Top 1600+ One Liners (GA+GS) Mega Book For SSC |

Railway Exams

Introduction:

General Awareness and General Science has always been an important

subject for Railway Aspirants. In this E-Book. We have carefully made Top
1600+ General Awareness + General Science One Liners based on the
Questions asked in Previous Exams of Railway Recruitment Board, after
reading this E-Book you will be able to score better in General Awareness and
General Scince Section

(GA+GS) Syllabus for SSC| Railway Examination Consist of following

Topics:

1) Biology
2) Chemistry
3) Physics
4) Economy
5) Geography
6) History
7) Polity
8) Computer

By Dream Big Institution Team

(Deepali Jadhav)

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 INDEX

Sr No. Title Page No.

1 200 Important Biology Questions 3

2 200 Important Chemistry Questions 39

3 200 Important Physics Questions 72

4 200 Important Economy Questions 108

5 200 Important Geography Questions 135

6 200 Important History Questions 155

7 200 Important Polity Questions 192

8 200 Important Computer Questions 230

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 200 Important Biology Questions

SET A

1. What is contained in Chlorophyll ? Magnesium

2. From which part of the plant is turmeric obtained? Stem

3. Lacrymal glands are situated in the___? Eye Orbit

4. The specific role of Vitamin K is in the synthesis of Prothrombin

5. Which Part of plant is important for the life cycle of plant? Flower

6. Increased RBC's in the blood leads to a condition called___? Polycythemia

7. Name the hormone that regulates the amount of glucose in the blood . Insulin

8. The human faces is yellow in colour due to the presence of a pigment

called___? Urobilin

9. Which enzyme is found in human saliva? Ptyalin

10. Hansen's disease is also known as___? Leprosy

11. What is systolic and diastolic pressure in a healthy man? 120mm & 80mm

12. Which is considered as the strongest natural fibre? Silk

13. The deficiency of which leads to dental caries? Fluorine

14. Companion cells are unique to___? Angiosperms

15. The smallest bone in the human body is___? Stapes

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16. A person feel fatigued due to depositon of which acid in their muscles?
Lactic Acid

17. How many bones are present in human skull? 22

18. Which lobe of human brain is associated with hearing? Temporal Lobe

19. Upper most layer of skin is called ___? Epidermis

20. Motor skills are associated with which part of the brain? Frontal Lobes

21. Blood group was discovered by whom? Landsteiner

22. The ph value of human blood is__? 7.40

23. Name the largest gland in the human body? Liver

24. What is the chemical name of a substance which kills rats? White
Phosphorus

25. The metal present in the haemoglobin is __ . Iron

26. Which mosquito is the carrier of Zika virus? Aedes

27. Name the gas used for making vegetable ghee? Hydrogen

28. Which part of brain is centre of thirst, hunger and sleep? Hypothalamus

29. Which regulates the quantum of light entering the human eye? Iris

30. DNA stands for __. Deoxyribonucleic Acid

31. What percentage of water is lost during transpiration? 99%

32. Pyramid of energy is ____? Always upright

33. Edward Jenner is related with which disease? Small pox

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34. The hormone used as an oral contraceptive is ____. Progesterone

35. Which vitamin is considered to be a hormone? Vitamin D

36. The process of photosynthesis involves conversion of what? Solar energy

into chemical energy

37. Who explained about the blood circulation for the first time? William
Harvey

38. Dog bite can cause rabies. Which other animal can also cause rabies? Bat

39. Saliva helps in the digestion of which thing? Starch

40. Which is the sweetest sugar? Fructose

41. Which enzyme is present in all members of the animal kingdom

except Protozoa? Amylase

42. Which is known as graveyard of RBC's ? Spleen

43. Which disease is caused by the bite of a mad dog? Hydrophobia

44. What is the normal cholesterol level in human blood? 180-200 mg/dL

45. Who was the first to isolate Gene? Dr. Hargobind Khurana

46. Which cell organelles function as the power house of a living cell?
Mitochondria

47. Nobel Prize winning scientist James D. Watson is known for his work in
which area? Genetics

48. What is the Branch of science which deals with the study of skin of man?
Dermatology

49. Which test helps in diagnosis of cancer? Biopsy Test

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50. Which major chemical compound found in human kidney stones? Calcium
oxalate

51. Sex determination of child is done by whose chromosome? Father

52. What is the name of first clones sheep ? Dolly

53. What is known as 'kitchen of cell'? Chloroplast

54. Enlargment of which gland takes place due to deficiency of iodine? Thyroid

55. Which part of human brain is the regulating centre for swallowing
and vomiting? edulla Oblongata

56. What are Bryophytes ? Amphibious

57. The number of Chromosomes in the human gene is ___. 46

58. Polio is caused by whom? Virus

59. Ductless glands are known as___? Endocrine glands

60. The first vaccine injected into a just born baby is ______. BCG

61. Which are phagocytes in liver ? Kupffer cells

62. Which gland disapear during old age? Thymus

63. The study of Dendrology is associated with___? Trees

64. Theory of natural selection was proposed by_______. Charles Darwin

65. By which doctor was the first successful heart transplant in India
performed? Dr. Venugopal

66. The food poisoning is caused by___. Clostrideam boutulium

67. Which acid is found in 'Tomato' ? Oxalic Acid

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68. Haematopoiesis take place in _____? Bone marrow

69. Which part of human brain is affected by alcohol? Cerebellum

70. Ascariasis is caused by ___? Round Worm

71. Turpentine oil is obtained from___? Pinus

72. Which salt is found in bone in largest amount? Calcium Phosphate

73. Genes are made by___? Polynucleotide

74. Which disease is known as 'silent killer'? High Blood pressure

75. By whom was oral polio vaccine discovered? Jonas Salk

76. The compound used in anti-malarial drug is___? Chloroquine

77. Which is responsible for transport of food and other substances in

plants? Phloem

78. BCG vaccination (Bacillus Calmette Guerine) is injected to get

immunity from__? Tuberculosis

79. First vaccine produced by bio-technology was used against which virus?
Hepatitis-B

80. Alcoholic drink contains___? Ethyl Alcohol

81. Xerophthalmia is a disease caused by lack of which vitamin? Vitamin A

82. Which is responsible for the process of cell division ? Mitosis

83. What is known as 'Suicidal bags of cell'? Lysosome

84. The plants, which grow under water stress conditions are called_?
Xerophytes

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85. Which metal is present in Insulin? Zinc

86. Most of the red, blue and purple colours of plants are due to a
pigment called__? Anthocyanin

87. The filtering of blood through an artificial kidney is called__? Dialysis

88. Animals store glucose in the form of__? Glycogen

89. Who invented penicillin? Alexander Fleming

90. The longest and largest bone in the human body is__? Femur

91. Which is known as master gland in man? Pituitary gland

92. Which vitamin is essential for the coagulation of blood? Vitamin K

93. Which insect spreads kala-azar? Sand Fly

94. Name the smallest functional unit of the kidney? Nephron

95. What is the smallest structural and functional unit of nervous system?
Neuron

96. Which animal have no blood but they respire? Hydra

97. What is the Dental formula of man? 2123/2123

98. The biogas used for cooking is a mixture of ___? Methane & dioxide

99. Which plant yeilds biodiesel or biofuel? Jatropha Curcas

100. The most serious air pollutant causing health hazard is___? Sulphur dioxide

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SET B

Question 1: Vitamin E is chiefly found in

a) Pulses
b) Butter
c) Germinated Grains
d) Oil of liver of fishes

Question 2: Which of the following are the only mammals that possess
nucleated red blood corpuscles ?
(1) Camel
(2) Llama
(3) Man
(4) Dog

a) (1) and (2)

b) (2) and (3)
c) (3) and (4)
d) (1) and (4)

Question 3: Which of the following plays an important role in the cause of

rainfall ?
a) Evaporation
b) Condensation
c) Both evaporation and condensation
d) Filtration

Question 4: When day-light hours are increased, the rate of photosynthesis

:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unchanged
d) None of the above

Question 5: The method of protecting iron from rusting by coating a thin

layer of zinc is called

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a) galvanizing
b) rancidity
c) alloy
d) pulverizing

Question 6: A person suffering from myopia cannot see the objects at :

a) near distance
b) longer distance
c) any distance
d) close to eye

Question 7: Quinine is obtained from which plant ?

a) Cinchona
b) Cocoa
c) Mulberry
d) Eucalyptus
Question 8: Which part of the tea plant is used for making tea ?
a) Root
b) Flower
c) Leaves
d) Stern

Question 9: Which process is used to harden the natural rubber?

a) Polymerization
b) Vulcanisation
c) Copolymerisation
d) Condensation

Question 10: Which of the following regulates the process of transpiration

and gaseous exchange in plants?
a) Bracteate
b) Style
c) Stomata
d) Tendril

Question 11: Which of the following is also called as Leucocytes?

a) Red Blood Cells
b) Haemoglobin

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c) Platelets
d) White Blood Cells

Question 12: The arrangement of flowers on the floral axis is termed as

a) Tendrils
b) Inflorescence
c) Spines
d) Calyx

Question 13: __________________ Respiration is a process in which

organisms produce energy in absence of oxygen.
a) Aerobic
b) Anaerobic
c) Heterotrophic
d) Autotrophic

Question 14: The process of loosening and turning of the soil is called
_________________.
a) winnowing
b) sowing
c) weeding
d) tilling

Question 15: How is the blood clot or ancestor (red brown sludge) formed
by the fibers, usually within a given time, or in the cutting area?
a) Hiprops
b) Fibrins
c) Lymph (lymph)
d) Platelets

Question 16: Which of the following is a large number of cotton textile

plants?
a) Telangana
b) Gujarat
c) West Bengal
d) Maharashtra

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Question 17: How is the health component in the human development
margin measured?
a) Expected Durability During Birth
b) Mother Death Rate
c) Illness
d) Child Mortality Rate

Question 18: How is the sequence of gaps in the odor in the peninsula?
a) Gametogenesis
b) Placentation
c) Theme (aestivation)
d) Oxygenation (Zygotogenesis)

Question 19: Which of the following removes colors from the solutions by
grasping the color contamination?
a) Animal charcoal
b) Aluminum
c) Hydrogen
d) Potassium chlorate

Question 20: In angiosperms, the phenomenon of producing more than one

embryo in their seed is called
_____________
a) Poly embryony
b) Diembryony
c) Monoembryony
d) Nucellar embryony

Question 21: What is the branch of biology under which the tissues are
studied?
a) Pathology
b) Tissueology
c) Anatomy
d) Histology

Question 22: The food chain in which the first level starts with plants as
producers and ends with carnivores as consumers at the last level is called

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a) Grazing Food Chain
b) Detritus Food Chain
c) The Decomposer Food Chain
d) The Producer Food Chain

Question 23: What does the Pineal gland secrete?

a) Insulin
b) Melatonin
c) Glucagon
d) Androgen

Question 24: ___________ transports food materials, usually from leaves to

other parts of the plant.
a) Xylem
b) Vessel
c) Tracheids
d) Phloem

Question 25: Who discovered Ribosomes in cell biology?

a) Alec Jeffreys
b) D Ivanowsky
c) Stephen Hales
d) George Emil Palade

Question 26: The total number of bones in the average adult human
skeleton is :
a) 350
b) 206
c) 115
d) 540
Question 27: Ammonia is prepared commercially by the :
a) Oswald process
b) Hall process
c) Contact process
d) Haber process

Question 28: Transpiration in leaves occurs mainly through ____________

a) Stomata

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b) Apoplast
c) Microfibrils
d) Plasmodesmata

Question 29: The visible surface of the Sun is called

a) Atmosphere
b) Lithosphere
c) Photosphere
d) Ionosphere

Question 30: Malfunctioning of kidneys can lead to accumulation of urea in

blood, a condition called____________
a) Renal calculi
b) Glomerulonephritis
c) Renal failure
d) Uremia

Question 31: Secretion of insulin Hormone is by :

a) Thyroid
b) Pituitary
c) Adrenal
d) Pancreas

Question 32: Red rot is a plant disease which affects :

a) Wheat
b) Rice
c) Sugarcane
d) Cotton

Question 33: Earthworm belongs to which of the following Animal Phyla ?

a) Arthropoda

b) Mollu sca

c) Annelida

d) Protozoa

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Question 34: Aquarium is a container in which there are living fish and aquatic
plants. Which statement about aquarium is correct?

a) It is human made ecosystem

b) It is a natural ecosystem

c) It is not an ecosystem at all

d) It can only be termed a community

Question 35: HIV is passed from one person to another in all of the following
ways except:

a) Mosquito bite

b) Breast Feeding

c) Sharing Needles

d) Sexual Contact

Question 36: Which of the following hormone is not secreted by Pituitary

gland?

a) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).

b) Prolactin

c) Vasopressin

d) Somatostatin

Question 37: ……… is not related to gases.

a) Boyle’s Law

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b) Joule’s Law

c) Avogadro’s Law

d) Charles’s Law

Question 38: …….. is known as a disease mostly caused by occupational health

hazards.

a) Syphilis

b) Cirrhosis

c) Silicosis

d) Parkinson’s

Question 39: The medicine paracetamol is

a) An analgesic

b) An antipyretic

c) An analgesic and antipyretic

d) A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

Question 40: A person with blood group AB

a) Can donate blood to persons with blood group A, B and O.

b) Is called universal blood donor.

c) Can receive blood from any group.

d) Is neither a universal recipient nor a donor.

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Question 41: Prostate in human body is a

a) Connective tissue

b) Gland

c) Membrane

d) Muscle

Question 42: Arteries carry blood, that is filled with

a) Oxygen

b) Carbon dioxide

c) Toxins

d) Lipids

Question 43: Which of the following is reared for its fleece/fiber?

a) Alpaca

b) Alabama

c) Apache

d) Alluvial

Question 44: Transpiration takes place through the ……………

a) vascular bundles

b) cortex

c) stomata

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d) epidermis

Question 45: In which of the following phenomena can many plants be grown
from one parent in disease-free conditions?

a) Sexual reproduction

b) Tissue culture

c) Spore formation

d) Regeneration

Question 46: The ………. system transports fluids from one place to another.

a) respiratory

b) vascular

c) nervous

d) excretory

Question 47: Which of the following tissues is composed of mainly dead cells?

a) Parenchyma

b) Collenchyma

c) Aerenchyma

d) Xylem

Question 48: Amoeba, Paramecium and Bacteria undergo:

a) sexual reproduction

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b) budding

c) binary fission

d) multiple fission

Question 49: The secretion from the prostate gland enters into the:

a) Kidney

b) Ureter

c) Urethra

d) Testis

Question 50: What type of tissue are our bones?

a) parenchyma

b) Permanent tissue

c) Epidermic

d) Connective

Question 51: ……… reproduces by binary fission

a) Amoeba

b) Liverfiuke

c) Plasmodium

d) Planaria

Question 52: Which type of cell, skin is made up of:

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a) Epidermal cells

b) Connective tissue

c) Permanent tissues

d) Parenchyma

Question 53: ……….. connects muscle to the bones.

a) Cartilage

b) Areolar

c) Ligaments

d) Tendons

Question 54: ……………. connects bones.

a) Ligament

b) Areolar

c) Tendon

d) Cartilage

Question 55: During which of the following types of reproduction do the fully
matured tiny individuals detach from the parent body and become new
independent individuals?

a) Fission

b) Regeneration

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c) Budding

d) Multiple fission

Question 56: Hydra, starfish, planaria undergo:

a) sporulation

b) regeneration

c) Budding

d) fragmentation

Question 57: Which tissue is responsible for transport of materials away from
the root?

a) Ground tissue

b) Cambium

c) Phloem

d) Xylem

Question 58: Transfer of pollengrains from anther to the stigma of a flower is

called …………

a) Pollination

b) Regeneration

c) Transpiration

d) Sexual reproduction

Question 59: Genetic information is carried by long chains of molecules. What

are these molecules called?

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a) Phosphates

b) Nitrogenous Bases

c) RNA

d) Nucleotides

Question 60: …….. tissue is found beneath the skin, around the kidneys and
between the internal organs.

a) Ligament

b) Areolar

c) Tendons

d) Adipose

Question 61: In …….. tissue the cells are widely spaced.

a) Tendons

b) Cartilage

c) Bone

d) Ligament

Question 62: ………… describes pollination by the agency of ants.

a) Emasculation

b) Ficus Religiosa

c) Dirmecophily

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d) Myrmecophily

Question 63: The process of releasing of an egg from the ovary is called
……….

a) Fertilisation

b) Reproduction

c) Gestation

d) Ovulation

Question 64: Fibers are absent in:

a) Liver

b) Blood

c) Kidney

d) Heart

Question 65: The reproductive parts of angiosperms are located in the:

a) leaves

b) flowers

c) roots

d) stems

Question 66: The organs that have different basic structure (or different basic
design) but have similar appearance and perform 5 similar functions are called:

a) biogenetic law

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b) analogous organs

c) homologous organs

d) fossils
Question 67: Which of the following is not a Connective Tissue?

a) Cartilage tissue

b) Muscular Tissue

c) Adipose Tissue

d) Ligament

Question 68: Fats and oils become rancid because of:

a) transpiration

b) reduction

c) oxidation

d) corrosion

Question 69: Which of the following produces Testosterone in man?

a) Prostate gland

b) Scrotum

c) Testes

d) Vas deferens

Question 70: The carpel contains …………

a) Pollen grains

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b) Sepals

c) Petals

d) Ovules

Question 71: Xylem is a/an ……… tissue.

a) simple permanent

b) complex permanent

c) epithelial

d) connective

Question 72: The plant hormone that helps in the growth of the stem is ………..

a) Gibberellins

b) Cytokinins

c) Auxins

d) Insulin

Question 73: The plant parts tends to move towards light, this phenomenon is
called :

a) Positive phototropism

b) Negative tropism

c) Positive tropism

d) Negative phototropism

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Question 74: Rise in sugar levels in blood is detected by the cells of:

a) Liver

b) Gall bladder

c) Kidney

d) Pancreas

Question 75: Which of the following is a work done by the placenta tissue in
humans?

a) Support the embryo

b) Removes waste matter from the embryo and provide nutrition to the embryo

c) Provide nutrition to the embryo

d) Remove waste matter from the embryo

Question 76: Which tissue makes the plant hard and stiff?

a) Parenchyma

b) Sclerenchyma

c) Collenchyma

d) Xylem

Question 77: Fishes have a …….. chambered heart.

a) Single

b) Three

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c) Four

d) Two

Question 78: Acidity in a person can be cured by consuming …………..

a) baking soda solution

b) vinegar solution

c) lemon juice

d) butter milk

Question 79: Due to the presence of ………, a type of connective tissue in our
ears, the ears can be folded.

a) Bones

b) Cartilages

c) Tendons

d) Ligaments

Question 80: ……….. are analogous organs.

a) the tailfin of a lobster and the flukes of a whale

b) A human arm and a bulls leg

c) A bat’s wing and a whale’s fin

d) The leg of a dog and the flipper of a dolphin

Question 81: Herbivores require a longer small intestine to digest ………….

a) Proteins

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b) Fats

c) Cellulose

d) Vitamins

Question 82: An individual nerve cell may be up to ……….. long.

a) 100 cm

b) 50 cm

c) 80 cm

d) 10 cm

Question 83: Litmus solution is extracted from:

a) Hydrangea

b) Geranium

c) Petunia

d) Lichen

Question 84: How does Amoeba reproduce?

a) Sexual Reproduction

b) Budding

c) Binary fission

d) Fragmentation

Question 85: Most reptiles have:

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a) Incompletely three chambered heart

b) three chambered heart

c) four chambered heart

d) Two chambered heart

Question 86: The ……… consists of relatively unspecialised cells with thin cell
wall. (a-delete)

a) phloem

b) sclerenchyma

c) parenchyma

d) collenchyma

Question 87: ………… is not a sexually transmitted disease.

a) Candidiasis

b) Syphilis

c) Gonorrhea

d) Warts

Question 88: In animal cells, ……… epithelium forms the inner lining of the
kidney to provide mechanical support.

a) Glandular

b) Cuboidal

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c) Columnar

d) Squamous

Question 89: What is Sublimation?

a) It is the process of conversion of a liquid into gas.

b) It is the process of conversion of a solid into liquid.

c) It is the process of conversion of a solid into vapour.

d) It is the process of conversion of a gas into liquid.

Question 90: Which of the following is an example of a Rhizome?

a) Ginger

b) Sugarcane

c) Onion

d) Potato

Question 91: Plants in the ………… group are commonly called algae.

a) Bryophyta

b) Thallophyta

c) Gymnosperms

d) Pteridophyta

Question 92: What is the junction between an axon ending with the dendrite of
another nerve cell called?

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a) Synapse

b) Neuron

c) Synaptic Cleft

d) Node of Ranvier

Question 93: A/An ………….. tissue is formed beneath the skin and between
internal organs.

a) Epithelial

b) Nervous

c) Muscular

d) Adipose

Question 94: Asexual reproduction takes place in:

a) Plants

b) Higher animals

c) Lower animals

d) Lower animals and plants

Question 95: ……… mutation is NOT hereditary.

a) Deletion

b) Insertion

c) Somatic

d) Duplication

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Question 96: Voluntary muscles are contained in the ………

a) heart

b) hind limb

c) liver

d) lung

Question 97: In …………. cells are loosely packed so that large intercellular
spaces are found.

a) Parenchyma

b) Tracheids

c) Sclerenchyma

d) Collenchyma

Question 98: ……….. is not the same as reproduction.

a) Budding

b) Fission

c) Multiple fission

d) Regeneration

Question 99: ……. Theory of Evolution tells us how life evolved from simple to
more complex forms.

a) Darwins

b) Wallace

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c) Mendel’s

d) Lamarck’s

Question 100: Plants that have lost their capacity to produce seeds reproduce by
the method of:

a) Fission

b) Vegetative propagation

c) Multiple fission

d) Budding

Answers & Solutions:

1) Answer (B)

2) Answer (D)

A Very Low number ( Nucleated Red Blood Cells) are seen in Dogs.

