(a) Die casting
(b) Centrifugal casting
(c) Shell casting
(d) Sand casting
Q12. Cast iron pıpes are manufactured by;
(a) Sand casting method
(b) Centrifugal casting method
(c) Die casting method
(d) Lost was method
Q13. The moulding process employed for thermoplastic materials is
(a) Injection and extrusion method
(b) Compression and transfer molding method
(c) Die casting method
(d) Continuous casting method
Q14. The process of making hollow castings of desired thickness by permanent mould without the use of
cores is known as :
(a) die casting
(b) slush casting
(c) pressed casting
(d) centrifugal casting
Q15. The process of making hollow casting from permanent mould by close fitting core is called
(a) Die casting
(b) Slush casting
(c) pressed casting
(d) Centrifugal casting

21
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (a) S3. (c) S4. (b) S5. (a)
S6. (c) S7. (c) S8. (b) S9. (d) S10. (a)
S11. (a) S12. (b) S13. (a) S14. (b) S15. (c)

22
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
CASTING DPP-13
CLASSIFICATION OF CASTING TECHNIQUE - 02

Q1. Mould Finishing is done to

(a) increase permeability of moulding sand
(b) improve casting surface finish
(c) decrease steam formation during casting
(d) reduce blow holes in castings

Q2. For die casting in a cold chamber type machine which operates on pressure as high as
(a) 4MN/m2
(b) 14MN/m2
(c) 140MN/m2
(d) none of the above

Q3. In true centrifugal casting all the impurities are collected

(a) at the outer surface of the casting
(b) at the inner surface of the casting
(c) somewhere in between the outer and inner surface of the casting
(d) all of the above

Q4. In die casting, close dimensional tolerance and surface finish is

(a) Not possible
(b) Completely dependent on the material to be casted
(c) Completely dependent on the material of the die
(d) Possible

Q5. Which of the following are the most likely characteristics in centrifugal casting ?
(a) Fine grain size and high porosity
(b) Coarse grain size and high porosity
(c) Fine grain size and high density
(d) Coarse grain size and high density

[Link] process of pouring molten metal in the cavity of a metallic mould by gravity is known as
(a) Pressed casting
(b) Shell moulding
(c) Die casting
(d) Permanent mould casting

23
Q7. Wood flour is added to core sand to improve :
(a) Collapsibility of core
(b) Dry strength of core
(c) Shear strength of core
(d) Tolerance on casting

Q8. Die cores are placed in the:

(a) ejector half of the mould
(b) cover half of the mould
(c) either half of the mould
(d) full cover of the mould

Q9. The term "castability" in Die-casting is related to a metal's:

(a) tensile strength
(b) compressive strength
(c) thermal conductivity
(d) melting temperature

Q10. Hot chamber" die casting machines are used for alloys with:
(a) high melting temperature
(b) low melting temperature
(c) low thermal conductivity
(d) low electric resistance

Q11. In sand casting, draft allowance is added to

(a) All linear dimension
(b) Only the interior dimensions
(c) Only the exterior dimensions
(d) Only to the dimensions that are perpendicular to the parting plane

Q12. Core prints are provided to

(a) To increase surface finish of casting
(b) To direct flow of molten metal in to mould
(c) Form seat to support and hold the core
(d) None of the above

Q13. In centrifugal casting, the cores are generally made of-

(a) Wax
(b) Plastic
(c) Plaster of Paris
(d) Cores are not used

Q14. Shell moulding can be used for-

(a) Producing milling cutters
(b) Making gold ornaments
(c) Producing heavy and thick walled casting
(d) Producing thin casting

24
Q15. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the given lists
List - I List - II
A. Hollow statue a. Centrifugal
B. Dentures b. Investment casting
Aluminium
C. c. Slush casting
alloy Pistons
D. Rocker arms d. Shell moulding
e. Gravity die casting

(a) A - c, B - b, C - d, D - e
(b) A - a, B - c, C - d, D - e
(c) A - a, B - b, C - c, D - d
(d) A - c, B - b, C - e, D - d

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (c) S3. (b) S4. (d) S5. (c)
S6. (d) S7. (a) S8. (c) S9. (d) S10. (b)
S11. (d) S12. (c) S13. (d) S14. (d) S15. (d)

25
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
CASTING DPP-10
CASTING DEFECTS - 01

Q1. Hot tear refers to-

(a) Casting defect
(b) Process of fabrication of sheet metal
(c) Process of heat treatment
(d) Weathering of nonferrous metals

Q2. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to-

(a) Very high pouring temperature of the metal
(b) Insufficient fluidity of the molten metal
(c) Absorption of gases by the liquid metal
(d) Improper alignment of the mould flasks

Q3. Least shrinkage allowances provided in the case of following :

(a) Brass
(b) Steel
(c) Aluminium
(d) Cast Iron

Q4. A casting defect which results in general enlargement of a casting is known as :

(a) sand wash
(b) swell
(c) blow hole
(d) shift

Q5. Is a type of casting defect which arise due to improper venting of sand.
(a) Cold shuts
(b) Swell
(c) Shift
(d) Blow holes

Q6. Shrinkage and weld stress in casting is responsible for which welding defect?
(a) Incomplete fusion
(b) Rat tail
(c) Shrinkage void
(d) Lamellar tearing

Q7. Which of the following is NOT a casting defect?

(a) Drafts
(b) Inclusions
(c) Shrinkage cavities
(d) Cold shut

26
Q8. _____ are casting defects caused by improper shrinkage/hindered contraction.
(a) Hot tears
(b) Swell
(c) Shifts
(d) Fins
Q9. The defect caused, due to low permeability in sand casting is:
(a) Blow holes
(b) Rough surface
(c) Hot tears
(d) Drop
Q10. Slag inclusion in casting is a
(a) Internal defect
(b) Moulding defect
(c) Surface defect
(d) Superficial defect
Q11. Non uniform ramming of moulding sand may lead to the following casting defect :
(a) blow holes
(b) bends
(c) scabs
(d) swells
Q12. Hot tears are the result of which of the following
(a) Lower permeability
(b) Lower green strength
(c) More fins
(d) Restraint of contraction
Q13. Recognize the type of defect in casting caused due to shift of the individual parts of a casting with
respect to each other.
(a) Blow holes
(b) Mismatch
(c) Swell
(d) War-page
Q14. Which of the following is not a casting defect?
(a) Hot tear
(b) Blow hole
(c) Scab
(d) Decarburisation
Q15. Rough surface of casting may result from
(a) High permeability of sand
(b) Soft ramming
(c) Large grain size
(d) Any of the above

27
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (b) S3. (d) S4. (b) S5. (b)
S6. (d) S7. (a) S8. (a) S9. (a) S10. (c)
S11. (d) S12. (d) S13. (b) S14. (d) S15. (d)

28
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
CASTING DPP-11
CASTING DEFECTS - 02

Q1. Swell is a casting defect which :

(a) results in a mismatching of the top and bottom part of a casting
(b) is due to enlargement of the mould cavity by metal pressure causing partial or overall
enlargement of the casting
(c) occurs near the ingates at rough lumps on the surface of the casting
(d) is due to a thin projection of metal not intended as part of the casting
Q2. Swab is :
(a) a welding defect
(b) a gear cutter
(c) a tool used in foundry
(d) a forging die
Q3. Blow holes in sand casting are caused by :
(a) lower strength of the solidified metal
(b) higher moisture in the moulding sand
(c) faulty moulding flask
(d) poor casting design
Q4. The hot tearing in a metal casting is due to
(a) High fluidity
(b) High melt temperature
(c) Wide range of solidification temperature
(d) Low coefficient of thermal expansion
Q5. Rat tail defect in a casting is due to
(a) mould expansion
(b) metal expansion
(c) metal mould expansion
(d) none of the above
Q6. Which of the following is a casting defect?
(a) Blow hole
(b) Slag inclusion
(c) Pour short
(d) All above are casting defects
Q7. Which of the following is not the casting defect?
(a) Hot tears
(b) Stop-off
(c) Run out
(d) Blow holes

29
Q8. Casting defect refers to rough lumps of metal at some point of the casting and a corresponding area of
rough holes or depression at other points.
(a) Swelling of the casting on the top side
(b) Variations in wall thickness
(c) Core blow
(d) Sand wash

Q9. The machining allowance provided on patterns depends upon

(a) type of casting metal
(b) size and shape of casting
(c) method of casting used
(d) all of these

Q10. In a green sand moulding process, uniform ramming leads to

(a) less chance of porosity
(b) uniform flow of molten metal into mold cavity
(c) greater dimensional stability of the casting
(d) less sand expansion type of casting defect

Q11. Riddle is basically used to:

(a) Mixing and tempering the moulding sand
(b) Remove foreign particles from the sand
(c) Shape and smoothen the mould surface
(d) Drawn pattern from mould

Q12. Disk shaped components are cast by

(a) true centrifugal casting
(b) semi centrifugal casting
(c) centrifuging
(d) die casting

Q13. The negative allowance on the pattern is :

(a) Draft allowance
(b) Machining allowance
(c) Distortion allowance
(d) Rapping allowance

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (c) S3. (b) S4. (c) S5. (a)
S6. (d) S7. (b) S8. (d) S9. (d) S10. (c)
S11. (b) S12. (b) S13. (d)

30
31
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL CUTTING DPP-12
ORTHOGONAL AND OBLIQUE CUTTING

Q1. Orthogonal rake system is also known as-

(a) ISO system
(b) Old ISO system
(c) Normal rake system
(d) All of the options

Q2. The angle between the face and the flank of the single point cutting tool is known as :
(a) Rake angle
(b) Clearance angle
(c) Lip angle
(d) Side angle

Q3. Which of the following is a single point cutting tool?

(a) Hacksaw blade
(b) Grinding wheel
(c) Parting tool
(d) Milling cutter

Q4. How many elements define the tool signature

(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Seven

Q5. The Taylor's correlation between the cutting speed (𝑉) and the tool life (𝑇) is given by :
(a) V n /T = constant
(b) VT n = constant
(c) V/T n = constant
(d) V n T = constant

Q6. In pure orthogonal cutting the inclination angle is

(a) 0∘
(b) 90∘
(c) Less than 90∘
(d) Greater than 90∘

Q7. Discontinuous chips are formed during machining of which of the following materials
(a) Brittle materials
(b) Ductile materials
(c) Soft materials
(d) Hard materials

32
Q8. In orthogonal cutting of metals, cutting edge is-
(a) Perpendicular to the direction of tool travel
(b) Perpendicular to work piece
(c) Perpendicular to shear plane
(d) Perpendicular to the axis of cutting tool
Q9. Ceramic tools are fixed to tool by the following process
(a) soldering
(b) brazing
(c) welding
(d) clamping
Q10. Power consumption in metal cutting is mainly due to
(a) Tangential component of the force
(b) Longitudinal component of the force
(c) Normal component of the force
(d) Friction at the metal-tool interface
Q11. Tool life of the cutting tool is most affected by
(a) Tool geometry
(b) Cutting speed
(c) Cutting speed, feed and depth
(d) Microstructure of material being cut
Q12. The shear angle for two dimensional cutting operation is given by an equation where 𝐫 = cutting
ratio, 𝛼 = rake angle, ∅ = shear angle.
𝑟cos 𝛼
(a) tan Φ = 1+𝑟sin 𝛼
𝑟cos 𝛼
(b) tan Φ = 1−𝑟sin 𝛼
1−𝑟sin 𝛼
(c) tan Φ = 𝑟cos 𝛼
1+𝑟sin 𝛼
(d) tan Φ = 𝑟cos 𝛼

Q13. If 𝛼 is the rake angle of the cutting tool, ' 𝜙 ' is the shear angle and ' 𝑉 ' is the cutting Velocity, then
the velocity of chip sliding along the shear plane is given by :
Vcos 𝛼
(a) cos (𝜙−𝛼)
𝑉sin 𝛼
(b)
cos (𝜙−𝛼)
Vcos 𝛼
(c) sin (𝜙−𝛼)
𝑉sin 𝛼
(d) sin (𝜙−𝛼)

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (c) S3. (c) S4. (d) S5. (b)
S6. (a) S7. (a) S8. (a) S9. (b) S10. (a)
S11. (b) S12. (b) S13. (a)

33
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL CUTTING DPP-13
MECHANICS OF METAL CUTTING

Q1. Tool life can be increased by increasing:

(a) cutting speed
(b) nose radius
(c) feed
(d) depth of cut
Q2. Crater wear occurs due to which one of the following phenomenon -
(a) Adhesion
(b) Oxidation
(c) Diffusion
(d) All of the above
Q3. A good lubricant for thread cutting operation is:
(a) Graphite
(b) Mineral lard oil
(c) Water soluble oil
(d) Emulsified oil
Q4. In a taper turning operation, maximum and minimum diameters of the job are ' 𝐷 ' and 'd'
respectively. What should be the taper angle, if the job length is ' 𝐿 '?
(a) 2tan−1 (D − d/2 L)
(b) tan−1 (D − d/2 L)
(c) tan−1 (D − d)
(d) 2tan−1 (D − d/L)
Q5. The angle between the tool face and a line at right angles to the surface of the material being cut is
called----.
(a) Cutting angle
(b) Trail angle
(c) Rake angle
(d) Clearance angle
Q6. In ASA systems, a tool signature is defined as 0 , 10,6,6,10,12,1. The side cutting edge angle is degrees.
(a) 10
(b) 6
(c) 12
(d) 1
Q7. Back rake of a turning tool is measured on its-
(a) Machine longitudinal plane
(b) Orthogonal plane
(c) Normal plane
(d) Machine transverse plane

34
Q8. A single point tool specified as 8 − 14 − 6 − 6 − 6 − 15 − 4 has a back rake angle of-
(a) 8∘
(b) 14∘
(c) 6∘
(d) 15∘

Q9. The material which can be best cut with oxygen cutting process is
(a) brass
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) mild steel

Q10. Tool will rub against the work surface and the cutting force increase when :
(a) The clearance angle is more
(b) Clearance angle is less
(c) Rake angle is more
(d) Rake angle is less

Q11. During the machining operation

(a) the chips experience stresses
(b) the chips experience strains
(c) the values of stresses and strains are always calculated for the conditions at the normal plane
(d) the chips experience stresses and strains

Q12. What is 'burr'?

(a) Build up edge of a cutting tool
(b) A cutting tool
(c) Burnt sand
(d) Sharp edge remaining on metal after cutting, stamping and machining

Q13. Flank wear occurs mainly on the :

(a) Nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool
(b) Face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge
(c) Cutting edge only
(d) Front face only

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (c) S3. (b) S4. (b) S5. (c)
S6. (c) S7. (d) S8. (a) S9. (d) S10. (b)
S11. (d) S12. (d) S13. (a)

35
36
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL CUTTING DPP-14
MERCHANT CIRCLE-1

Q1. The intersection of flank and base of tool is known as:

(a) Shank
(b) Heel
(c) Flank
(d) Face
Q2. Power consumption in metal cutting is mainly due to
(a) Normal component of the force
(b) Longitudinal component of the force
(c) Tangential component of the force
(d) Friction at the metal-tool interface
Q3. During metal cutting, low feed and high cutting speed is considered to obtain
(a) Use of soft cutting tool
(b) Surface finish
(c) Dry machining
(d) High metal removal rate
Q4. The sum of the clearance angle, rake angle and cutting wedge angle is always equal to-
(a) 90∘
(b) 180∘
(c) 360∘
(d) 45∘
Q5. Back rake of a turning tool is measured on its-
(a) Machine longitudinal plane
(b) Orthogonal plane
(c) Normal plane
(d) Machine transverse plane
Q6. The undeformed chip thickness for orthogona machining of a steel pipe is 0.5 mm and the thickness
of deformed chip produced after machining is 0.2 mm. Determine the cutting ratio.
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.4
(c) 1.5
(d) 2.5
Q7. While orthogonal machining of a material with a tool with 12 degree rake, the theoretical minimum
possible shear plane angle is:
(a) 90 degrees
(b) 45 degrees
(c) 51 degrees
(d) 12 degrees

37
Q8. Theoretically minimum possible strain while orthogonal machining of a ductile material using a zero
degree rake is
(a) 2
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 90

Q9. In metal cutting operation, shear angle is defined as the angle-

(a) Made by the plane of shear with the direction tool travel
(b) Made by the shear plane with the tool axis
(c) Made by the shear plane with central plane of work piece
(d) None of the above

Q10. The rake angle of a cutting tool is 15∘, shear angle 45∘ and cutting velocity 35 m/min. What is the
velocity of chip along the tool face ?
(a) 28.5 m/min
(b) 27.3 m/min
(c) 25.3 m/min
(d) 23.5 m/min

Q11. The angle on which the strength of tool depends, is

(a) Cutting angle
(b) Lip angle
(c) Rake angle
(d) Clearance angle

Q12. Which one of the following is the correct expression for the Merchant's machinability constant?
(where 𝜙 = shear angle, 𝛾 = friction angle and 𝛼 = rake angle)
(a) 2𝜙 + 𝛾 − 𝛼
(b) 2𝜙 − 𝛾 + 𝛼
(c) 2𝜙 − 𝛾 + 𝛼
(d) 𝜙 + 𝛾 + 𝛼

Q13. Tool life in generally specified by :

(a) Number of pieces machined
(b) Volume of metal removed
(c) Actual cutting time
(d) Any of the above

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (c) S3. (b) S4. (a) S5. (d)
S6. (d) S7. (c) S8. (a) S9. (a) S10. (a)
S11. (c) S12. (a) S13. (d)

38
39
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL CUTTING DPP-15
MERCHANT CIRCLE-2

Q1. According to Lee and Shaffer theory, the shear angle 𝜙 is given by relation ( 𝛼 = rake angle, 𝛽 =
friction angle)
𝜋 𝛽 𝛼
(a) 𝜙 = 2 + 2 + 2
𝜋
(b) 𝜙 = 4 − 𝛽 + 𝛼
𝜋 𝛽 𝛼
(c) 𝜙 = 2 − 2 + 2
𝜙 𝜋
(d) = 2+𝛼+𝛽
2

Q2. If a cutting tool is designated as 00 − 10∘ − 60 − 60 − 80 − 750 − 1 mm, what is the side cutting edge
angle of the tool?
(a) 00
(b) 100
(c) 60
(d) 750
Q3. The diameter of the Merchant's Circle diagram represents the magnitude of the
(a) tangential force
(b) Frictional force
(c) normal force
(d) resultant force
Q4. The velocity of tool along the tool face is known as-
(a) Shear velocity
(b) Chip velocity
(c) Cutting velocity
(d) Mean velocity
Q5. The values of principal cutting edge angle 𝜙 of the turning tool whose geometry is designated as
: 10∘ , 10∘ , 8∘ , 6∘ , 15∘ , 30∘ , 0 (inch).
(a) 6∘
(b) 15∘
(c) 30∘
(d) 60∘
Q6. Which of the following is correct for EarnestMerchant Theory? [where 𝜙 = Shear angle, 𝛼 = Rake
angle, 𝛽 = Friction angle]
𝜋 1
(a) 𝜙 = 2 − 2 (𝛼 − 𝛽)
𝜋 1
(b) 𝜙 = 4 + 2 (𝛼 − 𝛽)
𝜋 1
(c) 𝜙 = 2 + 2 (𝛼 − 𝛽)
𝜋 1
(d) 𝜙 = 4 − 2 (𝛼 − 𝛽)

40
Q7. Using Lee and Shaffer relation, calculate shear angle if normal rake angle of the tool = 10∘, coefficient
of friction (𝜇) = 0.6.
(a) 140
(b) 180
(c) 240
(d) None of the above
Q8. In a machining operation cutting speed is reduced by 50%. Assuming 𝑛 = 0.5, 𝐶 = 300 in Taylor's
equation the increase in tool life is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16
𝜋 𝛼
Q9. The relationship of the shear angle 𝜙 = 4 − 𝛽 + 2 is as per (' 𝛼 ' is rake angle and ' 𝛽 ' is friction angle)
(a) Ernst-Merchant theory
(b) Merchant's theory
(c) Stabler theory
(d) Lee and Shaffer theory
Q10. Oblique cutting system is also known as:
(a) One-dimensional cutting system
(b) Two-dimensional cutting system
(c) Three-dimensional cutting system
(d) None of the above
Q11. In machining process, the cutting force can be expressed as............if 𝜙 is the shear plane angle and 𝛼
is the rake angle.
(a) FC = FS cos 𝜙 + FN sin 𝜙
(b) FC = FS cos 𝜙 − FN sin 𝜙
(c) FC = Fsin 𝛼 − Ncos 𝛼
(d) 𝐹𝐶 = 𝐹cos 𝛼 − 𝑁sin 𝛼
Q12. Only two perpendicular components of cutting force act on the tool in case of cutting
(a) oblique
(b) orthogonal
(c) 3D
(d) inclined
Q13. According to modified merchant theory
𝜋 𝑣 𝛼
(a) 𝛽 = 4 − 2 + 2
𝜋 𝑣 𝛼
(b) 𝛽 = 4 + 2 − 2
𝜋 𝑣 𝛼
(c) 𝛽 = 4 − 2 − 2
𝜋 𝑣 𝛼
(d) 𝛽 = 4 + 2 + 2
where 𝛽-shear angle
v - friction angle
𝛼 - rake angle

41
[Link] of the following is not the assumption in Merchant's theory :-
(a) Tool is perfectly sharp
(b) Shear is occurring on a plane
(c) Uncut chip thickness is constant
(d) A continuous chip with built up edge (BUE) is produced

Q15. Merchant's theory of metal cutting is based on the assumption that

(a) The shear stress is maximum at the shear plane and shear will take place in a direction in which
the energy required for shearing is maximum
(b) The cutting energy depends on microstructures and coefficient of friction
(c) During cutting operation electrons are disintegrated causing generation of heat and new surfaces
which are softer than original
(d) Shear occurs in a single plane and there exists a shear plane which separates the chip and work-
piece

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (d) S3. (d) S4. (b) S5. (d)
S6. (b) S7. (c) S8. (b) S9. (c) S10. (c)
S11. (a) S12. (b) S13. (a) S14. (d) S15. (d)

42
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL CUTTING DPP-16
EARNEST & MERCHANT THEORY OR CONDITION OF MINIMUM POWER

Q1. In an orthogonal turning operation with zero rake angle tool, the shear plane angle in radian for
minimum shear strain is:
𝜋
(a) 2
𝜋
(b)
4
𝜋
(c) 3
𝜋
(d) 6

Q2. The chip thickness ratio ' 𝑟 ' is given by where 𝜙 = shear plane angle, and 𝛼 = rake angle
cos 𝜙
(a) sin (𝜙−𝛼)
sin (𝜙−𝛼)
(b) cos 𝜙
cos (𝜙−𝛼)
(c) sin 𝛼
sin 𝜙
(d) cos (𝜙−𝛼)

Q3. In an orthogonal cutting operation, the chip thickness and the uncut thickness are equal 0.45 mm
each. If the tool rake angle is 0∘, the shear plane angle is :-
(a) 18∘
(b) 30∘
(c) 45∘
(d) 60∘

Q4. In metal cutting operation, the approximate ration of heat distributed among chip, tool and work, in
that order is
(a) 80: 10: 10
(b) 33: 33: 33
(c) 20: 60: 10
(d) 10: 10: 80

Q5. The main cutting force acting on a tool during the turning (orthogonal cutting) operation of a metal is
400 N. The turning was performed using 2 mm depth of cut and 0.1 mm/rev feed rate. The specific
cutting pressure (in N/mm2 ) is
(a) 1000
(b) 2000
(c) 20000
(d) 4000

43
Q6. In the metal cutting operation, what will be the shear angle when a cutting tool has positive rake 𝛼 =
20∘. The friction angle is 40∘. (Use Merchant's shear angle theory)
(a) 350
(b) 30∘
(c) 90∘
(d) 40∘

Q7. Which of the following is correct for EarnestMerchant Theory? [where 𝜙 = Shear angle, 𝛼 = Rake
angle, 𝛽 = Friction angle]
𝜋 1
(a) 𝜙 = 2 − 2 (𝛼 − 𝛽)
𝜋 1
(b) 𝜙 = 4 + 2 (𝛼 − 𝛽)
𝜋 1
(c) 𝜙 = 2 + 2 (𝛼 − 𝛽)
𝜋
(d) 𝜙 = 4 − (𝛼 − 𝛽)

Q8. The Merchant circle is used to

(a) Improve the quality of a product
(b) Find the principal stress and principal strain
(c) Fix the price of a product in the market
(d) Establish the shear angle relationship in machining

Q9. The relationship between the shear angle (𝜙), friction angle (𝛽), and cutting rake angle (𝛼) and the
machining constant 𝐶 for the work materials is
(a) 2𝜙 + 𝛽 − 𝛼 = C
(b) 2𝛼 + 𝛽 − 𝜙 = 𝐶
(c) 2𝛽 + 𝛼 − 𝜙 = 𝐶
(d) 2𝜙 + 𝛼 + 𝛽 = 𝐶

Q10. In the selection of optimal cutting conditions the requirement of surface finish would put a limit on
which of the following?
(a) The maximum feed
(b) The maximum depth of cut
(c) The maximum speed
(d) The maximum number of passes

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (d) S3. (c) S4. (a) S5. (b)
S6. (a) S7. (b) S8. (d) S9. (a) S10. (a)

44
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL CUTTING DPP-17
TURNING OPERATION

Q1. The ductile materials, during machining, produce :

(a) Continuous chips
(b) Discontinuous chips
(c) Continuous chips with built up edge
(d) Either a or c

Q2. In turning operation, the feed could be doubled to increase the metal removal rate. To keep the same
level of surface finish, the nose radius of the tool should be:
(a) Halved
(b) Kept unchanged
(c) Doubled
(d) Made four times

Q3. In a taper turning operation, maximum and minimum diameters of the job are ' 𝐷 ' and ' 𝑑 '
respectively. What should be the taper angle, if the job length is ' L '?
(a) 2tan−1 (D − d/2 L)
(b) tan−1 (D − d/2 L)
(c) tan−1 (D − d)
(d) 2tan−1 (D − d/L)

Q4. The cutting speed of a 50 mm diameter bar being turned with a spindle speed of 178rpm is-----.
(a) 0.466 m/s
(b) 0.28 m/m
(c) 28 m/m
(d) 466 m/m
Q5. If the cutting conditions in a turning operation are
Cutting speed = 300ft/min.
Feed = 0.010 in / rev. and
Depth of cut = 0.100 in,
Which one of the following is the material removal rate?
(a) 0.025in3 /min
(b) 0.3in3 /min
(c) 3.0in3 /min
(d) 3.6in3 /min

Q6. In a turning operation, the change in diameter of the work part is equal to which one of the following?
(a) 1 × depth of cut
(b) 2 × depth of cut
(c) 1 × feed
(d) 2 × feed

45
Q7. The factor responsible for the formation of discontinuous chips is :
(a) Low cutting speed and small rake angle
(b) Low cutting speed and large rake angle
(c) High cutting speed and large rake angle
(d) High cutting speed and small rake angle
Q8. A built-up edge is formed while machining :
(a) Ductile material at high speed
(b) Ductile material at low speed
(c) Brittle material at high speed
(d) Brittle material at low speed

Q9. Usually no cutting fluid is needed in turning

(a) Low carbon steel
(b) Cast iron
(c) Aluminum
(d) High carbon steel
Q10. Which one of the following is not a cutting tool material?
(a) H.S.S.
(b) Cemented carbides
(c) Satellites
(d) Bronze

Q11. For achieving a specific surface finish in single point turning, the most important factor to be
controlled is :
(a) depth of cut
(b) cutting speed
(c) feed
(d) tool rake angle
Q12. Which of the following methods should be used for turning internal tapers only?
(a) Tail stock offset
(b) Taper attachment
(c) Form tool
(d) Compound rest
Q13. Lathe centres are provided with standard taper known as:
(a) Chapman taper
(b) Seller's taper
(c) Morse taper
(d) Jarno taper
Q14. Tool life in turning will decrease by
(a) depth of cut.
(b) feed.
(c) cutting velocity.
(d) tool rake angle.