3) Answer (C)

4) Answer (A)

5) Answer (A)

6) Answer (B)

7) Answer (A)

8) Answer (C)

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9) Answer (B)

10) Answer (C)

11) Answer (D)

12) Answer (B)

13) Answer (B)

14) Answer (D)

15) Answer (B)

16) Answer (D)

17) Answer (A)

18) Answer (B)

19) Answer (A)

20) Answer (A)

21) Answer (D)

22) Answer (A)

23) Answer (B)

24) Answer (D)

25) Answer (D)

26) Answer (B)

27) Answer (D)

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28) Answer (A)

29) Answer (C)

30) Answer (D)

31) Answer (D)

32) Answer (C)

33) Answer (C)

34) Answer (A)

35) Answer (A)

36) Answer (D)

37) Answer (B)

38) Answer (C)

39) Answer (C)

40) Answer (C)

41) Answer (B)

42) Answer (A)

43) Answer (A)

44) Answer (C)

45) Answer (B)

46) Answer (B)

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47) Answer (D)

48) Answer (C)

49) Answer (C)

50) Answer (D)

51) Answer (A)

52) Answer (A)

53) Answer (D)

54) Answer (A)

55) Answer (C)

56) Answer (B)

57) Answer (D)

58) Answer (A)

59) Answer (D)

60) Answer (D)

61) Answer (B)

62) Answer (D)

63) Answer (D)

64) Answer (B)

65) Answer (B)

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66) Answer (B)

67) Answer (B)

68) Answer (C)

69) Answer (C)

70) Answer (D)

71) Answer (B)

72) Answer (C)

73) Answer (A)

74) Answer (D)

75) Answer (B)

76) Answer (B)

77) Answer (D)

78) Answer (A)

79) Answer (B)

80) Answer (A)

81) Answer (C)

82) Answer (A)

83) Answer (D)

84) Answer (C)

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85) Answer (B)

86) Answer (C)

87) Answer (A)

88) Answer (B)

89) Answer (C)

90) Answer (A)

91) Answer (B)

92) Answer (A)

93) Answer (D)

94) Answer (D)

95) Answer (C)

96) Answer (B)

97) Answer (A)

98) Answer (D)

99) Answer (A)

100) Answer (B)

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 200 Important Chemistry Questions
PART A

1. Tube light is filled with? Mercury Vapour & Argon

2. Other name of “FOOL’S GOLD” is? Iron Pyrite

3. Non-stick coating in utensils is of? TEFLON

4. Compounds responsible for temporary hardness of water? Bicarbonates of

Calcium and Magnesium

5. Compounds responsible for permanent hardness of water? Sulphates and

Chlorides of Calcium and Magnesium

6. Gases used for ripening raw fruits? Ethylene & Acetylene

7. Main ore of Mercury is? Cinnabar

8. Egg shell is made up of? Calcium Carbonate

9. ______ is known as Artificial Silk. Reyon

10. Water soluble Vitamins B & C

11. Fat Soluble Vitamins A, D, E & K

12. Common preservative in food processing industry is? Benzoic Acid

13. First organic compound synthesized in laboratory & by whom? Urea by

Friedrich Wöhler

14. What blackens silver’s shine? Ozone Gas

15. Substance used in Cancer treatment? Cobalt – 60

16. Cobalt is found in? Vitamin B12

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17. Iron is extracted from which ore? Hematite

18. Aluminum is extracted from which ore? Bauxite

19. Copper is extracted from which ore? Copper Pyrite

20. Chemical name of ‘Washing Soda’ is? Sodium Carbonate

21. Gases used in welding are _______? Acetylene & Oxygen

22. Gases used by sea divers for breathing are ____? Oxygen & Helium

23. Best sources for Vitamin D are? Sunlight & Fish liver

24. Zinc Phosphide is used as? Rat Poison

25. Fuse wire is made up of ______ Lead and Tin

26. Purest form of Iron is? Wrought Iron

27. Radium is extracted from ______ . Pitchblende

28. Which agent is as ‘seed’ in artificial rain? Silver Iodide

29. Oxides of metals are ______ . Alkaline

30. During the process of ‘rusting’ , the weight of iron ______ . Increases

31. ______ (metal) is liquid at room temperature. Gallium

32. ______ is used to prepare fire proof and water proof clothes. Calcium
hydride

33. Galvanised iron is coated with? Zinc

34. Chemical name of Chromic Acid is? Chromium trioxide

35. Which metal is used in Photoelectric cell? Selenium

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36. Barium Hydroxide is also known as? Baryta Water

37. ______ elements are non-metal. Electronegative

38. __________ is known as heavy water and used in nuclear reactor

as moderator. Deuterium Oxide (D2O)

39. Deuterium is ______ of Hydrogen. Isotope

40. Ozone is _______ of Oxygen. Allotrope

41. Ammonia (NH3) is synthesized through? Haber’s Process

42. Chlorine is used to prepare _________ PVC, Insecticides,

herbicides

43. Which catalyst is used for the synthesis of Vanaspati Ghee? Nickle (Ni)

44. Which catalyst is used for the synthesis of Sulphuric Acid by

Contact Process? Platinum (Pt)

45. Chemical name of Picric Acid is? Tri Nitro Phenol

46. ______ is known as laughing gas? N2O

47. Chloroform in sunlight forms poisonous gas ________ . Phosgene

48. Platinum is also called _____ . White Gold

49. Which material is used in making of safety matches? Red Phosphorous

50. Nail polish remover contains? Acetone

51. Which acid is present in Orange? Citric Acid

52. Lead pencil contains _____ . Graphite

53. Which gas is used in filling electric bulbs ______ ? Argon

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54. Lightest metal? Lithium

55. Acid rain is due to air pollution by? Nitrous Oxide & Sulphur dioxide

56. Ozone is _______ . Diamagnetic

57. Petroleum is found in ______ . Sedimentary Rocks

58. All noble gases are? Colourless and Odourless

59. The most abundant element in the earth's crust is ? Oxygen

60. The lustre of a metal is due to _______ . Presence of free electrons

61. Which gas is used in fire extinguisher? Carbon dioxide

62. Which gas is used in cigarette lighters? Butane

63. Biogas chiefly contains ______ . Methane

64. Chemical used as fixer in Photography is ______ . Sodium thiosulphate

65. Aspirin is ______ . Acetyl Salicylic Acid

66. _____ is also known as ‘Stranger Gas.’ Xenon

67. Natural rubber is a polymer derived from ______. Isoprene

68. ‘Oil of Vitriol’ is ______ . Sulphuric acid

69. Paper is chemically _______ . Cellulose

70. Impurity present in ore is ________ . Gangue

71. Which is known as ‘Metal of Future’ ? Titanium

72. Efficiency of the catalyst depends on its? Molecular State

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73. Most of the explosions in mines occurs due to mixing of ______ . Methane
with air

74. Vinegar is an aqueous solution of ______ . Acetic acid

75. Kerosene is a mixture of _____ . Aliphatic hydrocarbons

76. The important metal used with iron to produce stainless steel is _____ .
Chromium

77. Which gas is responsible for the swelling of bread? Carbon dioxide

78. The metal constituent of chlorophyll is _____ . Magnesium

79. Which acid is used for etching glass? Hydrofluoric acid (HF)

80. Paraffin wax is _________ . Saturated hydrocarbon

81. Solder is an alloy of _____ . Tin and Lead

82. Alum is used as A purifier for water

83. Nuclear fuel in the sun is ______ . Helium

84. Dead organisms are transformed into petroleum and natural gas ______ .
Absence of air
85. Organic Compounds are only soluble in _____ . Non-polar solvents

86. Which acid is used in soft drinks? Carbonic acid (H2CO3)

87. Which acid is present in Bee Sting? Methanoic Acid

88. Tooth enamel is made up of ______ . Calcium Phosphate

89. The name ‘catalyst’ was given by _____ . Berzilius

90. A polymeric substance used to make parachute is _____ . Viscose

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91. What is used to avoid melting of ice? Gelatine

92. Carbon occur in the nature in the purest form as? Diamond

93. Oxidation is defined as ----- Loss of electrons

94. In nuclear reactor, chain reaction is controlled by using _____ . Cadmium

rod

95. The radioactive element most commonly detected in humans is _____ .

Potassium – 40

96. Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of _____ . Nuclear fusion

97. The ultrapure metal is obtained by _____ . Zone refining

98. Most abundant metal in earth’s crust is ______ . Aluminium

99. Balloons are filled with _____ . Helium

100. The element common to all acids is _____ . Hydrogen

PART B
1. In which form the chemical compound RDX is used?

A. As an composition

B. As an reactor

C. As an explosive

D. As an nuclear weapon

Ans: C

2. As a vegetable preservative poly______ foam is used.

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A. Uthane

B. Uriathenes

C. Urathanes

D. Urethanes

Ans: D

3. Chemistry is a branch of science which can be used for providing the services
to mankind. Comment on the statement.

A. True

B. False

C. May Be

D. Strongly not

Ans: D

4. Bio-chemical compounds are used as....

A. Skin Treatments

B. Food preservatives

C. Cooking Oils

D. All of the above

Ans: D

5. Match the following:

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Set I

a. Fertilisers

b. Nuclear Bomb

c. LPG

d. Carbon

Set I

1. Constructive and destructive matter

2. Cooking Gas

3. Curse of chemical reactions

4. Advanced process

Code:

a b c d

A. 3 4 2 1

B. 1 2 3 4

C. 4 1 2 3

D. 2 3 4 1

6. Tell the composition of soap?

A. Sodium salt with fatty acids.

B. Potassium salt with fatty acids

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C. Both a & b

D. Sodium and Potassium salt mixed with chemicals

Ans: C

7. Detergent is defined as.....

A. A liquid surfactant

B. A liquid soluble

C. A liquid sovent

D. A liquid solution

Ans: A

8. Which of the following compound is not used as an an alkali?

A. Sodium hydroxide

B. Potassium hydroxide

C. Carbon hydroxide

D. Nitrogen hydroxide

Ans: D

9. Define toxicity?

A. A chemical reaction

B. A process used in the manufacturing of detergents

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C. A harmful effect of soaps and detergents required to measure the
effectiveness.

D. A process used in the manufacturing of soaps

Ans: C

10. Match the following:

Set I

a. A Fatty Acid

b. Potassium Hydroxide

c. Non-ionic Surfactants

d. Neutralization

Set II

1. Better Alkali

2. Process to make detergent

3. Process to make soap

4. Oil and fats

Code:

a b c d

A. 3 4 2 1

B. 1 2 3 4

C 4 1 2 3

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D. 2 3 4 1

Ans: C

11. Which one is not the form of Biocides?

A. Salt

B. Iodine

C. Sugar

D. Bleech

Ans: D

12. How biocides work?

A. Control the multiplication of insects

B. Kill the insects

C. Manage the original form of material

D. Control the bacteria

Ans: D

13. What is Rodenticide?

A. A medicine to kill worms

B. A medicine to kill animals

C. A lubricant

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D. A pesticide

Ans: D

14. Most commonly used Rodenticides are _______ in nature.

A. Anti pesticides

B. Anti solvent

C. Anti Coagulant

D. Non anti coagulant

Ans: C

15. Which acid is present in lemon?

A. marlic acid

B. citric acid

C. lactic acid

D. tartaric acid

Ans: B

16. Natural rubber is a ________ which is having high elasticity.

A. Substance

B. Material

C. Elastomer

D. Chemical using carbon as main compound

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Ans: C

17. How will you define the process of Vulcanization?

A. Sample of butane mixed with sulphur and litharge

B. Sample of propane mixed with sulphur and litharge

C. Sample of plastic formed carbon mixed with sulphur and litharge

D. Sample of rubber mixed with sulphur and litharge

Ans: D

18. What is NBR?

A. Normal Acrylonitrile-butadiene rubber

B. Natural Acrylonitrile-butadiene rubber

C. N Acrylonitrile-butane rubber

D. Acrylonitrile-butadiene rubber

Ans: D

19. A synthetic rubber is having__________weight.

A. Higher resistance

B. Lower density

C. Higher molecular

D. Higher atomic

Ans: C

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20. Which of the following is not a type of elements?

A. Metals

B. Non Metals

C. Metalloids

D. Gases

Ans: D

21. How many charges alpha-rays consist of?

A. Two unit positive charges

B. Unit negative charge

C. Unit positive charge

D. None of these

Ans: A

22. Which of the following is not a radioactive element?

A. Astatine

B. Francium

C. Titanium

D. Zirconium

Ans: D

23. Which of the following is the unit of radioactivity?

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A. Curie

B. Becquerel

C. Rutherford

D. All of these

Ans: B

24. The substance (element) obtained after emission of a beta-particle from

11Na22:
A. Mg

B. Mn

C. Ag

D. Pb

Ans: A

25. The half life of a radioactive substance is 4 months then the time spent
in decaying ¾th of the substance would be:
A. 3 months

B. 4 months

C. 8 months

D. 12 months

Ans: C

26. The estimation of the age of the earth is done by:

A. Uranium dating

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B. Carbon dating

C. Atomic clock

D. Bio clock

Ans: A

27. The isotope of any atomic nucleus is in which:

A. Number of neutrons be same but number of protons be different

B. Number of protons be same but the number of neutrons be different

C. Number of protons and neutrons both are same

D. Number of protons and neutrons both are different

Ans: B

28. The group displacement law is propounded by:

A. Sody & Fujan

B. Rutherford & Sody

C. Rutherford & Fujan

D. Rutherford & Madam Curie

Ans: A

29. Which of the following is estimated by the radio carbon dating?

A. Age of the human being

B. Age of the fossils

C. Disease of the human body

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D. Purity of the metals

Ans: B

30. The number of isotopes in the hydrogen:

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Ans: B

31. Who is known as the father of Modern Chemistry?

(a) Kolvey (b) Wholer
(c) Leviatiae (d) Pasteur.
ANS C

32.The inventor of the atomic theory is:

(a) Rutherford (b) Madam Curie
(c) John Dalton (d) Albert Einstein
ANS C

33.Nucleon is the name which is employed for:

(a) Electron and proton (b) proton and neutron
(c) Electron and neutron (d) None of these
ANS B

34.The mass number of an atom is:

(a) Number of nucleons in the nucleus
(b) Number of protons in the nucleus
(c) Number of neutrons in the nucleus
(d) None of these
ANS A

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35. Atom is electrically:
(a) Positive (b) negative
(c) bipositive (d) neutral
ANS D

36.The atomic properties depend upon:

(a) Number of nucleons in the nucleus
(b) Number of protons in the nucleus
(c) Number of neutrons in the nucleus
(d) None of these
ANS D

37. The number of neutrons and protons in the nucleus of 88Ra226 are:
(a) 138 and 88 (b) 88 and 138
(c) 226 and 88 (d) 88 and 226
ANS A

38.Who was the inventor of radioactivity?

(a) Madam Curie (b) Irine Curie
(c) Henery Bacqurel (d) Rutherford
ANS C

39.The penetrating power of which of the following invisible radiations

emitting from the nucleus has its maximum value:
(a) a-rays (b) f)-rays
(c) y-rays (d) None of these
ANS C

40. Which of the following is negatively charged?

(a) Alpha-rays (b) Beta-rays
(c) Gama-rays (d) X-ray
ANS A

41. Which of the following is the heaviest metal?

A. osmium
B. mercury
C. iron

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D. nickel
ANS B

42. Consider following statements:

I. Green chemistry focuses on effects of chemical pollutants on nature.
II. Environmental chemistry focuses on technological approach to prevent
pollution.
Which statement(s) is/are correct?
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I & II
D. Neither I nor II
ANS D

43. Which one of the following received the Greener Reaction Conditions
Award in 1996?
A. Dow Chemical
B. Exon Chemicals
C. US EPA
D. None of these
ANS A

44. Which of the following is used for clean oxidation?

A. Supercritical carbon dioxide
B. Supercritical hydrogen
C. Aqueous hydrogen peroxide
D. All of these
ANS C

45. Green solvents are derived from ______.

A. Renewable resources
B. Carbon resources
C. Non-renewable resources
D. All of these
ANS A

46. Eating tobacco and throwing on the road can produce______pollutant.

A. Air

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B. Soil
C. Noise
D. Water
ANS B

47. Which of the following is not green house gas?

A. CO
B. O3
C. CH4
D. H2O Vapour
ANS A

48. Which of the following is not the components of photochemical smog that
occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate?
A. NO2
B. O3
C. SO3
D. Unsaturated hydrocarbon
ANS C

49. Which of the following treatment is used for removal of biological

impurities?
A. Sedimentation
B. Boiling
C. Sterilization
D. distillation
ANS C

50. Which of the following indicator used in determination of hardness?

A. EBT
B. Phenolphthalein
C. Methyl orange
D. Thymol blues
ANS A

51. The oxidation state of manganese (Mn) in KMnO4 is:

A. +2
B. -2

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C. +7
D. -7
Ans: C

52. The element whose oxidation state in its every compound is same:
A. Carbon
B. Fluorine
C. Hydrogen
D. Oxygen
Ans: B

53. The oxidation state of oxygen in OF2 is:

A. +2
B. -2
C. +1
D. -1
Ans: A

54. The acid is a substance which:

A. Accepts (gains) electron
B. Donates electrons
C. Provides (donates) proton
D. Donates OH- ion
Ans: C

55. The alkali is a substance which:

A. Provides (donates) proton
B. Accepts proton
C. Donates electron
D. Accepts electron pair
Ans: B

56. The substance which makes the blue litmus paper red is :
A. Acid
B. Base
C. Alkali
D. Salt
Ans: A

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57. The substance which makes the red litmus paper blue is:
A. Acid
B. Alkali
C. Salt
D. None of these
Ans: B

58. The first time pH value measurement is done by:

A. Leviatiae
B. Pristley
C. Cauvendish
D. Sorensan
Ans: D

59. The average pH value of the human blood is:

A. 5.4
B. 6.2
C. 7.4
D. 8.7
Ans: C

60. The average pH value of the milk is:

A. 6.1
B. 6.6
C. 7.4
D. 8
Ans: B

61. Mohr salt is:

A. Simple salt

B. Hybrid salt

C. Double salt

D. Complex salt

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62. Hydrogen is the most fundamental component of all the acid, it is firstly
stated by:
A. Arrhenius

B. Bronsted

C. Devi

D. Lori

63. In which of the following silver is not to be present?

A. Horn silver

B. German silver

C. Ruby silver

D. Lunar caustic

64. The gaseous law of diffusion was propounded by:

A. Boyle

B. Charles

C. Avogadro

D. Grahm

65. The smoke is the example of:

A. the solution of solid in the liquid

B. the solution of liquid in the liquid

C. the solution of solid in the gas

D. the solution of gas in the liquid

66. The air is the example of:

A. the solution of solid in the gas

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B. the solution of gas in the gas

C. the solution of liquid in the gas

D. the solution of liquid in the solid

67. The alloys are:

A. the solution of solid in the solid

B. the solution of solid in the liquid

C. the solution of gas in the liquid

D. the solution of gas in the gas

68. The milk is the example of:

A. Solution

B. Colloidal solution

C. Emulsion

D. Air-solution

69. The pH value of any solution is 6 then the hydrogen ion concentration
in the solution would be:
A. 10-6M
B. 10-10M
C. 1010M
D. 106M

70. The hydrogen ions concentration in any solution is 10-4 M the

concentration of hydroxyl ions in it would be:
A. 10-4
B. 10-14
C. 10-10
D. 104

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Question Answer
61 C
62 C
63 B
64 D
65 C
66 B
67 A
68 C
69 A
70 C

71. What is the shape of the ethylene molecule?

A. Linear

B. Tetrahedral

C. Coplanar triangular

D. Hectohedral

72. Which of the following compound is tetrahedral?

A. Ammonia

B. Carbon tetrachloride

C. Water

D. Acetylene

73. Through the fused sodium chloride, electric current can pass out due to
the presence of:

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A. Free electron

B. Free ion

C. Free molecule

D. The atoms of sodium and chlorine

74. The higher boiling point of the water occurs due to:
A. Its more specific heat

B. Its more value of the dielectric constant

C. Less molecular disassociation in H20

D. Presence of hydrogen bonding among the molecules of H20

75. The tendency to donate the electron is called:

A. Oxidation

B. Reduction

C. catylisation

D. self-induction

76. The tendency to accept the electron is called:

A. Oxidation

B. Reduction

C. catylisation

D. Self induction

77. The hydrogen burning process is directly associated with:

A. Hydrolysis

B. Reduction

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C. Oxidation

D. Hydrogenation

78. The rusting of the iron is the example of:

A. Oxidation

B. Reduction

C. Polymerisation

D. Galvanization

79. In which of the following chlorine has + 1 oxidation number?

A. Hypochlorous acid

B. Hydrochloric acid

C. Zinc chloride

D. Chlorine

80. The element chromium (Cr) has its oxidation number in K2Cr2O7:
A. + 6

B. - 2

C. + 7

D. - 7

Question Answer
71. C
72. B
73. B
74. B

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 75. A
76. B
77. C
78. A
79. A
80. A

81. Which of the following is not the isotope of hydrogen?

A. Protium

B. Deuterium

C. Iterium

D. Tritium

82. 8O16, 8O17, 8O18 are called:

A. Isotopes

B. Isotones

C. Isobars

D. Isoneutrons

83. What is the radioactive isotope of hydrogen is called?

A. Deuterium

B. Rotium

C. Radium

D. Tritium

84. Which isotope is used through the radioactive age estimation technique
to obtain (determine) the age of rocks?

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A. Uranium isotope

B. Plutonium isotope

C. Thorium isotope

D. Carbon isotope

85. The radio isotope used to control the disease like blood cancer
(Leukaemia) is:
A. Phosphorus-32

B. Cobalt-60

C. Iodine-131

D. Sodium-24

86. Isotones are those which have:

A. Equal number of protons

B. Equal number of neutrons

C. Equal number of nucleons

D. None of these

87. The iso electronic of AI+3 is:

A. CI-

B. AI

C. S-

D. F-

88. The element which has same mass number but different atomic number
is called:
A. Isotope

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B. Isobar

C. Isoneutronic

D. Isoelectronic

89. By the emission of which isomers are produced:

A. Alpha-ray

B. Beta-ray

C. Gama-ray

D. X-ray

90. How many molecules have the methane?

A. Double bond

B. Triple bond

C. Single covalent bond

D. None of these

QuestionAnswer
81. C
82. A
83. D
84. A
85. B
86. B
87. D
88. B
89. B

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 90. C

91. How many charges alpha-rays consist of?

A. Two unit positive charges

B. Unit negative charge

C. Unit positive charge

D. None of these

92. Which of the following is not a radioactive element?

A. Astatine

B. Francium

C. Titanium

D. Zirconium

93. Which of the following is the unit of radioactivity?

A. Curie

B. Becquerel

C. Rutherford

D. All of these

94. The substance (element) obtained after emission of a beta-particle from

11Na22:
A. Mg

B. Mn

C. Ag

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D. Pb

95. The half life of a radioactive substance is 4 months then the time spent
in decaying ¾th of the substance would be:
A. 3 months