46
Q15. In turning, chip thickness ratio will be
(a) Equal to zero
(b) Greater than two
(c) Greater than one
(d) Less than one

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (d) S2. (d) S3. (b) S4. (a) S5. (d)
S6. (b) S7. (a) S8. (b) S9. (b) S10. (d)
S11. (c) S12. (b) S13. (c) S14. (c) S15. (d)

47
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL CUTTING DPP-18
TOOL SIGNATURE

Q1. How many elements define the tool signature

(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Seven
Q2. Which of the following is a single point cutting tool?
(a) Hacksaw blade
(b) Grinding wheel
(c) Parting tool
(d) Milling cutter
Q3. Single point thread cutting tools should ideally have:
(a) Zero rake
(b) Positive rake
(c) Negative rake
(d) Normal rate
Q4. In the tool signature 8 − 14 − 6 − 7 − 5 − 15 − 4 the side cutting edge angle is
(a) 6∘
(b) 7∘
(c) 5∘
(d) 15∘
Q5. A cutting tool can never have its-
(a) Clearance angle - negative
(b) Rake angle - positive
(c) Clearance angle - positive
(d) Rake angle - negative
Q6. A single point tool specified as 8 − 14 − 6 − 6 − 6 − 15 − 4 has a back rake angle of-
(a) 8∘
(b) 14∘
(c) 6∘
(d) 15∘
Q7. A tool has the signature form as 8,8,5,5,6,6, 1 as per American Standard Association. In this, 1
represents-
(a) Back rake angle
(b) Side cutting edge
(c) Nose radius
(d) Side relief angle

48
Q8. Rake angles can be-
(a) Zero
(b) Positive
(c) Negative
(d) All of the options
Q9. Relief angle in a cutting tool generally varies from
(a) 1∘ to 2∘
(b) 2∘ to 40
(c) 5∘ to 15∘
(d) 15∘ to 25∘
Q10. Positive rake angle
(a) increases edge strength
(b) simplifies design
(c) helps reduce cutting forces
(d) increases tool life
Q11. Which of the following is NOT a tool geometry specification system?
(a) Oblique rake system
(b) Normal rake system
(c) American Standards Association
(d) Orthogonal rake system
Q12. As per American Standards Association (ASA), the tool signature of a given tool is 10,9,8,6,5,7,3.
The end relief angle of the tool will be
(a) 8
(b) 3
(c) 7
(d) 5
Q13. The lip angle of a single point cutting tool is.
(a) 10∘ to 30∘
(b) 30∘ to 60∘
(c) 50∘ to 60∘
(d) 60∘ to 80∘
Q14. The tool signature in American system is: 8-10-6-6-12-2-30-0. Side rake angle is:
(a) 80
(b) 10∘
(c) 60
(d) 120
Q15. Cemented carbide tools are usually provided with:
(a) Positive back rake angle
(b) Negative back rake angle
(c) Zero rake angle
(d) None of these

49
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (d) S2. (c) S3. (a) S4. (d) S5. (a)
S6. (a) S7. (c) S8. (d) S9. (c) S10. (c)
S11. (a) S12. (a) S13. (d) S14. (b) S15. (b)

50
 PRODUCTION
METAL CUTTING DPP-19
HEAT GENERATION & DISSIPATION

Q1. Excessive heat generated during metal cutting is due to

(a) Built up edge formed on the cutting tool
(b) Correctly grounded tool
(c) Low friction between tool and workpiece
(d) Cutting tool of good surface finish

Q2. The heat generated in metal cutting is dissipated in difference proportions into environment, tool,
chip, workpiece. The correct order of this proportion in decreasing magnitude is
(a) took, work, chip, environment
(b) work, tool, environment, chip
(c) work, tool, chip, environment
(d) chip, tool, work, environment

Q3. A cutting fluid address two main problems

1. heat generation at the shear zone and friction zone
2. friction at the tool-chip and tool-work interfaces
3. reduce the cutting work
4. ease of cutting Out of above which are correct?
(a) 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
(e) 1 and 3

Q4. In metal cutting operation, maximum heat (i.e. 80-85%) is generated in

(a) the shear zone
(b) the chip-tool interface zone
(c) the tool-work interface zone
(d) On the tool surface

Q5. If the cutting speed is increased, what will happen to the built-up edge?
(a) It becomes longer
(b) It becomes smaller and may vanish later
(c) It does not form
(d) Has no relation to speed

Q6. Crater water occurs due to which one of the following phenomenon?
(a) Adhesion
(b) Diffusion
(c) Oxidation
(d) All of the above

51
Q7. The cutting fluid mostly used for machining steel is :
(a) Water
(b) Soluble Oil
(c) Dry
(d) Heavy Oils
Q8. A built - up - edge is formed while machining –
(a) Ductile materials at high speed
(b) Ductile materials at low speed
(c) Brittle materials at high speed
(d) Brittle materials at low speed
Q9. Cutting power consumption in turning can be significantly reduced by
(a) increasing rake angle of the tool
(b) increasing the cutting angle of the tool
(c) widening the nose radius of the tool
(d) increasing the clearance angle
Q10. The primary tool force is used in calculating the total power consumption in machining is
(a) radial force
(b) tangential force
(c) axial force
(d) frictional force
Q11. The crater wear of a cutting tool is due to
(a) Chemical action of the coolant
(b) Excessive heat generated during cutting
(c) Rubbing of tool against workplace
(d) Abrasive action of the chip
Q12. Which is the property of a tool that prevents plastic deformation at its cutting edge during
machining process?
(a) High value of fracture toughness
(b) High value of hardness under heating
(c) Chemical stability
(d) Adhesion resistance

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (d) S3. (b) S4. (a) S5. (b)
S6. (c) S7. (b) S8. (b) S9. (a) S10. (b)
S11. (d) S12. (b)

52
53
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
TOOL LIFE AND MACHINABILITY DPP-20
TOOL FAILURE AND CAUSES

Q1. On which of the following surface, flank wear occurs:

(a) Nose of the tool
(b) Rake face of the tool
(c) Relief of the tool
(d) Cutting edge of the tool

Q2. The binding material used in cemented carbide tools is

(a) Cobalt
(b) Nickel
(c) Carbon
(d) Chromium

Q3. Crater wear is predominant in :

(a) Carbon steel tools
(b) Tungsten carbide tools
(c) High speed steel tools
(d) Ceramic tools

Q4. Crater wear takes place in a single point cutting tool at the
(a) Tip
(b) Face
(c) Flank
(d) Side rake

Q5. Built-up-edge is formed in cutting tool when we machine

(a) Ductile materials at low speed
(b) Ductile materials at high speed
(c) Brittle materials at high speed
(d) Brittle materials at low speed

Q6. Which of the following materials is not used to make cutting tools?
(a) High-speed steels
(b) Cemented carbides
(c) Stellite
(d) Cast iron

Q7. Chip breaker in a tool is used for

(a) To break the chip into small pieces
(b) To have continuous type of chips from long cut
(c) To have crushed chips
(d) None of the above

54
Q8. Ceramic cutting tools are made up of
(a) Tungsten carbide
(b) Silicon carbide
(c) Mixture of oxides and alumina
(d) None of these
Q9. Crater wear starts at some distance from the tool tip because
(a) Cutting fluid cannot penetrate that region
(b) Stress on rake face is maximum at thet region
(c) Tool strength is minimum at that region
(d) Tool temperature is maximum at that region
Q10. The process of improving the cutting action of grinding wheel is called
(a) Truing
(b) Dressing
(c) Facing
(d) Clearing
Q11. The most important requisite of a cutting tool material is
(a) Carbon percentage
(b) Percentage of alloying elements
(c) Red (hot) hardness
(d) Easy fabrication
Q12. The tool made of cemented carbide wear out faster at
(a) Fast speed
(b) Very fast speed
(c) Medium speed
(d) Slow speed
Q13. In machine tools, chatter is due to
(a) Free vibrations
(b) Randon vibrations
(c) Forced vibrations
(d) Self-excited vibrations

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (a) S3. (b) S4. (b) S5. (a)
S6. (d) S7. (a) S8. (c) S9. (d) S10. (b)
S11. (c) S12. (d) S13. (d)

55
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
TOOL LIFE AND MACHINABILITY DPP-21
TAYLORS AND MODIFIED TAYLOR'S TOOL LIFE EQUATION

Q1. Taylor's tool life equation (with usual notation) is:

(a) V n T = C
(b) V n /T = C
(c) V/T n = C
(d) VT n = C

Q2. Tool life is most affected by machine

(a) cutting speed
(b) tool geometry
(c) feed and depth
(d) microstructure of material being cut

Q3. Using Taylor's equation for tool life 𝐕𝐓 0.5 = 𝐂 what is the percentage increase in tool life when the
cutting speed is halved?
(a) 50%
(b) 75%
(c) 200%
(d) 300%

Q4. In a tool wear study experiment, it is found that doubling cutting speed reduces the tool life to 1/8
the of the original. The Taylor's tool life index is
(a) 1/2
(b) 1/3
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/8

Q5. The tool life is affected by :

(a) Depth of cut
(b) Cutting speed
(c) Feed
(d) All of these

Q6. A carbide tool (having 𝑛 = 0.25 ) with mild steel work piece was found to give life of 1 hour and 21
minutes while cutting at 60rpm. The value of C in Taylor's equation VT n = C would be equal to :
(a) 180
(b) 150
(c) 100
(d) 200

56
Q7. In Taylor's tool life equation 𝑉𝑇 𝑛 = 𝐶, the constants n and C depend upon
1 Work piece material
2 Tool material
3 Coolant
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q8. During turning of a metallic rod at a given condition, the tool life was found to decrease from 100 min
to 25 min. When cutting speed was increased from 50 m/min. to 100 m/min. How much will be life
of tool if machined at 80 m/min.?
(a) 38.06 min.
(b) 39.06 min.
(c) 40.06 min.
(d) 41.06 min.
Q9. In a machining operation cutting speed is reduced by 50%. Assuming n = 𝟎. 𝟓, C = 𝟑𝟎𝟎 in Taylor's
equation the increase in tool life is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16
Q10. If 𝑛 = 0.5 and 𝐶 = 300 for the cutting speed and the tool life relation, when cutting speed is reduced
by 30%, the tool life is increased by :
(a) 95%
(b) 104%
(c) 78%
(d) 50%
Q11. Which one of the following is true in case of tool life
(a) It is directly proportional to the cutting speed
(b) It is inversely proportional to the cutting speed
(c) Does not depend on the cutting speed
(d) No equation is available that helps roughly calculate the cutting speed
Q12. Which of the following is performed with a cutting tool moving at a cutting speed " V " in the
direction of primary motion?
(a) Cutting
(b) Griding
(c) Non-traditional machining process, utilizing electrical, chemical and optimal sources of energy
(d) Casting
Q13. The Taylor's tool life exponent n is 𝟎. 𝟒 and tool changing time is 𝟐 minutes. For maximum
production rate the tool life in minutes is:
(a) 1
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 2

57
Q14. For a machining system, the cutting speed is 20 m/min, Taylor exponent is 1 and the Taylors
coefficient is 𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟎. the tool life in seconds is.
(a) 6000
(b) 1980
(c) 100
(d) 2020

Q15. In Taylor's tool life equation, 𝑉𝑇 𝑛 = 𝐶, index ' 𝑛 ' depends upon
(a) material of work-piece
(b) condition of machine
(c) material of tool
(d) coolant used

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (d) S2. (a) S3. (d) S4. (b) S5. (d)
S6. (a) S7. (a) S8. (b) S9. (b) S10. (b)
S11. (b) S12. (a) S13. (c) S14. (a) S15. (c)

58
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL FORMING DPP-22
ROLLING PART 1

Q1. In the rolling process, roll separating force can be decreased by-
(a) Reducing the roll diameter
(b) Increasing the roll diameter
(c) Providing backup rolls
(d) Increasing the friction between the rolls and the metal

Q2. Which of the following is not a rolling defect?

(a) Waviness
(b) Alligatoring
(c) Cracks
(d) Blow holes

Q3. Which of the following does not need additional finishing process?
(a) Hot rolling
(b) Hot forging
(c) Cold rolling
(d) Cold forging

Q4. Which among the following is NOT a metal forming process?

(a) Stamping
(b) Welding
(c) Drawing
(d) Stretching

Q5. A metal is said to be cold worked if it is mechanically processed

(a) below its recrystallization temperature
(b) at its recrystallization temperature
(c) at two-third of the melting temperature of the metal
(d) above its recrystallization temperature

Q6. Which of the following is a Primary Forming process used in industries ?

(a) Rolling
(c) Slotting
(b) Polishing
(d) Boring

Q7. In Neutral Plane

(a) Velocity is higher
(b) Velocity is constant
(c) Velocity is lower
(d) The Velocities of metal and rollers are same

59
Q8. Thread rolling is cold formed and it is limited to
(a) Non-ferrous materials
(b) Ductile materials
(c) Hard materials
(d) Ferrous material
Q9. In cold working:
(a) Strength, hardness and ductility increases
(b) Strength and hardness increases, but ductility decreases
(c) Strength, hardness and ductility decreases
(d) Strength and hardness decreases, but ductility increases
Q10. Which of the following is not machining operation?
(a) Knurling
(b) Drilling
(c) Parting
(d) Rolling
Q11. The ability of a material to resist softening at high temperature is known as :
(a) Creep
(b) Hot tempering
(c) Hot hardness
(d) Fatigue
Q12. In metal forming process the hardness of the material ?
(a) Decreases
(b) Remains same
(c) Increases then decreases
(d) Increases
Q13. In a four high rolling mill, there are four rolls out of which
(a) One is working roll and three are backing up rolls.
(b) Two are working rolls and two are backing up rolls
(c) Three are working rolls and one is backing up roll
(d) All of the four are working rolls
Q14. In order to get uniform thickness of the plate by rolling process, one provides
(a) camber on the rolls
(b) offset on the rolls
(c) hardening of the rolls
(d) antifriction bearings

ANSWR KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (d) S3. (c) S4. (b) S5. (a)
S6. (a) S7. (d) S8. (b) S9. (b) S10. (d)
S11. (c) S12. (d) S13. (b) S14. (a)

60
61
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL FORMING DPP-23
ROLLING PART 2

Q1. Materials used for thread rolling operations should be

(a) Ductile
(b) Ferrous
(c) Malleable
(d) None of the above
Q2. After cold forming, steel balls are subjected to:
(a) Normalising
(b) Tempering
(c) Electroplating
(d) Stress relieving
Q3. Ring rolling is used :
(a) for producing seamless tubes
(b) to increase thickness of a ring
(c) to decrease thickness of a ring
(d) for producing large cylinder
Q4. Thread rolling is same what like .........
(a) Cold extrusion
(b) Cold machining
(c) Cold rolling
(d) Cold forging
Q5. Which type of rolling mill is used for the rolling operation?
(a) Two high rolling mill
(b) Three high rolling mill
(c) Four high rolling mill
(d) All of the above
Q6. The most rapid method of forming metal into desired shapes by plastic deformation in between rolls
is
(a) Tempering
(b) Rolling
(c) Hardening
(d) None of these
Q7. Pipes for bicycle frames are made of :
(a) cold rolled steel
(b) hot rolled steel
(c) forged steel
(d) cast steel

62
Q8. The volume of metal that enters the rolling stand
(a) Should increase after rolling process
(b) Should decrease after rolling process
(c) Should remain same after rolling process
(d) Unpredictable
Q9. In four high rolling mill the bigger rollers are called :
(a) guide rolls
(b) back up rolls
(c) main rolls
(d) support rolls
Q10. In metal forming operation the stresses encountered in the material are:
(a) Less than yield strength
(b) Less than elastic limit
(c) Greater than yield strength but less than ultimate strength
(d) Greater than ultimate strength
Q11. Which of the following is not a typical defect of flat rolling?
(a) Edge cracking
(c) Wavy edges
(b) Centre cracking
(d) Bulging
Q12. The blank diameter used in thread rolling will be:
(a) Equal to minor diameter of the thread
(b) Equal to pitch diameter of the thread
(c) A little larger than the minor diameter of the thread
(d) A little larger than the pitch diameter of the thread
Q13. Channels, Angles and I-section, Which are used in fabricating a shed structure frame, are
manufactured from blooms its using the process of
(a) casting
(b) drawing
(c) swaging
(d) rolling
Q14. Rolling is done on metal at room temperature or at a temperature below the recrystallization
temperature is a type of :
(a) Hot Rolling
(b) Cold Rolling
(c) Forging
(d) None of these
Q15. Rolling mill is specified by
(a) roll diameter
(b) gross weight
(c) pressure exerted
(d) width of rolls

63
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (d) S3. (c) S4. (c) S5. (d)
S6. (b) S7. (a) S8. (c) S9. (b) S10. (c)
S11. (d) S12. (c) S13. (d) S14. (b) S15. (a)

64
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL FORMING DPP-24
ROLLING PART 3

Q1. What are the changes of metal dimensions in hot rolling process as the metal passes through the
rolls?
(a) Reduced in thickness and increased in length
(b) Reduced in thickness and in length
(c) Increased in thickness and reduced in length
(d) Increased in thickness and in length

Q2. In a three high rolling mill, the middle roll rotates in a direction......to those of the upper and lower
rolls.
(a) Same as
(b) Opposite as
(c) Same or opposite
(d) Perpendicular

Q3. The fastest method of producing external screw heads is,

(a) rolling
(b) grinding
(c) milling
(d) chasing

Q4. To secure better surface finish, uniform thickness and improved physical properties we need
(a) Hot rolling and cold rolling one after another
(b) Cold rolling
(c) Hot rolling
(d) None of the above

Q5. In rolling process, the state of stress of the material undergoing deformation is:-
(a) Pure compression
(b) Pure shear
(c) Compression and shear
(d) Tension and shear

Q6. In rolling process, sheet of 25 mm thickness is rolled to 20 mm thickness. Roll is of diameter 600 mm
and it rotates at 100rpm. The rod strip contact length will be
(a) 5 mm
(b) 39 mm
(c) 78 mm
(d) 120 mm

65
Q7. If ' 𝐿 ' is the length of contact between strip and roll, ' 𝑊 ' is the width of the strip, and 𝜎avg is the
average true stress of the strip in the roll gap, the roll force can be determined as
(a) 𝜎avg L.W
(b) 𝜎avg L/W
(c) 𝜎avg /L. W
(d) 1/𝜎avg L.W

Q8. The maximum possible draft in cold rolling of sheet increases with the-
(a) Increase in coefficient of friction
(b) Decrease in coefficient of friction
(c) Decrease in roll radius
(d) Increase in roll velocity

Q9. In rolled and forged product, limiting thickness of the plate is inversely proportional to
(a) flow stress of workpiece
(b) coefficient of friction
(c) elastic modulus of rolls
(d) roll radius

Q10. A two high plate rolling, using rollers of radius ' 𝑅 ', produces a reduction in plate thickness. If this
thickness reduction is ' Δℎ ' what would be the projected length of the arc of contact (L)
(a) L = Δh√R
(b) L = R√Δh
(c) L = √RΔh
(d) L = (RΔh)2

Q11. During a two-high plate rolling operation, plate velocity at the entrance is 𝑉0 and roller constant
surface velocity is 𝑉𝑟 . The plate velocity at exit is 𝑉1 . The backward slip is calculated by
𝑉 −𝑉
(a) 1𝑉 𝑟
𝑟
𝑉1 −𝑉0
(b) 𝑉𝑡
Vr −Vo
(c) Vr
Vr−V1
(d) Vr

Q12. Cold or hot rolling does not produce

(a) A hollow circular section
(b) A T-section
(c) An I-section
(d) A channel section

Q13. The rolling of metal foils is usually carried out on a:

(a) two high rolling mill
(b) three high rolling mill
(c) four high rolling mill
(d) cluster high rolling mill
66
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (b) S3. (a) S4. (b) S5. (c)
S6. (b) S7. (a) S8. (a) S9. (c) S10. (c)
S11. (c) S12. (a) S13. (d)

67
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL FORMING DPP-25
METAL FORGING PART 1

Q1. The process in which the metal is heated and then shaped by plastic deformation is called
(a) Forging
(b) Welding
(c) Threading
(d) None of the options

Q2. In the forging operation, fullering is done to-

(a) Draw out the material
(b) Bend the material
(c) Upset the material
(d) Extrude the material

Q3. Which one of the following is an advantage of forging?

(a) Good surface finish
(b) Low tooling cost
(c) Close tolerance
(d) Improved physical properties

Q4. In drop forging, forging is done by dropping :

(a) The work piece at high velocity
(b) The hammer at high velocity
(c) The die with hammer at high velocity
(d) A weight on hammer to hammer to produce the requisite impact

Q5. In which process is the diameter of a tube reduced or increased by forcing into a confined die?
(a) Swaging
(b) Embossing
(c) Lancing
(d) Forging

Q6. Fullers are used:

(a) for finishing flat surfaces
(b) for necking down a piece of work
(c) for punching a hole
(d) to finish the punched hole

Q7. Forging defects of a component can cause

(a) Fatigue failures
(b) Wear and corrosion
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

68
Q8. The forging process which involves increasing the cross- section of a material at the expense of its
corresponding length is called-
(a) Upset Forging
(b) Press Forging
(c) die Drop Forging
(d) Roll Forging
Q9. Which of the following manufacturing processes is mainly considered for producing the components
of very high strength such as connecting rods of engines ?
(a) Sheet metal work
(b) Extrusion
(c) Casting
(d) Forging
Q10. The process where the metal is allowed to flow in some pre-determined shape according to the
design of die, by a compressive force or impact, is known as:
(a) Hot casting
(b) Cold casting
(c) Hot forging
(d) Cold forging
Q11. Connecting rods are generally of the following form
(a) Forged I section
(b) Forged round section
(c) Cast iron triangular section
(d) Cast iron square section
Q12. In forged components,
(a) Fiber lines are arranged in a predetermined way
(b) Fiber lines of rolled stock are broken
(c) There are no fiber lines
(d) Fiber lines are scattered
Q13. The forming process that involves hammering of metal parts to deform them is known as
(a) Extrusion
(c) Fullering
(b) Rolling
(d) Forging
Q14. Which of the following is NOT a type of forging process?
(a) Warm forging
(b) Hot forging
(c) Cryogenic forging
(d) Cold forging
Q15. Which process is used to improve fatigue resistance of the metal by setting up compressive stresses
in its surfaces?
(a) Cold peening
(b) Cold heading
(c) Hot piercing
(d) Extrusion

69
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (a) S3. (d) S4. (c) S5. (a)
S6. (b) S7. (c) S8. (a) S9. (d) S10. (d)
S11. (a) S12. (a) S13. (d) S14. (c) S15. (a)

70
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL FORMING DPP-26
FORGING PART 2

Q1. Upsetting or cold heading is :

(a) Rolling process
(b) Extruding process
(c) Bending process
(d) Forging process

Q2. Which of the following is not a type of industrial forging?

(a) Drop forging
(b) Roll forging
(c) Blast forging
(d) Upset forging

Q3. Bolt heads are manufactured by-

(a) Swagging
(b) Roll forging
(c) Tumbling
(d) Upset forging

Q4. Which does not fit with rest in the following?

(a) reamer
(b) Drill
(c) Hammer
(d) Milling cutter

Q5. Rotary swaging is a process for shaping :

(a) round bars and tubes
(b) billets
(c) dies
(d) rectangular blocks

Q6. Which of the following materials can not be forged ?

(a) Wrought iron
(b) cast iron
(c) Mild steel
(d) High carbon steel

Q7. Drawing out is a forging operation used to

(a) reduce the cross section of a part
(b) increase the cross section of a part
(c) finish the part
(d) flatten the part

71
Q8. The sequence of making a cold chisel in a smithy shop are as follows
(a) Forging- Annealing- Hardening- TemperingGrinding
(b) Forging-Hardening- Annealing- TemperingGrinding
(c) Forging -Hardening- Tempering- AnnealingGrinding
(d) None of the above

Q9. Which process is used to produce tools, gear blanks, crankshaft, connecting rods, Gears etc?
(a) Forging
(b) Smithing
(c) Swaging
(d) Fullering

Q10. In forging greater strength is obtained because

(a) Metal becomes heat treated
(b) Metal is hammered in cold condition
(c) Beneficial grain flow is condition
(d) None of the above

Q11. In open-die forging a disc of diameter 200 mm and height 60 mm is compressed without any
barreling effect. The final diameter of the disc is 400 mm. The true strain is
(a) 1.986
(b) 1.686
(c) 1.386
(d) 0.602

Q12. Circular billet forging is a case of :

(a) Plane stress
(b) Plane strain
(c) Unidirectional stress
(d) Unidirectional strain

Q13. The process in which during forging material moves towards centre.
(a) Edging
(b) Fullering
(c) Hubbing
(d) Open die forging

Q14. The carbon content of forging dies is

(a) 0.1 to 0.2%
(b) 0.55 to 0.65%
(c) 0.8 to 1%
(d) 1.1 to 1.4%

Q15. Which of the following is a feature of forging process?