B. 4 months

C. 8 months

D. 12 months

96. The estimation of the age of the earth is done by:

A. Uranium dating

B. Carbon dating

C. Atomic clock

D. Bio clock

97. The isotope of any atomic nucleus is in which:

A. Number of neutrons be same but number of protons be different

B. Number of protons be same but the number of neutrons be different

C. Number of protons and neutrons both are same

D. Number of protons and neutrons both are different

98. The group displacement law is propounded by:

A. Sody & Fujan

B. Rutherford & Sody

C. Rutherford & Fujan

D. Rutherford & Madam Curie

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99. Which of the following is estimated by the radio carbon dating?
A. Age of the human being

B. Age of the fossils

C. Disease of the human body

D. Purity of the metals

100. The number of isotopes in the hydrogen:

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

QuestionAnswer
91. A
92. D
93. B
94. A
95. C
96. A
97. B
98. A
99. B
100. B

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 200 Important Physics Questions
PART A

1. Who firstly demonstrated experimentally the existence of

electromagnetic wave? Hertz

2. The working of the quartz crystal in the watch is based on which effect?
Piezoelectric Effect

3. What is te the unit of Radioactivity? Curie

4. What is the wavelength of visible spectrum? 390-700 nanometres

5. One astronomical unit is the average distance between___? Earth & Sun

6. Number of basic S.I. units is ___. Seven (7)

7. What is the name of the scientist who stated that matter can be converted
into energy? Einstein

8. The size of atomic nucleus is of the order of___? 10^-14 m

9. A temperature at which both the Fahrenheit and the centigrade scales have
the same value? -40°

10. In the visible spectrum which colour has the shortest wavelength? Violet

11. What is the unit of specific resistance? Ohm-metre

12. What do we use as a moderator in nuclear reactor? Graphite

13. The mirror used in motor vehicles near the driver's seat is a__? Convex
Mirror

14. Electron microscope was invented by__? Robert Koch

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15. The hydraulic brake used in automobiles is a direct application of__?
Pascal's Law

16. The filament of an electric bulb is made of which metal? Tungsten

17. Camberts Law is related to__? Interference

18. Which waves are used in sonography? Ultrasonic waves

19. Which instrument is used to measure the power of electric circuit ?

Wattmeter

20. Splitting of Uranium nucleus releases_____ energy. Nuclear

21. kilowatt hour is the unit of__? Energy

22. A simple device that is used to either break or complete the electric circuit,
is called _____? Switch

23. Where the value of ‘g’ (acceleration due to gravity) is maximum? At poles

24. Good conductors have many loosely bound __? Electrons

25. If the body is hollow, then its centre of gravity lies? outside the material

26. A man with a dark skin, in comparison with a man with a white
skin, experiences__? Less heat, Less cold

27. What is the escape velocity for all objects from the earth? 11.16 km/sec

28. If the temperature inside a room is increased, the relative humidity will?
Decrease

29. If a bar magnet is cut length wise into 3 parts, what will the total number
of poles be? 6

30. Light travels in a____? Straight line

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31. What converts the alternating current into direct current? Rectifier

32. Einstein got noble prize for____? Photoelectric Effect

33. The nucleus of an atom consists of__? Neutrons and protons

34. What is the measuring unit of length of light waves? Angstrom

35. How much is one barrel of oil approximately equal to? 159 litres

36. The sky appears black from the moon because of___? Lack of Atmosphere

37. The specific resistance of a wire varies with its___? Material

38. Which instrument is used to measure depth of ocean ? Fathometer

39. The unidirectional property of a pn-junction is useful for its use as

which thing? Rectifier
40. The strongest force in the nature is ____? Nuclear Force

41. Which is the only natural magnet? Magnetite

42. We cannot see during a fog, because of ____. Scattering of light

43. In which medium sound travels faster ? Solid

44. A fast wind can turn the blades of a windmill because it possesses__.
Potential Energy

45. Which of the following material is used for electric wire heater? Nichrome

46. Conversion of chemical energy into electrical energy occurs in which thing?
Battery

47. The direction of a magnetic field within a magnet is___? From South to
north

48. What remains constant while throwing a ball upward? Acceleration

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49. What type of lens is a magnifying glass? Convex lens

50. Why does a liquid drop tend to assume a spherical shape? To minimize
surface tension

51. What happens when soda water bottle falls freely? No bubbles form

52. Pure water freezes at what temperature? 32 F

53. Why are Metals good conductor of heat than insulator? they contain free
electrons

54. When some detergent is added to water, the surface tension___? Decreases

55. The value of which quantity remains same in all system of units? Specific
Gravity

56. Distance of stars are measured in___? Light Years

57. Nature of sound wave is ____? Longitudinal

58. Which is used to initiate fissions ? Neutrons

59. The total internal reflection can occur when light pass from___. Denser to
Rarer medium

60. Who discovered Diode Bulb ? Sir J. S. Fleming

61. Radio waves of constant amplitude can be generated with___? Oscillator

62. What is the SI unit of luminous intensity? Candela

63. What is the name of short duration wave? Pulse

64. The absorption of ink by blotting paper involves___? Capillary Action

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65. Two drops of a liquid are merged to from a single drop. In this process___?
Energy is released

66. Which is more elastic - Steel or Rubber? Steel

67. An atom bomb is based on the principle of___? Nuclear Fission

68. Which instrument is used to measure the scattering of light by

particles suspended in a liquid ? Nephetometer

69. The speed of light with the rise in the temperature of the medium ___?
Remains unaltered

70. Most commercial nuclear power plants worldwide are cooled by __? Water

71. Electric Motor converts____? Electric energy to mechanical energy

72. Nuclear sizes are expressed in a unit named____? Fermi

73. Weightlessness experienced in a spaceship is due to___? Absence of

Gravity

74. The blue colour of the clear sky is due to ____? Dispersion of Light

75. What does airbag, used for safety of car driver, contain? Sodium Azide

76. Radian is used to measure___? Angle

77. Who had showed that the electric and magnetic waves are equal in vacuum?
James Clerk Maxwell

78. When a red glass is heated in dark room it will seem___. Green

79. The friction force exerted by fluids is called ___. Drag

80. Which is used in designing ships and submarines? Archimedes Principle

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81. Which instrument is used to measure change in volume of substances ?
Dilatometer

82. On which principle , transformer works? Mutual Induction

83. Potential energy of your body is minimum when you _______. Lie down on
ground

84. The velocity of sound in air___? 332m/sec

85. Beats occur because of __? Interference

86. In summer, the mirages are seen due to the phenomenon of __? Total
Internal Reflection

87. Who gave the first experimental value of G? Cavendish

88. Astigmatism can be corrected by__? Cylindrical lenses

89. What apparatus is used to locate a submerged object? SONAR

90. The image formed by convex lens in a simple microscope is__. Virtual &
Erect

91. What is the unit of magnetic flux? Maxwell

92. Coolis tube is used to produce___? X-Rays

93. Sudden fall in barometer is indication of___? Storm

94. Force of attraction between the molecules of different substances

is called___? Adhesive Force

95. What is the working principle of Washing machine? Centrifugation

97. Insects can move on the surface of water without sinking due to___. Surface
tension of water

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98. The temperature of the sun is measured with ___. Pyrometer

99. Acceleration acts always in the direction__? of the net force

100. Which instrument is used to measure altitudes in aircrafts ? Altimeter

PART B

1. What is the full form of ASLV?

(a) Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle

(b) Automatic Satellite Launch Vehicle

(c) Aero Space Launch Vehicle

(d) Area Satellite Launch Vehicle

2. Which is India's first experimental satellite launch vehicle?

(a) ASLV

(b) GSLV

(c) SLV 3

(d) None of these

3. Which type of fuel is used by GSLV in its operations?

(a) Only solid fuel

(b) Only liquid fuel

(c) Liquid in first stage and solid in second stage

(d) Solid in first stage and liquid in second stage

4. When The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) was set up?
(a) 1962

(b) 1969

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(c) 1972

(d) 1952

5. Where is the Headquarter of ISRO?

(a) Chandipur

(b) Bengaluru

(c) Mahendragiri

(d) Chennai

6. Which of the following is NOT true about Indian space research?

(a) The first satellite launched in India was Aryabhatta.

(b) Great scientist Dr. Vikram Sarabhai is known as the father of Indian space
research.

(c) ISRO was set up in 1962.

(d) IRSO reports to Department of Space, India

7. IRNSS is a ……………..
(a) Navigation satellite

(b) Space mission

(c) MARS mission

(d) Geo stationary satellite

8. Who was the india’s first man/women in the space?

(a) Rajesh Sharma

(b) Rakesh sharma

(c) Kalpana chawla

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(d) Sunita williams

9. Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), SHAR is situated at…….

(a) Bangaluru

(b) Mahendragiri

(c) Ahmedabad

(d) Sriharikota

10. What was the Chandrayan I……..

(a) An earth observation satellite

(b) Lunar Probe

(c) Navigation satellite

(d) Geo stationary satellite

Question Answer
1 A
2 C
3 D
4 B
5 B
6 C
7 A
8 B
9 D
10 B

11. Which of the following statement is/are true

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(1) APPLE was India’s first experimental, geostationary satellite.

(2) Indi’s first experimental satellite was assisted by the Soviet Union.

(3) INSAT -2 project was India’s first indigenously built satellite.

(a) Only 1, 2 are correct

(b) Only 2nd is correct

(c) Only 2, 3 are correct

(d) All are correct

12. Where is the Headquarter of DRDO?

(a) New delhi

(b) Odisha

(c) Karnataka

(d) Maharashtra

13. IRNSS-1E is the fifth satellite in the Indian Regional Navigation

Satellite System (IRNSS), which vehicle launched it?
(a) PSLV-C31

(b) PSLV-C30

(c) PSLV-C21

(d) GSLV 3

14. Which of the following statement is Not true about IRNSS?

(a) IRNSS consists of constellation of seven satellites of which three are
geostationary and four are non-geostationary.

(b) Till date 5 satellites of it has been launched.

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(c) It will provide mapping and tracking services.

(d) It was launched on board of PSLV-C30 rocket from Satish Dhawan Space
Centre (SHAR), Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.

15. Which of the following country do not have cryogenic engine

technique?
(a) Russia

(b) Japan

(c) China

(d) Canada

16. Which of the following is the heaviest rocket of India?

(a) GSLV Mark 3

(b) RH 75

(c) RH 300

(d) RH200

17. Which of the following is not true about mars mission of India?
(a) It was launched on 5 November 2012

(b) It was India's first interplanetary mission.

(c) ISRO has become the fourth space agency to reach Mars.

(d) India is the first Asian nation to reach Mars orbit.

18. Which of the following is not true about the chandrayan1?

(a) It was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation in October 2008.

(b) India launched the spacecraft using a PSLV-XL rocket, serial number C13.

(c) The vehicle was successfully inserted into lunar orbit on 8 November 2008.

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(d) Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee announced the project on course in his
Independence Day speech on 15 August 2003.

19. What is true about Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)?

(a) It was developed and operated by indigenously in India

(b) It was developed in collaboration with Russia.

(c) It was developed in collaboration with USA.

(d) It was developed in collaboration with USA & UK.

20. Where is Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS)

situated?
(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Kerala

(c) Odisha

(d) Karnataka

Question Answer
11 D
12 A
13 A
14 D
15 D
16 A
17 A
18 B
19 A
20 B

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21. Where is Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre?
(a) Thiruvananthapuram

(b) Odisha

(c) Kerala

(d) Andhra Pradesh

22. Which of the following statement is /are true?

(a) India’s first satellite communication earth station was set up at ARVI
(Pune).

(b) USA is the India’s biggest partner in the development of the space
programmes.

(c) India’s first satellite launch vehicle was SLV.

(d) SROS, stands for Stretched Rohini Satellite Series.

23. Which of the following is true?

(a) Artyabhatta institute of observational sciences is in nainital.

(b) S.N. Bose national centre for basic sciences is in Kolkata

(c) Indian institute of Astrophysics is in Odisha

(d) Indian institute of Geomagnetism is in Mumbai

24. Where is master control facility in India?

(a) Hasan (karnataka)

(b) Bhopal (MP)

(c) Chandipur (Odisha)

(d) Both a & b

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25. Which of the following is true about Indian defence system?
(a) G.M. Kariyappa was the first Indian chief of army staff?

(b) Department of Defence Research And Development comes under the

ministry of defence.

(c) The Headquarter of eastern command of defence is in Odisha.

(d) Only a & b

26. Chief of the air force is called………………

(a) Admiral

(b) Air marshal

(c) Air Chief Marshal

(d) General

27. What is the correct decreasing order of the officers in the Indian Army?
(a) Field marshal, General, Lieutenant General and Major General

(b) General, Field marshal , Lieutenant General and Major General

(c) General, Lieutenant General, Major General and Field marshal,

(d) General, Field marshal ,Lieutenant General and Major General

28. Which of the following is not true about Agni V Missile?

(a) It’s an intercontinental ballistic missile.

(b) It is indigenously developed by India.

(c) Its range is between 5000-6000 kms

(d) It is run by liquid fuel.

29. Which of the following missile works on the theory of “fire and forget”?
(a) Brahmos

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(b) Akash

(c) Nag

(d) Sourya

30. Which of the following is not true?

(a) Nirbhay is a missile of 1000 km

(b) Brahmos missile is developed by DRDO

(c) Astra is an Air to Surface missile.

(d) The range of Agni iii is between 3000 to 5000 kms.

Question Answer
21 A
22 B
23 C
24 D
25 D
26 C
27 A
28 D
29 C
30 C

31. Druva is a………..

(a) Tank

(b) Advanced light helicopter

(c) A multi barrel rocket system

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(d) Missile

32. Which country is the biggest importer of arms and ammunition in the
world?
(a) Iran

(b) Afghanistan

(c) Pakistan

(d) India

33. From which country India purchases its maximum defence equipment ?
(a) Russia

(b) USA

(c) Israel

(d) China

34. What is NOT true about Brahmos missile?

(a) It was developed by the DRDO with the help of USA.

(b) It’s a supersonic cruise missile that can be launched from submarines, ships,
aircrafts or land.

(c) It can hit at the maximum range of 290 kms.

(d) It has the capability to hit the surface targets as low as 10 meters of altitude.

35. Where is the Headquarter of Mazgaon Dockyard Limited?

(a) Vishakhapatnam

(b) Kolkata

(c) Mumbai

(d) Kandla

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36. When is army day observed in India?
(a) 4 dec.

(b) 15 jan.

(c) 28 feb

(d) 1 dec.

37. Which of the following is the oldest paramilitary in the country?

(a) CRPF

(b) BSF
(c) ITBP

(d) Assam rifles

38. Which of the following does not different from others?

(a) Vijayanta

(b) T-55

(c) Arjun

(d) Agni

39. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre is situated in……

(a) Karnataka

(b) Maharashtra

(c) Uttrakhand

(d) Delhi

40. Which of the following is wrong?

(a) Tarapur Atomic Research is in Maharashtra.

(b) Kundankulam Nuclear Power Project is in Tamil Nadu

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(c) Kaiga Atomic Power plant is in Odisha

(d) Narora Atomic Power Station is in Uttar Pradesh

Question Answer
31 B
32 D
33 B
34 A
35 C
36 B
37 D
38 D
39 B
40 C

41. Who speculated that our universe is expanding?

A. Newton

B. Edwin Hubble

C. Galilio

D. Copernicus

Ans: B

42. Who had propounded the planetary laws?

A. Newton

B. Kepler

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C. Galileo

D. Copernicus

Ans: B

43. Who had proved first that our earth and another planet are revolving?
A. Aristotle

B. Galileo

C. Copernicus

D. Edwin Hubble

Ans: C

44. Which one of the following elements occurs most abundantly in our
universe?
A. Hydrogen

B. Nitrogen

C. Helium

D. Oxygen

Ans: A

45. The stellar and solar source of energy is:

A. Nuclear fusion

B. Nuclear fission

C. Electromagnetic induction

D. Electromotive force

Ans: A

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46. The device employed to measure the diameters of stars and our galaxy
(Milky Way) is called:
A. Photometer

B. Barometer

C. Viscometer

D. Interferometer

Ans: D

47. What is the difference between asteroids and comets?

I. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases
held together by rocky and metallic material.
II. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits Jupiter and Mars, while
comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.

III. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
A. I and II Only

B. I and III Only

C. III Only

D. I, II and III

Ans: C

48. Which of the following planets has the largest number of planets?
A. Saturn

B. Jupiter

C. Mars

D. Neptune

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Ans: A

49. Which one of the following planet is also called morning star or evening
star?
A. Mercury

B. Venus

C. Mars

D. Saturn

Ans: B

50. The planet which completes one revolution in 88 days around the Sun
is:
A. Mercury

B. Venus

C. Mars

D. Saturn

Ans: A

51. The planet whose density is less than water and on keeping in the water
it will start to float:
A. Mercury

B. Venus

C. Saturn

D. Mars

Ans: C

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52. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere.
What could be the appropriate explanation?
I. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
II. There is no vertical wind in the lower stratosphere
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct in this context?
A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Ans: C

53. Which is the nearest of the sun?

A. Beta centaury

B. Alpha centaury

C. Gamma centaury

D. Proxima centaury

Ans: D

54. The planet Neptune was discovered by:

A. Galley

B. Galileo

C. Kepler

D. Newton

Ans: A

55. Which of the following is the nearest planet from the Sun?
A. Mercury

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B. Venus

C. Earth

D. Mars

Ans: A

56. The smallest planet of the solar system:

A. Saturn

B. Jupiter

C. Neptune

D. Uranus

Ans: A

57. Which of the following is not a planet of solar system?

A. Mercury

B. Florida

C. Venus

D. Saturn

Ans: B

58. Which one of the following stars is the nearest star from the earth?
A. Pole Star

B. Comet

C. Sun

D. Asteroid

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Ans: C

59. The small groups of planetary pieces which are confined and revolving
between Mars and Jupiter are called:
A. Meteors

B. Comet

C. Celestial bodies

D. Asteroids

Ans: D

60. Halley's comet completes one revolution around the sun in:
A. 40 years

B. 46 years

C. 60 years

D. 76 years

Ans: D

61. Which year man first landed on the moon?

A. 1963

B. 1965

C. 1969

D. 1972

Ans: C

62. In space, the sky looks to an astronaut:

A. Blue

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B. Red

C. White

D. Black

Ans: D

63. Which of the following is also known by the name of red planet?
A. Mercury

B. Venus

C. Mars

D. Saturn

Ans: C

64. The earth revolves round the sun in:

A. 360 days

B. 365 days

C. 365.25 days

D. 24 Hours

Ans: C

65. Paris based minor planet centre of International Astronomical Union

(IAU) has given a new name to the planet Pluto and it is:
A. 134340

B. 238380

C. Iris

D. Nixe

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Ans: A

66. The new name of the celestial body Xena-2003 UB 313 given by IAU is:
A. Sires

B. Iris

C. Grabrili

D. Daysomia

Ans: B

67. Which of the statement is correct about the planet Saturn?

A. Cooler than Pluto

B. Cooler than Neptune

C. Hotter than Neptune

D. Hotter than Jupiter

Ans: C

68. Who provided the first information regarding the Black Hole?
A. Copernicus

B. Herman Bondy

C. Rutherford

D. S. Chandrasekhar

Ans: D

69. What is the distance of the earth from the Sun?

A. 107.7 million km

B. 142.7 million km

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C. 146.6 million km

D. 149.6 million km

Ans: D

70. Which of the following is also called Blue planet or Green planet?
A. Mars

B. Earth

C. Venus

D. Saturn

Ans: B

71. The planet where there exists a situation like pressure cooker:
A. Jupiter

B. Mars

C. Venus

D. Mercury

72. If the radius of the earth is reduced by half, then the day-night on the
earth would be of:
A. 6 hrs

B. 12 hrs

C. 18 hrs

D. 36 hrs

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73. The planet Pluto has been abandoned from the group of conventional
planets and kept in the group of dwarf planets by a summit (conference)
held in:
A. Prague

B. Paris

C. London

D. Geneva

74. Which of the following planet is the nearest to the earth?

A. Mercury

B. Venus

C. Mars

D. Jupiter

75. The earth has the size among all the planets:
A. Fifth

B. Third

C. Fourth

D. Seventh

76. The largest satellite of the planet Jupiter is:

A. Gantmede

B. Uropa

C. Calisto

D. None of these

77. The largest satellite of the planet Saturn is:

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A. Atlas

B. Titan

C. Tethis

D. None of these

78. The stratosphere is said to be ideal for flying jet aircraft because:
A. This layer is rich in ozone which reduces fuel consumption

B. The temperature is constant and ideal for aircraft engine efficiency

C. This layer is out of the firing range of anti aircraft guns

D. Of the absence of the clouds and other weather phenomena

79. Who had invented the planet Uranus?

A. William Herschel

B. William John

C. Max Dewar

D. None of these

80. The planet whose relevance as a planet has been ended at Prague
Summit of IAU is:
A. Uranus

B. Pluto

C. Mars

D. Ceres

Question No. Answer

71. C

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 72. A
73. A
74. B
75. A
76. A
77. B
78. D
79. A
80. B

81. The back part of the moon is always calm and dark which is called:
A. Sea of tranquillity

B. Ocean of storms

C. Both of these

D. None of these

82. Which one of the following is the most elevated place on the moon’s
surface?
A. Leibnitz Mountain

B. Dream Mountain

C. Black Mountain

D. None of these

83. The area of the moon's surface where there is no possibility of the
occurrence of water is called:
A. Ocean of storms