(a) Cost of tooling is less.
(b) Mechanical properties of parts are improved.
(c) Even intricate shapes with cavities can be forged.
(d) The product has very good surface finish.

72
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (d) S2. (c) S3. (d) S4. (c) S5. (a)
S6. (b) S7. (a) S8. (a) S9. (a) S10. (c)
S11. (c) S12. (a) S13. (a) S14. (b) S15. (b)

73
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL FORMING DPP-27
FORGING PART 3

Q1. Drop forging is used to make parts in

(a) open-impression dies that involves only upsetting operation
(b) closed-impression dies that involves only upsetting operation
(c) closed-impression dies that involves only drawing out operation
(d) open-impression dies that involves only drawing but operation
Q2. The name of the forging operation in which a heated metal bar is fed into a pair of cylindrical rolls
that have the shape of the required component cut into their surfaces is
(a) Auto forging
(b) Roll forging
(c) Swaging
(d) Cylindrical forging
Q3. Large size bolt heads are made by:
(a) Swaging
(b) Roll forging
(c) Upset forging
(d) Tumbling
Q4. In rolled and forged product, limiting thickness of the plate is inversely proportional to
(a) flow stress of workpiece
(b) coefficient of friction
(c) elastic modulus of rolls
(d) roll radius
Q5. In closed die forging, the amount of material initially taken is very carefully controlled, so that :
(a) flash acts as cushioning for the dies
(b) flash is formed
(c) it is suitable for batch production
(d) no flash is formed
Q6. In hammer forging, the hammer does not consist of:
(a) Falling weight
(b) Anvil
(c) Die
(d) Lifting mechanism for the ram
Q7. Which of the following process belongs to forging operation
(a) Fullering
(b) Welding
(c) Drawing
(d) Piercing

74
Q8. Forging hammers are called :
(a) Stroke restricted machines
(b) Energy restricted machines
(c) Load restricted machines
(d) Stress restricted machines
Q9. The forging force in impression-die forging is
(a) Proportional to the projected area of the forging
(b) Proportional to the surface area of the forging
(c) Inversely proportional to the projected area of the forging
(d) Inversely proportional to the surface area of the forging
Q10. Which one of the following is not an application of forging?
(a) Rail sections
(b) Chisels
(c) Brake pedal of an automobile
(d) Steel balls of ball bearing
Q11. When a steel undergoes a cold-worked process, it becomes progressively
(a) softer
(b) harder
(c) ductile
(d) malleable
Q12. Forging operation in which the thickness of bar is reduced by successive forging steps at specific
intervals is called
(a) Barreling
(b) Cogging
(c) Drawing in
(d) Upsetting
Q13. Which one of the following processes is most commonly used for the forging of bolt heads of
hexagonal shape?
(a) Open die upset forging
(b) Closed die drop forging
(c) Closed die press forging
(d) Open die progressive forging
Q14. The forging operation that is carried out in closed dies and in which the flow of metal occurs only at
the top layers of the material but not throughout the material is called:
(a) Auto forging
(b) Coining
(c) Incremental forging
(d) Roll forging
Q15. One of the advantages given below of the forged parts is not correct, find it :
(a) High production rate
(b) Higher forging head
(c) Less die water
(d) Lower forging temperature

75
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (b) S3. (c) S4. (c) S5. (d)
S6. (b) S7. (a) S8. (b) S9. (a) S10. (d)
S11. (b) S12. (b) S13. (a) S14. (b) S15. (c)

76
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL FORMING DPP-28
EXTRUSION PART-1

Q1. What does hydrostatic pressure in extrusion process improve?

(a) Ductility
(b) Compressive strength
(c) Brittleness
(d) Tensile strength

Q2. …...can easily be drawn into wire

(a) Cast Iron
(b) Zinc
(c) Tin
(d) Copper

Q3. What is the major problem in hot extrusion?

(a) Design of punch
(b) Design of die
(c) Wear and tear of die
(d) Wear or tear of punch

Q4. _____ consists of pressing a metal inside a through an orifice which is shaped to provide the desired
of the finished part.
(a) Hot spinning
(b) Hot extrusion
(c) Hot pickling
(d) Cold peening

Q5. Metal extrusion process is generally used for producing :

(a) uniform solid sections
(b) uniform hollow sections
(c) uniform solid and hollow section
(d) varying solid and hollow sections

Q6. Which one of the following methods is used for the manufacture of collapsible tooth-paste tubes?
(a) Impact extrusion
(b) Direct extrusion
(c) Deep drawing
(d) piercing

77
Q7. Which one of the following object can NOT be extruded?
(a) Arc
(b) Ellipse
(c) Circle
(d) Rectangle

Q8. What will be the percentage reduction in the cross-sectional area of the billet after the extrusion
considering extrusion ratio as 𝟐𝟎 ?
(a) 90%
(b) 95%
(c) 99%
(d) 98%

Q9. During Extrusion process, the state of stress in metal workspiece is

(a) Tri-axial compression
(b) Tri-axial compression, tension
(c) Bi-axial compression
(d) Bi-axial compression, tension

Q10. Which one of the follwoing is a machine used to perform extrusion?

(a) Forge hammer
(b) Milling machine
(c) Press machine
(d) Torch

Q11. The plastic deformation caused by:

(a) Stored elastic energy
(b) Dislocation motion
(c) Low value of modulus
(d) Complex elastic stress

Q12. Which of the following methods can be used for manufacturing 𝟐 meter long seamless metallic
tubes?
(a) Drawing
(b) Extrusion
(c) Rolling
(d) Extrusion and Rolling

Q13. In process, the ram and billet travel in opposite direction.

(a) Hydrostatic extrusion
(b) Direct extrusion
(c) Explosive extrusion
(d) Indirect extrusion

78
Q14. Extrusion ratio 𝑅 is expressed as:
(a) Change in length / Original length
(b) Original Area / Final Area
(c) Original diameter / final diameter
(d) Original length / Final length

Q15. During extrusion process, when a circular metal block is forced through the die,
(a) Diameter decreases with no change in length
(b) Diameter decreases with an increase in length
(c) Diameter increases with an increase in length
(d) Diameter increases with decrease in length

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (d) S3. (b) S4. (b) S5. (c)
S6. (a) S7. (a) S8. (b) S9. (a) S10. (c)
S11. (b) S12. (d) S13. (d) S14. (b) S15. (b)

79
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL FORMING DPP-29
EXTRUSION PART-2

Q1. Which metal is not suitable for impact extrusion

(a) Alloys of Zn and Sn
(b) Stainless steel
(c) Low carbon annealed steel
(d) alloys of Al and lead

Q2. What are extrudates?

(a) These are products external to the items being cast
(b) These are items produced through extrusion
(c) These are items having external cavities
(d) All the above

Q3. Extrusion is the process of-

(a) Producing holes by arc
(b) Metal shaping on presses
(c) Pushing the heated billet of metal through the orifice
(d) Welding two dissimilar metals

Q4. Which of the following is not a cold working process?

(a) Extrusion
(b) Slitting
(c) Blanking
(d) Lancing

Q5. The shear stress required to cause plastic deformation of solid metal is called
(a) proof stress
(b) flow stress
(c) ultimate stress
(d) none of these

Q6. Extrusion process can effectively reduce the cost of product through :
(a) Material saving
(b) Process time saving
(c) Saving in tooling cost
(d) Saving in administrative cost

Q7. For successful extrusion, the metal should be-

(a) Ductile
(b) Malleable
(c) Plastic
(d) Tough

80
Q8. The extrusion chamber, die and ram are generally lubricated by
(a) Vegetable oils
(b) Grease
(c) Water
(d) Solid metal
Q9. Seamless tube are manufactured by
(a) Casting
(b) Rolling
(c) Extrusion
(d) None of the above
Q10. Extrusion is a type of. operation.
(a) Hot Working and Cold Working
(b) Welding
(c) Casting
(d) Fitting
Q11. Which one of the following lubricants is used in forward hot extrusion of steel?
(a) Molten glass
(b) Soap solution
(c) Copper sulphate
(d) Vegetable oil
Q12. For successful extrusion, the metal should be
(a) ductile
(b) plastic
(c) malleable
(d) tough
Q13. Consider the following statements :
1 It is a single pass process.
2 Brittle material cannot be extruded
3 As compared to rolling more complex parts can be produced by this method.
Which of the above statements is/are correct with respect to extrusion process?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Q14. Mass production of seamless tubes is by the process of
(a) Rolling
(b) Spinning
(c) Welding
(d) Extrusion
Q15. Better surface will be obtained in one of the following process
(a) Direct extrusion
(b) Indirect extrusion
(c) Hydraulic extrusion
(d) Impact extrusion

81
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (b) S3. (c) S4. (a) S5. (b)
S6. (c) S7. (a) S8. (a) S9. (c) S10. (a)
S11. (a) S12. (b) S13. (d) S14. (d) S15. (c)

82
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL FORMING DPP-30
EXTRUSION PART-3

Q1. For extrusion process the metal

(a) Needs well lubrication
(b) Needs no lubrication
(c) Needs lubrication for steel products only
(d) Needs lubrication for non-ferrous metals only

Q2. Extrusion force does not depend upon :

(a) Extrusion ratio
(b) Type of extrusion process
(c) Material of die
(d) Working temperature

Q3. The extrusion process (es) used to make aluminium collapsible tube is/are :
1. Tube extrusion
2. Forward extrusion
3. Impact extrusion.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Q4. Which type of gears can be manufactured by extrusion process?

(a) Bevel gears
(b) Herringbone
(c) Worm gears
(d) Spur gears

Q5. Assertion (A) : Extrusion speed depends on work material.

Reason (R) : High extrusion speed causes cracks in the material.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Q6. The process of hot extrusion is used to produce

(a) Curtain rods made of aluminium
(b) Steel pipes/or domestic water supply
(c) Stainless steel tubes used in furniture
(d) Large she pipes used in city water mains

83
Q7. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) Extrusion is used for the manufacture of seamless tubes.
(b) Extrusion is used for reducing the diameter of round bars and tubes by rotating dies which open
and close rapidly on the work?
(c) Extrusion is used to improve fatigue resistance of the metal by setting up compressive stresses on
its surface
(d) Extrusion comprises pressing the metal inside a chamber to force it out by high pressure through
an orifice which is shaped to provide the desired from of the finished part.

Q8. Which one of the following is the correct temperature range for hot extrusion of aluminium?
(a) 300 − 340∘ C
(b) 350 − 400∘ C
(c) 430 − 480∘C
(d) 550 − 650∘ C

Q9. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) In extrusion process, thicker walls can be obtained by increasing the forming pressure
(b) Extrusion is an ideal process for obtaining rods from metal having poor density
(c) As compared to roll forming, extruding speed is high
(d) Impact extrusion is quite similar to Hooker's process including the flow of metal being in the
same direction

Q10. A brass billet is to be extruded from its initial diameter of 100 mm to a final diameter of 50 mm. The
working temperature of 700∘ C and the extrusion constant is 250MPa. The force required for
extrusion is
(a) 5.44MN
(b) 2.72MN
(c) 1.36MN
(d) 0.36MN

Q11. For rigid perfectly-plastic work material, negligible interface friction and no redundant work, the
theoretically maximum possible reduction in the wire drawing operation is
(a) 0.36
(b) 0.63
(c) 1.00
(d) 2.72

Q12. In a wire drawing operation, diameter of a steel wire is reduced from 10 mm to 8 mm. The mean
flow stress of the material is 400MPa. The ideal force required for drawing (ignoring friction and
redundant work) is
(a) 4.48kN
(b) 20.11kN
(c) 8.97kN
(d) 31.41kN

84
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (c) S3. (d) S4. (b) S5. (a)
S6. (a) S7. (d) S8. (c) S9. (c) S10. (b)
S11. (b) S12. (c)

85
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL FORMING DPP-31
DRAWING PART 1

Q1. Dies for wire drawing are made of

(a) Cast Steel
(b) Carbides
(c) Cast Iron
(d) Wrought Iron
Q2. Automobile bodies can be manufactured by employing :
(a) Rod drawing
(b) Tube drawing
(c) Wire drawing
(d) Deep drawing
Q3. Which of the following do not influence quality and surface finish in drawing?
(a) Die design
(b) Lubricants
(c) Reduction per pass
(d) None of the above
Q4. Deep drawability of a metal is ratio of
(a) Diameter of cup drawn from blank to maximum blank diameter
(b) Maximum blank diameter to diameter of cup drawn from blank
(c) Maximum blank diameter to maximum die diameter
(d) Maximum die diameter to maximum blank diameter
Q5. The forming process in which the crosssection of a wire or that of a bar or tube is reduced by pulling
the work piece through the conical orifice of a die is called:
(a) Rolling
(b) Bending
(c) Drawing
(d) Extrusion
Q6. The process of shaping a flat or a hollow blank into a three-dimensional hollow component without
any appreciable change in sheet thickness in called.
(a) Drawing
(b) Coining
(c) Blanking
(d) None of the above
Q7. For wire drawing operation, the work material should be :
(a) Ductile
(b) Tough
(c) Malleable
(d) Resilient

86
Q8. In drawing process tractix curve is a special profile in which radius of curvature
(a) Continuously increases
(b) Continuously decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) None of the above
Q9. The operation of manufacturing wire from a bar is called:
(a) Rolling
(b) Smithing
(c) Forging
(d) Drawing
Q10. Which of the following is always a coldworking operation ?
(a) rolling
(b) wire drawing
(c) forging
(d) extrusion
Q11. The process of decreasing the cross-section of a bar and increasing its length is called
(a) Spinning
(b) Upsetting
(c) Peening
(d) Drawing down
Q12. In drawing operation the metal flows mainly due to.
(a) Ductility
(b) Work hardening
(c) Plasticity
(d) Shearing
Q13. By drawing operation, the range of reduction in cross section per pass is generally
(a) 5% to 10%
(b) 5% to 20%
(c) 15% to 45%
(d) 40% to 75%
Q14. A drawing that furnishes all the dimensions, limits and special finishing process such as heat
treatment, honing, lapping surface finish, etc. to guide the craftsman on the shop floor in producing
the component is called :
(a) production drawing
(b) machine drawing
(c) assembly drawing
(d) design assembly drawing
Q15. Desirable properties of metal so that it can undergo metal forming processes are:
(a) Hardness and Toughness
(b) Ductility and creep
(c) Brittleness and hardness
(d) Ductility and yield strength

87
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (d) S3. (d) S4. (b) S5. (c)
S6. (a) S7. (a) S8. (a) S9. (d) S10. (b)
S11. (d) S12. (c) S13. (c) S14. (a) S15. (d)

88
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL FORMING DPP-32
DRAWING PART 2

Q1. In drawing, spinning and bending operations,

(a) tensile stresses are involved
(b) shear stresses are involved
(c) compressive stresses are involved
(d) both tensile and compressive stresses are involved

Q2. The average reduction in deep drawing process is about

(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 50%
(d) 80%

Q3. The purpose of approach angle in drawing dies is :

(a) To provide better movement to the metal
(b) To avoid frictional effect on the tool
(c) Provision for the easy removal of the product
(d) The place where actual reduction in diameter occurs

Q4. A drawing which shows the product with its components in their correct physical relationship is
called
(a) Part drawing
(b) Layout drawing
(c) Assembly drawing
(d) Fabrication drawing

Q5. The maximum reduction that can be given to any material in wire drawing (in most idealistic
condition is)
(a) 53%
(b) 63%
(c) 73%
(d) 83%

Q6. If D is the blank diameter and ' d ' is the punch diameter, the drawing ratio (DR) of a cylindrical
shaped part is given by
(a) (D − d)/d
(b) 𝑑/𝐷
(c) (D − d)/D
(d) D/d

89
Q7. ____ is a mechanical deformation technique of reducing or shaping the cross-section of rods or tubes
by means of repeated impacts or blows.
(a) Rolling
(b) Drawing
(c) Stamping
(d) Swaging

Q8. In wire drawing process, the bright shining surface on the wire is obtained if one
(a) does not use a lubricant
(b) uses solid powdery lubricant.
(c) uses thick paste lubricant
(d) uses thin film lubricant

Q9. Which of the following statements are correct about hot extrusion process?
(a) In direct extrusion, a hollow ram drives the die back through a stationary, confined billet.
(b) In indirect extrusion, there is no relative motion, friction between the billet and the chamber.
(c) In direct extrusion, the force required on the punch is 25 to 30% less compared to indirect
extrusion.
(d) In hot extrusion process design of die is a minor problem.

Q10. Which one of the following methods is used for the manufacture of cans for food and beverage?
(a) Direct extrusion
(b) Deep drawing
(c) Impact extrusion
(d) Hydrostatic extrusion

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (d) S2. (c) S3. (b) S4. (c) S5. (b)
S6. (d) S7. (d) S8. (d) S9. (b) S10. (c)

90
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METAL FORMING DPP-33
DRAWING PART - 3

Q1. Which one of the following extrusion processes can be used for making wires from less ductile
materials?
(a) Direct extrusion
(b) Indirect extrusion
(c) Hydrostatic extrusion
(d) Impact extrusion

Q2. The extrusion defect in which surface oxides and impurities are driven towards the Centre of the billet
like funnel, is called?
(a) fishtailing
(b) centre burst
(c) Bamboo defects
(d) surface cracks

Q3. In a wire drawing operation, diameter of a steel wire is reduced from 12 mm to 9mm. the mean flow
stress of the material is 300 MPa. The ideal force required for drawing (ignoring friction and redundant
work) is
(a) 5.84 kN
(b) 10.97 kN
(c) 22.01 kN
(d) 38.40 kN

Q4. A 20 mm diameter annealed steel wire is drawn through a die at a speed of 0.6 m/s to reduce the
diameter by 15% the yield stress of the material is 500 MPa.
Neglecting friction and strain hardening, the stress required for drawing (in MPa) is
(a) 162.52
(b) 487.14
(c) 357.05
(d) 642.52

Q5. A 15 mm diameter steel wire is drawn through a die at a speed of 0.8 m/s to reduce the diameter by
20%. The yield stress of the material is 600 MPa.
The power required for the drawing process (in kW) is
(a) 14.8
(b) 24.2
(c) 20.6
(d) 38.5

91
Q6. For obtaining a cup of diameter 20 mm and height 18 mm by drawing, the size of the round blank
should approximately
(a) 39 mm
(b) 43 mm
(c) 48 mm
(d) 51 mm
Q7. Q13. Which one of the following drawing defects is caused due to an insufficient blank holder pressure.
(a) earing
(b) miss strike
(c) orange peel
(d) wrinkle
Q8. In wire – drawing operation, the maximum reduction per pass for perfectly plastic material in ideal
condition is
(a) 68 %
(b) 63 %
(c) 58 %
(d) 50 %
Q9. Extrusion process can effectively reduce the cost of product through
(a) Material saving
(b) Process time saving
(c) Saving in tooling cost
(d) Saving administrative cost
Q10. Which one of the following manufacturing processes requires the provision of ‘flash gutter’?
(a) Closed die forging
(b) Centrifugal casting
(c) Investment casting
(d) Impact extrusion
Q11. The Forging of the Steel specimen is normally done at a temperature of:
(a) 800°
(b) 1100°C
(c) 1500°C
(d) 400°C
Q12. Which one of the following is a continuous bending process in which opposing rolls are used to
produce long sections of formed shapes from coil or strip stock?
(a) Stretch forming
(b) Roll forming
(c) Roll bending
(d) Spinning
Q13. A moving mandrel is used in-
(a) Forging Wire drawing
(b) Wire drawing
(c) Tube drawing
(d) Metal casting

92
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (a) S3. (c) S4. (a) S5. (c)
S6. (b) S7. (d) S8. (b) S9. (c) S10. (a)
S11. (b) S12. (b) S13. (c)

93
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
SHEET METAL OPERATION DPP-34
PUNCHING AND BLANKING OPERATION

Q1. Cutting operations like blanking and piercing can be performed simultaneously in
(a) combination die
(b) simple die
(c) compound die
(d) progressive die

Q2. Seamless tubes are made by

(a) Piercing
(c) Hot rolling
(b) Forward extrusion
(d) Drawing

Q3. In blanking operation, the clearance is provided on :

(a) Punch
(b) Die
(c) Half on the punch and half on the die
(d) Either on punch or die depending upon designer's choice

Q4. In sheet metal work the cutting force on the tool can be reduced by-
(a) Grinding the cutting edges sharp
(b) Increasing the hardness of die
(c) Increasing the hardness of punch
(d) Providing "shear" on tool

Q5. Operation of cutting a flat sheet to the desired shape is known as :

(a) perforating
(b) blanking
(c) notching
(d) forming

Q6. For blanking operation, the shear is provided on the -

(a) Die
(b) Punch
(c) Half on the die and half on the punch
(d) Die or punch depending on the material thickness

Q7. Open back inclinable press is used to perform

(a) To draw tubes
(b) To draw rods and tubes
(c) In Rolling
(d) In Blanking and Piercing

94
Q8. In blanking operation, clearance provided is:
(a) Both on punch and die
(b) Only On punch
(c) Only On die
(d) On punch or die depending on designers decision

Q9. In case of blanking operation usual clearance per side of die for aluminum material is
(a) 5% of thickness
(b) 6% of thickness
(c) 10% of thickness
(d) 3% of thickness

Q10. A die which carries a number of stations in a row is known as :

(a) Piercing die
(b) Progressive die
(c) Combination die
(d) Compound die

Q11. A die used for producing any shape of holes :

(a) Piercing die
(b) Progressive die
(c) Combination die
(d) Compound die

Q12. Punches are used for forming............. of any shapes :

(a) Knurling
(b) Reaming
(c) Holes
(d) Milling

Q13. Cutting and forming operations can be done in a single operation on :

(a) Simple die
(b) Progressive die
(c) Compound die
(d) Combination die

Q14. In blanking and piercing operation, clearance between die and punch depends on :
(a) Diameter of hole required
(b) Thickness of sheet material
(c) Number of pieces to be made
(d) Capacity and types of press

Q15. The process in which leaving a tab without removing any material is-
(a) Notching
(b) Lancing
(c) Parting
(d) Slitting

95
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (a) S3. (a) S4. (d) S5. (b)
S6. (a) S7. (d) S8. (b) S9. (c) S10. (b)
S11. (d) S12. (c) S13. (d) S14. (b) S15. (b)

96
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
SHEET METAL OPERATION DPP-35
ENERGY REQUIRED FOR PUNCHING AND OPERATION PART 1

Q1. A hydraulic press is used to produce circular blanks of 10 mm diameter from a sheet of 2 mm
thickness. If the shear strength of sheet material is 400 N/mm2, the force required to produce a
circular blank is-
(a) 8kN
(b) 25.13kN
(c) 31.42kN
(d) 125.66kN
Q2. The force requirement in a blanking operation of low carbon steel sheet is 5.0kN. The thickness of the
sheet is ' 𝑡 ' and diameter of the blanked part is ' 𝑑 '. For the same work material, if the diameter of
the blanked part is increased to 1.5 d and thickness is reduced to 0.4t, the new blanking force in kN is
:
(a) 3.0
(b) 4.5
(c) 5.0
(d) 8.0
Q3. For punching a hole of 20 mm diameter in a plate 20 mm thick, if the shear stress of plate is
30 kg/mm2 , the force required will be
(a) 10000 kg
(b) 18850 kg
(c) 28850 kg
(d) 37714 kg
Q4. In sheet metal operations involving blanking and punching, the ___ controls the blank size and the ____
controls the hole size.
(a) shear and punch
(b) die and punch
(c) die and shear
(d) none of the above
Q5. A metal disc of 20 mm diameter is to be punched from a sheet of 2 mm thickness. The punch and the
die clearance is 3%. The required punch diameter is :
(a) 19.88 mm
(b) 19.94 mm
(c) 20.06 mm
(d) 20.12 mm
Q6. It is desired to punch a hole of 20 mm diameter in a plate of 20 mm thick. If the shear stress of mild
steel is 30 kg/mm2 , the force necessary for punching would be approximately in the range of :
(a) 15-20 tonnes
(b) 20 - 25 tonnes
(c) 25 - 30 tonnes
(d) 35 - 40 tonnes
97
Q7. What will be the blanking pressure to produce a washer 5 cm outside diameter and 2.4 cm diameter
hole from a material 4 mm thick having a shear strength of 360 N/mm2 ?
(a) 220kN
(b) 390kN
(c) 312kN
(d) 226kN

Q8. In a metal sheet of 3 mm thickness, a hole of 7 mm diameter needs to be punched. The yield strength
in tension of the sheet material is 𝟏𝟐𝟎 MPa and its ultimate shear strength is 𝟏𝟎𝟎 MPa. The force
required to punch the hole is
(a) 7.92kN
(b) 11.6kN
(c) 6.6kN
(d) 13.9kN

Q9. The force required to punch a 25 mm hole in a mild steel plate 10 mm thick, when ultimate shear
stress of the plate is 500 N/mm2 will be nearly
(a) 78kN
(b) 393kN
(c) 98kN
(d) 158kN

Q10. The initial blank diameter required to form a cylindrical eup of outside diameter ' 𝑑 ' and total
height'h' having a corner radius ' 𝑟 ' is obtained using the formula
(a) 𝐷 = √𝑑 2 + 4𝑑ℎ − 0.5𝑟
(b) 𝐷𝑎 = 𝑑 + 2ℎ + 2𝑟
(c) 𝐷a = 𝑑 2 + 2ℎ2 + 2𝑟
(d) 𝐷𝑜 = √𝑑 2 + 4𝑑ℎ − 0.5𝑟

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (a) S3. (d) S4. (b) S5. (a)
S6. (d) S7. (d) S8. (c) S9. (b) S10. (a)

98
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
SHEET METAL OPERATION DPP-36
ENERGY REQUIRED FOR PUNCHING AND OPERATION PART - 2

Q1. The blank diameter used in thread rolling will be :