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B. Areas of storms

C. Any of these

D. None of these

84. The sky appears black from the moon because of :

A. Lack of atmosphere

B. Lack of cloud

C. Lack of oxygen and CO2

D. None of these

85. The value of escape velocity on the moon's surface is:

A. 3.4 km/sec

B. 4 km/sec

C. 11.2 km/sec

D. 5.6 km/sec

86. Which one of the following planets has the maximum value of escape
velocity?
A. Venus

B. Jupiter

C. Mars

D. Mercury

87. Which one of the following has minimum value of escape velocity on its
surface?
A. Moon

B. Earth

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C. Mars

D. Mercury

88. What portion of the moon is visible from the earth's surface?
A. 47%

B. 34%

C. 21%

D. 41%

89. At present how many planets are in existence is visible?

A. 9

B. 8

C. 7

D. None of these

90. The astronaut who landed or stepped down first on the surface of
moon:
A. Neil Armstrong

B. Uri Gagarin

C. Denial Pearl

D. None of these

Question No. Answer

81. A
82. A
83. A
84. A

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 85. B
86. B
87. A
88. D
89. B
90. A

91. Which of the following Scientist is affiliated with the law of inertia,
Kinematical equations, discovery etc.?
A. G. Marconi

B. A. Fermi

C. Galileo

D. None of the above

Ans: C

92. Who invented the Wireless telegraphy, radio and wireless massage?
A. G. Marconi

B. A. Fermi

C. Galileo

D. Einstein

Ans: A

93. Who among the following Scientist is associated with discovery of

electron?
A. Galileo

B. Einstein

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C. J.J Thomson

D. C.R.T Wilson

Ans: C

94. Which of the following outstanding contribution in Physics is associated

with the Scientist Newton?
A. Universal gravitational law

B. Laws of Motion

C. Discovery of Calculus

D. All of the above

Ans: D

95. What was the contribution of the Scientist A. Fermi in Physics?

A. Identification of artificial radioactive elements

B. Law of electric resistance

C. Thermal effect of electric current

D. All of the above

Ans: A

96. What is the contribution of the Scientist Ottohan and Stassman in

Physics?
A. Nuclear Fusion

B. Nuclear Fission

C. Dynamite

D. None of the above

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Ans: B

97. Which of the following remarkable contribution in Physics is associated

with the Scientist Thels?
A. Photo

B. Volta

C. Static Electricity

D. Pauli

Ans: C

98. Which of the following spectacular contribution in Physics is associated

with the Scientist Millikan?
A. Electronic Charge

B. Neutrino

C. Both A & B

D. All of the above

Ans: A

99. Which of the following is the major contribution in Physics is associated

with the Scientist Newton?
A. Law of Cooling

B. Thermionic Emission

C. Both A & B

D. All of the above

Ans: A

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100. Which of the followingis the contribution in Physics is associated with
the Scientist Henric Hertz?
A. Electromagnetic Wave

B. Photo

C. Mica Sheet

D. Thermionic Emission

Ans: A

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 200 Economy Important Questions
PART A

1. Which is the oldest stock exchange in the world? Amsterdam Stock Echange

2. Taxation and the government’s expenditure policy are dealt under

under which policy? Fiscal Policy

3. If the price of an inferior good falls, what about its demand? Remains
Constant

4. Which type of unemployment mostly found in India? Disguised

Unemployment

5. Which is the largest Public Sector Bank in India? State Bank of India

6. What is the main source of revenue to meet different expenditures? Internal

Borrowings

7. Bouncing of cheques has become an offence. What is the punishment for the
same? 6 months imprisonment

8. Who wrote the book ‘Planned Economy for India’? M. Visvesvaraya

9. Which is the oldest Development Financial Institution of India? IFCI

10. When was EXIM Bank set-up? 1982

11. Which is the ‘Slack Season’ in the Indian Economy? January-June

12. To meet the need of whom, the concept of Land Development Bank
has been developed? Farmers

13. When was the Rolling plan designed? 1978-83

14. Which country is the largest debtor of UNO? U. S.

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15. Which was first Commercial Bank of India? Hindustan Bank

16. Participatory Notes (PNs) are associated with which investors? Foreign
Institutional Investments

17. A new private bank is established under which act? Companies Act 1956

18. How many country are represented in International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
189

19. In which plan was the objective of self-reliance and zero net foreign aid
was declared? Fourth 5 year plan

20. On which date a Bank publishes its balance sheet ? 31st march

21. How many banks were nationalized in 1969? 14

22. In April 1980 how many banks were nationalized? Six

23. When was decimal coinage introduced in India? 1957

24. One rupee notes contain the signature of__? Finance Secretary, GOI

25. Which is treated as artificial currency? SDR

26. Companies pay corporation tax on their__? Incomes

27. What was the earlier name of the WTO? GATT

28. If saving exceeds investment , what will be the effect on national

income__? Remains constant

29. Which bank is the Banker of the Banks? RBI

30. For international payments, to which currency is the Indian

currency linked? American Dollars

31. Temporary tax levied to obtain additional revenue is called__? Fee

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32. Which European country is the guarantor of Bank of Central
African States? France

33. When was Consumer Protection Act(COPRA) passed? 1986

34. The Money Order system in India was introduced in the year__? 1880

35. Investment in public works is known as__? Capital Expenditure

36. Where are the headquarters of IMF and World Bank located? Both
Washington DC

37. Who appoints Banking Ombudsman? RBI

38. In which year was Railway Budget in India separated from general budget?
1924

39. Which is the best measure of economic growth of a country? GNP

40. Economic growth is usually coupled with__? Inflation

41. CENVAT is associated with__? Rate of Indirect Tax

42. Gilt-edged means__? Market of govt. securities

43. What is the effect of Deficit financing? Inflation

44. Who was the first Indian Governor of RBI? Shachindra Ray

45. The principal sources of revenue to the State Government in India is__?
Sales Tax

46. Indias Economic Summit was held in December 1999, in__? New Delhi

47. The main source of National Income in India is__? Agricultural Sector

48. A crossed cheque is one, which can be encashed only at which bank? SBI

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49. The currency convertibility concept in its original form originated in?
Bretton Woods Agreement

50. States earn maximum revenue through? Commercial Taxes

51. Short-term finance is usually for a period ranging up to? 12 months

52. The philosophy of 'Laissez-faire' is associated with ? Industrial States

53. Where in Indian are coins minted ? Mumbai, Calcutta & Hyderabad

54. In India, in which year was the service tax first introduced? 1994

55. National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS)came into force

in which year? 2006

56. When did India become a member of international Monetary Fund (IMF)?
1947

57. Who coined the term ‘Hindu rate of growth’ for Indian Economy ? Raj
Krishna

58. When was the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development (NABARD) set up? 1982

59. Where are the headquarters of United Nations Conference on Trade

and Development (UNCTAD) ? Geneva

60. Who is called the ‘Father of Economics’? Adam Smith

61. Which sector of Indian Economy has shown remarkable expansion

during the last decade ? Tertiary Sector

62. Which state has the lowest per capita income? Bihar

63. World Development Report is an annual publication of__? International

Bank of Reconstruction & Development

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64. The slogan of ‘Garibi Hatao’ (Remove Poverty) was launched in which
FYP? 4th FYP

65. ‘Golden Handshake Scheme’ is associated with__? Voluntary Retirement

66. Who has presented the Union Budget of India maximum number of times?
Morarji Desai

67. Who is the chairman of 14th Finance Commission? Y. V. Reddy

68. The second Five Year plan was based on_? Mahalanobis model

69. The first devaluation of Indian currency took place in which year ? 1949

70. VAT has been introduced on the recommendation of which commission? L.

K. Jha Commission

71. In which year was Minimum inflation in post economic reform? 1999-2000

72. Who was the Chairman of the first Finance Commission? K. C. Niyogi

73. Those goods which have positive relationship between price and
quantity demanded are called as ....? Giffen Goods

74. On July 12, 1982, the ARDC was merged into__? NABARD

75. Which Indian got Nobel Prize for Economics? Amartya Sen

76. National Income estimates in India is prepared by __? Central Statistical

Organization

77. National Rural Development Institute is situated at__? Hyderabad

78. Name the oldest insurance company of India? Oriental Life

Insurance company

79. Excise duty is a tax levied on the__? Production of goods

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80. Which state stands first in the length of roads in the country? Maharashtra

81. Deficit financing means that the government borrows money from the__?
RBI

82. “Bad money (if not limited in quantity ) drives good money out
of circulation.” is the law known as__? Gresham's law

83. The ""Garibi Hatao"" slogan was coined in__? 1971

84. When was the Reserve Bank of India taken over by the Government? 1948

85. The difference between GNP & GDP is__? Capital Depreciation

86. 'Brent ' Index is associated with __? Crude oil prices

87. The Foreign Exchange Management Act(FEMA) was passed in which year?
1999

88. Which plan is also known as 'Gadgil Yojana'? 3rd FYP

89. Who presented the first union budget of Independent India? RK

Shanmukham Chetty

90. Who is considered the guardian of the Public Purse? CAG

91. In which year Swarn Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna came into being? 1st
April 1999

92. Where is the headquarter of East African Development Bank? Uganda

93. In which year Statutory Liquidity Ratio was first imposed on banks? 1949

94. The Unclaimed deposits are those deposits which haven’t been operated for
how many years? 10 years or more

95. When a person has a saving account in the bank , the bank assumes
the position of ___? Debtor

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96. Which is the largest Private Sector Bank in India? HDFC Bank

97. Which ministry formulates fiscal policy? Finance Ministry

98. In which year SIDBI was established? 1990

99. What is the highest denomination of currency notes in circulation as

legal tender in India at present? ₹ 2000

100. Which is the oldest stock exchange in Asia? Bombay Stock Exchange

PART B

1. Who fixes the poverty line ?

a) Governement
b) Lok sabha
c) Rajya sabha
d) Planning Commision
Answer :
Option D

2. Which is major rubber producing state in India ?

a) West Bengal
b) Gujrat
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Kerala
Answer :
Option D

3. Which industry is the largest ?

a) Handloom
b) Sports
c) Music
d) Textile
Answer :
Option D

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Explanation:
Textile industry is the largest industry in the country. The share of Textile and
clothing in total industrial production is approx 14%. It provides employment to
more than 350 lakh people.

4. In India, Inflation measured by the :

a) National Income Deflation
b) Wholesale Price Index number
c) Consumer Price Index
d) None of above
Answer :
Option C

5. Devaluation of currency leads to ?

a) fall in domestic prices
b) increase in domestic prices
c) cant be predicted
d) None of above
Answer :
Option B

6. First five year plan in India was from

a) 1947 - 1952
b) 1949 - 1954
c) 1950 - 1955
d) 1951 - 1956
Answer :
Option D

7. The increase in oil seeds production was due to ?

a) White revolution
b) Yellow revolution
c) Green revolution
d) Brown revolution
Answer :
Option B

8. When community development programme (CDP) started ?

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 a) 1952
b) 1953
c) 1954
d) 1955
Answer :
Option A

9. Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) was established in :

a) 1946
b) 1947
c) 1948
d) 1949
Answer :
Option C
Explanation:
Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) was established in 1948,
Its main functions are Project Finance and Promotional services.

10. On which position India is, if we talk about production of vegetables ?

a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
Answer :
Option B
Explanation:
On First it is China.

11. Approx __ % of Indian population is still Agriculturist.

a) 46%
b) 50%
c) 58%
d) 64%
Answer :
Option C

12. Which state has the highest Per Capita Income in India ?
a) Delhi

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 b) Punjab
c) Bihar
d) West Bengal
Answer :
Option B

13. Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI) was

established in :
a) 1989
b) 1990
c) 1991
d) 1992
Answer :
Option C

14. Which is the most important source of income for Government of India ?
a) Interest
b) Licence fee
c) Income tax
d) Excise duty
Answer :
Option D

15. What is NASO ?

a) National Agriculture Science Organisation
b) National Agriculture Study Organisation
c) National Auto Science Organisation
d) National Sample Survey Organisation
Answer :
Option D

16. Mahila Samridhi Yojana started in ?

a) 1992
b) 1993
c) 1994
d) 1995
Answer :
Option B

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Explanation:
Mahila Samridhi Yojana started on 2 October, 1993.

17. General Insurance Corporation (GIC) was established in ?

a) 1971
b) 1972
c) 1973
d) 1974
Answer :
Option B
Explanation:
General Insurance Corporation (GIC) was established in November 1972.

18. First Regional Rural Bank came into existence in,

a) 1973
b) 1974
c) 1975
d) 1976
Answer :
Option C
Explanation:
First Rural Bank was established on 2nd Oct 1975.

19. The data of estimation of India's National income is issued by ?

a) Planning Commision
b) National Data Center
c) Central Statistical Organsation
d) None of above
Answer :
Option C

20. The progress in increase of fish production was called

a) Yellow revolution
b) White revolution
c) Brown revolution
d) Blue revolution
Answer :
Option D

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21. National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) was established in
a) 1947
b) 1948
c) 1949
d) 1950
Answer :
Option D

22. When was new rupee symbol was selected by Union Cabinet ?
a) July 10, 2010
b) July 15, 2010
c) July 10, 2011
d) July 15, 2011
Answer :
Option F

23. Banking regulation act was passed in ?

a) 1947
b) 1948
c) 1949
d) 1950
Answer :
Option C

24. What is FEMA ?

a) First Exchange Management Act
b) Foreign Exchequer Management Act
c) Foreign Exchange Management Act
d) Foreign Evaluation Management Act
Answer :
Option C
Explanation:
FEMA is Foreign Exchange Management Act, it came into force in July 2000.
It replaced Foreign Exchange Regulation Act 1973.

25. "Blue sky laws" is a term used for laws which are :
a) Only for personal interest of a political party.

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 b) Which cheaters can use to fraud public.
c) Which are there to protect public from securities frauds.
d) Which are created in hurry.
Answer :
Option D

26. India stands first in production of pulses ?

a) True
b) False
Answer :
Option A

27. Imperial Bank of India was old name of ?

a) State Bank of India
b) United Bank of India
c) Central Bank of India
d) Punjab National Bank
Answer :
Option A

28. The concept of Economic Planning in India is derived from ?

a) USA
b) UK
c) Australia
d) Russia
Answer :
Option D

29. Debenture holders of a company are its ?

a) Directors
b) Shareholders
c) Debitors
d) Creditors
Answer :
Option D

30. Deficit financing means that the government borrows money from the ?
a) Revenue Department

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 b) World Bank
c) RBI
d) None of above
Answer :
Option C

31. What is Autarchy ?

a) Gradual increase of economy.
b) Gradual decline of economy.
c) Self sufficiency and self reliance of economy.
d) Dependence of economy on external factors.
Answer :
Option C

32. Kudremukh Iron Ore project is in the state of

a) Kerala
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Gujrat
d) Karnataka
Answer :
Option D

33. Which is not a Kharif Crop ?

a) Jowar
b) Maize
c) Groundnut
d) Wheat
Answer :
Option D

34. Iron and steel industry started in India in the year ?

a) 1855
b) 1860
c) 1865
d) 1870
Answer :
Option D
Explanation:

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Iron and steel industry started in India in the year 1870, when Bengal Iron
Works company established its plant in Kulti, West Bengal.

35. Planning Commission was constituted on ?

a) 15 March, 1948
b) 15 March, 1949
c) 15 March, 1950
d) 15 March, 1951
Answer :
Option C
Explanation:
The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of this Commission.

36. Which one among the following formulates the fiscal policy in India ?
a) Planning Commission
b) Finance Commission
c) The Reserve Bank of India
d) Ministry of Finance
Answer :
Option D

37. Which of the following is not viewed as a national debt ?

a) National Saving Certificate
b) Provident Fund
c) Life Insurance Policies
d) Long-term Government Bonds
Answer :
Option A

38. Deficit financing implies :

a) printing new currency notes
b) public revenue in excess of public expenditure
c) public expenditure in excess of public revenue
d) replacing new currency with worn out currency
Answer :
Option C

39. Who has given "Big Push Theory" ?

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 a) R. Rodan
b) Jack Hamilton
c) Amritya Sen
d) Dr. Abhishek Mathur
Answer :
Option A

40. The mineral in which India depends largely on imports is

a) Iron Ore
b) Bauxite
c) Mica
d) Mercury
Answer :
Option D

41. Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India was established in ?

a) 1955
b) 1956
c) 1957
d) 1958
Answer :
Option B
Explanation:
Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India was established in September 1956.

42. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was
established in ?
a) 1980
b) 1981
c) 1982
d) 1983
Answer :
Option C

43. India is the largest milk producing country in the world .

a) True
b) False
Answer :

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Option A

44. Who was the winner of new Rupee symbol contest ?

a) S Ravi Chandra
b) Vijay Singh
c) Anil Agnihotri
d) D Udaya Kumar
Answer :
Option D

45. Gilt-edged market means

a) market of government securities
b) bullion market
c) market dealing with metals
d) market dealing with exports
Answer :
Option A

46. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) was established in :

a) 1986
b) 1987
c) 1988
d) 1989
Answer :
Option D
Explanation:
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) was established in 1989.
Its main function is to provide assistance to small scale industries through state
finance corporations, state industrial development corporations, commercial
banks etc.

47. First five year plan was based on ?

a) Herold -Domar Model
b) P.C. Mahalanobis Model
c) Both of above
d) None of above
Answer :
Option A

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Explanation:
Second five year plan (1956-1961) was based on P.C. Mahalanobis Model.

48. Which one of the following is the banker of the banks ?

a) State Bank of India
b) Reserve Bank of India
c) Punab National bank
d) Central Bank of India
Answer :
Option B

49. "The Future of India" book is written by

a) Amritya Sen
b) Bimal Jalan
c) Abhishek Nayar
d) Chetan Bhagat
Answer :
Option B

50. Which five year plan is also known as "Gadgil Yojana" ?

a) Second Five Year Plan
b) Third Five Year Plan
c) Fourth Five Year Plan
d) Fifth Five Year Plan
Answer :
Option B

51. The first bank managed by Indians was ?

a) Oudh Bank
b) Punab National Bank
c) Oriental Bank of Commerce
d) State Bank of India
Answer :
Option A

52. Export-Import bank of India was established in ?

a) 1981
b) 1982

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 c) 1983
d) 1984
Answer :
Option B

53. The Executive head of a state Government is ?

a) Chief Justice of High Court
b) The Governor
c) Chief Minister
d) Prime Minister
Answer :
Option B

54. Balance sheet shows

a) Assets
b) Liabilities
c) Both assets and liabilities
d) Neither of them
Answer :
Option C

55. What is the mainstay of Indian economy ?

a) Manufacturing
b) Business
c) Public sector
d) Agriculture
Answer :
Option D

56. Which state is the biggest tea producer in the country ?

a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Sikkim
c) Assam
d) West Bengal
Answer :
Option C

57. Gross domestic capital formation is defined as

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 a) flow of expenditure devoted to increased or maintaining of the capital
stock
b) expenditure incurred on physical assets only
c) production exceeding demand
d) net addition to stock after depreciation
Answer :
Option D

58. States earn maximum revenue through

a) Tax Fines
b) Customs
c) License sales
d) Commercial taxes
Answer :
Option D

59. Green Revolution started in

a) 1964-65
b) 1965-66
c) 1966-67
d) 1967-68
Answer :
Option C

60. National Development Council was constituted on

2 August, 1952
6 August, 1952
8 August, 1952
12 August, 1952
Answer :
Option B

61. Which Indian got Nobel Prize for Economics ?

a) Teressa
b) Amarthiya Sen
c) C.V.Raman
d) None of above
Answer :

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Option B

62. National Housing Bank (NHB) was established in ?

a) 1988
b) 1989
c) 1990
d) 1991
Answer :
Option E
Explanation:
Its main function is to develop housing finance in the country.

63. India holds the third position in production of Sugar cane.

a) True
b) False
Answer :
Option B
Explanation:
India holds the first position in production of Sugar cane and the sugar.

64. India is largest producer of Sponge Iron in the world ?

a) True
b) False
Answer :
Option A
Explanation:
When ever there is question of True and False, most of times its answer is True,
why so? :)

65. Reserve bank of India was established on

a) 1st April, 1935
b) 1st April, 1936
c) 1st April, 1937
d) 1st April, 1938
Answer :
Option A
Explanation:

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Reserve bank of India was established on 1st April, 1935. It was nationalized on
1st January, 1949.

66. India earns maximum foreign exchange by the export of ?

a) Iron
b) Handloom
c) Texttiles
d) Tea
Answer :
Option D

67. National Rural Employment Programme started in ?

a) 2006
b) 2005
c) 2003
d) 2007
Answer :
Option A

68. In India paper currency started in ?

a) 1860
b) 1861
c) 1862
d) 1863
Answer :
Option B

69. International Monetary Fund (IMF) was established on :

a) 25 September, 1944
b) 27 December, 1944
c) 25 September, 1945
d) 27 December, 1945
Answer :
Option D

70. Sales Tax is

a) Direct Tax
b) Indirect Tax

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 c) Tax imposed by central government
d) Tax imposed by state government
Answer :
Option B
Explanation:
Direct Taxes are : Income Tax, Property Tax, Gift Tax etc.
Indirect Taxes are : Sales Tax, Excise Tax, Custom Duty etc.

71. Who is known as father of economics ?

a) Adam Smith
b) Max Muller
c) Joy Chaterjee
d) Amritya Sen
Answer :
Option A

72. Abid Husain Committee is related to ?

a) Reform in taxes
b) Reform in government projects
c) Reform in small industries
d) Reform in middle level industries
Answer :
Option C

73. The head quarters of world trade organisation is in

a) Montreal
b) Geneva
c) New jersey
d) Seatle
Answer :
Option B

74. What is term Hot Money used for ?

a) black money
b) white money
c) a money which is hard to come but easy to go
d) a money which comes easily and goes easily too

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Answer :
Option D

75. The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between their cash in hand
and total assets. This is called ?
a) Statutory Liquid Ratio
b) Cash Reserve Ratio
c) Liquid Ratio
d) Statutory Ratio
Answer :
Option A

76. How much population is living below poverty line in India ?

a) Approx 24%
b) Approx 25%
c) Approx 26%
d) Approx 27%
Answer :
Option C

77. Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) established in

a) 1964
b) 1965
c) 1966
d) 1967
Answer :
Option A

78. The bank which has the highest number of branches in the world is ?
a) State Bank of India
b) RBS
c) London Bank
d) Canara Bank
Answer :
Option A

79. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana started in ?

a) 1999

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 b) 2000
c) 2001
d) 2002
Answer :
Option B
Explanation:
It was started to fulfil the basic requirements of rural areas.

80. The best indicator of economic development of any country is ?

a) Its agriculture
b) Its transport
c) Its gross production
d) Its per capita income
Answer :
Option D

81. National Rural Development Institute is situated at ?

a) Delhi
b) Shimla
c) Hyderabad
d) Mumbai
Answer :
Option C

82. Who have written the book "Capital and Growth" ?

A. R. Rodon
Hicks
Adam Smith
Marshall
Answer :
Option B

83. Exise duty is imposed on

a) Sale of an item
b) Production of an item
c) Consumption of an item
d) All of above
Answer :

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Option B
Explanation:
Exise duty is imposed on Production of an item so it is a commodity tax.

84. Which five year plan focused on "Growth with social justice and equity".
a) Ninth Five Year Plan
b) Eight Five Year Plan
c) Seventh Five Year Plan
d) Sixth Five Year Plan
Answer :
Option A

85. Short-term finance is usually for a period ranging up to

a) 6 months
b) 1 Year
c) 2 Years
d) 5 Years
Answer :
Option B

86. Contribution of agriculture to Gross National Product is approximately ?

a) 14%
b) 15%
c) 16.5%
d) 17.5%
Answer :
Option D

87. In the state of India, the State Financial Corporation have given assistance
mainly to develop
a) Irrigation projects
b) small-scale industries
c) medium-scale industries
d) medium and small-scale industries
Answer :
Option D

88. National Agriculture Insurance Scheme was implemented on

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 a) Oct. 1997
b) Oct. 1998
c) Oct. 1999
d) Oct. 2000
Answer :
Option C

89. National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme started in ?

a) 2005
b) 2006
c) 2007
d) 2008
Answer :
Option B
Explanation:
It started on 2nd Feb, 2006.
Govt. of India renamed it to Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act(MNERGA) on 2nd October, 2009.

90. Who was the father of Operation Flood ?

a) Dr. Norman Borlaug
b) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
c) Dr. Verghese Kurien
d) Dr. William Gande
Answer :
Option C
Explanation:
The "Operation flood" was the largest integrated dairy development programme
of the world. It was started by National dairy development board in 1970.

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 100 Important Geography Questions

PART A

1. Which type of forest covers the maximum area in India? Tropical Moist
Deciduous Forest

2. What is the term as the drainage pattern developed on folded

sedimentary rocks? Trellis

3. Which ecosystem covers the largest area of the earth’s surface? Marine
Ecosystem

4. What percentage of insolation is received by the earth’s surface? 47%

5. What type of climate is best suited for horticulture? Mediterranean

6. Which city is associated with the river Mekong? Phnom-Penh

7. Which is the busiest oceanic trade route? North Atlantic Route

8. What is the average salinity of sea water? 3.50%

9. The winds which never change their direction are called? Planetary Winds

10. Who discovered South Pole? Amundsen

11. The Karakoram Highway connects which pairs of countries? China -

Pakistan

12. What is the most abundant metal in the earth’s crust? Aluminium

13. What is the most abundant element in the earth’s crust? Oxygen

14. After howmany years does Halley’s comet appear once in a period? 76 years

15. rainfall that occurs when wind rises up along a hill ? Orographic

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16. In which country are the broken hill famous for zinc and lead? Australia

17. Which is most prone to earthquakes? Young folded mountains

18. What is the length of India’s coastline? About 7500 Km

19. How many kms are represented by 10° of latitudes? 111 kms

20. Which is a global biodiversity hotspot in India? Western Ghats

21. Where are the islands of Seychelles located? Indian Ocean

22. Mangroove vegetation in India is most extensive in which forest?

Sundarbans

23. Suez Canal joins which two Sea? Red & Mediterranean Sea

24. Which biome has the highest species diversity? Tropical Rain Forests

25. Which country in Africa has luxurious tropical rain forests? Ivory Coast

26. Which crop requires continuous semiaquatic condition for cultivation? Rice

27. Where are a large number of species are found within a small unit of area?
Wet Evergreen Equatorial forests

28. Which mountain range stretches from Gujarat in west to Delhi in the north?
Aravallis

29. Which plate movement is responsible for the formation of mid-ocean ridge?
Divergent Movement

30. Which is the largest volcano crater in the world? Lake Toba

31. In India, how many States share the coastline? 9

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32. The tornadoes are very strong tropical cyclones originating in which sea?
Caribbean Sea

33. The Vindhyas belong to which class of mountains? Block mountains

34. Which is the World’s largest producer of wool? Australia

35. Which soil is also known as 'Regur' ? Black Soil

36. what is known as soil-free farming? Hydroponics

37. If it is 4 P.M. on Monday at 150°W, what will be the time at 150°E? 12

Noon on Tuesday

38. Dry winds (harmattan) blows in Sahara desert from? East to West

39. Which industry in India was worst affected because of the partition? Jute &
Cotton
40. What is exact time taken by the earth for single rotation on its own axis? 23
hrs 56 mins 4.09 sec

41. Because of which factor, clouds do not precipitate in deserts? Low Humidity

42. Which river crosses the equator twice? Congo

43. Under which climatic conditions do the laterite soils develop? Wet Tropical
Climate

44. Which is the most important factor in soil formation? Climate

45. The deepest surface depression on earth is ? Mariana Trench

46. The word “isoneph” represents the lines of equal....? Cloudiness

47. Country through which both Equator and Tropic of Capricorn pass? Brazil

48. What is the name of the soil, rich in calcium ? Pedocal

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49. Which lake is known as “honeymoon lake”? Lake Titicaca

50. Which country has maximum damage to forests been caused by acid rain?
Poland

51. Which country is situated geographically in America but politically a part of

Europe? Greenland

52. The fertile land between two rivers is called ? Doab

53. Which Strait separates Africa from Europe? Strait of Gibraltar

54. Which is the fastest growing tree? Eucalyptus

55. Which tree require minimum water for its growth? Babool

56. Which plain formed due to the weathering of lime stone? Karst Plains

57. To an astronaut, how does outer space appear? Black

58. Which river crosses tropic of Capricorn twice? Limpopo river

59. What is associated with a savanna climate? Scrub

60. Which kind of forests is found in silent valley of Kerala? Tropical Rain
Forests

61. Which is the largest island in the Indian Ocean? Madagascar

62. In how many time zones has the world been divided into? 24

63. Which soil is very hard to cultivate? Sandy soil

64. What separates Daman & Diya? Gulf of Khambat

65. Which connects the ocean floor level with the continent? Continental slope

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66. Port Blair - the capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is located in which
island? South Andaman

67. Which is the State with the largest area under waste land? Jammu &
Kashmir
68. Which crop are grain with the on set of monsoon & are harvested
in September-October? Kharif

69. Which river basin is called ‘Ruhr of India’? Damodar

70. Which is considered to have an adverse effect on Indian Monsoon? El Nino

71. Which is the longest inland waterways in the world? Mississippi river
system

72. In which latitudes are the seasonal contrasts maximum? Mid Latitudes

73. Which state in India is known as “Rice Bowl"? Andhra Pradesh

74. What are Doldrums? Tropical no wind belt

75. “Valley of flowers” is located in which state? Uttrakhand

76. Which is called ‘Herring Pond’? Atlantic ocean

77. What is the name of India’s southern tip? Indira Point

78. Lines joining places receiving equal amount of rain fall? Isohytes

79. What is the reason behind the declining climate of Maldives ? High
Population Density

80. Which place gets the least rainfall in India? Jodhpur

81. Which hill station is known as the “Queen of Satpura”? Panchmarhi

82. Which are the two volcanic islands in the Indian territory? Narcoam &
Barren

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83. Which is the longest national highway? NH 7

84. India is divided into how many seismic zones according to the
earthquake zoning map? 4

85. In which State is the Guru Shikhar Peak located? Rajasthan

86. Which one is the longest river in India that flows entirely within India?
Godavari

87. Which lake has been formed due to tectonic activities? Wular lake

88. By what name is the Ganga known in Bangladesh? Padma

89. Which State produces maximum pulses in the country? Madhya Pradesh

90. Which is the largest fresh water lake in the world? Lake Superior

91. Where is Sargasso sea located? North Atlantic Ocean

92. Which State has the largest coastline in India? Gujarat

93. Duncan Passage is located between which regions? South & Little Andaman

94. The Sivasamudram Falls is on which river? Cauvery

95. Which Warm dry wind blows down the east slopes of Rockies? Chinook

96. Which planet is known as veiled planet? Venus

97. Which Strait which separates Asia from North America? Bering strait

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98. How many islands of India are located in the Bay of Bengal? 204

99. What happens when a sudden fall in the barometric reading? Storm

100. Which country is the largest producer of Bauxite? Australia

PART B

Q.1 The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric project, completed with the help of
Japan, is on the river.
(A) Ganga
(B) Cauvery
(C Godavari
(D) Narmada
Ans . C

Q.2 The percentage of irrigated land in India is about.

(A) 45
(B) 65
(C) 35
(D) 25
Ans . C

Q.3 The southernmost point of peninsular India, that is, Kanyakumari, is

(A) north of Tropic of Cancer
(B) south of the Equator
(C) south of the Capricorn
(D) north of the Equator
Ans . D

Q.4 The pass located at the southern end of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is
called
(A) the Palghat gap
(B) the Bhorghat pass
(C) the Thalgat pass

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(D) the Bolan pass
Ans . A

5. Which of the following factors are responsible for the rapid growth of sugar
production in south India as compared to north India?
I.Higher per acre field of sugarcane
II.Higher sucrose content of sugarcane
III.Lower labour cost
IV.Longer crushing period
(A) I and II
(B) I, II and III
(C) I, III and IV
(D) I, II and IV
Ans . D

6.The principal copper deposits of India lie in which of the following places?
(A) Hazaribag and Singbhum of Bihar
(B) Khetri and Daribo areas of Rajasthan
(C) Anantapur in Andhra Pradesh
(D) Siwaliks in Uttar Pradesh and in Karnataka
Ans . A

7.Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?

I.It is largely practiced in Assam
II.It is referred to as 'slash and burn' technique
III.In it, the fertility is exhausted in a few years
(A) I, II and III
(B) II and III
(C) I and II
(D) I and III
Ans . A

8.The Yarlung Zangbo River, in India, is known as

(A) Ganga
(B) Indus
(C) Brahmaputra
(D) Mahanadi
Ans . C

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9.The Salal Project is on the river
(A) Chenab
(B) Jhelum
(C) Ravi
(D) Sutlej
Ans . A

Q.10 The only zone in the country that produces gold is also rich in iron is
(A) North-eastern zone
(B) North-western zone
(C) Southern zone
(D) None of the above
Ans . C

Q.11 The percentage of earth surface covered by India is

(A) 2.4
(B) 3.4
(C) 4.4
(D) 5.4
Ans . A

Q.12 Which of the following is/are the major factor/factors responsible for the
monsoon type of climate in India?
I.Location
II.Thermal contrast
III.Upper air circulation
IVInter-tropical convergence zone
(A) I
(B) II, III
(C) II, III and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV
Ans . D

Q.13 The present forest area of India, according to satellite data, is

(A) increasing
(B) decreasing
(C) static

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(D) decreasing in open forest area but increasing in closed forest area
Ans . B

Q.14 The India's highest annual rainfall is reported at

(A) Namchi, Sikkim
(B) Churu, Rajasthan
(C) Mawsynram, Meghalaya
(D) Chamba, Himachal Pradesh
Ans . C

Q.15 The refineries are Mathura, Digboi and Panipat are set up by
(A) Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.
(B) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd.
(C) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd.
(D) Crude Distillation unit of Madras Refineries Ltd.
Ans . A

Q.16 What is the predominant type of Indian agriculture?

(A) Commercial agriculture
(B) Extensive agriculture
(C) plantation agriculture
(D) subsistence agriculture
Ans . D

Q.17 The Radcliffe line is a boundary between

(A) India and Pakistan
(B) India and China
(C) India and Myanmar
(D) India and Afghanistan
Ans . A

Q.18 Which of the following has a potential for the harnessing of tidal energy in
India?
(A) Gulf of Cambay
(B) Gulf of Mannar
(C) Backwaters of Kerala
(D) Chilka lake
Ans . A

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Q.19 The typical area of sal forest in the Indian peninsular upland occurs
(A) on the western ghats
(B) between the Tapti and the Narmada
(C) to the north-east of the Godavari
(D) on the Malwa plateau
Ans . D

Q.20 The state having the largest area of forest cover in India is
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Haryana
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Assam
Ans . C

Q. 21 The year ____ is called a Great Divide in the demographic history of

India.
A.1901
B.1921
C.1941
D.1951
Ans . B

Q.22.The only private sector refinery set up by Reliance Petroleum Ltd. is

located at
A.Guwahati
B.Jamnagar
C.Mumbai
D.Chennai
Ans . B

Q.23 The only state in India that produces saffron is

A.Assam
B.Himachal Pradesh
C.Jammu and Kashmir
D.Meghalaya
Ans . C

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Q.24.Three important rivers of the Indian subcontinent have their sources near
the Mansarovar Lake in the Great Himalayas. These rivers are
A.Indus, Jhelum, and Sutlej
B.Brahmaputra, Sutlej, and Yamuna
C.Brahmaputra, Indus, and Sutlej
D.Jhelum, Sutlej, and Yamuna
Ans . C

Q.25 The zonal soil type of peninsular India belongs to

A.red soils
B.yellow soils
C.black soils
D.older alluvium
Ans . A

Q.26 The most plausible explanation for the location of the Thar desert in
western India is
A.the obstruction caused by the Aravalis to the rain-bearing wind that proceeds
to the Ganga Valley
B.the evaporation of moisture from heat
C.the absence of mountains to the north of Rajasthan to cause orographic
rainfall in it
D.that the moisture carried by the South-west monsoon is driven away by the
dry upper air current
Ans . C

Q.27 The northern boundary of the peninsular plateau of Indian runs parallel to
the Ganga and the Yamuna from Rajmahal hills to a point near
A.Allahabad
B.Delhi
C.Gwalior
D.Jaipur
Ans . B

Q.28 Which of the following food grain crops occupies the largest part of the
cropped area in India?
A.Barley and maize
B.Jowar and bajra

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C.Rice
D.Wheat
Ans . C

Q.29 The number of major languages, recognized in the Indian Union as official
language, are
A.15
B.22
C.12
D.9
Ans . B

Q.30 The oldest rocks in India are reported from

A.Dharwar region, Karnataka
B.Aravalli range, Rajasthan
C.Vindhyan range, Madhya Pradesh
D.Siwalik range, Punjab
Ans . A

Q.31 Which of the following groups of rivers originate from the Himachal
mountains?
A.Beas, Ravi, and Chenab
B.Ravi, Chenab, and Jhelum
C.Sutlej, Beas, and Ravi
D.Sutlej, Ravi, and Jhelum
Ans . A

Q.32 Which of the following groups of states have the largest deposits of iron
ore?
A.Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
B.Bihar and Orissa
C.Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
D.West Bengal and Assam
Ans . B

Q.33 Which of the following groups of states have the largest deposits of iron
ore?
A.Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka

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B.Bihar and Orissa
C.Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
D.West Bengal and Assam
Ans . B

Q.34 Which atomic power station in India is built completely indigenously?

A.Kalpakkam
B.Narora
C.Rawat Bhata
D.Tarapore
Ans . A

Q.35 The south-west monsoon contributes ____ of the total rain in India.
A.86%
B.50%
C.22%
D.100%
Ans . A

Q.36 The Shimla Convention is an agreement that sets

A.Shimla as a tourist spot
B.Shimla as the capital of Himachal Pradesh
C.boundary between India and Tibet
D.None of the above
Ans . C

Q.37 Which of the following events took place in the Cenozoic era?
A.Formation of the Rockies, India collides with Asia and the formation of the
Himalayas and the Alps
B.Formation of the Appalachians and central European mountains
C.Splitting of India from Antarctic
D.Breaking up of Pangaea
Ans . A

Q.38 The oldest oil field in India is the ____ field, in ____
A.Anleshwar, Gujarat
B.Bombay High, Maharashtra
C.Nawagam, Gujarat

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D.Digboi, Assam
Ans . D

Q.39 Unlike other parts of the Indian Coast, fishing industry has not developed
along the Saurashtra coast because
A.there are few indentions suitable for fishing
B.of overwhelming dependence on agriculture and animal husbandary
C.the sea water is relatively more saline
D.of industrial development leading to widespread pollution of coastal area
Ans . B

Q.40 The mountain building in the Himalayas began

A.about 45 million years ago
B.when the continental plates of India and Eurasia converged on each other
C.both (a) and (b)
D.None of the above
Ans . C

41. Which of the planets is nearest to the earth?

A. Jupiter
B. Venus
C. Mercury
D. Mars
Ans . B

42. Which one of the following indian states is the largest producer of natural
rubber?
A. Tamilnadu
B. Kerala
C. Assam
D. Andhra Pradesh
Ans . B

43. Which palnet is known as the Earth’s twin?

A. Venus
B. Mars
C. Uranus
D. Neptune

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Ans . A

44. There is rainfall in winter in Tamil Nadu due to the following reasons
A. South-West Monsoon
B. North-East Monsoon
C. Tropical cost Current
D. None of these
Ans . B

45. Diesel locomotives are manufactured at

A. Kapurthala
B. Perambur
C. Varanasi
D. Jamshedpur
Ans . C

46. The second largest river basin in india is of the river

A. Brahmaputra
B. Narmada
C. Krishna
D. Godavari
Ans . D

47. Which one of the following indian states is the largest producer of natural
rubber?
A. Tamilnadu
B. Kerala
C. Assam
D. Andhra Pradesh
Ans . B

48. The country having the largest area under tea cultivation is
A. Brazil
B. Russia
C. Bangladesh
D. India
Ans . D

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49. After textile, the second largest industry of India is
A. Sugar
B. Jute
C. Cement
D. None of these
Ans . A

50. Maximum length of border of which of the following states is adjacent to

that of other States ?
A. Bihar
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Rajasthan
D. Madhya Pradesh
Ans . B

51. India’s first jute mill was established in 1854 in _________.

A) Kapurthala
B) Bihar
C) Rishra
D) Nikodar

52. Which river is also known by the name ‘Sorrow of Bengal’ as it gets
flooded often-causing damage?
A) Damodar
B) Kamodar
C) Yamuna
D) Jhatta

53. The Nagarjuna Sagar project is constructed on _______ River.

A) Kaveri
B) Brahmputra
C) Krishna
D) Ganga

54. Kanchenjunga is situated in which state?

A) HP
B) Bangladesh
C) Panchkula

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D) Sikkim

55. Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary is located in _________.

A) Punjab
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Karnataka
D) Solan

56. Karnataka is the largest producer of coffee in India. (T/F)

A) True
B) False

57. On which river bank Fort William is located in Kolkata.

A) Chenab
B) Hooghly
C) Ganga
D) Yamuna

58. Which project is built on the Chenab River?

A) Dalal
B) Malal
C) Salal
D) Kalal

59. Which one is the oldest oil field in India?

A) Digboi in Assam
B) Bombay High
C) Mangala Area
D) None of Above

60. Mana Pass is located within Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve in

_________.
A) Kalka
B) UP
C) Haryana
D) Uttarakhand

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61. The Name “India” is derived from Sindhu (Indus), which is a river in
the north-west. (T/F)
A) True
B) False

62. In which state Nanga Parbat peak is located.

A) Jammu and Kashmir
B) Haryana
C) Punjab
D) Nagalang

63. Which is the largest producer of rubber in India?

A) Chennai
B) Aurangabad
C) Himachal
D) Kerala

64. Which of the following is the largest mangrove forest not only in India,
but also in the world?
A) Pichavaram
B) Pitara
C) Sundarbans
D) Bhitarkanika

65. Find out of the following, which is also known as Jawaharlal Nehru
Port, is the largest container port in India.
A) Nal Seva
B) Nhava Seva
C) Kava
D) JTPT

66. Which was an economic system where lower castes performed various
functions for upper castes and in turn received grain?
A) Jajmani system
B) Yajmani system
C) Gajmani system
D) Sajmani system

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67. The Indian River Lagoon is a group of three lagoons: Mosquito Lagoon,
Banana River, and the Indian River. (T/F)
A) True
B) False

68. Name the Corridor, which was created in 1947 after the partition of
Bengal between India and Pakistan?
A) Anamalai
B) Siliguri
C) Jhansi
D) None of Above

69. Nathpa Jhakri hydel power project is located on __________ River.

(A) Ganga
(B) Brahmputra
(C) Satluj
(D) Yamuna

70. Which among the following is the second largest brackish–water lake or
lagoon in India?
A) Muthupet
B) Cherai beach lagoon
C) Sriharikota
D) Pulicat Lake

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 100 Important History Question
PART A

1. What was the script used in the earliest Tamil inscriptions? Brahmi

2. At which place did Mahatma Gandhi start his first Satyagraha in India?
Champaran

3. Who was the British PM at the time of Revolt of 1857? Lord Palmerston

4. Who is considered to be the father of Ayurveda? Charaka

5. Which Veda throws light on the beliefs and practices of the non-Aryans?
Atharvaveda

6. Who was called Zinda Pir (living saint) in Mughal India? Aurangzeb 10
What was Sher Shah's real name? Farid

7. Who earned the title of a ‘Liberator’? Ashoka

8. Who, was the Nanda ruler at the time of Alexander’s invasion? Dhana
Nanda

9. Which Chola ruler converted the Bay of Bengal into a ‘Chela lake’?
Rajendra I

10. During which reign was Kalidasa lived? Chandragupta II

11. The Gayatri Mantra contained in the Rigveda is dedicated to which deity?
Savitri

12. Which ruler was known as Amitraghata, the ‘destroyer of foes’? Bindusara

13. Under which sultan, Chalisa land increased considerably? Alauddin Khilji

14. Which Mughal emperor’s tomb is outside India? Jahangir

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15. Who was the first foreigner to invade India? Darius I