(a) equal to minor diameter of the thread
(b) equal to pitch diameter of the thread
(c) a little large than the minor diameter of the thread
(d) a little larger than the pitch diameter of the thread
Q2. A punch is used for making holes in steel plates with thickness 8 mm. If the punch diameter is 20 mm
and force required for creating a hole is 110kN, the average shear stress in the plate will be nearly
(a) 139MPa
(b) 219MPa
(c) 336MPa
(d) 416MPa
Q3. It is required to punch a hole of diameter 10 mm on a sheet of thickness 3 . The shear strength of the
work material is 420MPa. The required punch force is
(a) 19.87kN
(b) 39.56kN
(c) 98.9kN
(d) 359.6kN
Q4. A cylindrical cup of circular cross section of 50 mm diameter and 60 mm height with corner radius
2.5 mm is to be made of 0.5 mm thick sheet of steel. Its blank diameter (approximately) will be:
(a) 180 mm
(b) 140 mm
(c) 120 mm
(d) 160 mm
Q5. The force 𝐹 required to cut a sheet metal is given by
(a) 𝐹 = 𝜏s p/t
(b) 𝐹 = 𝜏𝑠 p/𝑡 2
(c) F = 𝜏s pt
(d) 𝐹 = 𝜏s /pt
Where 𝜏 = shear strength of sheet metal
p = perimeter of the cut
t = thickness of the sheet metal
Q6. The thickness of copper sheet is reduced from a thickness of 16 cm to 10 cm in a single pass by a
roller of diameter 400 cm. What is the bite angle in degrees for this process?
(a) 9.82∘
(b) 7.62∘
(c) 5.82∘
(d) 0.982∘

99
Q7. In a blanking operation to produce steel washer, the maximum punch load used is 2 × 105 N. The
thickness of the plate is 4 mm and the penetration is 25%. The work done during this shearing
operation is
(a) 200 J
(b) 400 J
(c) 600 J
(d) 800 J

Q8. With a punch for which the maximum crushing stress is 4 times the maximum shearing stress of the
plate, the biggest hole that can be punched in the plate would be of diameter equal to
1
(a) 4 × Thickness of plate
1
(b) 2 × Thickness of plate
(c) Plate thickness
(d) 2 × plate thickness

Q9. Find the blanking force required to punch 10 mm diameter holes in a steel sheet of 3 mm thickness.
Given shear strength of material = 400MPa, penetration = 40% and shear provided on the punch =
𝟐 𝐦𝐦.
(a) 22.6kN
(b) 37.7kN
(c) 61.6kN
(d) 94.3kN

Q10. A 50 mm diameter disc is to be punched out from a carbon steel sheet 1.0 mm thick. The diameter of
the punch should be
(a) 49.925 mm
(b) 50.00 mm
(c) 50.075 mm
(d) None of the above

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (b) S3. (b) S4. (c) S5. (c)
S6. (a) S7. (a) S8. (c) S9. (a) S10. (b)

100
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
SHEET METAL OPERATION DPP-37
ENERGY REQUIRED FOR PUNCHING AND OPERATIONS PART - 3

Q1. The frictional shear stress (𝜏) in metal forming is expressed as

m𝜎
‾
(a)
√3
𝜎
‾
(b)
√3 m
𝜎
‾
(c) m√3
√3
(d) 𝜎‾
m
Where ' 𝑚 ' is the friction shear factor and ' 𝜎‾ ' is the flow stress
Q2. In sheet metal blanking operation, the blank size equals
(a) Punch size
(b) Die opening size
(c) Die opening size plus clearance between the punch and die
(d) Punch size plus clearance between the punch and die
Q3. If 𝐷 is the blank diameter and ' 𝑑 ' is the punch diameter, the drawing ratio (DR) of a cylindrical
shaped part is given by
(a) (D − d)/d
(b) d/D
(c) (D − d)/D
(d) D/d
Q4. For sheet metal cutting operations, the clearance between the punch and the die should be
(a) 1 to 2 mm
(b) 2 to 5 mm
(c) 1 to 2% of punch diameters
(d) 2 to 10% sheet thickness
Q5. The thickness of a metallic sheet is reduced from an initial value of 16 mm to a final value of 10 mm
in one single pass rolling with a pair of cylindrical rollers each of diameter of 400 mm. The bite angle
in degree will be
(a) 5.936
(b) 7.936
(c) 8.936
(d) 9.936
Q6. In a rolling process, sheet of 25 mm thickness is rolled to 20 mm thickness. Roll is of diameter 600
mm and it rotates at 100rpm. The roll strip contact length will be
(a) 5 mm
(b) 39 mm
(c) 78 mm
(d) 120 mm

101
Q7. A metal disc of 20 mm diameter is to be punched from a sheet of 2 mm thickness. The punch and the
die clearance is 3%. The required punch diameter is
(a) 19.88 mm
(b) 19.00 mm
(c) 20.06 mm
(d) 20.12 mm
Q8. A 50 mm diameter disc is to be punched out from a carbon steel sheet 1.0 mm thick. The diameter of
the punch should be
(a) 49.925 mm
(b) 50.00 mm
(c) 50.075 mm
(d) none of the above
Q9. In which one of the following is a flywheel generally employed?
(a) Lathe
(b) Electric motor
(c) Punching machine
(d) Gearbox
Q10. A hole is to be punched in a 15 mm thick plate having ultimate shear strength of 3 N-mm−2 . If the
allowable crushing stress in the punch is 6 N − mm−2 , the diameter of the smallest hole which can be
punched is equal to
(a) 15 mm
(b) 30 mm
(c) 60 mm
(d) 120 mm
Q11. A cup of 10 cm height and 5 cm diameter is to be made from a sheet metal of 2 mm thickness. The
number of deductions necessary will be
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Q12. A shell of 100 mm diameter and 100 mm height with the corner radius of 0.4 mm is to be produced
by cup drawing. The required blank diameter is
(a) 118 mm
(b) 161 mm
(c) 224 mm
(d) 312 mm

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (b) S3. (d) S4. (d) S5. (d)
S6. (b) S7. (a) S8. (d) S9. (c) S10. (b)
S11. (c) S12. (c)

102
103
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METROLOGY DPP-38
LIMIT, FITS AND TOLERANCE

Q1. An autocollimator is used to :

(a) Compare known and unknown dimensions
(b) Measure small angular displacements on flat surfaces
(c) Measure the flatness error
(d) Measure roundness error between centers
Q2. Profile of a gear tooth can be checked by:
(a) Sine bar
(b) Optical pyrometer
(c) Optical projector
(d) Slip gauges
Q3. CLA value is used to indicate :
(a) Surface dimensions
(b) Surface hardness
(c) Surface roughness
(d) Surface area
Q4. The difference between the upper limit and lower limit of a dimension is called :
(a) Nominal size
(b) Basic size
(c) Actual size
(d) Tolerance
Q5. The relation between two assembling parts is known as
(a) Limit
(b) Fit
(c) Allowance
(d) Tolerance
Q6. In limits and fits system, basis shaft is one whose-
(a) Lower deviation is zero
(b) Upper deviation is zero
(c) Minimum clearance is zero
(d) Maximum clearance is zero
Q7. How many grades of tolerances does the IS system of limits and fits specify?
(or)
According to Indian Standard total number o tolerance grades are :
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 18
(d) 20

104
Q8. The maximum angle that can be set using sine bar is
(a) 15∘
(b) 45∘
(c) 30∘
(d) 60∘

Q9. The algebraic difference between the maximum limit and the basic size is called
(a) lower deviation
(b) upper deviation
(c) fundamental deviation
(d) actual deviation

Q10. H7g6 fit provided on an assembly is

(a) An interference fit
(b) A transition fit
(c) A clearance fit
(d) A nonstandard fit

Q11. Surface finish is specified by the symbol of

(a) Squares
(b) circles
(c) parallelogram
(d) triangles

Q12. A feeler gauge is used to check

(a) Radius
(b) Screw pitch
(c) Surface roughness
(d) Thickness of clearance

Q13. Tolerances are specified -

(a) To obtain desired fits
(b) Because it is not possible to manufacture in size exactly
(c) To obtain high accuracy
(d) To have proper allowance

Q14. Sigma comparator is a

(a) Electrical comparator
(b) Mechanical comparator
(c) Optical comparator
(d) Pneumatic comparator

Q15. Which of the following can be used to scribe lines parallel to the edges of a part?
(a) Vernier calipers
(b) Divider
(c) Hemaphrodite calipers
(d) Screw gauge

105
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (c) S3. (c) S4. (d) S5. (b)
S6. (c) S7. (c) S8. (b) S9. (b) S10. (c)
S11. (d) S12. (d) S13. (b) S14. (b) S15. (c)

106
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METROLOGY DPP-39
CALCULATION OF UNIT TOLERANCE AND TOLERANCE

Q1. A clearance fit specification of 50H7 g6 means that

(a) Tolerance grade for hole is 7 and shaft is 6
(b) Tolerance grade for shaft is 7 and hole is 6
(c) Tolerance grade for shaft is 4 to 8 and 3 to 7 for hole
(d) Tolerance grade for hole is 4 to 8 and 3 to 7 for shaft

Q2. Which of the following types of gauge has gauging sections combined on one end ?
(a) Combination gauge
(b) Limit gauge
(c) Go and NoGo gauge
(d) Progressive gauge

Q3. A sine bar is specified by-

(a) Its total length
(b) The centre distance between two rollers
(c) The size of rollers
(d) The distance between roller and upper surface

Q4. A dimension is stated as 25H7 in a drawing. The lower limit is

(a) 24.75
(b) 25.00
(c) 25.25
(d) None of the above

Q5. A shaft has dimension, 𝜙40−0.099

−0,025 . The respective values of fundamental deviation and tolerance are
(a) −0.009,0.016
(b) −0.025, ±0.08
(c) −0.025,0.016
(d) −0.009, ±0.08

Q6. The value of tolerance unit 𝐼 is identified by which equation accurately though tolerance grade?
3
(a) i = 0.45 × √D + 0.001 × D
3
(b) 𝑖 = 0.45 × √D + 0.1 × D
3
(c) i = 0.90 × √D + 0.001 × D
3
(d) i = 0.45 × √D + 0.001

107
Q7. Very small displacements are effectively measured using :
(a) Strain gauge
(b) LVDT
(c) Thermistor
(d) Tachogenerator

Q8. Interference fit is one in which:

(a) the size limits for mating parts are so selected that clearance between them always occurs.
(b) the tolerance zone of the hole is entirely above the tolerance zone of the shaft.
(c) the tolerance zone of the hole is entirely below the tolerance zone of the shaft.
(d) the tolerance zones of hole and shaft overlap.

Q9. The tolerance produced by shell moulding process of casting is

(a) ±1 mm
(b) ±0.2 mm
(c) −0.5 mm
(d) +0.05 mm

Q10. A dimension is stated as 25 ± 0.02 mm in a drawing. What is the tolerance ?

(a) −0.02 mm
(b) 0.04 mm
(c) 25.00 mm
(d) +0.02 mm

Q11. The permissible deviation of a dimension from the desired size is known as
(a) precision
(b) fit
(c) tolerance
(d) none of the above

Q12. Expressing a dimension as 18.3−0.00

+0.02 mm is the case of-
(a) Unilateral tolerance
(b) Bilateral tolerance
(c) Limiting dimensions
(d) All of the options

Q13. Tolerance is given to the part size to :

(a) production of the part within the required permissible size error
(b) increase the production
(c) decrease the production
(d) finish the component approximately

108
Q14. For IT01 grade, tolerance is expressed as
(a) 0.3 + 0.02D
(b) 0.3 + 0.008D
(c) 0.5 + 0.012D
(d) 0.8 + 0.02D
0.035
Q15. When a dimension is expressed as 20+−0.025 , then the tolerance is
(a) 0.035 mm
(b) 0.025 mm
(c) 0.01 mm
(d) 0.06 mm

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (d) S3. (b) S4. (b) S5. (a)
S6. (a) S7. (b) S8. (c) S9. (b) S10. (b)
S11. (c) S12. (a) S13. (a) S14. (b) S15. (d)

109
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METROLOGY DPP-40
LIMIT GAUGE

Q1. The accuracy of a limit gauge can be checked by

(a) Micrometer
(b) Sine bar
(c) Vernier caliper
(d) Slip gauges

Q2. Slip gauge is a-

(a) Line standard
(b) End standard
(c) Line and end standard
(d) None of the above

Q3. It is desirable to handle the slip gauges with a cloth or chamois leather in order to :
(a) avoid injury to hands
(b) protect the surfaces of slip gauges
(c) insulate them from the heat of the hand
(d) ensure that the varnish applied on gauges does not come out

Q4. McLeod gauge measures :

(a) high pressures above 250 atm
(b) moderate pressures froml atm to 250 atm
(c) low and very low pressures from 0.01𝜇m of Hg to 50 mmHg
(d) ultra-low pressures below 0.01𝜇m of Hg.

Q5. The thickness of oil film at the surface of slip gauges is the order of :
(a) 0.005 micron
(b) 0.1 micron
(c) 1 micron
(d) 10 micron

Q6. NO GO gauge checks the material limits.

(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) both minimum & maximum
(d) none of the options

Q7. The preferred instrument for measuring depth of holes, grooves and recesses is
(a) plain scale
(b) vernier caliper
(c) slip gauge
(d) depth gauge

110
Q8. Feeler gauge are used to-
(a) Check and measure the bearing clearance
(b) Check the gap between the mating parts
(c) Check and set the spark plug gaps
(d) All of the options

Q9. Which of the following is used to check the diameters of holes?

(a) Plug gauge
(b) Fillet gauge
(c) Standard screw pitch gauge
(d) Slip gauge

Q10. Johansson Gauges are otherwise known as-

(a) Slip gauges
(b) Radius gauges
(c) Snap gauges
(d) Feeler gauges

Q11. Ring gauges are used for measuring

(a) Thread dimensions
(b) Roughness
(c) Roundness
(d) Outside diameters

Q12. Sine bars are used along with slip gauges to measure
(a) Angle
(b) Length
(c) Height
(d) Thickness

Q13. The two slip gauges in precision measurements are joined by :

(a) Assembling
(b) Sliding
(c) Adhesion
(d) Wringing

Q14. Feeler gauge generally comprise of gauging blades available in overall length of-
(a) 50 mm
(b) 75 mm
(c) 80 mm
(d) 100 mm

111
Q15. The devices used to measure the clearance between the valve and tappet of an internal combustion
engine is
(a) snap gauge
(b) micrometer
(c) slip gauge
(d) feeler gauge

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (d) S2. (b) S3. (b) S4. (c) S5. (a)
S6. (a) S7. (d) S8. (d) S9. (a) S10. (a)
S11. (d) S12. (a) S13. (d) S14. (b) S15. (d)

112
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METROLOGY DPP-41
MEASUREMENT AND INSPECTION – 1

Q1. Clinometer is used to measure :

(a) the internal diameter
(b) the thickness
(c) the external diameter
(d) the angular faces

Q2. LVDT is used for measuring:

(a) displacement
(b) roughness
(c) pressure
(d) speed

Q3. The 𝑀 and 𝐸 system in metrology are related with measurement of

(a) gear
(b) screw thread
(c) flatness
(d) surface finish

Q4. Which of the following is not the angle measuring device?

(a) Angle plate
(b) Sine bar
(c) Bevel protractor
(d) Angle gauge

Q5. Bevel protector is used for -

(a) Angular measurements
(b) Thickness measurements
(c) Flatness measurements
(d) Height measurements

Q6. Plug gauge is used to measure

(a) Taper bores
(b) Cylindrical bores
(c) Spherical holes
(d) None of the above

Q7. An optical gauge works on the principle of

(a) Reflection of light rays
(b) Polarization of light rays
(c) Interferences of light rays
(d) Dispersion of light rays

113
Q8. A dead weight tester is used for:
(a) Calibrating pressure measuring instruments
(b) Producing high pressure
(c) Measuring weight
(d) Measuring resistive force

Q9. Gear teeth vernier is used to measure

(a) Circular pitch
(b) Depth of tooth
(c) Tooth thickness
(d) Pitch line thickness

Q10. For angle measurement in metrology, the following pair can be used in conjunction with each other
(a) sine bar and vernier calipers
(b) bevel protractor and slip gauges
(c) slip gauges and sine bar
(d) bevel protractor and sine bar

Q11. Which of the following is the tester in which the gear being inspected is made to mesh with a
standard gear and a dial indicator is used to capture the radial errors?
(a) Parkinson Gear Tester
(b) Macmillan Gear Tester
(c) Jhonson Gear Tester
(d) Pitch Checking Instrument

Q12. Abbe's principal of alignment is used to be followed in

(a) vernier calipers
(b) depth vernier
(c) internal caliper micrometer
(d) height vernier

Q13. One of the main elements that make a microscope a measuring instrument is the
(a) Crank
(b) Recticle
(c) Spigot
(d) Ratina

Q14. Gear-tooth thickness and its profile are measured using and respectively.
(a) mircometer, dial indicator
(b) vernier calliper, mircometer
(c) micrometer, gear-tooth calliper
(d) gear-tooth calliper, micrometer

114
Q15. Dummy strain gauges used for
(a) Comparison of temperature changes
(b) Increasing the sensitivity of bridge in which they are included
(c) Compensating for differential expansion
(d) Calibration of strain gauges

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (d) S2. (a) S3. (d) S4. (a) S5. (a)
S6. (b) S7. (c) S8. (a) S9. (d) S10. (c)
S11. (a) S12. (b) S13. (b) S14. (d) S15. (a)

115
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
METROLOGY DPP-42
MEASURMENT AND INSPECTION 2

Q1. 'Not Go' limit refers to:

(a) The lower limit of a shaft and upper limit of a hole
(b) The lower limit of a hole and upper limit of a shaft
(c) Hole whose lower deviation is zero
(d) Maximum material condition.

Q2. The Hole 80.00+0.30

+0.00 & shaft 𝟖𝟎. 𝟎𝟎+0.002 when assembled will result in:
+0.021

(a) Clearance fit

(b) Drive fit
(c) Interference fit
(d) Transition fit

Q3. Which of the following is not the grade of slip gauge specified by IS 2984 − 1966 ?
(a) Grade 0
(b) Grade III
(c) Grade I
(d) Grade II

Q4. A mortise gauge is a

(a) striking tool
(b) planning tool
(c) boring tool
(d) marking tool

Q5. Which one of the following instruments is a comparator?

(a) Tool Maker's Microscope
(b) GO/NOGO gauge
(c) optical Interferometer
(d) dial gauge

Q6. According to Taylor's principle, No Go gauge checks

(a) only one feature at a time
(b) only important dimensions at a time
(c) all the dimensions at a time
(d) only the related dimensions at a time

Q7. Least count of vernier caliper is

(a) Ratio of main scale to vernier scale
(b) Ratio of vernier scale to main scale
(c) Difference between one division of main scale and one division of vernier scale
(d) Sum of main scale to the vernier scale

116
Q8. The gauges which are only used for checking the size and condition of other gauge are called
(a) Plug gauge
(b) Master gauge
(c) Limit gauge
(d) Inspection gauge

Q9. Smallest thickness which can be measured by a slip gauge is

(a) 1.001 mm
(b) 0.01 mm
(c) 0.001 mm
(d) none of these

Q10. GO-NO GO gauges are used for inspection of:

(a) variables
(b) attributes
(c) both variables and attributes
(d) none of these

Q11. All the working surfaces and the cylindrical surfaces of the rollers of sine bar have a surface finish
of the order of :
(a) 0.2 micron
(b) 0.5 micron
(c) 1 micron
(d) 5 micron

Q12. Flatness of a surface can be measured by

(a) Profile projector
(b) Slip gauges
(c) Coordinate measuring machine
(d) Talysurf

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (d) S3. (b) S4. (d) S5. (d)
S6. (a) S7. (c) S8. (b) S9. (a) S10. (b)
S11. (a) S12. (c)

117
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
WELDING DPP-43
DIFFERENT WELDING TECHNIQUE – 1

Q1. In arc welding, the electric are is produced between the work and the electrode by -
(a) voltage
(b) flow of current
(c) contact resistance
(d) all of these

Q2. During arc welding, eyes need to be protected against :

(a) Intense glare
(b) Microwaves
(c) High-frequency waves
(d) X-rays and gamma rays

Q3. The range of voltage in are welding is generally:

(a) 20 − 40 V
(b) 40 − 90 V
(c) 100 − 150 V
(d) 150 − 230 V

Q4. The ratio between Oxygen and Acetylene gases for neutral flame in gas welding is :
(a) 2: 1
(b) 1: 2
(c) 1: 1
(d) 4: 1

Q5. Weld decay is the phenomenon found with

(a) Copper
(b) Stainless steel
(c) Aluminum oxide
(d) Polyethylene

Q6. Which one of the following welding processes uses non-consumable electrode ?
(a) Gas metal arc welding
(b) Submerged arc welding
(c) Gas tungsten arc welding
(d) Flux coated arc welding

118
Q7. The commonly used flux in brazing is-
(a) Borax
(b) Rosin
(c) Lead sulphide
(d) Zinc chloride

Q8. The consumable electrode is used in :

(a) carbon arc welding
(b) Submerged arc welding
(c) TIG welding
(d) MIG welding

Q9. In spot welding, the spacing between two spot welds should not be less than :
(a) d
(b) 1.5 d
(c) 3 d
(d) 6 d

Q10. Plain and butt welds may be used on materials upto approximately:
(a) 25 mm thick
(c) 50 mm thick
(b) 40 mm thick
(d) 70 mm thick

Q11. TIG welding is best suited for welding :

(a) Aluminium
(b) Mild steel
(c) Carbon steel
(d) Silver

Q12. Arc blow is more common in

(a) AC welding
(b) DC welding with straight polarity
(c) DC welding with bare electrode
(d) AC welding with bare electrode

Q13. Which one of the following is not a fusion welding process?

(a) gas welding
(b) arc welding
(c) brazing
(d) resistance welding

119
Q14. In Thermit welding, Aluminium and Iron oxide are mixed in the proportion of
(a) 1: 3
(b) 1: 2
(c) 1: 1
(d) 2: 1

Q15. Seam welding is :

(a) a continuous spot welding process
(b) an arc welding process
(c) an electrode beam welding
(d) a multi spot welding process

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (d) S3. (a) S4. (c) S5. (b)
S6. (c) S7. (a) S8. (d) S9. (c) S10. (a)
S11. (a) S12. (c) S13. (c) S14. (a) S15. (a)

120
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
WELDING DPP-44
DIFFERENT WELDING TECHNIQUES – 2

Q1. In submerged are welding, the arc is struck between:

(a) Consumable coated electrode and work piece
(b) Non-consumable electrode and work piece
(c) Consumable bare electrode and work piece
(d) Tungsten electrodes and work piece

Q2. Which of the following is preferred for welding of non-ferrous metals by arc welding ?
(a) A.C. low frequency
(b) A.C. high frequency
(c) D.C.
(d) all of these

Q3. Soft solder consists of-

(a) Lead and tin
(b) Lead and zinc
(c) Lead and aluminium
(d) Copper and tin

Q4. Which of the following welding is NOT a fusion welding process?

(a) Submerged arc welding
(b) Plasma arc welding
(c) Shielded metal arc welding
(d) Friction welding

Q5. Electronic components are often joined by :

(a) Adhesive
(b) Soldering
(c) Brazing
(d) Spot welding

Q6. Short circuit transfer in MIG welding is also known as-

(a) Spray transfer
(b) Dip transfer
(c) Globular transfer
(d) Free flight transfer

Q7. The electron beam welding can be carried out in

(a) Open air
(b) a shielded gas environment
(c) Vacuum
(d) a pressurised inert gas chamber

121
Q8. Two 1 mm thick steel sheets are to be spot welded at a current of 5000 A. Assuming effective
resistance to be 𝟐𝟎𝟎 micro-ohms and current flow time of 0.2 second, heat generated during the
process is :
(a) 0.2 Joule
(b) 1 Joule
(c) 5 Joule
(d) 1000 Joule

Q9. Welding units operate at what power factor?

(a) 0.3
(b) 0.6
(c) 0.8
(d) 0.9

Q10. Which gas is used as a protection in carbon are welding ?

(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Carbon tetra fluoride
(d) Methane

Q11. Which of the following methods cannot be used for welding carbon steel ?
(a) Arc welding
(b) Gas welding
(c) Ultrasonic welding
(d) Forge welding

Q12. Which among the following methods is best suited for stainless steels?
(a) Electric butt welding
(b) Seam welding
(c) Flux coated arc welding
(d) Oxy-hydrogen welding

Q13. In which of the following cases, the strength of joint obtained is lowest?
(a) Welding
(b) Brazing
(c) Soldering
(d) Riveting

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (c) S3. (a) S4. (d) S5. (b)
S6. (b) S7. (c) S8. (d) S9. (a) S10. (b)
S11. (c) S12. (a) S13. (c)

122
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
WELDING DPP-45
GAS WELDING - 1

Q1. The reducing or carburizing flame can always be recognized by the presence of distinct flame zones.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Q2. Acetylene feather is present in which of the following flames of welding?
(a) Neutral flame
(b) Carburising flame
(c) Back flame
(d) Oxidising flame
Q3. Acetylene gas is stored in form in cylinders.
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gaseous
(d) Any one
Q4. Oxygen to acetylene ratio in case of oxidising flame is
(a) 1: 1
(b) 1.2: 1
(c) 1.5: 1
(d) 2: 1
Q5. For gas welding of brasses, the most useful flame is:
(a) oxidizing flame
(b) reducing flame
(c) neutral flame
(d) no specific choice
Q6. In oxy-acetylene gas welding, for complete combustion, the volume of oxygen required per unit of
acetylene is :
(a) 1
(b) 1.5
(c) 2
(d) 2.5
Q7. The acetylene gas pressure required at the torch during welding is
(a) 280 to 560kN/m2
(b) 7 to 103kN/m2
(c) 70 to 280kN/m2
(d) 560 to 840kN/m2

123
Q8. By which of the following welding processes, gray cast iron is usually welded?
(a) MIG welding
(b) TIG welding
(c) Gas welding
(d) Resistance welding
Q9. For neutral flame in gas welding, Ratio of acetylene to oxygen is
(a) equal to 0
(b) less than 1
(c) equal to 1
(d) greater than 1
Q10. The angle of filler rod in case of right ward welding technique is :
(a) 10 to 20
(b) 20 to 30
(c) 30 to 40
(d) 40 to 50
Q11. Metals are cut by oxy-acetylene flame due to:
(a) Intense oxidation
(c) Heat transfer
(b) Evaporation
(d) Burning
Q12. Carburizing flame is used to weld metals like
(a) steel
(b) copper and brass
(c) aluminium, nickel, monel etc.
(d) carburised steel
Q13. The most commonly used flame in gas welding is:
A. Neutral
B. Oxidizing
C. Carburizing
(a) only A
(b) only B
(c) only C
(d) only A and B
Q14. What is the flame temperature of acetylene?
(a) 1700∘ C
(b) 2200∘ C
(c) 2800∘C
(d) 3200∘ C
Q15. Oxy-acetylene process is most suited for which of the following process of joining?
(a) Metal wires
(b) Metal sheets
(c) Metal tubes
(d) Metal bars

124
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (b) S3. (b) S4. (c) S5. (a)
S6. (d) S7. (b) S8. (c) S9. (c) S10. (c)
S11. (a) S12. (c) S13. (a) S14. (d) S15. (b)

125
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
WELDING DPP-46
GAS WELDING - 2

Q1. If the flame of the welding torch is directed towards the progress of welding, what will you call the
welding technique ?
(a) Forehand welding
(b) Flux cored ARC welding
(c) Electro slag welding
(d) Pulsed spray welding
Q2. The maximum flame temperature occurs-
(a) At the outer cone
(b) At the inner cone
(c) Between the outer and inner cone
(d) At the torch tip
Q3. In an oxidizing flame :
(a) The proportion of oxygen and acetylene gases is same
(b) The proportion of oxygen gas is greater than that of acetylene gas
(c) The proportion of oxygen gas is lesser than that of the acetylene gas
(d) The proportion of oxygen and acetylene gas is not important
Q4. Oxygen to acetylene ratio in case of neutral flame by weight is
(a) 0.8: 1.0
(b) 3: 1
(c) 1.2: 1
(d) 2: 1
Q5. The flame type that is normally used to weld copper base alloys in oxy-acetylene welding method is:
(a) carburising flame
(b) neutral flame
(c) oxidising flame
(d) reducing flame
Q6. The acetylene cylinder is usually painted with
(a) Black colour
(b) White colour
(c) Maroon colour
(d) Yellow colour
Q7. Carburizing flame is used to weld..
(a) Brass
(b) Stellite
(c) Bronze
(d) Steel, cast iron

126
Q8. In oxy-acetylene welding reducing flame is mainly used for welding
(a) Aluminum
(b) Cast iron
(c) Zinc, lead, tin
(d) Nickel, monel and stellite

Q9. Neutral flame cannot be used for welding

(a) Cast iron
(b) Mild steel
(c) Copper and aluminum
(d) None of these

Q10. In oxy-acetylene welding the flame temperature is around:

(a) 874 ℃
(b) 1074 ℃
(c) 2870 ℃
(d) 4852 ℃

Q11. In a gas welding using oxygen and acetylene cylinders the pressure of gas is more in
(a) Oxygen cylinder
(b) Acetylene cylinder
(c) Equal in both cylinders
(d) Gas welding does not use oxygen cylinders

Q12. The flame which contains excess oxygen that theoretical required:
(a) Acetylene flame
(b) Neutral flame
(c) Oxidizing flame
(d) Carburizing flame

Q13. During MIG welding, the metal is transferred in the form of

(a) Continuous flow of molten metal
(b) A fine spray of metal
(c) Electron beam
(d) Solution

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (b) S3. (b) S4. (b) S5. (c)
S6. (c) S7. (b) S8. (d) S9. (d) S10. (c)
S11. (a) S12. (c) S13. (b)

127
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
WELDING DPP-47
ARC WELDING

Q1. In arc welding, the temperature of heat produced by the electric arc is the order of
(a) 3000∘C to 4000∘C
(b) 4000∘C to 4000∘C
(c) 5000∘ C to 6000∘ C
(d) 6000 ∘ C to 7000∘ C

Q2. Selection of incorrect parameters such as travel speed and are voltage cause -
(a) Undercut
(b) Porosity
(c) Cracks
(d) Incomplete penetration

Q3. Arc welding process that non consumable electrode is

(a) Shielded metal arc welding
(b) Submerged arc welding
(c) Atomic hydrogen welding
(d) Electro slag welding

Q4. In which of the following processes does electrode get consumed?

(a) TIG welding
(b) resistance welding
(c) thermit welding
(d) arc welding

Q5. Pick the wrong statement about AC and DC power sources for arc welding:
(a) The problem of magnetic blow is greatly reduced with AC power source.
(b) Arc stability is higher with DC power source.
(c) The DC power source provides high efficiency.
(d) AC power sources are considerably less expensive.

Q6. Poor fusion in a welded joint is due to:

(a) High welding speed
(b) Dirty metal surface
(c) Improper current
(d) Lack of flux

Q7. In arc welding, penetration is minimum for

(a) DCSP
(b) DCRP
(c) AC
(d) DCEN

128
Q8. Too high welding current in are welding would result in
(a) Excessive spatter, under cutting along edges, irregular deposits, wasted electrodes
(b) Excessive piling up of weld metal, poor penetration, wasted electrodes
(c) Too small bead, weak weld and wasted electrodes
(d) Excessive piling up of weld metal, overlapping without penetration of edges, wasted electrodes

Q9. In resistance welding, voltage used for heating is

(a) 1 V
(b) 10 V
(c) 100 V
(d) 1000 V

Q10. In arc welding process the current value is decided by:

(a) Thickness of plate
(b) Length at weld portion
(c) Voltage across arc
(d) Speed at travel

Q11. Arc blow is encountered in

(a) AC welding machines
(b) DC welding machines
(c) Thermit welding
(d) None of the above

Q12. In arc welding, the electric arc is produced between the work and the electrode by
(a) voltage
(b) flow of current
(c) contact resistance
(d) all of these

Q13. During the are welding:

(a) 2/3 of the heat is developed near the positive pole and 1/3 is developed near the negative pole
(b) 3/4 of the heat is developed near the positive pole and 1/4 is developed near the negative pole
(c) 1/3 of the heat is developed near the positive pole and 2/3 is developed near the negative pole
(d) 1/4 of the heat is developed near the positive pole and 3/4 is developed near the negative pole

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (d) S3. (c) S4. (d) S5. (c)
S6. (c) S7. (b) S8. (a) S9. (b) S10. (a)
S11. (b) S12. (c) S13. (a)

129
130
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
WELDING DPP-48
PROJECTION AND SEAM WELDING

Q1. The principle of applying heat and pressure is widely used in

(a) spot welding
(b) seam welding
(c) projection welding
(d) all of the above
Q2. Filler metal is not required in the following type of welding process:
(a) Oxy-Oxy acetylene welding
(b) Arc welding
(c) Resistance welding
(d) Oxy-oxy-hydrogen welding
Q3. Which of the following welding process does not require any consumable?
(a) Gas welding
(b) Electroslag welding
(c) Friction stir welding
(d) Thermit welding
Q4. Spot welding, projection welding and seam welding belong to the category of :
(a) Arc welding
(b) Thermit welding
(c) Forge welding
(d) Resistance welding
Q5. Which of the following resistance welding processes essentially uses wheels as electrodes
(a) spot welding
(b) projection welding
(c) seam welding
(d) flash butt welding
Q6. Seam welding is --- process
(a) multi spot welding
(b) arc welding
(c) thermit welding
(d) continuous spot welding
Q7. In........resistance welding the heat required for melting is obtained by means of an arc rather than
simple resistance heating.
(a) Upset
(b) Flash
(c) Seam
(d) Projection

131
Q8. The type of welding in which the pieces to be welded are arranged between two flat electrodes which
exert pressure as the current flows, is known as
(a) Projection welding
(c) Explosive welding
(b) Friction welding
(d) Thermit welding

Q9. Which of the followings is NOT the "resistance welding process"?

(a) Percussion
(b) Spot
(c) Ultrasonic
(d) Projection

Q10. For spot welding of 1 mm thick sheet with a current flow time of 0.2 s, the heat generated is 1000 J.
If the effective resistance is 200𝜇, the current required is
(a) 4000 A
(b) 5000 A
(c) 6000 A
(d) 7000 A

Q11. Determine the heat required for melting in case of arc welding of steel with a potential of 22 V and
current of 230 A. The cross sectional area of the joint is 25 mm2 and the travel speed is 6 mm/sec.
Heat required to melt the steel may be taken as 10 J/mm3 .
(a) 1365 J/s
(b) 1295 J/s
(c) 1500 J/s
(d) 250 J/s

Q12. In a welding process the welding parameters used are : welding current = 250 A; welding voltage =
25 V and welding traverse speed = 6 mm/s. Find the welding power.
(a) 6.55 kW
(b) 65.5 kW
(c) 62.5 kW
(d) 6.25 kW

Q13. In case of arc welding of steel with a potential of 20 V and current of 200 A, the travel speed is 5 mm/s
and the cross-sectional area of the joint is 20 mm2. The heat required for melting steel may be taken
as 10 J/mm3 and heat transfer efficiency as 0.85 . The melting efficiency will be nearly
(a) 18%
(b) 29%
(c) 36%
(d) 42%

132
Q14. Which of the following is NOT an Arc welding?
(a) MIG
(b) TIG
(c) Atomic hydrogen welding
(d) Projection welding

Q15. Percussion welding is a type of :

(a) gas welding
(b) arc welding
(c) resistance welding
(d) solid state welding

Q16. The quantum of heat generated in resistance welding depends upon

(a) welding current alone
(b) resistance of current conducting path alone
(c) area of welding electrode alone
(d) None of these

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (d) S2. (c) S3. (c) S4. (d) S5. (c)
S6. (d) S7. (b) S8. (a) S9. (c) S10. (b)
S11. (c) S12. (d) S13. (b) S14. (d) S15. (c)
S16. (d)

133
 MATERIAL SCIENCE
MATERIAL SCIENCE DPP-49
CONCEPT OF MATERIALS

Q1. The materials which exhibit the same elastic properties in all directions are called-
(a) Homogeneous
(b) Inelastic
(c) Isotropic
(d) Isentropic
Q2. In the tensile test, the phenomenon of slow extension of the material, i.e., stress increasing with the
time at a constant load is called
(a) creeping
(c) breaking
(b) yielding
(d) plasticity
Q3. The property of a material which enables it to resist fracture due to high impact loads is known as
(a) Brittleness
(c) Toughness
(b) Ductility
(d) Hardness
Q4. Ductility of a material can be defined as
(a) Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression
(b) Ability to recover its original
(c) Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
(d) All of these
Q5. The unique property of cast iron is its high
(a) malleability
(b) ductility
(c) toughness
(d) damping characteristics
Q6. Anisotropic materials are having
(a) Same properties at a point in all directions
(b) Different properties at different locations
(c) Different properties at a point in all directions
(d) Same properties at different locations
Q7. The materials which show direction dependent properties are called
(a) Homogeneous materials
(b) Viscoelastic materials
(c) Isotropic materials
(d) Anisotropic materials

134
Q8. Materials exhibiting time bound behavior are known as
(a) Visco elastic
(b) Anelastic
(c) Isentropic
(d) Resilient

Q9. A material is known as allotropic or polymorphic if it

(a) Has a fixed structure under all conditions
(b) Exists in several crystal forms at different temperature
(c) Responds to heat treatment
(d) Has its atoms distributed in random pattern

Q10. Which of the following material has maximum ductility-

(a) grey cast iron
(b) mild Steel
(c) alloy steel
(d) high carbon steel

Q11. Which of the following structure of steel is magnetic in nature?

(a) 𝛿
(b) v
(c) 𝛼
(d) None of the above

Q12. Which portion of the creep curve provides the information on steady state creep rate?
(a) Primary stage
(b) Secondary stage
(c) Tertiary stage
(d) All the above

Q13. Hardenability of steel is a measure of

(a) the ability to retain its hardness when it is heated to elevated temperatures
(b) the ability to harden when it is cold worked
(c) the maximum hardness that can be obtained when it is austenitized and then quenched
(d) the depth to which required hardening is obtained when it is austenitized and then quenched

Q14. Strain ageing leads to:

(a) increase in yield strength
(b) decrease in hardness
(c) decrease in yield strength
(d) increase in ductility

Q15. Oxides, nitrides, carbides and silicates of metal are called as:
(a) Organic materials
(b) Ceramic materials
(c) Ferrous materials
(d) Non-ferrous materials

135
Q16. With the increase of percentage of carbon in the steel, which one of the following properties does
increase?
(a) Modulus of elasticity
(b) Ductility
(c) Toughness
(d) Hardness

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (a) S3. (c) S4. (c) S5. (d)
S6. (c) S7. (d) S8. (a) S9. (b) S10. (b)
S11. (c) S12. (b) S13. (d) S14. (a) S15. (b)
S16. (d)

136
 MATERIAL SCIENCE
MATERIAL SCIENCE DPP-50
COOLING CURVE OF PURE IRON

Q1. Which of the following is not true for Ferrite?

(a) It has BCC structure
(b) It is soft and ductile
(c) Solubility of carbon in ferrite is very high
(d) It is alpha-iron and highly magnetic

Q2. Pure iron is the structure of -

(a) Ferrite
(b) Pearlite
(c) Austenite
(d) Cementite

Q3. 𝛿-iron has the following structure:

(a) BCC
(b) FCC
(c) HCP
(d) simple cubic

Q4. Select the correct sequence for a pure iron solidifying from the liquid state
(a) Liquid → 𝛼 ferrite → 𝛿 ferrite → 𝛾 ferrite
(b) Liquid → 𝛾 ferrite → 𝛿 ferrite → 𝛼 ferrite
(c) Liquid → 𝛿 ferrite → 𝛾 ferrite → 𝛼 ferrite
(d) Liquid → 𝛾 ferrite → 𝛼 ferrite → 𝛿 ferrite

Q5. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Below 910∘ C, pure iron exists in FCC crystal structure.
(b) Between 1537∘C and 1400∘ C, iron exists as pearlite
(c) In the iron-carbon equilibrium diagram the eutectic point is at 6.67% of C.
(d) None of these

Q6. The Curie point for most ferrous magnetic materials is about
(a) 390∘ C
(b) 540∘ C
(c) 760 ∘ C
(d) 880∘ C

Q7. if the steel at room temperature is magnetic, the presence of which constituent can be ruled out
(a) Austenite
(b) Ferrite
(c) Cementite
(d) Pearlite

137
Q8. Which of the following phases exhibits highest solid solubility of carbon?
(a) Delta iron
(b) Gamma iron (austenite)
(c) Alpha iron
(d) Ferrite
Q9. Iron is 'Face Centered Cubic (FCC) at which one of the following temperatures?
(a) Room temperature
(c) 910∘ C
(b) 1400∘ C
(d) None of the above

Q10. The temperature at which component losses or gains magnetic properties is

(a) Curie temperature
(b) Upper critical point
(c) Lower critical point
(d) Eutectic temperature
Q11. Gamma iron exists at temperatures in the range
(a) Room temperature and lower critical temperature
(b) Between 500∘ C and 850∘ C
(c) Between 900∘ C and 1400∘ C
(d) Between 1400∘ C and 1600∘C
Q12. Which is the magnetic allotrope of iron?
(a) 𝛼 iron
(b) 𝛽 iron
(c) 𝛾 iron
(d) None
Q13. Delta iron occurs at the temperature,
(a) above recrystallisation temperature
(b) above melting point
(c) between 1400∘ C and 1539∘C
(d) between 910∘ C and 1400∘C
Q14. What is the crystal structure of alpha iron (Ferrite)?
(a) Body-centered cubic
(b) Cubic structure
(c) Face-centered cubic
(d) Hexagonal close packed
Q15. The crystal structure of gamma iron is
(a) Body centered cubic
(b) Face centered cubic
(c) Hexagonal close packed
(d) Cubic structure

138
 ANSWER KEYS

S1. (c) S2. (a) S3. (a) S4. (c) S5. (d)
S6. (c) S7. (a) S8. (b) S9. (c) S10. (a)
S11. (c) S12. (a) S13. (c) S14. (a) S15. (b)

139
 MATERIAL SCIENCE
MATERIAL SCIENCE DPP-51
IRON-CARBON EQUILIBRIUM PHASE DIAGRAM-1

Q1. A steel with 0.8%C is called

(a) hypoeutectoid steel
(b) hyper eutectoid steel
(c) eutectoid steel
(d) None of these

Q2. When a steel is heated to above its upper critical temp, the structure produced is one of
(a) Martensite
(b) Austenite
(c) Pearlite
(d) Sorbite

Q3. Eutectoid reaction occurs at

(a) 600∘ C
(b) 723∘ C
(c) 1173∘ C
(d) 1493∘C

Q4. The weight percentage of carbon, in cementite is

(a) 13.00%
(b) 6.67%
(c) 4.00%
(d) 0.40%

Q5. Which one of the following statements about a phase diagram is INCORRECT?
(a) Solid solubility limits are depicted by it.
(b) It gives information on transformation rates.
(c) It indicates the temperature at which different phases start to melt.
(d) Relative amounts of different phases can be found under given equilibrium conditions.

Q6. On heating, one solid phase results in another solid phase and a liquid phase during reaction.
(a) Eutectoid
(b) Peritectic
(c) Eutectic
(d) Peritectoid

Q7. Eutectic product in Fe − C system is called

(a) Pearlite
(b) Ledeburite
(c) Bainite
(d) Spheroidite

140
Q8. When steel containing less than 0.85% carbon is cooled slowly below the lower critical point, it
contains
(a) Ferrite mainly
(b) Pearlite mainly
(c) Ferrite and pearlite
(d) Pearlite and cementite
Q9. Martensite is a super saturated solution of carbon in
(a) alpha iron
(b) gamma iron
(c) beta iron
(d) delta iron
Q10. The predominant structure of a hypereutectoid steel that has been quenched at above its upper
critical temperature will be
(a) Austenite
(b) Martensite
(c) Troostite
(d) Sorbite
Q11. Fine grains of austenite
(a) decrease hardenability
(b) increase hardenability
(c) first decrease, then increase hardenability
(d) first increase, then decrease hardenability
Q12. The metallic structure of mild steel is
(a) Hexagonal close packed
(b) Cubic structure
(c) Body-centered cubic
(d) Face-centered cubic
Q13. Gibb's phase rule is given by:
𝐏 = number of phases, 𝐹 = number of degrees of freedom; 𝐶 = number of components.
(a) F = C + P
(b) F = C + P − 2
(c) F = C − P − 2
(d) F = C − P + 2
Q14. The Iron-Carbon diagram and T-T-T curves are determined respectively under
(a) Equilibrium and non-equilibrium conditions
(b) non-equilibrium and equilibrium conditions
(c) Equilibrium conditions for both
(d) non-equilibrium conditions for both
Q15. The percentage of carbon in Eutectoid steel is
(a) 0.02%
(b) 0.3%
(c) 0.6%
(d) 0.8%

141
 ANSWER KEYS

S1. (c) S2. (b) S3. (b) S4. (b) S5. (b)
S6. (b) S7. (b) S8. (c) S9. (a) S10. (b)
S11. (a) S12. (c) S13. (d) S14. (a) S15. (d)

142
 MATERIAL SCIENCE
MATERIAL SCIENCE DPP-52
IRON-CARBON EQUILIBRIUM PHASE DIAGRAM-2

Q1. Which of the following phase of steel is NOT present in iron-carbon phase diagram?
(a) Ferrite
(b) Cementite
(c) Austenite
(d) Martensite
Q2. When 1.0% plain carbon steel is slowly cooled from the molten state to 740∘ C, the resulting structure
will contain
(a) Austenite and ferrite
(b) Austenite and cementite
(c) Ferrite and cementite
(d) Pearlite and cementite
Q3. Microstructure of annealed hypereutectoid plain carbon steel consists of
(a) Pearlite with grain boundary cementite
(b) Full pearlite
(c) Ferrite and pearlite
(d) Tempered martensite
Q4. In iron carbide diagram, pearlite is
(a) Eutectoid mixture of austenite and ferrite
(b) Eutectoid mixture of cementite and ferrite
(c) Eutectoid mixture of austenite and cementite
(d) Eutectoid mixture of austenite and ferrite
Q5. The structure of hypereutectoid steels comprises
(a) Phases of ferrite and cementite
(b) Cementite only
(c) Phases of cementite and pearlite
(d) Pearlite only
Q6. A steel containing 0.85% carbon is known as
(a) eutectoid steel
(b) hypo-eutectoid steel
(c) hyper-eutectoid steel
(d) none of these
Q7. On heating, if one solid phase splits into two solid phases, the reaction is
(a) eutectoid
(b) peritectoid
(c) peritectic
(d) eutectic

143
Q8. In which of the following phases of steel cementite is in particle form?
(a) Martensite
(b) Ferrite
(c) Pearlite
(d) Bainite
Q9. Fe3 C is known as
(a) Cementite
(b) Ferrite
(c) Austenite
(d) None
Q10. A mixture of chemical compounds or elements that have a single chemical composition and
solidifies at the lowest temperature than any other composition made up of the same ingredients.
(a) Phase balanced system
(b) Eutectic system
(c) Binary thermally balanced system
(d) intrinsic system
Q11. During the analysis of microstructure of pearlite, it is found that it is composed of 𝐴% ferrite and
𝐵% cementite. The value of 𝐴 and 𝐵 are respectively.
(a) 88 and 12
(b) 50 and 50
(c) 60 and 40
(d) 12 and 88
Q12. The softest and hardest phases in plain carbon steel are
(a) ferrite and cementite respectively
(b) austenite and martensite respectively
(c) pearlite and cementite respectively
(d) ferrite and bainite respectively
Q13. Which statement is not true in case of martensite?
(a) Crystal structure is BCC
(b) Transformation does not involve diffusion
(c) Grains are plate like or needle like in appearance
(d) It is a non-equilibrium phase
Q14. Which of the following statements is not true for austenitic stainless steels?
(a) They are hardened and strengthened by cold working
(b) They are most corrosion resistant amongst stainless steels
(c) Austenitic phase is extended to room temperature
(d) They are magnetic in nature
Q15. A solid + a liquid result in a liquid upon heating during ______reaction.
(a) Eutectic
(b) Peritectic
(c) Monotectic
(d) Syntectic

144
Q16. Formation of Ferrite and Cementite from Austenite takes place at:
(a) Temperature = 723∘ C, carbon composition = 2%
(b) Temperature = 1130∘ C, carbon composition = 4.3%
(c) Temperature = 723∘ C, carbon composition = 0.8%
(d) Temperature = 1130∘ C, carbon composition = 0.8%

Q17. Eutectic reaction for iron - carbon system occurs at-

(a) 600∘ C
(b) 723∘ C
(c) 1147∘C
(d) 1490∘ C

Q18. What is the crystallographic structure of austenite?

(a) Simple cubic
(b) Face-centered cubic (F.C.C.)
(c) Body-centered cubic (B.C.C.)
(d) Hexagonal close-packed (H.C.P.)

Q19. Pearlite is a combination of

(a) Ferrite and cementite
(b) Cementite and gamma iron
(c) Ferrite and austenite
(d) Ferrite and iron graphite

Q20. Which of the following constituents of steels is softest and least strong?
(a) Austenite
(b) Pearlite
(c) Cementite
(d) Ferrite

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (d) S2. (b) S3. (a) S4. (b) S5. (c)
S6. (c) S7. (a) S8. (d) S9. (a) S10. (b)
S11. (a) S12. (a) S13. (a) S14. (d) S15. (c)
S16. (c) S17. (c) S18. (b) S19. (a) S20. (d)

145
 MATERIAL SCIENCE
MATERIAL SCIENCE DPP-53
T-T-T DIAGRAM-1

Q1. Non-equilibrium phases are shown for their time and transformation using
(a) Fe − Fe3C diagram
(b) TTT diagram
(c) CCT diagram
(d) TTT and CCT diagram

Q2. The CCT or the TTT diagrams are used for

(a) One steel of specific composition
(b) A family of various steels
(c) Alloy system of various compositions
(d) Combination of all alloys and steels with various compositions

Q3. What does CCT diagram stand for?

(a) Constant-critical-temperature
(b) Constant-cooling-temperature
(c) Continuous-cooling-transformation
(d) Continuous-creep-transformation

Q4. is used to predict quenching reactions in steels.

(a) Isothermal transformation diagram
(b) Iron-iron carbide equilibrium diagram
(c) Continuous cooling transformation diagram
(d) Logarithm scale

Q5. Which of the following is not an alternative name for the TTT diagram?
(a) S curve
(b) C curve
(c) Adiabatic curve
(d) Bain's curve

Q6. The first step in constructing a TTT diagram involves the sample.
(a) Annealing
(b) Normalising
(c) Quenching
(d) Austenising

Q7. Austenising of samples for TTT diagram is done temperature.

(a) At room temperature
(b) Below melting point
(c) Above eutectoid temperature
(d) Above boiling temperature

146
Q8. Examination of transformation time after quenching is done
(a) At room temperature
(b) Below melting point
(c) Above eutectoid temperature
(d) Above boiling temperature

Q9. Isothermal transformations of eutectoid steel between 723oC and 550oC produces microstructure.
(a) Pearlite
(b) Bainite
(c) Ferrite
(d) Cementite

Q10. Rapid quenching of eutectoid steel transforms the austenite into martensite.
(a) At room temperature
(b) Below 320∘ C
(c) At 550∘ C
(d) Above 723∘ C

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (d) S2. (a) S3. (c) S4. (a) S5. (c)
S6. (d) S7. (c) S8. (a) S9. (a) S10. (d)

147
 MATERIAL SCIENCE
MATERIAL SCIENCE DPP-54
T-T-T DIAGRAM-2

Q1. The Iron-Carbon diagram and T-T-T curves are determined respectively under
(a) Equilibrium and non-equilibrium conditions
(b) non-equilibrium and equilibrium conditions
(c) Equilibrium conditions for both
(d) non-equilibrium conditions for both

Q2. Critical cooling rate on Time - Temperature Transformation (TTT) curve is that slowest rate of
cooling at which all austenite is transformed into:
(a) coarse perlite
(b) 100% martensite
(c) fine pearlite
(d) none of the above

Q3. Martensitic transformation in steels is

(a) diffusion less
(b) equilibrium process
(c) diffusion controlled
(d) nucleation and growth process
Q4. After rapid cooling, austenite will transform into
(a) Pearlite
(b) Bainite
(c) Martensite
(d) Fine pearlite

Q5. Choose the correct statements related to Martensite transformation :

A. Martensite transformation takes place due to slow diffusion of carbon atoms
B. FCC austenite transforms to body centered tetragonal crystal structure
C. Transformation is dependent on temperature and is time independent
D. Martensite transformation is unique only to iron-carbon alloy
(a) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect
(b) Statement C is incorrect and D is correct
(c) Statement A and D are correct
(d) Statement B and C are correct

Q6. Choose the correct order of the microstructures of steel in ascending values of their hardness.
(a) Martensite, pearlite, bainite, sorbite
(b) Bainite, martensite, sorbite, pearlite
(c) Pearlite, sorbite, martensite, bainite
(d) Pearlite, sorbite, bainite, martensite

148
Q7. Relative amounts of phases in a region can be deduced using:
(a) Phase rule
(b) Lever rule
(c) Either (A) or (B)
(d) None of these

Q8. The hardness of martensite in a steel is a function of

(a) cooling rate
(b) nickel content
(c) carbon content
(d) nose location

Q9. The spheroidising process is carried out at:

(a) 550 ℃
(b) 680 ℃
(c) 980 ℃
(d) 250 ℃

Q10. In which of the following phases of steel cementite is in particle form?