16. Who was the first governor of Portuguese in India? De Almeida

17. During which movement was ‘Mahatma’ added before Gandhiji’s name?
Champaran

18. Who is the Father of local self government in India? Lord Ripon

19. Who introduced Mansabdari system? Akbar

20. By whom was the Indian Independence League set up? Rasbihari Bose

21. On which river did Pulakesin II defeat Harshavardhana? Narmada

22. By whom was the city of Agra founded in 1504? Sikandar Lodhi

23. Who First deciphered Anglo-Maratha Adhikansh was Inscriptions ended by

which for the treaty? first time? James Salbai Prinsep

24. By whom was the practice of Sati was declared illegal? Lord William
Bentick

25. Which was the God of animal during the later Vedic period ? Rudra

26. From where sufi movement was started? Persia

27. By whom was the famous ‘Kirti Stambha’ at Chittor built? Rana Kumbha

28. Analects is sacred text of which religion? Confucius Religion

29. Which Rajput dynasties did not surrender to Akbar? Sisodiya

30. Which ruler at first assumed the title of ‘Hazrat-i-Ala’ and

afterwards ‘Sultan’? Sher Shah Suri

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31. Who is related to Sarvodaya and Bhoodan movement? Acharya
Vinoda Bhave

32. Which Sikh Guru called himself the ‘Sachcha Badshah’? Guru Hargobind

33. Which was capital of Raja Ranjit Singh of Punjab? Lahore

34. High Courts in Calcutta, Mumbai and Madras were established in which
year? 1861

35. With whom did Alberuni come to India? Mahmud of Ghazni

36. Who destroyed the group of Forty Nobles? Balban

37. Who was the daughter of Emperor Aurangzeb? Zebunnisa

38. Who was the first speaker of independent India? G.V. Mavlankar

39. Where was first Madarasa set up by the British in India? Calcutta

40. In India, where did the Dutch establish their earliest factory? Masulipatnam

41. Who was the writer of ‘the Indian War of Independence’? V.D. Savarkar

42. In which battle did Nadir shah defeated Muhammad Shah? Karnal

43. By whom was the first muslim invasion of India lead? Muhammad-
bin- Qasim

44. What is the subject matter of the Upanishads ? Religion

45. Who betrayed Siraj-ud-Daulah in the battle of Plassey in 1757? Mir Jafar

46. Who invited Babar to invade India? Alam Khan

47. Who attended the Second Round Table Conference as the representative of
the Congress? Mahatma Gandhi

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48. Who was the member of ‘Din-i-Ilahi’? King Birbal

49. With whom was the last opportunity to avoid the partition of India lost?
Cabinet Mission

50. Who is known as the ‘Indian Bismark’? Vallabh bhai Patel

51. Memories of Babur (Tuzk-e-Baburi) was written in which language? Turkish

52. Who organised Ashwamedha Yajna in Gupta Period? Samudragupta

53. Which group were related to ‘Tana Bhagat’ movement? Orann

54. Who was thrice elected President of the Indian National Congress? Dadabhai
Naoroji

55. A Fortgotten Empire’, written by the renowned historian Robert Sewell,

is about which empire? Vijayanagar Empire

56. Who proposed the name 'Pakistan'? Chaudhary Rahmat Ali

57. Who was the oldest British monarch to sit on the throne? Elizabeth II

58. By whom was the first estimate of national income in India made? Dadabhai
Naoroji

59. Where did ‘Parallel government’ form during Quit India movement? Baliya

60. During whose Viceroyalty, Queen Victoria was crowned with ‘Kaiser-i-
Hind’ in Delhi Durbar? Lord Lytton

61. Late Raja Ravi Verma, was an eminent figure in which field? Painting

62. Who stated that there was no slavery in India? Megasthenes

63. Who was the regent of Akbar? Bairam Khan

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64. By whom was the agitation against the partition of Bengal led?
Surendranath Banerjee

65. Who was the Mughal Emperor to have lifted the Jaziya on Hindus? Akbar

66. Who is known as ‘the father of India’s unrest’? Bal Gangadhar Tilak

67. Against whom did Gandhiji started Satyagraha movement in 1919 in protest?
Enactment of Rowlatt Act

68. Who was the first President of the Indian Trade Union Congress in 1920?
Lala Lajpat Rai

69. ‘Man-The Maker of His Own Destiny’ book was written by which person?
Swami Vivekanand

70. Who was the Governor General when the first Anglo- Burmese was started?
Lord Amherst

71. Who was the first Indian Hindi scholar of the Mughal period? Abdur Rahim

72. Quit India Movement started after the failure of which proposal? Cripps'
proposal

73. Who wrote the song ‘Saare Jahan Se Acha’? Muhammad Iqbal

74. When the East India Company came into existence, By whom was
England was ruled? Tudors

75. In which session was 'PURNA SWARAJ' adopted as it's goal by INC?
Lahore Session

76. Who first started the civil services in India? Lord Cornwallis

77. Which ruler had granted Diwani to the East India company? Shah Alam II

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78. Who named ‘Prayag Nagar’ as ‘Allahabad”? Akbar

79. Who passed the Indian university Act? Lord Curzon

80. By whom was Saka era founded? Kanishka

81. Which Peshwas was popularly known as Nana-Saheb? Balaji Baji Rao

82. Who was the President of the Indian National Congress, while
the Mountbatten Plan was accepted? J.B. Kripalani

83. Who first voiced the idea of a separate Muslim state in India? Mohammad
Iqbal

84. Who founded ‘Bharat Sevak Samaj’ (Servants of Indian Society)? Gopal
Krishna Gokhale

85. Who had the Revenue system during Akbar’s reign? Todarmal

86. Attack on ‘chittgaon arsenal’ was done in whose leadership? Surya Sen

87. Who is associated with Tashkent Agreement? Lal Bahadur Shastri

88. Who advocated the policy of abolishing princely states in free India? J.L.
Nehru

89. Who was responsible for the integration of Indian Princely States? Sardar
Patel

90. In which year was the Muslim league founded? 1906 98 In which year did
the Congress loose its monopoly of power in the States for the first time after
the elections? 1967

91. “Where there is no law, there is no freedom” who said this? John Locke

92. Who was the famous Indo-Greek king who embraced Buddhism? Menander

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PART B

1. Harihara Raya I who ruled the Vijaynagara Empire for the period 1336-
1356 belonged to which dynasty?
A. Sangama Dynasty

B. Saluva Dynasty

C. Tuluva Dynasty

D. Aravidu Dynasty

2. During the Gupta Empire, the term “UPARIKARA” was used for
A. An extra tax levied on all subjects.

B. Periodic supplies of fruits, firewood, flowers etc.

C. It was a voluntary offering by people to the king.

D. King’s customary share of the production normally amounting to 1/6th of the

production.

3. Tuluva Narasa who ruled the Vijaynagara Empire for the period 1491-
1503 belonged to which dynasty?
A. Sangama Dynasty

B. Saluva Dynasty

C. Tuluva Dynasty

D. Aravidu Dynasty

4. Chola Empire was divided into:

A. Mandalams, Nadu, Kurram & Valanadu

B. Mandalams, Nadu, Malkhand & Avanti

C. Mandalams, Bhoomi, Avanti &Valanadu

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D. Mandalams, Nadu, Kurram & Malkhand

5. For which period did Harihara Raya II of Sangma dynasty ruled the
Vijaynagara Empire?
A. 1446-1465

B. 1485-1491

C. 1491-1505

D. 1377-1404

6. The traces of Janapadas and Mahajanpadas are found in___?

A. Vedic text

B. Buddha text

C. Jaina text

D. All the above

7. Which one of the following was the capital of Kosala?

A. Sravasti

B. Shuktimati

C. Kaushambi

D. Indraprastha

8. Champa was the capital of which one of the following Mahajanapadas in

Ancient India?
A. Anga

B. Magadha

C. Vajji

D. Kasi

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9. Bimbisara was the founder of which one of the following dynasties?
A. Nanda

B. Haryanka

C. Maurya

D. Shunga

10. A Janapadin was the ___ of a janapada.

A. Servant

B. Minister

C. Army General

D. Ruler

Question Answer

1. A

2. A

3. C

4. A

5. D

6. D

7. A

8. A

9. B

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 10. D

11. Harihara Raya I who ruled the Vijaynagara Empire for the period
1336-1356 belonged to which dynasty?
A. Sangama Dynasty

B. Saluva Dynasty

C. Tuluva Dynasty

D. Aravidu Dynasty

12. During the Gupta Empire, the term “UPARIKARA” was used for
A. An extra tax levied on all subjects.

B. Periodic supplies of fruits, firewood, flowers etc.

C. It was a voluntary offering by people to the king.

D. King’s customary share of the production normally amounting to 1/6th of the

production.

13. Tuluva Narasa who ruled the Vijaynagara Empire for the period 1491-
1503 belonged to which dynasty?
A. Sangama Dynasty

B. Saluva Dynasty

C. Tuluva Dynasty

D. Aravidu Dynasty

14. Chola Empire was divided into:

A. Mandalams, Nadu, Kurram & Valanadu

B. Mandalams, Nadu, Malkhand & Avanti

C. Mandalams, Bhoomi, Avanti &Valanadu

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D. Mandalams, Nadu, Kurram & Malkhand

15. For which period did Harihara Raya II of Sangma dynasty ruled the
Vijaynagara Empire?
A. 1446-1465

B. 1485-1491

C. 1491-1505

D. 1377-1404

16. The traces of Janapadas and Mahajanpadas are found in___?

A. Vedic text

B. Buddha text

C. Jaina text

D. All the above

17. Which one of the following was the capital of Kosala?

A. Sravasti

B. Shuktimati

C. Kaushambi

D. Indraprastha

18. Champa was the capital of which one of the following Mahajanapadas
in Ancient India?
A. Anga

B. Magadha

C. Vajji

D. Kasi

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19. Bimbisara was the founder of which one of the following dynasties?
A. Nanda

B. Haryanka

C. Maurya

D. Shunga

20. A Janapadin was the ___ of a janapada.

A. Servant

B. Minister

C. Army General

D. Ruler

Question Answer
11. A
12. A
13. C
14. A
15. D
16. D
17. A
18. A
19. B
20. D

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21. Who is the excavator of Harappa site?
A. Daya ram sahni
B. Rakhal das Bannerji
C. Mackey
D. B.K. Thapar

22. Dholavira is situated at the bank of River:

A. Indus
B. Ravi
C. Luni
D. Ghaggar

23. What is true about Lothal - ancient site?

I. Lothal was an ancient port of Indus civilization.
II. It was excavated by the S.R. Rao
III. Currently it is situated in the Pakistan.

Code:
A. Only I , II
B. Only I, III
C. II, III
D. All of the above

24. Which is the correct chronology of the excavation of the site in the
Indus civilization?
I. Mohenjo-Daro
II. Chanhudaro
III. Harappa
IV. Lothal

Select the correct code:

A. III, I, II & IV
B. I, III, II & IV
C. II, I, III & IV
D. III, IV, II & I

25. In the Vedic age, who was the head of “Grama”?

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A. Kulapa
B. Gramini
C. Vispati
D. Gopati

26. Which of the following is true regarding the Aryan Economy?

I. Aryans, crossed the nomadic stage.
II. Lion, elephants, & Boar were not known to them.
III. Coins were known to them.
A. Only I
B. II, III
C. I, III
D. All of the above

27. The local name of Mohenjodaro is:

A. Mould of the living
B. Mould of the tree
C. Mould of the dead
D. Mould of the survivor

28. Choose the Incorrect pair:

A. Yoga darshan Patanjali
B. Mimansa Jaimini
C. Vedant Badarayana
D. Nyaya Darshana Kapila

29. Who were the immediate successors of the Mauryas in Magadha?

A. Pandyas
B. Sungas
C. Kushanas
D. Satvahanas

30. Which one of the following item was collected only in case under the
Mauryas?
A. Kara
B. Bhaga
C. Pranaya
D. Hiranya

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QuestionAnswer
21. A
22. C
23. A
24. A
25. B
26. A
27. C
28. D
29. B
30. C

31. What was the time period of Indus Civilization / Harappan

Civilization?
A. 2400 BC - 1700 BC

B. 2500 BC - 1700 BC

C. 2400 BC - 1750 BC

D. 2500 BC - 1750 BC

32. Which one of the following was an important Port of the eastern coast
during Gupta period?
A. Kalyan

B. Tamralipti

C. Sopara

D. Baroch

33. The temple of Konark was built by Narasimha of the

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A. Maratha Administration

B. Chola Administration

C. Ganga Administration

D. Vijayanagar Administration

34. Which among the following is the oldest dynasty?

A. Maurya

B. Gupta

C. Kushan

D. Kanva

35. Aryabhatta, believed to have been born in the 5th century AD, was a
most renowned scholar of:
A. Astronomy

B. Biology

C. Medicine

D. Physiology

36. The Iron Pillar at Mehrauli in Delhi is believed to record the

achievements of
A. Ashoka

B. Chandragupta Maurya

C. Samudragupta

D. Chandragupta II

37. Who of the following was a contemporary of Alexander the Great?

A. Bimbisara

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B. Chandragupta Maurya

C. Ashoka

D. Pushyamitra Sunga

38. Gupta Empire declined in the fifth century A. D. as a consequence of

A. Chalukya raids

B. Greek invasion

C. Hun invasion

D. Pallava raids

39. Whose achievements are recorded in the Allahabad Pillar inscription?

A. Chandragupta Maurya

B. Samudra Gupta

C. Vikramaditya

D. Skand Gupta

40. Who among the following Kushan Emperors was the first to introduce
the gold coinage in India?
A. Vima Kadphises

B. Vima Taktu

C. Vasishka

D. Kujula Kadphises

Question Answer
31. D
32. B

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 33. C
34. A
35. A
36. D
37. B
38. C
39. B
40. A

41. Who was the first Gupta ruler who assumed the title of
Maharadhiraha?
A. Skandhgupta

B. Chandragupta I

C. Chandragupta II

D. kumaragupta

42. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. Chandragupa I started the Gupta Era in 319- 20 AD.

B. Samudragupta was the greatest king of Gupta dynasty.

C. Chandragupta II was succeeded by his son Skandagupta.

D. During the reign of Skandagupta, Gupta Empire was invaded by Huns.

43. Who was the last great ruler of Gupta dynasty?

A. Skandagupta

B. Kumaragupta I

C. Chandragupta Ii

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D. None Of these

44. Which of the following is incorrectly matched (in Gupta

administration)?
A. Bhukti…….province

B. Vishya……state

C. Vithika…..city

D. Gram…….village

45. Choose the correct option

I. Dharmpala was the founder of the Pala Empire.
II. Mihir Bhoja belongs to Pratihar dynasty.
III. Mihir bhoja was the devotee of Lord KRISHNA.
A. Only I, II

B. Only I, III

C. Only II

D. All of the above

46. Who among the following foreigners was the first to visit India?
A. Hiuen-Tsang

B. Megasthenese

C. I Ching

D. Fahien

47. Which of the following are two works of Kalidasa?

A. Raghuvamsha and Kiratarjuniya

B. Kumara Sambhav and Raghuvamsha

C. Malti Madhava and Kumara Sambhava

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D. Malti Madhav and Kumara Sambhava

48. Who was the first Indo-Greek king, who became Buddhist?
A. Antiochus II

B. Apollodotus I

C. Apollodotus II

D. Menander II

49. Who among the following built the Gomateshwara statue at

Sravanabelagola ?
A. Chandragupta Maurya

B. Kharvela

C. Amoghavarsha

D. Chamundaraya

50. Which among the following Mudra is the gesture of Buddha as depicted
in his first sermon?
A. Abhaya Mudra

B. Dhyana Mudra

C. Dharmachakra Mudra

D. Bhumisparsa Mudra

QuestionAnswer
41. b
42. c
43. a
44. b

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 45. c
46. b
47. b
48. d
49. d
50. c

51. What were the crops raised by the Harappans?

I. Cotton
II. Wheat

III. Barley

IV. Peas
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A. I, II, III and IV

B. I, II and III

C. II, III and IV

D. II and III

52. Which of the following statements about the Harappan people is

incorrect?
A. The Harappans were phallus worshippers.

B. They worshipped gods in the form of human beings.

C. They placed their gods in temples.

D. They looked upon the earth as a fertility goddess.

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53. Which of the following statements about the Rigvedic Aryans is
incorrect?
A. We do not find any trace of widow remarriage in the Rigvedic period.

B. We have some indications of polyandry in this period.

C. There are no examples of child marriage in this period.

D. The practice of levirate was known.

54. Who among the following occupied the supreme position in the Later
Vedic pantheon?
A. Indra

B. Prajapati

C. Agni

D. Varuna

55. Which type of pottery was most popular with the Later Vedic people?
A. Black-slipped Ware

B. Black and Red Ware

C. Painted Grey Ware

D. Red Ware

56. Which of the doctrines of Jainism was added by Mahavira?

A. Do not speak a lie.

B. Observe continence.

C. Do not commit violence.

D. Do not steal.

57. Who is said to be responsible for the spread of Jainism in Karnataka?

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A. Ajatashatru

B. Chandragupta Maurya

C. Bimbisara

D. Mahapadma Nanda

58. In what respect did Jainism differ from Buddhism?

A. In its stress on the doctrine of ahimsa

B. In denying the authority of the Vedas

C. In opposing animal sacrifice

D. In its attitude towards trade

59. The Pitaka that contains pronouncements attributed to the Buddha,

laying down numerous rules for the conduct of the order is:
A. Vinaya Pitaka

B. Sutta Pitaka

C. Abhidhamma Pitaka

D. All the three Pitakas

60. The Veda that contains charms and spells toward off evils and diseases
is
A. Rigveda

B. Atharvaveda

C. Samaveda

D. Yajurveda

Question Answer

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 51. A
52. C
53. A
54. B
55. D
56. B
57. B
58. A
59. A
60. B

61. In Jainism, 'Perfect Knowledge' is referred to as

A. Nirvana

B. Ratna

C. Kaivalya

D. Jina

Ans: C
62. The daughter who milks animals in the Vedic period was known as
A. Kubha

B. Duhitr

C. Komi

D. Sardha

Ans: B
63. Bimbisara was succeeded by.
A. Ashoka

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B. Ajatashatru

C. Vasudeva

D. Chandragupta Maurya

Ans: B
64. Which of the following Kushan kings, who assumed the title "the Lord
of the Whole World"?
A. Kadphises I

B. Kadphises II

C. Kanishka

D. Huvishka

Ans: B
65. The fourth Buddhist Council was held at.
A. Pataliputra

B. Vaishali

C. Kundalavana

D. Bodh Gaya

Ans: C
66. Megasthenes was succeeded as ambassador by
A. Darius

B. Demetrius

C. Deimachos

D. Philip

Ans: C

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67. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:

List-I List-II
A. Ashoka's son 1. Brihadratha

B. Conqueror of 2. Ashvaghosha Yarkand

C. Buddhist Monk 3. Kanishka

D. Last Mauryan ruler 4. Kunala

Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 3 1 4 2

(d) 2 1 3 4

Ans: B
68. The author of the "The Peri plus of the Erythraean Sea’ was a :
A. Historian

B. Poet

C. Sailor

D. Musician

Ans: C
69. During Karikala's rule the important Chola port was
A. Calicut

B. Puhar

C. Korkai

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D. Thondi

Ans: B
70. The most famous Chera ruler was
A. Udiyanjeral

B. Nedunjeraladan

C. Senguttuvan

D. Sengannan

Ans: C

71. The greatest Chola king in the dynasty of the Cholas of Thanjavur was
A. Parantaka

B. Rajaraja-I

C. Rajendra-I

D. Kulottunga

72. The main focus of the Rigvedic culture was

A. Indo-Gangetic Valley

B. Punjab and Delhi region

C. Indus Valley

D. Region between the Swat and the Indus

73. The Veda, which is partly a prose work, is

A. Atharvaveda

B. Samaveda

C. Yajurveda

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D. Rigveda

74. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes
given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Nyaya 1. Jaimini

B. Vaisheshika 2. Badarayana

C. Sankhya 3. Gautam

D. Yoga 4. Kanada

E. Purva Mimamsa 5. Kapila

F. Uttara Mimamsa 6. Patanjali

Codes:
A B C D E F
(a) 5 6 4 1 2 3

(b) 4 3 2 1 5 6

(c) 3 4 5 6 1 2

(d) 1 2 3 4 5 6

75. Nagarjuna is known as the Einstein of India because:

A. Like Einstein he had a rare insight into the nature of the universe.

B. He was one of the greatest physicists of all time.

C. He propounded the theory of Shunyavada similar to Einstein's theory of

Relativity.