(a) Martensite
(b) Ferrite
(c) Pearlite
(d) Bainite

Q11. Hot-quenching of eutectoid steels in austenitic condition results in formation of

(a) Pearlite
(b) Bainite
(c) Ferrite
(d) Cementite
Q12. Bainite in iron-carbon alloys has a structure.
(a) Dendritic
(b) non-lamellar
(c) Linear
(d) Hexahedral

Q13. Lower bainite is formed at temperature range.

(a) 750 − 550∘ C
(b) 550 − 350∘ C
(c) 350 − 250∘C
(d) 250 − 150∘ C

Q14. Which of the following factors do not affect the critical cooling rate?
(a) Chemical composition
(b) Hardening temperature
(c) Number or nature of grains
(d) Purity of steel

149
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (b) S3. (a) S4. (c) S5. (d)
S6. (d) S7. (b) S8. (c) S9. (b) S10. (d)
S11. (b) S12. (b) S13. (c) S14. (c)

150
 MATERIAL SCIENCE
MATERIAL SCIENCE DPP-55
HEAT TREATMENT-1

Q1. Machine tool guide ways are generally hardened by

(a) Flame hardening
(b) Vacuum hardening
(c) Induction hardening
(d) Martempering
Q2. Quenching is not necessary when hardening is done by
(a) Case carburizing
(b) Flame hardening
(c) Nitriding
(d) Any of the above processes
Q3. The process in which carbon and nitrogen both are absorbed by the metal surface to get it hardened
is known as
(a) Carburizing
(b) Cyaniding
(c) Flame hardening
(d) Induction hardening
Q4. The lower critical temperature-
(a) decreases as the carbon content in steel increases
(b) increases as the carbon content in steel increases
(c) is same for all steels
(d) depends upon the rate of heating.
Q5. Nitriding process is used to increase surface hardness of
(a) cast iron
(b) alloy steel
(c) high carbon steel
(d) none of the above
Q6. To reduce brittleness of the hardened steel and thus to increase ductility and to make steel
sufficiently tough to resist shock and fatigue, which heat treatment process is used
(a) Nitriding
(b) Tempering
(c) Normalizing
(d) Hardening
Q7. Heat treatment given to hardened steel to improve its ductility is
(a) Annealing
(b) Normalizing
(c) Tempering
(d) Hardening

151
Q8. Recrystallization temperature for pure metals is ( 𝑇𝑚 is absolute melting temperature
(a) 0.1 Tm
(b) 0.3 Tm
(c) 0.5 Tm
(d) 0.7 Tm
Q9. Annealing of white cast iron produces
(a) grey cast iron
(b) nodular iron
(c) malleable iron
(d) wrought iron

Q10. The process of reheating the martensitic steel to reduce its brittleness without any significant loss
in its hardness is
(a) normalizing
(b) annealing
(c) quenching
(d) tempering
Q11. The main purpose of spheroidising treatment is to improve
(a) Hardness of low carbon steel
(b) Machinability of low carbon steel
(c) Machinability of high carbon steel
(d) Hardness of high carbon steel

Q12. During heat treatment of steel, the hardness of various structures in increasing order is
(a) martensite, fine pearlite, coarse pearlite, Spheroidite
(b) fine pearlite, coarse pearlite, Spheroidite, martensite
(c) martensite, coarse pearlite, fine pearlite, Spheroidite
(d) Spheroidite, coarse pearlite, fine pearlite, martensite
Q13. Which medium is used for fastest cooling during quenching of steel?
(a) Air
(b) Oil
(c) Water
(d) Brine (salt water)
Q14. Case hardening is the only method suitable for hardening:
(a) high alloy steel
(b) high carbon steel
(c) high speed steel
(d) low carbon steel
Q15. The aim of the tempering heat treatment is to reduce while substantially reducing
(a) fatigue strength, ductility
(b) hardness; brittleness
(c) harness; ductility
(d) fatigue strength; hardness

152
Q16. In austempering process of heat treatment, the austenite changes in to
(a) martensite
(b) troostite
(c) sorbite
(d) bainite

ANSWER KEYS.
S1. (a) S2. (c) S3. (b) S4. (c) S5. (b)
S6. (b) S7. (c) S8. (b) S9. (c) S10. (d)
S11. (c) S12. (d) S13. (d) S14. (b) S15. (b)
S16. (d)

153
 MATERIAL SCIENCE
MATERIAL SCIENCE DPP-56
HEAT TREATMENT-2

Q1. What is the common surface hardening treatment in steel?

(a) Carburizing
(b) Tempering
(c) Quenching
(d) None of the above
Q2. Which of the following case hardening processes, result in a change in the composition in a steel
component?
1. Carburizing
2. Cyaniding
3. Nitriding
4. Flame hardening
(a) 2,3 and 4 only
(b) 1,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
Q3. In Normalising operation of a steel casting, the cooling is done in
(a) Oil bath
(b) Water
(c) Air
(d) Furnace
Q4. Materials after cold working are subjected to following process to relieve stresses
(a) Hot working
(b) Tempering
(c) Normalizing
(d) Annealing
Q5. Anodizing is
(a) A process of coating of zinc by hot dipping
(b) A zinc diffusion process
(c) A process used for making thin phosphate coatings on steel to act as a base or primer for enamels
and paints
(d) An oxidizing process used for aluminium and magnesium articles
Q6. "Troostite" is obtained when
(a) Quenching steel during transformation
(b) A fully hardened steel is finally drawn at about 677∘ C
(c) Steel is rapidly quenched in oil
(d) When alloy steels are rapidly quenched in water

154
Q7. Induction hardening is the process of
(a) Hardening the core
(b) Uniform hardening
(c) Selective hardening
(d) Hardening surface for wear resistance
Q8. Which one is not the purpose of heat treatment of steels?
(a) Changing the composition of steel on the surface
(b) Changing the percentage of carbon and Si in the bulk.
(c) Increasing or decreasing the grain size
(d) Removing undesirable residual stresses
Q9. Which is false statement about annealing.
Annealing is done to
(a) Relieve stresses
(b) Harden steel slightly
(c) Improve machining characteristic
(d) Soften material
Q10. The heat treatment of carbon steel, consisting of austenitization, followed by slow cooling in air is
called as
(a) Nitriding
(b) Tempering
(c) Quenching
(d) Annealing
Q11. The complete phase recrystallization and fine grain structure is obtained in casting, forging and
rolled parts by
(a) Recrystallization annealing
(b) Normalizing
(c) Spheroidizing
(d) Austenising
Q12. Annealing heat treatment process is
(a) refines grain structure
(b) improve the hardness
(c) improves ductility
(d) increases surface hardness
Q13. In the induction hardening process, it is high
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) frequency
(d) temperature
Q14. Annealing heat treatment is a
(a) Slow cooling process
(b) very slow cooling process
(c) very rapid cooling process
(d) non-cooling process

155
Q15. Which of the following is not a heat treatment process?
(a) Tempering
(c) Honing
(b) Nitriding
(d) Quenching

Q16. The diffusion coefficient of carbon through iron during a hardening process
(a) decreases with temperature
(b) remains constant as temperature increases
(c) remains constant as pressure increases
(d) increases with temperature

Q17. Flame and induction hardening process is used for

(a) A big job
(b) Small portion of a job
(c) Deeper hardness of a job
(d) Inner hardness of a job

Q18. Precipitation hardening is a strengthening method for steels and alloys, which is also called as:
(a) Age hardening
(b) Strain hardening
(c) Solid solution hardening
(d) Quenching

Q19. Fastest method of case hardening a sample is:

(a) Carburizing
(b) Nitriding
(c) Induction hardening
(d) Cyaniding

Q20. Austempering produces

(a) Hard surface and tough core
(b) Hard core and tough sur face
(c) Hard surface and hard core
(d) Tough surface and tough core

Q21. Objective of Tempering is

(a) improve ductility
(b) reduce ductility
(c) improve brittleness
(d) improve internal stresses

Q22. Spheroidizing is extensively employ

(a) low and medium carbon steel
(b) medium and high carbon steel
(c) low carbon steel
(d) None of the above

156
Q23. Gas carburizing can be done with
(a) CO2
(b) CO
(c) NO
(d) O2

Q24. Case hardening of low and medium carbon steel is done by

(a) Spheroidising
(b) Cyaniding
(c) Normalising
(d) Tempering

Q25. Which one of the following heat-treatment operation is carried out to modify the properties of steel
hardened by quenching?
(a) Normalizing
(b) Annealing
(c) Induction heating
(d) Tempering

Q26. During annealing process, the temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal is called
(a) Eutectic temperature
(b) Lower critical temperature
(c) Recrystallisation temperature
(d) Upper critical temperature

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2 (c) S3. (c) S4. (d) S5. (d)

S6. (a) S7. (d) S8. (b) S9. (b) S10. (d)
S11. (b) S12 (c) S13 (c) S14. (b) S15. (c)
S16. (d) S17. (b) S18 (a) S19. (c) S20. (a)
S21. (a) S22. (b) S23. (b) S24. (b) S25. (d)
S26. (c)

157
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
UNCONVENTIONAL MACHINING DPP-57
INTRODUCTION

Q1. Which of the following is un-conventional machining process?

(a) Grinding
(b) Milling
(c) Turning
(d) Electro chemical machining

Q2. Non-Traditional machining is recommended when we need which of the following features?
(a) Complex shapes
(b) High surface quality
(c) Low-rigidity structures
(d) All of the mentioned

Q3. Non-Traditional machining can also be called as

(a) Contact Machining
(b) Non-contact machining
(c) Partial contact machining
(d) Half contact machining

Q4. In which of the following industries, Non-traditional machining methods play an important role?
(a) Automobile
(b) Aerospace
(c) Medical
(d) All of the mentioned

Q5. Different classifications of Non-traditional machining based on source of energy are

(a) Mechanical
(b) Thermal
(c) Chemical and electro-chemical.
(d) All of the mentioned

Q6. Material in thermal machining is removed by which of the following means?

(a) Vaporization
(b) Melting
(c) Electro-plating
(d) All of the mentioned

Q7. Which of the following process comes under mechanical machining?

(a) USM
(b) EDM
(c) LBM
(d) PAM

158
Q8. Surface defects that may be occurred during thermal machining are
(a) Micro cracking
(b) Heat affected zones
(c) Striations
(d) All of the above

Q9. Sources used in thermal machining are

(a) Ions
(b) Plasma
(c) Electrons
(d) All of the mentioned

Q10. Vacuum is the machining medium for

(a) LBM
(b) WJM
(c) EBM
(d) None of the mentioned

Q11. In chemical machining, material removal takes by?

(a) Chemical reaction
(b) Erosion
(c) Electron removal
(d) None of the mentioned

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (d) S2. (d) S3. (b) S4. (d) S5. (d)
S6. (d) S7. (a) S8. (d) S9. (d) S10. (a)
S11. (a)

159
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
UNCONVENTIONAL MACHINING DPP-58
ELECTROCHEMICAL MACHINING (ECM)

Q1. The machining process in which the workpiece is dissolved into an electrolyte solution is known as
(a) electro-chemical machining
(b) electro-discharge machining
(c) laser machining
(d) electron beam machining

Q2. Which of the following non-conventional machining methods does not cause tool wear?
(a) Anode mechanical machining
(b) Ultrasonic machining
(c) Electro-discharge machining
(d) Electro-Chemical Machining

Q3. Following electrolyte is used in electrochemical machining process:

(a) kerosene
(b) transformer oil
(c) brine solution
(d) water

Q4. In electro chemical machining the material removal is due to

(a) Corrosion
(b) Erosion
(c) Fusion
(d) Ion displacement

Q5. Which of the following non-traditional machining process has highest material removal rate?
(a) Chemical machining
(b) Laser beam machining
(c) Electro discharge machining
(d) Electro chemical machining

Q6. Which one of the following processes is the reverse of electroplating process?
(a) EDM
(b) ECM
(c) PAM
(d) LBM

Q7. A big advantage of electro-chemical machining over electro-discharge machining is that

(a) it can cut harder material
(b) it is more accurate
(c) it consumes less power
(d) tool wear is negligible

160
Q8. Which of the following methods uses combination of electrical and chemical energy for machining?
(a) Ultrasonic machining
(b) Abrasive jet machining
(c) Electrochemical machining
(d) Electron beam machining

Q9. Limitation of the electro chemical machining (ECM) process is

(a) Use of corrosive media as electrolytes made it difficult to handle
(b) Poor surface finish
(c) Poor accuracy of the work piece dimensions because of the large tool wear
(d) There will be thermal damage to the work piece

Q10. Etchants are used in ....... process.

(a) USM
(b) EDM
(c) AJM
(d) ECM

Q11. While removing material from (atomic weight = 56, valency = 2 and density = 7.8 g/cc by
electrochemical machining, a metal removal rate of 2cc/min in desired. The current (in A) required
for achieving material removal rate is
(a) 896.07 A
(b) 14.96 A
(c) 448.03 A
(d) 53764.29 A

Q12. In an ECM process for machining iron it is desired to obtain a metal removal rate of 1 cm3 /min. At.
wt. of iron = 56gm, valency = 2, density of iron = 7.8gm/cm3 , F = 1609amp min. The amount of
current required in the process is:
(a) 228Amp
(b) 276Amp
(c) 336Amp
(d) 448Amp

Q13. The current density used in ECM is of the order of

(a) 10000 A/cm2
(b) 1000 A/cm2
(c) 200 A/cm2
(d) 10 A/cm2

Q14. Which machining process is developed on the principle of Faraday's and Ohm's laws?
(a) EDM
(b) ECM
(c) LBM
(d) AJM

161
Q15. In electro chemical machining,
(a) The gap between tool and workpiece is 0.2 mm while tool is connected to cathode and electrolyte
flows at a velocity of 50 m/s
(b) When tool is connected to cathode the electrolyte is static while gap between workpiece and tool
is 0.25 mm.
(c) The gap between tool and workpiece is 0.25 mm while tool is connected to anode, the electrolytic
pressure is maintained at 20 bar
(d) The gap between tool and work piece is 0.25 mm while tool is connected to anode, the electrolyte
is maintained at atmospheric pressure
Q16. In chemical machining, the etch factor is expressed as:
(a) tool wear/workpiece wear
(b) Workpiece wear / tool wear
(c) Undercut/depth of cut
(d) Depth of cut/Undercut
Q17. In electro-chemical machining, the gap between the tool and work is kept as :
(a) 0.1 mm
(b) 0.25 mm
(c) 0.4 mm
(d) 0.75 mm
Q18. In chemical machining, if selective machining is desired, the portions required to be left
unmachined are covered with a resistant material, called a ________, which can be stripped away after
machining.
(a) Resist
(b) Abrasive
(c) Felt
(d) Composite
Q19. During the electrochemical machining (ECM) of iron (atomic weight = 56, valency = 2 ) at current
of 1000 A with 90% current efficiency, the material removal rate was observed to be 0.26gm/s. If
Titanium (atomic weight = 48, valency = 3 ) is machined by the ECM process at the current of
2000 A with 90% current efficiency, the expected material removal rate in gm/s will be
(a) 0.11
(b) 0.23
(c) 0.30
(d) 0.52
Q20. In Electrochemical machining (ECM), rate of material removal is:
(a) Inversely proportional to workpiece hardness
(b) Directly proportional to workpiece hardness
(c) Independent of the workpiece hardness
(d) Directly proportional to square of the hardness
Q21. In ECM (Electro Chemical Machining):
(a) As the cutting forces are very high, thin section of work piece cannot be machined
(b) Tool material is conductor of electricity
(c) Surface finish is bad
(d) Tool wear is high

162
Q22. In ECM process, the MRR is given by
F.I
(a) p.A.V
[Link]
(b) F.p.A.V
F.p.A.V
(c)
[Link]
[Link]
(d) p.A.V

Q23. For the same capacity which of the following process has the highest capital cost?
(a) Electro chemical machining
(b) Plasma arc machining
(c) Electro discharge machining
(d) Laser beam machining

Q24. An iron container 10 cm × 10 cm at its base filled to a height of 20 cm with a corrosi liquid. A
current is produced as a result of electrolytic cell, and after four weeks, container has decreased in
weight by 70 g. If = 2, 𝐹 = 96500C and M = 𝟓𝟓. 𝟖𝟒g/mole, current will be
(a) 0.05 A
(b) 0.10 A
(c) 0.20 A
(d) 0.40 A

Q25. While machining copper alloys by Electro chemical Machining the electrolyte used is
(a) Common salt
(b) Sodium sulphate
(c) Sodium Chlorate
(d) Sodium Nitrate

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (d) S3. (c) S4. (d) S5. (d)
S6. (b) S7. (d) S8. (c) S9. (a) S10. (d)
S11. (a) S12. (d) S13. (c) S14. (b) S15. (a)
S16. (c) S17. (d) S18. (a) S19. (c) S20. (c)
S21. (b) S22. (b) S23. (a) S24. (b) S25. (b)

163
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
UNCONVENTIONAL MACHINING DPP-59
ELECTRIC DISCHARGE MACHINING

Q1. In EDM, the material of the tool is

(a) Diamond
(b) High Speed Steel
(c) Copper
(d) Tungsten Carbide

Q2. The mechanism of metal removal in EDM process is

(a) Melting and evaporation
(b) Melting and corrosion
(c) Erosion and cavitation
(d) Cavitation and evaporation

Q3. In EDM, the tool and work piece are separated by

(a) Positive ions
(b) Negative ions
(c) Metal conductor
(d) Dielectric fluid

Q4. In Electro Discharge machining better surface finish is obtained at

(a) Low frequency and low discharge current
(b) Low frequency and high discharge current
(c) High frequency and low discharge current
(d) High frequency and high discharge current.

Q5. Dielectric fluid is used in

(a) electro-chemical machining
(b) ultrasonic machining
(c) electro-discharge machining
(d) laser machining

Q6. Which of the following is used as a dielectric medium in EDM?

(a) Salt solution
(b) Silicon carbide solution
(c) AI2 O3 solution
(d) Kerosene

Q7. Which one of the following is most important parameter for EDM?
(a) Thermal capacity
(b) Hardness
(c) Strength
(d) Geometry

164
Q8. For machining ceramics, glass and plastics which method is not applicable?
(a) AJM
(b) LBM
(c) EDM
(d) USM

Q9. Which one is not the type of EDM?

(a) RAM type EDM
(b) Orbital type EDM
(c) Wire cut EDM
(d) Straight EDM

Q10. A process which cuts metal by discharging electric current in a capacitor bank across a thin gap
between the tool (cathode) and the work piece (anode), is known as :
(a) Electron beam machining
(b) Electrical discharge machining
(c) Water-jet machining
(d) Laser beam machining

Q11. In a wire-cut EDM process, a successful cut is made when:

(a) wire and workpiece are conductive materials
(b) wire is conductive and workpiece is non conductive material
(c) wire and workpiece are non-conductive materials
(d) wire is non conductive and workpiece is conductive material

Q12. A resistance-capacitance relaxation circuit is used in an electrical discharge machining process. The
discharge voltage is 100 V. At a spark cycle time of 25𝜇 s the average power input required is 1 kW.
The capacitance (in 𝜇F) in the circuit is
(a) 10.0
(b) 5.0
(c) 7.5
(d) 2.5

Q13. The average frequency of spark in EDM is:

(a) 1000
(b) 2000
(c) 5000
(d) 10000 sparks per second

Q14. In EDM, the tool is made up of:

(a) Cast iron
(b) Copper
(c) Brass
(d) All of the above

165
Q15. In EDM the energy available for the reverse spark is so small because of the resistance that there is
no reverse spark, then the frequency of discharge oscillation 𝑓𝑑 is given by
1
(a) 2𝜋√(1/LC)
1
(b) 2𝜋√(LC)
1
(c) 3𝜋√(1/LC)
1
(d) 3𝜋√(LC)

Q16. For machining a complex contour on tungsten carbide work piece, which process will be used:
(a) ECM
(b) EDM
(c) USM
(d) LBM

Q17. In EDM process, the workpiece is connected to:

(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) earth
(d) None of the above

Q18. When the metal is removed by erosion caused by rapidly recurring spark discharges between the
tool and work, the process is known as
(a) Electro chemical machining
(b) Ultra-sonic machining
(c) Electro-discharge machining
(d) Electro-static machining

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (a) S3. (d) S4. (c) S5. (c)
S6. (d) S7. (a) S8. (c) S9. (b) S10. (b)
S11. (a) S12. (b) S13. (d) S14. (d) S15 (b)
S16. (b) S17. (a) S18. (c)

166
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
UNCONVENTIONAL MACHINING DPP-60
MECHANISM OF REMOVAL OF METAL FOR UNCONVENTIONAL MACHINING

Q1. __________non-conventional machining process in which "Xenon flash light" is sometimes used.
(a) PAM
(b) AJM
(c) LBM
(d) USM

Q2. AJM is best suited for machining ..................

(a) nano-ductile
(b) brittle materials
(c) plastics
(d) fibers

Q3. The metal is removed by using abrasive slurry between the tool and the work in the process known
as
(a) ultrasonic machining (USM)
(b) electro chemical machining (ECM)
(c) electro discharge machining (EDM)
(d) plasma are machining (PAM)

Q4. Which of the following is an advantage of 'Laser beam machining'?

(a) Unskilled operators are needed
(b) High production rate
(c) Low capital investment required
(d) The workpiece is not subjected to large mechanical forces

Q5. What is the value of dielectric constant of vacuum?

(a) Infinity
(b) Unity
(c) Zero
(d) Less than unity

Q6. Match the different non-traditional machining processes given in Group-A with their respective basic
mechanism of metal removal in Group-B and select the correct answer from the options given below
the lists:
Group-A Group-B
(i) Vaporization by thermo-
A. USM
electric method
(ii) Ion-displacement by
B. ECM
electrochemical method

167
 (iii) Erosion by mechanical
C. EDM
abrasion
(iv) When heated, melts and
D. LBM vaporizes instantly by
thermoelectric method

(a) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

(b) A-I, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(d) A-iii, B-ii, C-I, D-iv

Q7. The process utilizing mainly thermal energy for removing material is
(a) Ultrasonic Machining
(b) Electrochemical Machining
(c) Abrasive Jet Machining
(d) Laser Beam Machining
Q8. The Laser Beam Machining process can be carried out, when the media for energy transfer between
tool and workpiece is
(a) Air
(b) Liquid
(c) Vacuum
(d) Any of the above medium
Q9. The metal removal rate in abrasive jet machining process is
(a) high
(b) very high
(c) low
(d) very low
Q10. Which of the following is incorrect for plasma arc machining?
(a) Temperature generated approximately up to 1000∘C
(b) Power supply with approximate range of current 100 - 600amp
(c) Power supply with approximate range of voltage 50 − 200 V
(d) All electrically conducting materials can be machined
Q11. Which of the following is incorrect for Ultrasonic machining?
(a) Tool is made of ductile material
(b) Very low material removal rate
(c) Abrasive are not used
(d) Tool vibrates with very high frequency
Q12. In Electric discharge machining, temperature produced by the spark between tool and work piece
while machining will be in the order of
(a) 10∘ C
(b) 10000∘ C
(c) 100∘ C
(d) 1000∘C

168
Q13. The cutting rate in mm/min for 𝐿𝐵𝑀 process is equal to
C×P×t
(a) E×A
P×t
(b) C×E×A
E×A×t
(c) C×P
C×P
(d) E×A×t

Q14. High rate of oscillation of tools in ultrasonic machining is produced by

(a) D.C. motor
(b) A.C. motor
(c) Pneumatic generator
(d) Oscillator
Q15. For the same capacity which of the following process has the lowest capital cost?
(a) Electro chemical machining
(b) Abrasive jet machining
(c) Electron jet machining
(d) Chemical machining
Q16. In abrasive jet machining the achievable tolerances are nearly
(a) 0.1𝜇m
(b) 1𝜇m
(c) 50𝜇m
(d) 250𝜇m
Q17. In laser beam machining process, the usable range of wavelength of laser beam is:
(a) 400 − 600𝜇m
(b) 0.4 − 0.6𝜇m
(c) 0.001 − 0.01𝜇m
(d) 600 − 1000𝜇m
Q18. Which of the following laser source can give the highest power density?
(a) Plasma Arc
(b) Electron beam
(c) Laser continuous
(d) laser pulsed
Q19. With the increase in the abrasive slurry concentration, the MRR in USM will
(a) first increase and then decrease
(b) first decrease and then increase
(c) first increase and then remain constant
(d) first decrease and then remain constant
Q20. The process economy is very low for one of the following non-traditional machining processes
(a) USM
(b) AJM
(c) ECM
(d) EDM

169
Q21. In plasma arc machining the input values of voltage and amperage is:
(a) 100 − 200 V, 100 − 300 A
(b) 10 − 50 V, 100 − 300 A
(c) 100 − 200 V, 50 − 100 A
(d) 10 − 50 V, 50 − 100 A

Q22. Arrange the processes in the increasing order of their maximum material removal rate
(1) Electrochemical Machining (ECM)
(2) Ultrasonic Machining (USM)
(3) Electron Beam Machining (EBM)
(4) Laser Beam Machining (LBM) and
(5) Electric Discharge Machining (EDM)
(a) USM, LBM, EBM, EDM, ECM
(b) EBM, LBM, USM, ECM, EDM
(c) LBM, EBM, USM, ECM, EDM
(d) LBM, EBM, USM, EDM, ECM

Q23. Of the following processes, which one is noted for the highest material removal rates?
(a) Electric discharge machining
(b) Electrochemical machining
(c) Laser beam machining
(d) Plasma arc cutting

Q24. Laser is produced by

(a) graphite
(b) diamond
(c) ruby
(d) emerald

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (b) S3. (a) S4. (d) S5. (b)
S6. (d) S7. (d) S8. (d) S9. (c) S10. (a)
S11. (c) S12. (b) S13. (d) S14. (d) S15. (b)
S16. (c) S17. (b) S18. (d) S19. (a) S20. (a)
S21. (b) S22. (d) S23. (d) S24. (c)

170
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
UNCONVENTIONAL MACHINING DPP-61
AJM, USM, WJM, LBM, EBM

Q1. In ultrasonic machining process, the material removal rate will be higher for materials with:
(a) higher toughness
(b) higher ductility
(c) lower toughness
(d) higher fracture strain
Q2. In abrasive jet machining, as the distance between the nozzle tip and the work surface increases, the
material removal rate:
(a) Increases continuously
(b) Decreases continuously
(c) Increases, becomes stable and then decreases
(d) None of the above
Q3. The machining process which needs vacuum for its operation is
(a) Electron beam machining
(b) Electrical discharge machining
(c) Electro chemical machining
(d) Plasma machining
Q4. During ultrasonic machining the metal removal is achieved by:
(a) high frequency eddy currents
(b) high frequency sound waves
(c) hammering action of abrasive particles
(d) rubbing action between tool and work piece
Q5. Which of the following processes has very high material removal rate efficiency?
(a) Electron beam machining
(b) Electrochemical machining
(c) Electro discharge machining
(d) Plasma arc machining
Q6. Holes in nylon button are made by:
(a) EDM
(b) CHM
(c) USM
(d) LBM
Q7. Electron beam machining process is suitable for the following type of material-
(a) low melting point and high thermal conductivity
(b) low melting and low thermal conductivity
(c) high melting point and low thermal conductivity
(d) high melting point and high thermal conductivity

171
Q8. Metal removal in Abrasive Jet Machining (AJM) is due to:
(a) Erosion
(b) Machining
(c) Melting
(d) Grinding
Q9. Ultrasonic machining is best suited for
(a) Non-ferrous metal
(b) Amorphous solids
(c) Hard and Brittle materials
(d) Dielectrics
Q10. For unconventional machining process, following is the correct sequence of decreasing order of
Material Removal Rate (MRR)
(a) ECM > EDM > USM
(b) ECM > USM > EDM
(c) USM > EDM > ECM
(d) USM > ECM > EDM
Q11. Which of the following statement is wrong about ultra-sonic machining
(a) It is best suited for hard and brittle material
(b) It cuts material at very slow speed
(c) It produces good surface finish
(d) It removes large amount of material
Q12. The ruby rod used in Laser Beam Machining is made up of
(a) crystalline aluminum oxide or sapphire
(b) copper oxide
(c) zinc oxide
(d) none of these
Q13. A hole at 1 mm is to be drilled in glass. It could best be done by:
(a) Laser drilling
(b) Plasma arc drilling
(c) USM
(d) EDM process
Q14. In abrasive jet machining process, the abrasive particles should be
(a) perfectly round
(b) made of diamond power
(c) around 1 mm in size
(d) irregular shape
Q15. The surface finish obtainable in ultrasonic machining is of the order of:
(a) 0.2 to 0.5𝜇m CLA
(b) 2 to 5𝜇m CLA
(c) 20 to 50𝜇m CLA
(d) 200 to 500𝜇m CLA

172
Q16. The following process is suitable for machining brittle material such as glass:
(a) Electric Discharge Machining (EDM)
(b) Electrochemical Machining (ECM)
(c) Ultrasonic Machining (USM)
(d) Chemical Machining (CHM)
Q17. In abrasive jet machining process, if 𝑄 = flow rate of abrasives and 𝑑 = mean diameter of the
abrasives, then MRR is proportional to
(a) Q/d2
(b) 𝑄𝑑
(c) Qd2
(d) Qd3
Q18. Which one of the following is an additive manufacturing process?
(a) Electric discharge machining
(b) Electro-magnetic forming
(c) Selective Laser Sintering
(d) Water jet cutting
Q19. In ultrasonic machining, the material is removed by
(a) thermal dissolution
(b) electrochemical oxidation
(c) anodic dissolution
(d) abrasive action
Q20. Which one of the following statements is TRUE for ultrasonic machining (USM) process?
(a) USM often uses a slurry comprising abrasive particles and water.
(b) USM does not employ magnetostrictive transducer.
(c) USM is an excellent process for machining ductile materials.
(d) In USM, the tool vibrates at subsonic frequency.
Q21. The slurry used in USM process is most commonly
(a) Oil based
(b) Alkali based
(c) Water based
(d) Ethylene based
Q22. Abrasive jet machining is not suitable for cutting soft materials because abrasive particles tend to
(a) become embedded
(b) get deflected
(c) break
(d) none of the above
Q23. In ultrasonic machining (USM) the frequency of oscillation is
(a) 10 − 15kHz
(b) 5 − 10kHz
(c) Above 15kHz
(d) None of the above

173
Q24. The vibration frequency used for the tool in the Ultrasonic machining is of the order of-
(a) 10,000 oscillations per second
(b) 20,000 oscillations per second
(c) 35,000 oscillations per second
(d) 45,000 oscillations per second

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (c) S3. (a) S4. (c) S5. (a)
S6. (d) S7. (c) S8. (a) S9. (c) S10. (a)
S11. (d) S12. (a) S13. (c) S14. (d) S15. (a)
S16. (c) S17. (d) S18. (c) S19. (d) S20. (a)
S21. (c) S22. (a) S23. (c) S24. (b)

174
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
MACHINE TOOL OPERATION DPP-62
DRILLING, BORING, REAMING-1

Q1. Boring operation is used to

(a) drill a hole
(b) correct the hole
(c) enlarge the existing hole
(d) finish a drilled hole
Q2. Reaming operation is used to
(a) make a hole
(b) enhance the finish of a hole
(c) enlarge the hole
(d) obtain correct diameter
Q3. The ______ operation is usually used to obtained smooth and close tolerance holes.
(a) Drilling
(b) Tapping
(c) Boring
(d) Reaming
Q4. A 16 mm hole is to be drilled through a mild steel plate of 25 mm thickness. The over-travel
of the drill is 5 mm. What will be the drilling time if the feed rate is 150 mm/min?
(a) 0.2 min
(b) 0.02 min
(c) 2.0 min
(d) 2.2 min
Q5. Point angle in drills is kept low for machining ductile materials to take advantage of
(a) Thinner chips
(b) Thicker chips
(c) Low head developed
(d) Lesser cutting forces
Q6. A drill for drilling deep holes in aluminum should have
(a) high helix angle
(b) taper shank
(c) small point angle
(d) No lip
Q7. The correct sequence of operations for hole making is
(a) centering, boring, drilling, reaming
(b) centering, drilling, boring, reaming
(c) reaming, drilling, boring, centering
(d) boring, drilling, reaming, centering

175
Q8. Time taken to drill a hole through a 25 mm thick plate at 300 r.p.m. at a feed rate of
0.25mm/revolution will be:
(a) 10 sec
(b) 20 sec
(c) 40 sec
(d) 50 sec

Q9. Tungsten carbide tipped drill bits are used for

(a) slow drilling
(b) smooth surface
(c) drilling without coolant
(d) drilling on glass

Q10. The surface roughness value for drilling process is

(a) 0.4 to 3.2 microns
(b) 1.6 to 20 microns
(c) 0.063 to 5 microns
(d) 0.8 to 6.3 microns

Q11. Low helix angle drills are preferred for drilling holes in
(a) plastics
(b) copper
(c) cast steel
(d) carbon steel

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (c) S3. (d) S4. (a) S5. (a)
S6. (a) S7. (b) S8. (b) S9. (d) S10. (b)
S11. (d)

176
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
MACHINE TOOL OPERATION DPP-63
DRILLING, BORING, REAMING-2

Q1. For reaming operation of blind hole, the type of reamer required is
(a) straight flute reamer
(b) right hand spiral fluted reamer
(c) left hand spiral fluted reamer
(d) none of the above
Q2. Which one of the following sets of tools or processes are normally employed for making large diameter
holes?
(a) Boring tool
(b) BTA tools (Boring and trepanning association) and gun drill
(c) gun drill and boring tool
(d) boring tools and trepanning
Q3. Shell reamers are mounted on
(a) Tool holders
(b) Armor plates
(c) Arbor
(d) Shanks
Q4. The rake angle in a twist drill
(a) varies from minimum near the dead center to a maximum value at periphery.
(b) is maximum at the dead center and zero at the periphery.
(c) is constant at every point of the cutting edge.
(d) is a function of the size of the chisel edge.
Q5. The time taken to drill a hole through a 25 mm thick plate with the drill rotating at 300rpm and
moving at a feed rate of 0.25 mm/rev is:
(a) 10sec
(b) 20sec
(c) 60sec
(d) 100sec
Q6. The point angle of a standard ground drill is:
(a) 100∘
(b) 118∘
(c) 90∘
(d) 130∘
Q7. Operation of producing large holes by removing metal along the circumference of a hole is known as
(a) spot facing
(b) lapping
(c) counter sinking
(d) trepanning

177
Q8. Drilling can be termed as:
(a) Oblique cutting
(b) Orthogonal cutting
(c) Simple cutting
(d) Uniform cutting

Q9. Which of the machine tools can be used for boring?

[Link] milling machine
[Link] milling machine
3. Lathe
[Link] machine
(a) 2 and 4
(c) 1,2,3,4
(b) 1,2,3
(d) 1,3,4

Q10. A twist drill is specified by

(a) the size of hole it can drill
(b) a number of specifying hole size
(c) a letter of alphabet
(d) Any of the above

Q11. It is desired to perform the operations like drilling, reaming, counterboring etc. on a work-piece.
Which of the following machines will be used?
(a) Sensitive drilling machine
(b) Radial drilling machine
(c) Gang drilling machine
(d) Multiple spindle drilling machine

Q12. Low helix angle drills are preferred for drilling holes in:
(a) Plastic
(b) Copper
(c) Cast steel
(d) Carbon steel
Q13. Which of the following operations is also known as internal turning?
(a) Milling
(b) Facing
(c) Tapping
(d) Boring

Q14. ______is that portion of the reamer which stands between two flutes.
(a) Tang
(b) Margin
(c) Land
(d) Chamfer

178
Q15. Drilled holes may be reamed for improving hole
(a) dimensional tolerances and surface finish
(b) dimensional tolerances and tool life
(c) size but reduce surface finish
(d) dimensional tolerances at the expense of surface finish

Q16. The time required in drilling a 8 mm diameter hole through a 24 mm thick mild steel plate with a
drill bit running at 360rpm and a feed of 0.5 mm per revolution is:
(Neglect the approach and over travel of drill)
(a) 8 s
(b) 16 s
(c) 4 s
(d) 0.33 s

Q17. The main advantage of the radial drilling machine is that

(a) It is very compatible and handy for machining
(b) It is accurate, economical, portable and least time consuming while machining
(c) Heavy workpieces can be machined in any position without moving them
(d) Small workpieces can be machined and it can be used for mass production as well

Q18. The point angle of a drill, for drilling stainless steel, is

(a) 90∘
(b) 118∘
(c) 135∘
(d) 150∘

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (d) S3. (c) S4. (a) S5. (b)
S6. (b) S7. (d) S8. (a) S9. (d) S10. (d)
S11. (c) S12. (a) S13. (d) S14. (c) S15. (a)
S16. (a) S17. (c) S18. (c)

179
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
MACHINE TOOL OPERATION DPP-64
SHAPER, PLANER, SLOTTER-1

Q1. The size of a shaper is given by

(a) stroke length
(b) motor power
(c) mass of machine
(d) rate size

Q2. Reciprocation of the cutting tool in shaping machines is accomplished by.

(a) Rack pinion mechanism
(b) Crank and connecting rod mechanism
(c) Cam and cam follower mechanism
(d) Oscillating lever mechanism

Q3. Internal keyway in gears can be cut in

(a) Shaping machine
(b) Planning machine
(c) Slotting machine
(d) None of the above

Q4. Which of the following machines does not require quick return mechanism
(a) slotter
(b) planer
(c) shaper
(d) broaching

Q5. The operation(s) performed on a shaper is/are

(a) machining horizontal surface
(b) machining vertical surface
(c) machining angular surface
(d) All of the above

Q6. The job reciprocates in which type of machine

(a) shaping machine
(b) planning machine
(c) slotting machine
(d) drilling machine

Q7. What type of cutting tool is used in a slotting machine and which part is used to hold it?
(a) Single point cutting tool is held by ram
(b) multi-point cutting tool is held by ram
(c) Single point cutting tool is held by carriage
(d) Single point cutting tool is held by arbor

180
Q8. Slotting machines are used to cut internal gear teeth for
(a). Batch production
(b). Lot production
(c). Mass production
(d). None of these

Q9. The work-table can rotate in

(a). Shaping machine
(b). Planning machine
(c). Slotting machine
(d). None of these

Q10. If N is number of strokes per minute, L is stroke length in mm, C is cutting ratio (cutting time/ total
time) the cutting speed of shaper in 𝐦/𝐦𝐢𝐧 is given by
(a) NL/1000C
(b) NLC/100
(c) 1000 L/NC
(d) 1000LC/N

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (a) S3. (c) S4. (d) S5. (d)
S6. (b) S7. (a) S8. (c) S9. (c) S10. (a)

181
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
MACHINE TOOL OPERATION DPP-65
SHAPER, PLANER, SLOTTER-2

Q1. Which of the followings is common between a shaper and a planer?

(a) both have stationary tool
(b) both have reciprocating work pieces
(c) both are used for cutting keyways, splines and grooves
(d) both use single point cutting tool

Q2. Which of the followings is not a correct statement in respect of a planer?

(a) heavy duty machine
(b) work can be clamped easily and quickly
(c) more than one tool can be put into operation
(d) good accuracy on machined surface is achieved

Q3. The setting time for a planer and a shaper generally conform to the ratio
(a) 1: 2
(b) 1: 1
(c) 3: 1
(d) 5: 1

Q4. Coolant is not generally used on a shaper because

(a) negligible heat is generated during a shaping process
(b) tool is made of a heat resisting material
(c) cutting operation is not continuous
(d) size of the work piece is rather small

Q5. The stroke length of a shaper is adjusted by

(a) varying the length of rocker arm
(b) changing the position of rocker arm
(c) shifting the pivot in the sliding block
(d) controlling the speed of driving motor

Q6. Which is not true in the context of a slotter?

(a) can be considered as a vertical shaper having only vertical movement of ram
(b) cutting action takes place in downward stroke
(c) used to produce flat surfaces which may be horizontal or vertical
(d) quick return motion is incorporated

Q7. The usual ratio of forward and return stroke in a shaper is

(a) 4: 3
(b) 3: 2
(c) 2: 1
(d) 5: 3

182
Q8. A shaping machine makes 30 double strokes per minute and has a stroke of 250 mm. Overall, average
speed of operation is
(a) 3.75 m/min
(b) 5.0 m/min
(c) 7.5 m/min
(d) 15.0 m/min
Q9. Which of the followings are the advantages of a hydraulic shaper over a mechanically driven shaper?
1. more strokes at a given speed
2. definite stopping point of the cutting stroke
3. simplicity in construction
4. constant cutting speed through most of the cutting stroke
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Q10. In a planer
(a) job is mounted on a table which remains stationary and the tool reciprocates
(b) tool is held rigid and the job reciprocates
(c) tool moves over a stationary job
(d) tool moves over a reciprocating job
Q11. The size of a planer is generally specified by
(a) table size
(b) stroke length
(c) table size and height of cross rail
(d) number of tools provided
Q12. Choose the wrong statement as applied to a shaper
(a) the work is stationary and the tool reciprocates
(b) the size of the shaper is specified by maximum length of the stroke
(c) the shaping process is quite fast
(d) suited for cutting keyways, grooves and slots
Q13. The size of a shaper is specified by
(a) maximum travel of cutting tool
(b) gross weight of machine
(c) surface area that can be machined in one hour
(d) quick return ratio
Q14. Which of the followings is not a part of shaper?
(a) ram
(b) table
(c) knee
(d) cross slide

183
Q15. The smoothly finished square or rectangular bars used as a work seat support when shaping work
in a vise are called
(a) flats
(b) jaws
(c) clamps
(d) parallels

Q16. Identify the holding device to be used on a shaper when cutting keyway in a cylindrical shaft
(a) V-block
(b) vise
(c) angle plates
(d) clamps and bolts

Q17. In a mechanical shaper, the lifting of the tool during idle stroke is ensured by
(a) tool head
(b) ratchet and pawl mechanism
(c) ram adjustment
(d) clapper box mechanism

Q18. In a mechanical shaper, the length of stroke is increased by

(a) increasing the center distance of bull gear and crank pin
(b) decreasing the center distance of bull gear and crank pin
(c) increasing the length of the arm
(d) decreasing the length of the slot in the slotted lever

Q19. The feeding of a job in a shaper is done by

(a) ram movement
(b) table movement
(c) indexing centers
(d) dividing head

Q20. Shapers equipped with universal table are preferred for performing operations such as
(a) angle cutting
(b) machining irregular surface
(c) form cutting of gear teeth
(d) cutting keyways, grooves and slots

Q21. If 𝑙 is the stroke length, 𝑁 is the number of strokes per unit time, 𝜙 is the actual cutting time for
machining and 𝛽 is the time for idle stroke, then cutting speed of a shaper is given by
𝛼+𝛽
(a) 𝑁𝑙 ( )
𝛼
𝛽
(b) 𝑁𝑙 (𝛼+𝛽 )
𝛼
(c) 𝑁𝑙 (𝛼+𝛽 )
(d) 𝑁𝑙(𝛼 + 𝛽)

184
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (d) S2. (b) S3. (d) S4. (c) S5. (c)
S6. (c) S7. (b) S8. (c) S9. (c) S10. (b)
S11. (c) S12. (c) S13. (a) S14. (c) S15. (d)
S16. (a) S17. (d) S18. (a) S19. (b) S20. (a)
S21. (b)

185
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
MACHINE TOOL OPERATION DPP-66
INTRODUCTION OF LATHE MACHINE AND VARIOUS OPERATIONS-1

Q1. The size of a lathe is expressed by:

(a) diameter of chuck
(b) maximum speed of chuck
(c) swing of lathe
(d) height of centers from ground
Q2. Power is transmitted by lead screw to carriage through
(a) gear system
(b) pulley drive
(c) rack and pinion arrangement
(d) half nut
Q3. The spindle speeds of machine tools are usually designed to follow
(a) logarithmic progression.
(c) harmonical
(b) arithmetical
(d) geometrical
Q4. Which method is used for turning internal tapers only?
(a) compound rest
(b) tailstock off set
(c) taper attachment
(d) reamer
Q5. A lead-screw with half nuts in a lathe, free to rotate in both directions has
(a) V-threads
(b) whit worth threads
(c) buttress threads
(d) acme threads
Q6. Knurling is an operation:
(a) of cutting smooth collars
(b) of under cutting
(c) of generally roughing the surface for hand grip
(d) done prior to screw cutting
Q7. It is required to cut threads of 2 mm pitch on lathe. The lead screw has a pitch of 6 mm. If the spindle
speed is 60 r.p.m, then the speed of lead screw will be:
(a) 10 r.p.m.
(b) 20 r.p.m.
(c) 120 r.p.m.
(d) 180 r.p.m.

186
Q8. The cutting speed of the tool in turning operation is:
(a) Directly proportion to diameter of the workpiece
(b) Inversely proportional to the workpiece
(c) Inversely proportional to the square of the workpiece
(d) Directly proportional to the square of the diameter of the workpiece
Q9. A mild steel rod having 50 mm diameter and 500 mm length is to be turned on a lathe. Determine the
machining lime to reduce the rod to 45 mm in one pass when cutting speed is 30 m/min and a feed of
0.7 mm/rev is used:
(a) 1.74 min
(b) 2.74 min
(c) 3.74 min
(d) 4.74 min
Q10. In which operation on a work piece on lathe the spindle speed will be least?
(a) plain turning
(b) taper turning
(c) finishing
(d) thread cutting
Q11. A steel shaft of 25 mm diameter is turned at a cutting speed of 50 m/min. Find the RPM of the shaft.
(a) 637
(b) 159
(c) 6280
(d) 1570
Q12. In a lathe gear box if the first four consecutive speeds are 19, 30, 47 and 74rpm. The next speed
would be
(a) 93rpm
(b) 104rpm
(c) 111rpm
(d) 116rpm
Q13. A lathe with four steps on the cone pulley and with back gears will have
(a) four direct speeds
(b) four direct and four indirect speeds
(c) four indirect speeds
(d) eight indirect speeds
Q14. A step cone pulley is provided on a lathe to
(a) reverse the direction of spindle rotation
(b) change the spindle speed
(c) drive the lead screw
(d) give desired direction of movement of lathe carriage
Q15. When the tool moves parallel to the lathe axis, it is called:
(a) Cross feed
(b) Sellar's taper
(c) Chapman's taper
(d) Brown and Sharpe taper

187
Q16. Which of the following is not a part of Capstan lathe?
(a) chuck
(b) tailstock
(c) spindle
(d) tool post

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (d) S3. (d) S4. (c) S5. (d)
S6. (c) S7. (b) S8. (a) S9. (c) S10. (d)
S11. (a) S12. (d) S13 (b) S14 (b) S15 (b)
S16. (b)

188
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
MACHINE TOOL OPERATION DPP-67
INTRODUCTION OF LATHE MACHINE AND VARIOUS OPERATIONS-2

Q1. Tumbler gears in lathe are used to

(a) reduce the spindle speed
(b) cut gears
(c) give desired direction of movement to the lathe carriage
(d) drill a workpiece
Q2. A taper pin of 90 mm has a taper length of 50 mm. The larger diameter of taper is 95 mm and the
smaller diameter is 85 mm. The taper in mm/meter and in degree and the tail stock set over will be
respectively.
(a) 20 mm/ meter, 5.71°and 9 mm
(b) 200 mm/ meter, 57.1° and 90 mm
(c) 20 mm/meter, 57.1° and 90 mm
(d) 200 mm/ meter, 5.71° and 9 mm
Q3. While machining a brass casting on a lathe, the type of chuck used is-
(a) Collect chuck
(b) Magnetic chuck
(c) Three jaw chuck
(d) Four jaw chuck
Q4. Which method is used for turning external tapers only?
(a) compound rest
(b) tailstock offset
(c) taper attachment
(d) reamer
Q5. Material used for lathe bed is
(a) Cast iron
(b) Cast steel
(c) Mild steel
(d) wrought iron
Q6. A flat surface can be produced by a lathe machine, if the cutting tool moves
(a) parallel to the axis of rotation of workpiece
(b) perpendicular to the axis of rotation of workpiece
(c) at an angle of 45∘
(d) None of the above
Q7. In a centre lathe, which component is used to provide motion to the cutting tool in direction
perpendicular direction to the axis of rotation of the workpiece?
(a) Tool post
(b) Lead screw
(c) Carriage
(d) Cross-slide

189
Q8. In machining operation if path of generatrix and directrix are circular and straight line respectively,
the surface obtained will be
(a) Cylindrical
(b) Helical
(c) Plain
(d) Surface of revolution
Q9. In lathe operation, the depth of the cut required to reduce the diameter of a bar from 100 mm to
90 mm is:
(a) 40 mm
(b) 5 mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 20 mm
Q10. The time taken to face a work piece of 80 mm diameter for the spindle speed of 90rpm and cross
feed of 0.3 mm/rev will be
(a) 4.12 min
(b) 3.24 min
(c) 2.36 min
(d) 1.48 min
Q11. A feed 𝑓 for the lathe operation is
N
(a) L×T mm/rev
m
L
(b) N×T mm/rev
m
Tm
(c) N×L mm/rev
𝑇 ×𝐿
(d) 𝑚𝑁 mm/rev
Where : 𝐓m = Machining time t in min.
N = Speed in rpm
𝐿 = Length of cut in mm
Q12. The facing is an operation of -
(a) Embossing a diamond shaped pattern on the surface of a workpiece
(b) Reducing the diameter of a workpiece over a very narrow surface
(c) Machining the ends of a workpiece to produce a flat surface square with the axis
(d) Beveling the extreme end of a workpiece
Q13. Lathe machine cannot carry out:
(a) facing
(b) planning
(c) turning
(d) drilling
Q14. A copper bar of diameter 200 mm is turned with a feed rate of 0.25 mm/rev with depth of cut of
4 mm. Spindle speed is 160rpm. The material removal rate (MRR) in mm3 /𝐬 is:
(a) 150
(b) 167.55
(c) 1500
(d) 1675.5

190
Q15. What is the purpose of inscribing the concentric circles on the face of the chuck in lathe
(a) To improve the appearance
(b) To facilitate lubrication in the chuck
(c) To minimize the weight of the chuck
(d) To facilitate quick centering of work pieces

Q16. Spinning operation is carried out on a

(a) Lathe machine
(b) Milling machine
(c) Hydraulic press
(d) Mechanical press

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (d) S3. (d) S4. (b) S5. (a)
S6. (b) S7. (d) S8. (a) S9. (b) S10. (d)
S11. (b) S12. (c) S13. (b) S14. (d) S15. (d)
S16. (a)

191
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
MACHINE TOOL OPERATIONS DPP-68
GRINDING-1