D. He was a great dialectician.

76. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

A. Vardhamana Mahavira's father-Siddhartha

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B. Vardhamana Mahavira's mother- Trisala

C. Vardhamana Mahavira's wife-Yashoda

D. Vardhamana Mahavira's daughter-Cheiiana

77. In which of the following sects was Bindusara interested?

A. Buddhism

B. Jainism

C. Ajivakas

D. Lokayata

78. The correct descending order of the Mauryan officers, at the district
level, was
A. Rajuka, pradeshika, yukta

B. Yukta, rajuka, pradeshika

C. Pradeshika, yukta, rajuka

D. Pradeshika, rajuka, yukta

79. Harappan weapons were made of

A. stone

B. copper

C. bronze

D. all the above

80. Which one of the four varnas mentioned in the Purushasukta of the
mandala X of the Rig Veda is referred in the other parts of Rig Veda in the
sense of a Varna?
A. Brahmanas

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B. Kshatriyas

C. Vaishyas

D. Shudras

Question Answer
71. B
72. C
73. C
74. C
75. C
76. D
77. C
78. D
79. D
80. D

81. Which of the following Gupta emperors is represented his coins as

playing the lute or Veena?
A. Chandragupta-I

B. Chandragupta-II

C. Samudragupta

D. Skandagupta

82. Kalidasa's works include:

I. Abhijnanashakuntalam
II. Meghadutam

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III. Raghuvamsa
IV. Malvikagnimitram
V. Ritusamhara
VI. Kumarasambhava
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A. I, II, III and IV

B. I, II, IV, V and VI

C. I, III , IV and V

D. All of them

83. Match List-l with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:

List-I List-II
A. Shudraka 1. Devichand rag uptam

B. Vajjika 2. Harivamsa Purana

C. Vishakhadatta 3. Mrichchhakatika

D. Jinasena Suri 4. Tilsya Pannati

E. Yati Vrishaba 5. Kaumudi Mahotsava

Codes:
A B C D E
(a) 3 5 1 2 4

(b) 3 4 1 5 2

(c) 1 2 3 4 5

(d) 2 3 4 5 1

84. Who is the author of Vikramakacharita?

A. Ravi Kirti

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B. Mangalesa

C. Bana

D. Bilhana

85. Consider the following statements:

I. The Ikshvaku rulers of southern India were antagonistic towards Buddhism.
II. The Pala rulers of eastern India were patrons of Buddhism.
Which of these statement (s) is/are correct?
A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

86. With reference to the invaders in ancient India which one of the
following is the correct chronological order?
A. Greeks-Sakas-Kushanas

B. Greeks-Kushanas-Sakas

C. Sakas-G reeks-Kushanas

D. Sakas-Kushanas-Greeks

87. The system of philosophy with which the name of Kapila is prominently
associated is:
A. Purva Mimamsa

B. Sankhya

C. Nyaya

D. Uttara Mimamsa

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88. Among the four works mentioned below which one is encyclopaedic in
nature?
A. Amarakosha

B. Siddhanta Shiromani

C. Brihat Samhita

D. Astanga Hridaya

89. The famous dialogue between Nachiketa and Yama is mentioned in the
A. Chhandogyopanishad

B. Mundakopanishad

C. Kathopanishad

D. Kenopanishad

90. The Badami rock inscription of Pulakesin-I is dated in Saka Year 465.
If the same work to be dated in Vikram Samvat, the year would be
A. 601

B. 300

C. 330

D. 407

Question Answer
81. C
82. A
83. A
84. D

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 85. B
86. A
87. B
88. C
89. C
90. A

91. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

A. Askini - Chenab

B. Sutudri - Sutlej

C. Vipas – Jhelum

D. Parushni - Ravi

92. The origin of Indian music can be traced to which of the following
Vedic Samhitas?
A. Rigveda

B. Samaveda

C. Yajurveda

D. Atharvaveda

93. The first elaborate description of Upanayana Sanskar is found in the

A. Aitareya Brahmana

B. Taittiriya Brahmana

C. Tandyamaha Brahmana

D. Shatapatha Brahmana

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94. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A. Buddhist monastery

B. Buddhist order or organisation

C. A kind of tomb where the relics of Buddha and other Buddhist monks are
kept

D. A Buddhist assembly hall or temple

95. Which one of the following sources states that Srinagar was built by
Ashoka?
A. Kalhana's Rajatarangini

B. Divyavadana

C. Tarantha's History of Tibet

D. Mahavamsa

96. Which one of the following pairs does not belong to the same category?
A. Mauryas - Brihadratha

B. Satavahanas - Simuka

C. Sungas - Devabhuti

D. Kanvas - Susaraman

97. Patanjali, the second great grammarian of Ancient India, was a

contemporary of
A. Kanishka

B. Chandragupta-II

C. Gautamiputra Satakarni

D. Pushyamitra Sunga

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98. Who was the founder of the Satavahana dynasty?
A. Sri Satakarni

B. Simuka

C. Pulumayi-I

D. Yajnasri Satakarni

99. Who was the founder of the Kanva dynasty?

A. Suserman

B. Vishnusarma

C. Vassudeva

D. Vasumitra

100. Who started the Saka Era and when?

A. Kadphises in 58 BC

B. Rudradaman-I in 78 AD

C. Vikramaditya in 58 BC

D. Kanishka in 78 AD

QuestionAnswer
91. C
92. B
93. C
94. C
95. A
96. B
97. D

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 98. B
99. C
100. D

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 Polity 100 Important Questions
PART A

1. In India, President is elected by which method? Single Transferable Vote

2. Till now, the Preamble of Constitution of India has been amended for how
Once many times?

3. Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha? No one

4. Which were the first two states in India to establishe Panchayati Raj
in 1956? Rajasthan & Andhra Pradesh

5. How long a person should have practiced in a High Court to be eligible to be

appointed as a Judge of Supreme Court of India? 10 years

6. What can be the maximum interval between two sessions of parliament? 6

months

7. ‘Shakti – Sthal’ is related to whom? Smt. Indira Gandhi

8. To whom does the Public Accounts Committee submit its report? Speaker of
Lok Sabha

9. Who is known as the first Law Officer of India? Attorney General of India

10. Which provision of the Fundamental Rights is directly relates to

the exploitation of children? A 24

11. What is the chief source of political power in India? The People

12. Fundamental Duties were added by which constitutional amendment? 42nd

CAA

13. In which year were the first general election held in India? 1951-52

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14. The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto?
Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill),1986

15. The Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution is related to ? Recognized

languages

16. Who is longest serving speaker of lok sabha? Balram Jhakar

17. What is the quorum of Lok sabha ? 1/10th of total membership

18. When Constitution was framed, how many Schedules were there? Eight

19. Who is the chairman of Kendriya Hindi Samiti ? Prime Minister

20. Which part of the Constitution of India talks about the Municipalities? Part
IX (A)

21. Who proposed the creation of a Preamble before the Drafting Committee?
J.L. Nehru

22. Who said Preamble is the keynote to the Constitution? Ernest Barker

23. The idea of a Constituent Assembly to form a Constitution of India was

first mooted by whom? M.N. Roy in 1927

24. What is the lowest stage of the local Government? Gram Panchayat

25. Who has been the only Lok Sabha Speaker to have become the President of
India ? Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

26. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter?
A 326

27. Who was the Defence Minister of India during the Indo- China war
of 1962? V.K. Krishna Menon

28. The Indian Parliament passed the States Reorganisation Act in which year?
1956

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29. Which case determined that the Preamble is a part of the constitution?
Keshvananda Bharti case

30. Which part of Constitution emphasises the welfare aspect of the State?
DPSP

31. Who is the Supreme Commander of India's armed forces? President of India

32. When was All India Services Act enacted? 15th october 1951

33. Once a Budget has been presented in the Parliament, the government has to
get all money bills related to the union budget passed within __? 75 days

34. After how many years is the President of USA is elected? 4 years

35. Which has been the most amended as also the most controversial
Fundamental Right ? Right to property

36. What is the current age of retirement of judges from supreme courts
and high courts respectively in India? 65 yrs & 62 yrs

37. Which writ examines the functioning of Subordinate Courts? Certiorari

38. The concept of fundamental duties of Indian constitution was borrowed

Russia (Former USSR) from which country ?

39. Who works as the Chairman of a Zonal Council in India? Home Minister

40. From which fund is the pension of a High Court Judge charged?
Consolidated Fund of India

41. Which commission was formed in 1983 to recommend the relationship

and Sarkaria Committee balance of power between state and central
governments ?

42. What Minimum age is required to contest for Presidentship? 35 years

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43. Who is current Chief Justice of India? Justice J S Khehar

44. In which years did the Right to Information Act come into force? 2005

45. From where can a Member of Parliament claim immunity? From Civil cases
only

46. In India, Administrative head of Union Territories is__? Lieutenant

Governor

48. TheWhich inspiration was the of only ‘Liberty, President Equality of India
and Fraternity’ who elected was unopposed? derived from

49. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy which revolution? French Revolution

50. What is the maximum number of elected members in a State Assembly? 500

51. The Prime Minister of India who did not face the Union Parliament was__?
Chaudhary Charan Singh

52. What is the electorate for a Panchayat? Gram sabha

53. The first Governor ever to be dismissed by the President was__? Prabhu Das
Patwari

54. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
Either House of Parliament

55. Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is based on__? Procedure

established by law

56. Who collects the House Tax? Municipality Corporation

57. Who is the chairman of national integration council ? Prime Minister

58. Which is the only Union Territory that has a High Court of its own? Delhi

59. Who can establish an Inter-State Council? President

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60. First woman speaker of Lok Sabha __? Meira Kumar

61. The first census was conducted in India at the time of which
governor general? Lord Mayo

62. In the year 2006, which programme was launched for the welfare
of minorities? Prime Minister's New 15- Point

63. An additional judge of a High Court holds office for a period of __? 2years

64. In which country did the concept of Public Interest Litigation originated?
United States

65. Which was the first linguistic state? Andhra Pradesh

66. Which writ is issued by the court in’ case of illegal detention of a person?
Habeas Corpus

67. What is the total number of Fundamental Duties mentioned in the

Constitution? 11

68. All the cases regarding interpretation of the Constitution can be brought
to the Supreme Court under its__? Appellate jurisdiction

69. The Supreme Court originally consisted of how many other judges
besides the Chief Justice ? Seven

70. By whom is the Contingency Fund of the State operated? Governor

71. What is the source of “we the people” in the Preamble ? United Nations

72. Ambedkar had said the "Article......should normally remain a 'dead

letter' and would be used only in the 'last resort' ?? Article 356

73. Which Constitutional Amendment banned the floor crossing in Parliament?

52nd CAA

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74. When the Vice-President acts as President, whose salary does he draw?
President

75. Who was the first speaker of Lok Sabha? G. V. Mavlankar

76. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as

18 years for the Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote? 61st CAA ,
1989

77. For how many months can the proclamation of emergency at the
first instance be restricted? Six Months

78. The President of India can nominate to how many members to Rajya
Sabha 12 & 2 and Lok Sabha respectively?

79. How many times Indian Constitution has been amended ? 101

80. Which committee was appointed by the government of India in 1986 to

revitalize panchayati raj institutions for democracy and development
? L.M.Singhvi Committee

81. A National emergency on the grounds of security threat is proclaimed under

which article ? A 352

82. By which amendment Delhi was designated as National Capital Territory ?

69th CAA

83. In India, a three tier Panchayat is envisaged for states which have
a population above ? 20 lacs

84. Who presides over the joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha ?
Speaker of Lok Sabha

85. On which date a separate constituent assembly was set up for Pakistan? 3rd
June 1947

86. Jurisdiction of which high courts covers the Union Territory of

Lakshadweep? Kerala HC

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87. How many subjects are in the Union list? 97

88. On which date Constitution of India was adopted and enacted by

the Constituent Assembly? 26th Nov. 1949

89. Which of the following British Prime Ministers sent Cripps Mission to
India? Winston Churchill

90. The statewise allocation of seats in Lok Sabha is based on the 1971
Census. Upto which year does the remain intact? 2026

91. Which Commission made the recommendations which formed the basis for
the Punjab Reorganisations Act which created the states Punjab and Haryana?
Shah Commission
92. Where was the first Municipal Corporation set up in India? Madras

93. Who was the first woman to become the Prime Minister of a country?
Sirimavo Bhandharnaike

94. The allocation of seats in present Lok Sabha is based on which Census?
1971

95. In the Indian Constitution the Right to Equality is granted by five

Articles. They are ? A14 to A18

96. Who is regarded as the father of Indian economic reform ? Manmohan

Singh

97. Who elects the member of Rajya Sabha? Elected members of Legislative
Assembly

98. In which year Rajya Sabha was established? 1952

99. Who decides whether a bill is a money Bill or not? Speaker of Lok Sabha

100. Which State has the highest number of reserve seats for the
Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha? Madhya Pradesh

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PART B

Q 1. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and

Management constituted?
a. 1950

b. 2005

c. 1970

d. 1985

Q 2. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Youth constituted?

a) 2010

b) 2008

c) 2006

d) 1985

Q 3. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Global Warming and

Climate Change constituted?
a) 2005

b) 2006

c) 2007

d) 2008

Q 4. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Disaster Management

constituted?
a) 2011

b) 2010

c) 2009

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d) 2008

Q 5. When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Children constituted?

a) 2006

b) 2007

c) 2008

d) 2009

Q 6.Which of the following describes India as a secular state?

(a) Fundamental rights

(b) Directive principles of state policy

(c) Fifth schedule

(d) Preamble of the constitution

Q.7 “The independence of Judiciary” in Indian constitution is taken from.

(a) Britain

(b) USA

(c) South Africa

(d) Australia

Q 8.In a parliamentary form of Government the real powers of the state,

are vested in the….
(a) The President

(b) Chief Justice of the Supreme court

(c) Council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister

(d) Parliament

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Q 9. Which of the following amendment acts amended the Preamble of the
Indian constitution?
(a) 44th Amendment act

(b) 42nd Amendment act

(c) 56th Amendment act

(d) It has never been amended

Q 10. Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not a part of the
constitution in which of the following cases/case?
(a) Berubari Union case (1960)

(b) Unni Krishnan vs Union of India

(c) Minnerva Mills vs. the union of India and other states

(d) Sunil Batra vs. Delhi government

Question Answer
1 b
2 c
3 d
4 a
5 a
6 d
7 a
8 c
9 b
10 a

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11. Which of the following article of the Indian Constitution deals with the
constitution of the Parliament of India?
A. Article 73

B. Article 78

C. Article 79

D. Article 72

Ans: C

12. Which of the following article deals with the composition of council of
states ( Rajya sabha) and the manner of election of its members?
A. Article 82

B. Article 81

C. Article 90

D. Article 80

Ans: D

13. The representatives of the state in the Rajya sabha are elected by which
one of the following?
A. Chief minister of the state

B. Elected members of the state legislative assembly

C. Governor

D. President

Ans: B

14. The number of representatives of the Rajya sabha from states and
union territories are among which one of the following?
A. 238

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B. 212

C. 200

D. 220

Ans: A

15. How many number of members are nominated by the President to the
Rajya sabha?
A. 20

B. 18

C. 12

D. 15

Ans: C

16. Which among the following is not a standing committee?

A. Public accounts committee

B. Ethics committee

C. Railway convention committee

D. Business advisory committee

Ans: C

17. Consider the following statements. Which among them is/are NOT
true?
I. Standing Committees are the permanent committees that are constituted on a
regular basis

II. Ad hoc committees are temporary committees that are dissolved when the
task is completed

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III. Committee of Privileges is an ad-hoc committee

IV. Joint Committee on Fertilizer pricing is a standing committee

A. Only III and IV

B. Only I and II

C. Only I and III

D. Only II and IV

Ans: A

18. What among the following is NOT true about the Public Accounts
Committee?
I. The committee was first set up in 1919

II. It's main function is to audit the annual reports of Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (CAG)

III. It consists of 15 Lok Sabha members and 7 Rajya Sabha members

IV. The term of the office of the Public Accounts Committee is one year

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Only III

D. All are true

Ans: D

19. Which among the following is NOT true about the Estimates
Committee?
I. The first Estimates Committee of the post-independence era was first set up in
1950

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II. Estimates Committee has a right to question the policies approved by the
Parliament

III. It consists of members that are both from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

IV. Chairman of the Estimates Committee is always from the Opposition party

A. Only IV

B. Only III

C. Only II and IV

D. Only II, III and IV

Ans: D

20. Consider the following statements about the Committee on Government

Assurances. Which of the following is/are not true?
A. It was constituted in 1953

B. Its main function is to examine the assurances and undertakings given by the
ministers on the floor of the House and report back on the status of these
assurances and promises

C. For the Lok Sabha, it consists of 15 members

D. For the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 10 members

Ans: D

Q 21) Which of the following commission was appointed by the Central

Government on Union-State relations in 1983?
a. Sarkariya commission

b. Dutt commission

c. Setalvad commission

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d. Rajamannar commission

Q 22) Which of the following taxes are levied by the Union but are collected
and appropriated by the states?
a. Stamp duties

b. Excise duties on medical and toilet materials

c. Sales tax

d. a and b

Q 23) Which of the following taxes are imposed and collected by the state
government?
a. Estate duty

b. Sales tax

c. Land revnue

d. All the above

Q 24) Which of the following tax is levied and collected by the Union
government but the proceeds are distributed between the Union and states?
a. Sales tax

b. Income tax

c. Estate duty

d. Land revenue

Q 25) Which of the following is levied and collected by the Union

government?
a. Custom duty

b. Excise duty

c. Estate duty

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d. All the above

Q 26) Which of the article deals with the grants in aid by the Union
government to the states?
a. Article 270

b. Article 280

c. Article 275

d. Article 265

Q 27) Which of the following article deals with the election of the Vice-
president?
a. Article 64

b. Article 68

c. Article 66

d. Article 62

Q 28) Who can remove the Vice-President from his office ?

a. President

b. Prime minister

c. Parliament

d. Legislative assemblies of the state

Q 29) The term of office of the Vice-president is as follows?

a. 6 years

b. 4 years

c. 7 years

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d. 5 years

Q 30) The Vice-president is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya sabha?

a. Rajya Sabha

b. Lok Sabha

c. Planning Commission

d. National Development Council

Question Answer
21 a
22 d
23 d
24 b
25 d
26 c
27 c
28 c
29 d
30 a

Q 31) Which one of the following article deals with the appointment of the
Prime Minister and other ministers?
(a) Article 76

(b) Article 74

(c) Article 75

(d) Article 72

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Ans. c

Q 32) The Prime Minister is appointed by which one of the following?

(a) Attorney general of India

(b) President

(c) Vice-president

(d) Chief justice of India

Ans. b

Q 33) Who among the following shall communicate to the president all the
decisions of the council of ministers under article 78?
(a) Home minister

(b) Prime minister

(c) Attorney general

(d) Finance minister

Ans. b
Q 34) The total number of ministers including the prime ministers shall not
exceed-
(a) 20% members of the Lok sabha

(b) 10% members of the Lok sabha

(c) 25% members of the Lok sabha

(d) 15% members of the Lok sabha

Ans. d

Q 35). The Supreme Court of India at present contains the following

number of Judges?
(a) 25 judges

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(b) 31 judges

(c) 20 judges

(d) 30 judges

Ans. B

Q 36). Who among the following appoints the Chief Justice and other
Judges of the Supreme Court?
(a) Prime minister

(b) Vice-president

(c) Home minister

(d) President

Ans. d

Q 37). Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court?
(a) Original and Appellate Jurisdiction

(b) Appointment of ad-hoc judges

(c) Judicial review

(d) All the above

Ans. d

Q 38). Which article of the constitution of India provides the composition

and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India?
(a) Article 137-141

(b) Article 144

(c) Article 126

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(d) Article 124

Ans. d

Q 39). The National Judiciary Appointments Commission (NJAC) consists

of the following persons?
(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) Two senior most Supreme Court judges

(c) The Union Minister of Law and Justice

(d) All the above

Ans. d

Q 40). Mr. T.S. Thakur is the ...................Chief Justice of India.

(a) 41st

(b) 42nd

(c) 43rd

(d) 44th

Ans. c

41. The executive power of the Union is vested in which one of the below?
A. Prime minister

B. Home minister

C. Vice-president

D. President

Ans: D

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42. Which one of the following article deals with the pardoning power of
the President?
A. Article 71

B. Article 74

C. Article 72

D. Article 75

Ans: C

43. The impeachment of the President is carried by which one of the

following?
A. Attorney general

B. Members of the legislative

C. Parliament

D. Prime minister

Ans: C

44. Which one of the following article deals with the tenure of the
President?
A. Article 53

B. Article 56

C. Article 55

D. Article 52

Ans: B

45. Which of the following article deals with the impeachment of the
President?
A. Article 65

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B. Article 62

C. Article 64

D. Article 61

Ans: D

46. The Pressure groups are:

A. Political organisations

B. Economic organisation

C. Moral organisations

D. Organisations of universal character

Ans: D

47. The Pressure Group tries to promote the interests of their members by
exerting pressure on:
A. Executive

B. Judiciary

C. Legislative

D. All the above

Ans: D

48. Which of the following are known as Pressure Groups?

A. Trade unions

B. Caste groups

C. Tribal organisations

D. All the above

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Ans: D

49. which of the following is not a feature of pressure group?

A. It tries to influence from outside

B. Its membership is large

C. It actively joins political parties

D. Its members can join any number of groups

Ans: C

50. Which of the following is not a method used by the pressure group for
achieving its objectives?
A. It finances political parties

B. It organises demonstrations

C. It clearly aligns with a political party

D. It tries to influence policy makers

Ans: C

Q 51). Who heads the Niti aayog as its chairperson?

a. President of India

b. Prime minister

c. Finance minister

d. Minister of planning

Q 52). NITI Aayog came into effect from?

a. 1st march 2015

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b. 1st April 2015

c. 1st January

d. 25th dec 2014

Q 53). Think tank of Government of India that replaced the Planning

commission is?
a. NITI dharma

b. NITI Vakya

c. NITI Shashan

d. NITI Aayog

Q 54). Which one of the following is the CEO of Niti Aayog?

a. Arvind Mayaram

b. Rajiv Meharshi

c. Amitabh Kant

d. None

Q 55). Which of the following below is the vice-chairman of the NITI Aayog
?
a. Montek singh ahluwalia

b. Abhijeet sen

c. Amartya sen

d. Arvind panagariya

Q 56). Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 makes provisions for a 3-

tier system of Panchayati Raj for all the States having population of
above__:
a.15 Lakh

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b. 20 Lakh

c. 25 Lakh

d. 30 Lakh

Q 57). Which of the following state was the first to establish Panchayati raj
institutions?
a. Rajasthan

b. Andhra pradesh

c. West Bengal

d. Gujarat

Q 58). Which part of the constitution deals with the panchayats?

a. Part IX

b. Part X

c. Part IX

d. Part XI

Q 59). The panchayat system was adopted to:

a. To decentralise the power of democracy

b. Make people aware of politics

c. Educate the peasants

d. None of this

Q 60). Which of the following states have no panchayati raj institution at

all?
a. Nagaland

b. Assam

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c. kerala

d. Tripura

Question Answer
51 b
52 c
53 d
54 c
55 d
56 b
57 a
58 a
59 a
60 a

61. Which one of the following is true about High courts?

A. It has original and appellate jurisdiction

B. It enjoys the power of judicial review

C. It acts as the court of law

D. All the above

Ans: D

62. At present, how many high courts are there in India?

A. 25

B. 21

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C. 28

D. 29

Ans: B

63. Which one of the following article deals with the appointment of
judges?
A. Article 214

B. Article 217

C. Article 226

D. Article 216

Ans: B

64. High courts issue writs under article-.........

A. 220

B. 221

C. 213

D. 226

Ans: D

65. The chief justice and other judges of the high courts are appointed by
which one of the following?
A. Prime minister

B. Chief minister

C. Governor

D. President

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Ans: D

66. Which is the oldest known system designed for the redressal of citizen's
grievance?
A. Ombudsman System

B. Lokpal

C. Lokayukta

D. None of the above

Ans: A

67. Which was the first Indian state to establish the institution of
Lokayukta?
A. Bihar

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Maharashtra

Ans: D

68. When did The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 came into force?
A. January 2013

B. May 2013

C. December 2013

D. January 2013

Ans: A

69. Who appoints the Lokayukta and Upalokayukta?

A. Governor of the state

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B. Chief Minister

C. Speaker of Lok Sabha

D. Judge of High Court

Ans: A

70. Which state's Lokayukta's office is considered to be the strongest in

terms of power and scope?
A. Bihar

B. Karnataka

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Maharashtra

Ans: B

71. The fundamental duties are included in the constitution by which of the
following act?

(a) 40th amendment act

(b) 44th amendment act
(c) 43rd amendment act
(d) 42nd amendment act

72. The fundamental duties are mentioned in which of the following?

(a) Part-IV A
(b) Part-IV
(c) Part-III
(d) In schedule IV-A

73. Which of the following article of the Constitution contains fundamental

duties?