Q1. In centre less grinding the regulating wheel is inclined at an angle

(a) 1 − 8∘
(b) 9 − 15∘
(c) 15 − 18∘
(d) 12 − 24∘
Q2. A grinding wheel of 150 mm diameter is rotating at 3000rpm. The grinding speed is
(a) 7.5𝜋m/s
(b) 15𝜋m/s
(c) 45𝜋m/s
(d) 450𝜋m/s
Q3. Surface grinding is done to produce
(a) Flat surface only
(b) Internal cylinder holes
(c) Flat and Tapered surface
(d) Tapered surface only
Q4. In centre less grinding the work piece advances by
(a) Push given by operator
(b) Hydraulic force
(c) Force exerted by grinding wheel
(d) Remains stationary
Q5. A grinding wheel is specified as 49 A36M7 V24.
The number 36 stands for
(a) Structure
(b) Grade
(c) Grit size
(d) Bond
Q6. What is the meaning of ' 46′ ' and ' 𝐿 ' in a grinding wheel carrying the marking 250 × 25 × 32
WA46L4V17?
(a) Grain size and Structure
(b) Grade and Structure
(c) Grain size and Grade
(d) Structure and Bond
Q7. The process of improving the cutting action of the grinding wheel is called.
(a) truing
(b) dressing
(c) facing
(d) clearing

192
Q8. Loading of grinding wheels occurs when
(a) part of grinding surface gives way
(b) hollow cavities are formed on the surface of grinding wheel
(c) abrasive grains becomes clogged with particles of metal being ground
(d) long cracks develop on grinding wheel from center to outer diameter
Q9. The grinding wheel which is recommended for the grinding of ceramic materials is
(a) aluminium oxide
(b) silicon carbide
(c) diamond
(d) garnet
Q10. Severe grinding operations can cause
(a) compressive residual stresses
(b) tensile residual stresses
(c) angular distortion
(d) zero residual stress
Q11. Which of the following is an artificial abrasive used in grinding wheel?
(a) Sandstone
(b) Corundum
(c) Silicon carbide
(d) Emery
Q12. Dressing is
(a) the process of changing the shape of the grinding wheel
(b) the process of removing the metal loading and breaking away the glazed surface of the grinding
wheel
(c) the process of disposing the grinding wheel as it no longer useful
(d) the process of adding excess abrasive grains on the grinding wheel
Q13. The abrasive recommended for grinding materials of high tensile strength is
(a) silicon carbide
(b) aluminium oxide
(c) sand stone
(d) diamond

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (a) S3. (a) S4 (c) S5. (c)

S6 (c) S7. (b) S8. (c) S9. (b) S10. (a)
S11. (c) S12 (b) S.13 (b)

193
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
MACHINE TOOL OPERATIONS DPP-69
GRINDING-2

Q1. Which of the following statements are correct in relation with vitrified bond?
(a) It is made of clay and feldspar
(b) This is the strongest bond of all and is not affected by water/oil/acids.
(c) Suitable for high stock removal even at dry condition
(d) All of the above
Q2. Which one of the bonding materials is used for making regulating wheels in centerless grinding
(a) resinoid bond
(b) rubber bond
(c) silicate bond
(d) shellac bond
Q3. The making on grinding wheel is “51 A 36 L 5 V 93”. The code ‘36’ represent the -
(a) structure
(b) grade
(c) grain size
(d) manufacturer’s no.
Q4. In the grinding wheel of A 60 G 7 B 23, B stands for
(a) resionoid bond
(b) rubber bond
(c) shellac bond
(d) silicate bond
Q5. In centerless grinding, the workpiece center will be
(a) Above the line joining the two-wheel centers
(b) Below the line joining the two-wheel centers
(c) On the line joining the two-wheel centers
(d) At the intersection of the line joining the wheel centers with the work plate plane.
Q6. Which of the following statements are correct about feeding system in external machine by
(a) Through feed is for stepless small components like piston pin, rollers of roller bearings. Cam shafts,
dowel pins.
(b) In feed/plunge feed is for stepped components like bolts. Valve tappets etc.
(c) End feed is for tapered components. Here the grinding wheel and regulating Wheel are profiled to
get the taper
(d) All of these
Q7. Tool life in the case of grinding wheel is the time
(a) Between two successive regrinds of the wheel
(b) Taken for the wheel to be balanced
(c) Taken between two successive wheel dressing
(d) Taken for a wear of 1 mm on its diameter

194
Q8. Soft Materials cannot be economically grind due to
(a) The high temperature involved
(b) Frequent wheel clogging
(c) Rapid wheel wear
(d) low workpiece stiffness

Q9. The ratio of thrust force to cutting force is nearly 1.5 in

(a) turning
(b) Breaching
(c) Grinding
(d) Plain milling

Q10. Specific cutting energy is more in grinding process compared to turning because
(a) Grinding (cutting) speed is higher
(b) The wheel has multiple cutting edges
(c) Grinding wheel undergoes continuous wear
(d) Plaguing force is significant due to small chip size

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (d) S2. (b) S3. (c) S4. (a) S5. (a)
S6. (d) S7. (c) S8. (b) S9. (c) S10. (b)

195
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
MACHINE TOOL OPERATIONS DPP-70
MILLING (PLANE MILLING OR SLAB MILLING)-1

Q1. Milling cutter is mounted on the part of a milling machine called

(a) Dividing head
(b) Spindle
(c) Bracket
(d) Arbor

Q2. Gang Milling is:

(a) A process of cutting gears
(b) A milling process for generating hexagonal surfaces
(c) A process in which two or more cutters are used
(d) A milling operation combined with turning

Q3. A milling cutter having 8 teeth is rotating at 150RPM. If the feed per tooth is 0.1, the table speed in
mm per minute is
(a) 120
(b) 187
(c) 125
(d) 70

Q4. A straight teeth slab milling cutter of 100 mm diameter and 10 teeth rotating at 200rpm is used to
remove a layer of 3 mm thickness from a steel bar. If the table feed is 600 mm/min ute, the feed per
tooth in this operation will be
(a) 0.2 mm
(b) 0.3 mm
(c) 0.5 mm
(d) 0.6 mm

Q5. For the simple indexing, which formula holds true

30
(a) n
40
(b) n
50
(c) n
60
(d)
𝑛

Q6. Standard taper generally used on milling machine spindles is

(a) Morse taper
(b) Chapman taper
(c) Brown and sharp taper
(d) Jamo and Reed taper

196
Q7. Milling two sides of a piece of work by employing two side-milling cutters at the same time is
_______milling.
(a) Form
(b) Plane
(c) Straddle
(d) End

Q8. In milling operation, the minimum table traverse required is where 𝐿 is the length of job and 𝐷‾ is the
milling cutter diameter.
(a) L − D
(b) L × D
(c) L + D
(d) L/D

Q9. A steel work piece is to be milled. Material removal rate is 25 cm3 /min, depth of cut and width of cut
are 5 mm and 100 mm respectively. The rate of feed (table feed) is
(a) 50 cm/min
(b) 75 mm/min
(c) 50 mm/min
(d) 100 mm/min

Q10. Which one of the following milling operations is used to produce gears?
(a) Form milling
(c) Slab milling
(b) Slot milling
(d) Face milling

Q11. Which of the following indexing method is also known as rapid indexing?
(a) Direct indexing method
(b) Angular indexing method
(c) Compound indexing method
(d) Differential indexing method

Q12. Which of the following is the example of multipoint cutting tool?

(a) Milling cutter
(b) Broaching tool
(c) Both milling cutter and broaching tool
(d) None of the above

Q13. Estimate the machining time that will be required to finish a vertical flat surface of length 100 mm
and depth 20 mm by an 8 teeth HSS (High speed steel) end mill cutter of 32 mm diameter and 60 mm
length in a milling machine. Assume cutting velocity (𝑉𝑐 ) = 𝟑𝟎 m/min and feed (s0 ) = 0.12 mm/
tooth. Take approach and run over both 2 mm
(a) 0.4 minutes
(b) 0.6 minutes
(c) 0.8 minutes
(d) 1.0 minute

197
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1 (d) S2. (c) S3. (a) S4. (b) S5. (b)

S6. (c) S7. (c) S8. (c) S9. (c) S10. (a)
S11. (a) S12. (c) S13. (a)

198
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
MACHINE TOOL OPERATIONS DPP-71
MILLING (PLANE MILLING OR SLAB MILLING)-2

Q1. Geneva wheel is used for

(a) Quick swinging
(b) Quick return
(c) Indexing
(d) None of the above

Q2. Which one of the following milling operations is used to produce key ways?
(a) Slitting
(b) Slotting
(c) Straddle Milling
(d) Form Milling

Q3. In which milling operation are the entry angle zero and the exit angle non-zero?
(a) Up-milling
(b) Down-milling
(c) Slot-milling
(d) Face milling

Q4. Which of the following machines is used for milling both internal, external short threads and
surfaces?
(a) Drum type milling machine
(b) Bed type milling machine
(c) Planer type milling machine
(d) Planetary milling machine

Q5. The saw milling is an operation of-

(a) Reproduction of an outline of a template on a workpiece
(b) Producing groove around the periphery of a cylindrical or conical workpiece
(c) Producing narrow slots or grooves on a workpiece
(d) Machining several surfaces of a workpieces simultaneously

Q6. A milling cutter is having 8 teeth rotating at 100rpm. Workpiece feed is set at 40 mm/min. So, feed
per tooth is:
(a) 5 mm
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.4 mm
(d) 0.2 mm

199
Q7. The operation of machining several surfaces of a work piece simultaneously is called
(a) profile milling
(b) gang milling
(c) saw milling
(d) helical milling

Q8. To produce involute profile of the gear on milling machine, which one is required
(a) Differential indexing head
(b) Angle milling cutter
(c) Slab milling cutter
(d) Profile milling cutter

Q9. A block of length 200 mm is machined by a slab milling cutter 34 mm in diameter. The depth of cut
and table feed are set at 𝟐 𝐦𝐦 and 18 mm/ minute, respectively. Considering the approach and the
over travel of the cutter to be same, the minimum estimated machining time (minutes) per pass is
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 15

Q10. In up milling, the cutter rotates:

(a) Against the stationary work piece
(b) In the same direction of travel of the work piece
(c) Against the same direction of travel of the work piece
(d) None of these

Q11. A gear has 14 teeth. Which of the following indexing movements can be used?
(a) 3 complete turns on a 42 holes circle
(b) 2 complete turns and 6 holes in an 18 holes circle
(c) 2 complete turns and 18 holes in a 21 holes circle
(d) 2 complete turns and 36 holes in a 49 holes circle
2
Q12. In simple indexing method, the rotation of the index crank = 6 3 turns cannot be obtained by:
(a) Rotating indexing crank by 6 full rotation +10 holes in a 15 - hole circle
(b) Rotating indexing crank by 6 full rotation +12 holes in an 18 - hole circle
(c) Rotating indexing crank by 6 full rotation +14 holes in a 21 - hole circle
(d) Rotating indexing crank by 6 full rotation +21 holes in a 31 - hole circle

Q13. The chip thickness during slab milling process is directly proportional to
(a) Cutter's rotational speed
(b) Angle of contact of the tooth
(c) Number of teeth of the cutter
(d) Feed rate of work piece

200
Q14. In 'Helical plain milling cutter', the helix angle of the teeth ranges from
(a) 15∘ to 30∘
(b) 45∘ to 60∘
(c) 75∘ to 90∘
(d) 105∘ to 120∘

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (b) S3. (a) S4. (d) S5. (c)
S6 (b) S7. (b) S8. (d) S9. (a) S10. (c)
S11. (c) S12. (d) S13. (d) S14. (b)

201
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
MISCELLANEOUS DPP-72
JIGS AND FIXTURES

Q1. 3-2-1 method of location in a jig or fixture would collectively restrict the work piece in ' 𝑛 ' degrees of
freedom where the value of ' 𝑛 ' is
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 1
Q2. A device which holds and locates a work piece during an inspection or for a manufacturing operation,
is known as:
(a) Fixture
(b) Jig
(c) Lathe
(d) Templates
Q3. Diamond pin location is used in a fixture because
(a) It does not wear out
(b) It takes care of any variation in centre distance between two holes
(c) It is easy to clamp the part on diamond pins
(d) It is easy to manufacture
Q4. A diamond pin is used in conjunction with a round locator for radial location in a jig because
(a) Diamond is harder material and hence has long life
(b) Reduces jamming possibility if two round locators are used
(c) Diamond pin is less expensive to make
(d) None of these
Q5. In the 3-2-1 principle of fixture design 3 refers to the number of
(a) Clamps required
(b) Locators on the primary datum face
(c) Degrees of freedom of the work place
(d) Operations carried out on the primary datum face
Q6. A device which holds and locates a work piece during an inspection or for a manufacturing operation,
but does not guide the tool, is called
(a) Jig
(b) Fixture
(c) Saddle
(d) Carriage
Q7. Which of the following is not true in case of jigs and fixtures?
(a) Consistency in dimension
(b) Fast production speed is not possible
(c) Auto-location control
(d) None of the above

202
Q8. A diamond-locating pin is used in jigs and fixture, because
(a) diamond is very hard and wear-resistant
(b) it occupies very little space
(c) it helps in assembly with tolerance on central distance
(d) it has a long life
Q9. Which of the following operation does NOT use a jig?
(a) Tapping
(b) Reaming
(c) Turning
(d) Drilling

Q10. The jig bush most commonly used in jigs is

(a) Liner bush
(b) Headless drill bush
(c) Headed drill bush
(d) Shaped drill bush

Q11. Jig is a type of drill jig.

(a) Root
(b) Stem
(c) Leaf
(d) Sand

Q12. Which of the following can hold the work, locate the work and guide the drill at the desired position
(a) drill bush
(b) drill fixture
(c) metal locator
(d) drill jig

Q13. Jigs cannot be used in

(a) drilling
(b) reaming
(c) milling
(d) tapping

Q14. When a cylindrical is located in Vee block, how many number of degrees of freedom will be
restricted:
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 7
(d) 12

Q15. Complex irregular three dimensional surfaces can be located using the following method
(a) Sighting
(b) Nesting
(c) Integral locators
(d) Buttons

203
Q16. The type of locator used to prevent jamming during locating of a work piece is
(a) concentric locator
(c) equilateral locator
(b) integral locator
(d) spherical locator

Q17. The principle most commonly followed for locating work pieces in a fixture is:
(a) 2 − 3 − 1
(b) 1 − 2 − 3
(c) 3 − 2 − 1
(d) 1 − 3 − 2

Q18. Which of the following locating device is used to locate cylindrical jobs?
(a) Drill jigs
(b) V-blocks
(c) Angle plates
(d) Metal pins

Q19. The simplest and low-cost clamp used in Jigs and Fixtures is:
(a) Strap clamp
(b) Can clamp
(c) Toggle clamp
(d) Equalizer

Q20. Which of the following is not a work holding device?

(a) V-block
(b) Chuck
(c) Steady rest
(d) None of the above

Q21. If the diameter of the hole is subjected to considerable variation, then for location in jigs and
fixtures, the pressure type of locator used is:
(a) Conical locator
(b) Cylindrical locator
(c) Diamond pin locator
(d) Vee locator

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2 (a) S3. (b) S4 (d) S5 (b)

S6. (b) S7. (b) S8 (c) S9. (c) S10. (c)
S11. (c) S12. (d) S13. (c) S14. (c) S15. (b)
S16. (d) S17 (c) S18. (b) S19. (a) S20 (d)
S21. (a)

204
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
MISCELLANEOUS DPP-73
POWDER METALLURGY

Q1. In powder metallurgy, the process of heating the cold pressed metal powder is known as:
(a) Sintering
(b) Granulation
(c) Deposition
(d) Precipitation

Q2. The following operations are involved in producing powder metallurgy parts.
L. Sintering
M. Pressing
N. Atomizing
O. Blending
The correct sequence of operations is:
(a) M, N, L, O
(b) M, N, O, L
(c) N, O, L, M
(d) N, O, M, L

Q3. Powders of two or more pure metals are mixed in a ball mill. The process is known as
(a) Electrolytic deposition
(b) Reduction
(c) Communication
(d) Mechanical Alloying

Q4. The type of bonding in ceramic is

(a) Purely covalent
(b) Predominantly covalent with small ionic character.
(c) Predominantly ionic with small covalent character
(d) Purely ionic

Q5. In powder metallurgy process the sequence of operations is given by

(a) atomization, mixing, sintering, pressing.
(b) atomization, sintering, mixing, pressing.
(c) atomization, pressing, mixing, sintering.
(d) atomization, mixing, pressing, sintering.

Q6. Spherical metal powders are produced by:

(a) Atomization
(b) Reduction
(c) Oxidation
(d) Electrolytic process

205
Q7. Which of the following is not the secondary processes of powder metallurgy?
(a) Heat treatment
(b) Impregnation
(c) Infiltration
(d) Sintering

Q8. Sintering in powder metallurgy:

(a) Strengthens the component
(b) Increases electrical conductivity
(c) Increases density and ductility
(d) All of the above

Q9. "Sintering" is referred to as:

(a) mixing of different powders to obtain requisite properties
(b) compression of loose powder
(c) heating of the green compact
(d) cleaning of powder by sieving

Q10. For joining of powder metallurgy components, the best suited process is
(a) Oxy acetylene welding
(b) Are welding
(c) Electric resistance welding
(d) Thermit welding

Q11. Heating the metal powder to a temperature above its recrystallisation temperature but below its
melting point is called
(a) Blending
(b) Compacting
(c) Sintering
(d) Pulverization

Q12. What is the correct sequence of operations in powder metallurgy?

(a) Compacting, Sintering, Blending, Production of metal powder
(b) Production of metal powder, Compacting, Sintering, blending
(c) Production of metal powder, Blending, Compacting, Sintering
(d) Production of metal powder, Blending, Sintering, Compacting

Q13. Consider the following objectives of sintering in powder metallurgy:

1. To achieve good bonding of powder particles
2. To produce a dense and compact structure
3. To achieve high strength
4. To produce parts free of any oxide.
Which of the above objectives are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 1,2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4

206
Q14. To improve the self-lubricating capacity of a powder metallurgy part the following finishing
operation is used:
(a) Repressing
(b) Sizing
(c) Infilliation
(d) Impregnation

Q15. In powder metallurgy, the metal powder particle size is reduced during atomization by:
(a) Decreasing gas velocity
(b) Increasing gas velocity
(c) Decreasing gas pressure
(d) Decreasing metal volume

Q16. Sintering is done:

(a) To achieve the atomization of molten metal
(b) Just after blending of metal powder and additives
(c) To cool the compact in water
(d) To increase the strength of compact

Q17. During sintering of a powder metal compact, the following process takes place:
(a) some of the pores grow
(b) powder Particles do not melt but a bond is formed between them
(c) all the pores reduce in size and bond occurs due to melting
(d) Powder particles fuse and join together

Q18. 'Compacting process' used in powder metallurgy is done:

(a) To achieve atomization of molten metal
(b) After secondary finishing of sintered object
(c) After blending of metal powder and additives
(d) After sintering of blended metal powder and additives

Q19. Following is a process used to form powder metal to shape

(a) Sintering
(b) Explosive
Compacting
(c) Isostatic Molding
(d) All of these

Q20. Powder metallurgy techniques are used in the production of

(a) High carbon steel tool
(b) HSS tools
(c) Tungsten carbide tools
(d) Twist drills

207
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (a) S2. (d) S3. (d) S4. (c) S5. (d)
S6. (a) S7. (d) S8. (d) S9. (c) S10. (a)
S11. (c) S12. (c) S13. (d) S14. (d) S15. (b)
S16. (d) S17. (b) S18. (c) S19. (d) S20. (c)

208
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
MISCELLANEOUS DPP-74
GEAR AND THREAD MANUFACTURING

Q1. Internal gear cutting operation can be performed by:

(a) Milling
(b) Shaping with rack cutter
(c) Shaping with pinion cutter
(d) Hobbing

Q2. Quality screw threads are produced by

(a) thread milling
(b) thread chasing
(c) thread cutting with single point tool
(d) thread casting

Q3. Knurling is an operation:

(a) of cutting smooth collars
(b) of under cutting
(c) of generally roughing the surface for hand grip
(d) done prior to screw cutting

Q4. Which of the following is fastest method of cutting gears?

(a) Milling
(b) Gear shaping
(c) Gear Hobbing
(d) Gear burnishing

Q5. The gear is manufactured on generating principle in

(a) milling
(b) hobbing
(c) forming
(d) broaching

Q6. The best process for mass production of good quality gears is
(a) hobbing
(b) gear shaping
(c) casting
(d) milling

Q7. Hobbing process is not suitable for cutting following type of gear
(a) Spur
(b) Helical
(c) worm
(d) Bevel

209
Q8. Which of the following method cannot be used for manufacturing internal gears?
(a) Casting
(b) Die casting
(c) Broaching
(d) Hobbing
Q9. Stamping is the process of
(a) printing letters and numbers on metal sheets
(b) producing flutes or corrugations
(c) producing seamless tubes
(d) shaping thin sheets by pressing them against a form

Q10. Which one of the following milling operations is used to produce gears?
(a) Form milling
(c) Slab milling
(b) Slot milling
(d) Face milling
Q11. Burnishing process can give surface finish on a component.
(a) Lowest
(b) Highest
(c) Bi-directional
(d) Unidirectional

Q12. Which of the following machines is used for milling both internal, external short threads and
surfaces?
(a) Drum type milling machine
(b) Bed type milling machine
(c) Planer type milling machine
(d) Planetary milling machine
Q13. In gear hobbing
(a) only hob rotates
(b) only gear blank rotates
(c) both hob and gear blank rotate
(d) neither hob nor gear blank rotates
Q14. Threading is an operation of
(a) smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole
(b) sizing and finishing a small diameter hole
(c) producing a hole by removing metal along the circumference of a hollow cutting tool
(d) cutting helical grooves on the external cylindrical surface
Q15. Knurling operation is performed on
(a) Shaper machine
(b) Milling machine
(c) Grinding machine
(d) Lathe machine

210
Q16. Lapping is-
(a) the operation of sizing and finishing a small diameter hole by removing a very small amount of
material
(b) the operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole
(c) the operation of smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole
(d) the operation of enlarging the end of a hold cylindrically

Q17. The correct sequence of operations for making alloy steel gears is
(a) turning, hobbing, heat treatment, shaving
(b) heat treatment, turning, hobbing, shaving
(c) shaving, turning, hobbing, heat treatment
(d) turning, hobbing, shaving, heat treatment

Q18. Gear hobbing process is faster than milling because

(a) Indexing time is less
(b) Hob rotates faster
(c) Work rotates faster
(d) Several teeth cut a time

Q19. Gear shaper can be used to cut following types of gear

(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Accurate
(d) All of the above

Q20. Internal or external threads of different pitches can be produced by

(a) Pantograph Milling Machine
(b) Profiling Machine
(c) Planetary Milling machine
(d) Plano-Miller

ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (c) S2. (a) S3. (c) S4. (c) S5. (b)
S6 (a) S7. (d) S8. (d) S9. (a) S10. (a)
S11. (b) S12. (d) S13. (c) S14. (d) S15. (d)
S16. (a) S17 (d) S18. (d) S19 (d) S20 (c)

211
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
BRAYTON CYCLE DPP-75
BRAYTON CYCLE PART 1

Q1. Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant as compared to diesel engine plant is :
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) un-predictable
Q2. A gas turbine works on which one of the following cycles :
(a) Brayton
(b) Rankine
(c) Stirling
(d) Otto
Q3. Brayton cycle consists of
(a) Two reversible isobars and two reversible adiabatic process
(b) Two reversible isotherm and two reversible adiabatic process
(c) Two reversible isotherm and two reversible isobars process
(d) Two reversible adiabatics and one reversible isotherm, one reversible isobaric process
Q4. Efficiency of Brayton cycle is given by [where ' 𝑇 ' is the pressure ratio, 𝛾 = specific heat ratio]
1
(a) 𝜂 = 1 − 𝑟 𝛾−1
1
(b) 𝜂 = 1 − 𝑟
1
(c) 𝜂 = 1 − 𝑟 𝛾
1
(d) 𝜂 = 1 − 𝑟 (𝛾−1)/𝛾

Q5. Reheating in gas turbine results in

(a) Increase in work ratio but decrease in thermal efficiency
(b) Increase of thermal efficiency
(c) Decrees of work
(d) Decrease of thermal efficiency
Q6. Intercooling in gas turbine system:
(a) decreases net output but increases thermal efficiency
(b) increases net output but decreases thermal efficiency
(c) decreases net output and thermal efficiency both
(d) increases net output and thermal efficiency both
Q7. In a gas turbine cycle, the turbine output is 600 kJ/kg, the compressor work is 400 kJ/kg and the heat
supplied is 1000 kJ/kg. The thermal efficiency of the cycle is :
(a) 80%
(b) 60%
(c) 40%
(d) 20%

212
Q8. For air standard Brayton cycle, increase in the maximum temperature of the cycle, while keeping the
pressure ratio the same would result in
(a) Increase in air standard efficiency
(b) Decrease in air standard efficiency
(c) No change in air standard efficiency
(d) Increase in the efficiency but reduction in net work
Q9. Open cycle Gas turbine works on :
(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) Stirling cycle
(d) Brayton cycle
Q10. Gas turbines for power generation are normally used :
(a) to supply peak load requirements
(b) to enable start thermal power plant
(c) when other sources of power fail
(d) to supply base load requirements
Q11. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of the brayton cycle is-
(a) Equal to diesel cycle
(b) Equal to Otto cycle
(c) Equal to dual cycle
(d) Greater than diesel cycle
Q12. Work ratio is the ratio of
(a) Net work/turbine work
(b) Turbine work/compressor work
(c) Net work/compressor
(d) Compressor work/net work
Q13. A gas turbine cycle with heat exchanger and reheating improves
(a) only the thermal efficiency
(b) only the specific power output
(c) both thermal efficiency and specific power output
(d) neither thermal efficiency nor specific power output
Q14. Which of the following cycle is used in aircraft?
(a) Brayton cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) Atkinsion cycle
(d) Stirling cycle
Q15. In a gas turbine plant, heat supplied is 𝟔𝟔𝟕. 𝟐 kJ/kg, and heat rejected is 391.43 kJ/kg. What is the
thermal efficiency of the plant?
(a) 57.29%
(b) 72.51%
(c) 41.33%
(d) 32.83%

213
 ANSWER KEYS.

S1. (b) S2. (a) S3. (a) S4. (d) S5. (a)
S6. (b) S7. (d) S8. (c) S9. (d) S10. (a)
S11. (b) S12. (a) S13. (c) S14. (a) S15. (c)

214