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(a) 45 A
(b) 51 A
(c) 42
(d) 30B

74. Which of the following are fundamental duties?

(a) Safeguarding public property

(b) Protecting the sovereignty, integrity and unity of India
(c) Developing scientific temper and humanism
(d) All the above

75. Which of the following committee suggested to incorporate

fundamental duties in the constitution?
(a) Malhotra committee
(b) Raghavan committee
(c) Swaran singh committee
(d) Narasimhan committee

76. Which of the following Articles contain the right to religious freedom?

(a) 25-28
(b) 29-30
(c) 32-35
(d) 23-24

77. Which of the following articles guarantees equality before law and
equal protection of law for all individuals residing within the territory of
India?

(a) 15
(b) 14
(c) 17
(d) 18

78. Which article of the Constitution abolishes Untouchability?

(a) Article 18

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(b) Article 15
(c) Article 14
(d) Article 17

79. Which of the following is correct with respect to “Right against

exploitation”?

(a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

(b) Freedom as to payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion
(c) Protection of interests of minorities
(d) Equality before law

80. In which part of the Indian Constitution, the Fundamental rights are
provided?

(a) Part II
(b) Part III
(c) Part V
(d) Part IV
Question No. Answer
71 d
72 b
73 b
74 d
75 c
76 a
77 b
78 d
79 a
80 a

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Q 81) National emergency is declared under which of the following
articles?
a. Article 358

b. Article 352

c. Article 359

d. Article 360

Q 82) National emergency proclamation is issued in case of?

a. Armed rebellion

b. External aggression

c. War

d. All the above

Q 83) proclamation of emergency under article 352 is issued by which one

of the following?
a. Prime minister

b. President

c. Defence minister

d. Home minister

Q 84) emergency under article 356 is imposed by which one of the below?
a. Prime minister

b. Governor

c. Vice-president’

d. President

Q 85) Financial emergency is imposed under article?

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a. Article 354

b. Article 365

c. Article 367

d. Article 360

Q 86) In real sense the Governor of the State is appointed by the President
on the advice of the following…….
a. Prime Minister

b. Chief Minister

c. Vice-President

d. Chief Justice

Q 87) The Governor of the State can be removed by which one of the
following?
a. Chief Minister

b. Prime Minister

c. Union Home Minister

d. President

Q 88) Which of the following are the discretionary powers of the

Governor?
a. Selection of Chief Minister

b. Provide advice to the President regarding President’s rule in the concerned

state.

c. Returning back the bill to the State legislature for reconsideration.

d. All the above

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Q 89) Among which of the followings are appointed by the Governor?
a. Advocate General

b. Chief secretary of the State

c. Vice-chancellors of universities

d. All the above

Q 90) Which one of the following article deals with the Governor of States?
a. Article 150

b. Article 153

c. Article 165

d. Article 167

Question Answer
81 b
82 d
83 b
84 d
85 d
86 a
87 d
88 d
89 d
90 b

91. Which of the following is not a feature of Election system in India?

A. Universal Adult Franchise

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B. Secret Voting

C. Reservation of seats in the legislature for the members of Scheduled Castes

and Scheduled Tribes

D. Communal Electorate

Ans: D

92. Elections in India for Parliament and State Legislatures are conducted
by.....
A. President

B. Prime Minister

C. Governor

D. Election Commission of India

Ans: D

93. Members of Election Commission are appointed by........

A. President of India

B. Prime Minister of India

C. Elected by the people

D. Chief Justice of India

Ans: A

94. Which article of Indian constitution says that will be an election

commission in India?
A. Article 124

B. Article 342

C. Article 324

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D. Article 115

Ans: C

95. The number of seats reserved for scheduled caste in the Lok sabha is:
A. 59

B. 79

C. 89

D. 99

Ans: B

96. Which Articles in the Constitution give provisions for the electoral
system in our country?
A. Articles 124-128

B. Articles 324-329

C. Articles 256-259

D. Articles 274-279

Ans: B

97.The elections for Lok Sabha are held every:

A. 3 years

B. 4 years

C. 5 years

D. 6 years

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Ans: C

98. Which among the following statements is/are false?

1. For qualifying to the Lok Sabha, a person must be a at least 25 years of age

2. A person can be a member of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha at the same
time

3. A person belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe can contest

elections from a general seal also, and not just with the reserved seat

4. If a member of either of the Houses votes against the directions given by his
party, he can be deemed to be disqualified

Code:

A. Only 1

B. Only 2 and 4

C. Only 3

D. Only 2

Ans: D

99. What is the maximum allowed duration between the last session of the
dissolved Lok Sabha and the recalling of the Lok Sabha?
A. 2 months

B. 4 months

C. 5 months

D. 6 months

Ans: D

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100.Which is the smallest Lok Sabha Constituency in General Elections by
area?
A. Delhi Sadar

B. Mumbai South

C. Kolkata North West

D. Chandni Chowk, Delhi

Ans: D

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 100 Important Computer Questions
PART A

1. Who is the father of Computer science? Charles Babbage

2. In a computer, most processing takes place in__? CPU

3. In which type of computer, data are represented as discrete signals? Digital

Computer

4. Scientific Name of Computer? Sillico sapiens

5. What is the name of the display feature that highlights are of the screen
which requires operator attention? Reverse Video

6. Computers, combine both measuring and counting, are called__? Hybrid

Computer

7. What is FORTRAN? Formula Translation

8. What translates and executes program at run time line by line? Interpreter

9. What converts an entire program into machine language ? Compiler

10. Who is the father of personal computer? Edward Robert

11. EEPROM stands for__? Electronic Erasable Programmable Read Only

Memory

12. Who developed the first electronic computer? J.V. Atansoff

13. Which programming languages are classified as low level languages?

Assembly Language

14. The first web browser is__? Mosaic

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15. First page of Website is termed as__? Homepage

16. IBM stands for__? International Business Machines

17. Office LANS, which are scattered geographically on large scale, can be
connected by the use of corporate__? WAN ( wide area network )

18. To move a copy of file from one computer to another over a

communication channel is called? File Transfer

19. Large transaction processing systems in automated organisations use__?

Batch Processing

20. MICR stands for__? Magnetic Ink

Character Reader

21. Name of 1st electronic computer? ENIAC

22. No. of different characters in ASCII coding system? 1024

23. MSIC stands for _? Medium Scale Integrated Circuits

24. The scrambling of code is known as__? Encryption

25. The first computers were programmed using__? Machine Language

26. A fault in a computer program which prevents it from working correctly is
known as__? Bug

27. Which button makes alphabets/letters in uppercase and lowercase and

numbers to symbols? Shift

28. When a computer is switched on, the booting process performs__? Power on
self test

29. What is the software frequently utilized by end users called (like
Word, PowerPoint)? Application Software

30. Unit of measurement of the output quality of a printer? Dot per sq. inch

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31. Switching device of fifth generation computer is__? VLSI

32. The unit KIPS is used to measure the speed of __? Processor

33. DOS stands for__? Disk Operating System

34. What is a joy stick primarily in computers used for? Computer Gaming

35. In 1999, the Melissa virus was a widely publicised__? E-mail virus

36. Which of the following commands is given to reboot the computer?

Ctrl+Alt+Del

37. What is correcting errors in a program called ? Debugging

38. BCD is __? Binary Coded Decimal

39. What type of virus uses computer hosts to reproduce itself? Worm

40. SMTP, FTP and DNS are applications of the ____ layer? Application

41. Which command is used to select the whole document? Ctrl+A

42. COBOL is an acronym for__? Common Business Oriented Language

43. The ability of an OS to run more than one application at a time is called?
Multitasking

44. What is the functional key to display save-as box? F12

45. Full form of NOS ? Network Operating system

46. Something which has easily understood instructions is said to be..........?

Analog Data

47. A modem is connected to a__? Telephone Line

48. Refresh Rate of monitor is measured in? Hertz

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49. What was the chief component of first generation computer? Vacuum tube
& Valves

50. Name the Father of Computer Mouse? Douglas Engelbart

51. A program that performs a useful task while simultaneously allowing

destructive acts is __? Trojan Horse

52. The geometric arrangement of devices on the network is called...........?

Topology

53. The basic goal of computer process is to convert data into ___? Information

54. Where are the CPU and memory located? Motherboard

55. Who is known as the founder of IBM Company? Thomas J. Watson

56. An image on a computer screen is made up of__? Pixels

57. Full form of MAN ? Metropolitan Area Network

58. Which command in DOS can be used to recover accidentally deleted files?
UNDELETE

59. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language
at one time is called__? Characters

60. In which year, the Microsoft company was founded? 1975

61. What is the personal computer operating system that organizes and uses a
graphic desktop environment? Windows

62. What are Light pen and joystick ? Input Devices

63. What is a half byte also called as? Nibble

64. SMPS stands for__? Switched mode Power Supply

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65. What do we use to change the appearance and positioning of text document
in MS Word? Formatting

66. A ________ is approximately a million bytes? Megabyte

67. Daisy wheel, Drum, chain etc are the__? Printers

68. XML stands for __? Extensible Markup Language

69. What kind of scheme is the HTTP protocol? Request/Response

70. Magnetic disk is an example of__? Secondary Memory

71. What is the meaning of OSI, in terms of computers ? Open

system Interconnection

72. Which type of storage device is a BIOS ? Primary

73. What is the extension type of the excel 2007 files? .xlsx

74. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual

is known as the crime of__? Identity theft

75. The amount of vertical space between lines of text in a document is

called__? Line Spacing

76. A computer cannot 'boot' if it does not have the__? Operating system

77. What is the other name for programmed chip? LSIC

78. A normal CD- ROM usually can store up to _____data? 680 MB

79. What does DMA stand for? Direct Memory Access

80. Full form of LAN ? Local Area Network

81. ASCII stands for__? American Standard Code for Information Interchange

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82. Second Generation computers were developed during__? 1956-65

83. When did arch rivals IBM and Apple Computers Inc. decide to join hands?
1991

84. What kind of memory is both static and non -volatile? ROM

85. An error in software or hardware is called a bug. What is the alternative

computer jargon for it? Glitch

86. Unwanted repetitious messages, such as unsolicited bulk e-mail is known

as__? Spam

87. The common name for the crime of stealing passwords is__? Spoofing

88. BIOS stands for __? Basic Input Output System

89. Who is regarded as Father of “C‘ programming language? Dennis Ritchie

90. RAM can be treated as the ......... for the computer's processor. Waiting
Room

91. Computers manipulate data in many ways, and this manipulation is

called__? Processing
92. Joshy, Perfumes are examples of __? Viuses

93. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a
criminal's computer is an example of a law enforcement speciality
called__? Computer Forensics

94. Where does most data go first with in a computer memory hierarchy? RAM

95. Help Menu is available at which button? Start

96. Which file contains permanent data and gets updated during the processing
of transactions? Master File

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97. A DVD is an example of an__? Optical Disc

98. Which is most common tool used to restrict access to computer system?
Passwords

99. The technology that stores only essential instructions on a microprocessor

chip and thus enhances its speed is referred as__? RISC

100. What is the name of an application program that gathers user information
and sends it to someone through the Internet? Spybot

PART B
1. IC chips used in computers are usually made of:
A. Lead

B. Silicon

C. Chromium

D. Gold

Ans: B

2. One kilobyte is equal to:

A. 1000 bytes

B. 100 bytes

C. 1024 bytes

D. 1023 bytes

Ans: C

3. Which of the following is not an example of Operating System?

A. Windows 98

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B. BSD Unix

C. Microsoft Office XP

D. Red Hat Linux

Ans: C

4. Which supercomputer is developed by the Indian Scientists?

A. Param

B. Super 301

C. Compaq Presario

D. CRAY YMP

Ans: A

5. One Gigabyte is approximately equal is:

A. 1000,000 bytes

B. 1000,000,000 bytes

C. 1000,000,000,000 bytes

D. None of these

Ans: B

6. Find out the odd one:

A. Internet

B. Linux

C. Unix

D. Windows

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Ans: A

7. What kind of errors can be pointed out by the compiler?

A. Syntax error

B. Symantic error

C. Logical error

D. Internal error

Ans: A

8. What is the control unit's function in the CPU?

A. To transfer data to primary storage.

B. To store program instructions.

C. To perform logic functions.

D. To decode program instructions.

Ans: C

9. What is the best way to have a data and the slide number appear on
every slide?
A. chooses Tools, Header and Footer, click Slide tab, select the desired options,
and click Apply to All.

B. chooses Insert, Header and Footer, click Slide tab, select the desired options,
and click Apply to All.

C. chooses View, Header and Footer, click Slide tab, select the desired options,
and click Apply to All.

D. chooses File, Header and Footer, click Slide tab, select the desired options,
and click Apply to All.

Ans: B

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10. What do you use to create a chart?
A. Pie Wizard

B. Excel Wizard

C. Data Wizard

D. Chart Wizard

Ans: D

11) The command to access the memory or the input/output device is

carried by the ______

a) Control bus

b) Address bus

c) Data bus

d) System bus

e) None of these

12) The address of input/output device or memory is carried by the

_______ and the data to be transferred is carried by the ________

a) Address bus, System bus

b) Address bus, Data bus

c) Data bus, Address bus

d) Control bus, Data bus

e) None of these

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13) _______ is used to move the cursor over to the right to a pre-set point

a) Shift key

b) Spacebar key

c) Tab key

d) Window key

e) None of these

14) Which one performs a special operation with the combination of other
Keys?

a) Enter key

b) Shift key

c) Control key

d) Alt key

e) None of these

15) Which one is called as Combination keys?

a) Control key

b) Enter key

c) Shift key

d) Toggle key

e) None of these

16) Enter key is an alternative to press ____button

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a) On

b) Off

c) Ok

d) Move

e) None of these

17) The speed of processor is measured in ______?

a) Hertz

b) Megahertz

c) Gigahertz

d) Terahertz

e) None of these

18) _____was the first computer developed in India?

a) PRAM

b) CRAY-1

c) Siddhartha

d) PRAM YUVA II

e) None of these

19) Which one is considered as the heart of a network of computers or

terminals that allows a large number of people to work at the same time?

a) Super computer

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b) Mini Computer

c) Mainframe Computer

d) Palmtops

e) None of these

20) The Speed of Supercomputers are measured in ______

a) Pico Seconds

b) FLOPS

c) Terahertz

d) Nano Seconds

e) None of these

Answers :

11) Answer: a)

The command to access the memory or the input/output device is carried by the
Control bus.

12) Answer: b)

The address of input/output device or memory is carried by the Address bus and
the data to be transferred is carried by the Data bus.

13) Answer: c)

Tab key is used to move the cursor over to the right to a pre-set point. In Word
document, tab is used to indent a paragraph.

14) Answer: c)

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Control key (Ctrl) performs a special operation with the combination of other
Keys.

15) Answer: c)

Shift key is used in Combination with other keys .So this is also called as
Combination keys.

16) Answer: c)

Enter key is an alternative to press OK button.

17) Answer: b)

The speed of processor is measured in Millions of cycles per second or

Megahertz.

18) Answer: c)

Siddhartha was the first computer developed in India.

19) Answer: c)

Mainframe Computer is considered as the heart of a network of computers or

terminals that allows a large number of people to work at the same time.
Mainframe Computer serves as a backbone for the entire business world.

20) Answer: b)

The Speed of Supercomputers are measured in FLOPS

FLOPS -> Floating Point Operations Per Second.

21) Which one is a grid of cells made up of horizontal rows and vertical
columns?

a) Spreadsheet

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b) Worksheet

c) Range

d) Format

e) None of these

22) ___________ is open source operating system and is also clone of ____
Operating system

a) UNIX, Linux

b) Linux, UNIX

c) Solaris, Linux

d) MS-Dos, UNIX

e) None of these

23) Which of the following shortcut key is used for print preview?

a) Ctrl + K

b) Ctrl + F

c) Ctrl + F12

d) Ctrl + F2

e) None of these

24) Which one of the following shortcut key is used to enter the current
time?

a) Ctrl + Shift + ;

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b) Ctrl + ;

c) Alt + Shift + D

d) Alt + Shift + T

e) None of these

25) Which one of the following shortcut key is used to insert the current
date?

a) Ctrl + Shift + ;

b) Ctrl + ;

c) Alt + Shift + D

d) Alt + Shift + T

e) None of these

26) When a search engine returns the links to web pages corresponding to
the keywords entered is called as ________

a) Cache

b) Hit

c) Crash

d) Junk

e) None of these

27) An Email address typically consists of a user id followed by the _____

sign and the domain name that manages the user’s electronic post office
box

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a) #

b) &

c) $

d) @

e) None of these

28) Group of worksheets is known by ___

a) Folder

b) Files

c) Workbook

d) Document

e) None of these

29) Which one is used to define a sequence of actions to perform on a

document or multiple documents that can be executed again and again?

a) Repeater

b) Macros

c) Formula

d) Loop

e) None of these

30) ________ is used to specify the intersecting of row and column of the
letter and number on worksheet?

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a) Mixed address

b) Absolute address

c) Cell address

d) Relative address

e) None of these

Answers :

21) Answer: b)

Worksheet is a grid of cells made up of horizontal rows and vertical columns.

22) Answer: b)

Linux is open source operating system and is also clone of UNIX Operating
system. It is a virus free operating system.

23) Answer: d)

Print preview -> Ctrl + F2

24) Answer: a)

To enter the current time -> Ctrl + Shift + ;

25) Answer: c)

To insert the current date -> Alt + Shift + D

26) Answer: b)

When a search engine returns the links to web pages corresponding to the
keywords entered is called as Hit, otherwise called as miss.

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27) Answer: d)

An Email address typically consists of a user id followed by the @ sign and the
domain name that manages the user’s electronic post office box.

28) Answer: c)

A workbook is a document that contains one or more worksheet.

29) Answer: b)

Macros is used to define a sequence of actions to perform on a document or

multiple documents that can be executed again and again.

30) Answer: c)

Cell address is used to specify the intersecting of row and column of the letter
and number on worksheet.

31) Which of the following is a two-dimensional barcode consisting of a

black and white pixel pattern which allows to encode up to a few hundred
characters?

a) RFID

b) UPI Code

c) Quick Response Code

d) EAN Code

e) None of these

32) Which of the following key should be pressed to move the insertion
point to the Address box or to highlight the URL in the Address box?

a) Ctrl + S

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b) Shift + Tab

c) Alt + Caps

d) Alt + D

e) None of these

33) Which of the following is a program that uses a variety of different

approaches to identify and eliminate spam?

a) Directory search

b) Software

c) Firmware

d) Anti-Spam Program

e) None of these

34) A language that can be written on one platform and executed on

another platform is said to be __________.

a) Adoptable

b) Portable

c) Executable

d) Dynamic

e) None of these

35) ________ is a search tool that uses another search engine’s data to
produce their own results from the Internet

a) Search engine

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b) Hits

c) Meta search engines

d) Filter

e) None of these

36) Which of the following is a program that visits Web sites and reads
their pages and other information in order to create entries for a search
engine index?

a) URL

b) Sniffer

c) Spider

d) Hits

e) None of these

37) In a computer system, ________ is a group of servers and other

resources that act like a single system and enable high availability

a) Group

b) Cluster

c) Bunch

d) Backup

e) None of these

38) Which of the following layer is responsible for controlling the opening
and closing of session between end user application process?

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a) Application layer

b) Data link layer

c) Presentation layer

d) Session layer

e) None of these

39) What is the shortcut key to save the opened document?

a) F5

b) F12

c) F7

d) Ctrl + A

e) None of these

40) What is the extension to save C++ program?

a) .cxx

b) .crr

c) .ctt

d) .cqq

e) None of these

Answers :

31) Answer: c)

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Quick Response Code is a two-dimensional barcode consisting of a black and
white pixel pattern which allows to encode up to a few hundred characters

32) Answer: d)

Alt + D key should be pressed to move the insertion point to the Address box,
or to highlight the URL in the Address box

33) Answer: d)

Anti-Spam program will uses a variety of different approaches to identify and

eliminate spam

34) Answer: b)

A language that can be written on one platform and executed on another

platform is said to be Portable

35) Answer: c)

Meta search engines is a search tool that uses another search engine’s data to
produce their own results from the Internet

36) Answer: c)

Spider visits Web sites and reads their pages and other information in order to
create entries for a search engine index

37) Answer: b)

In a computer system, Cluster is a group of servers and other resources that act
like a single system and enable high availability

38) Answer: d)

Session layer is responsible for controlling the opening and closing of session
between end user application process

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39) Answer: b)

To save the opened document F12 should be pressed.

40) Answer: a)

.cxx is the extension to save C++ program

41) While studying about the computer, we may came across the term
CIFS. What does I stands for?

a) Internet

b) Implement

c) Interconnection

d) Intermediate

e) None of these

42) What is the shortcut key for adding the certain range of cells in excel?

a) A1 + B1

b) SUM (A3 : B5)

c) G5 : A3

d) A3 – A6

e) None of these

43) How many pins are in VGA cable?

a) 20

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b) 15

c) 18

d) 25

e) None of these

44) By using which of the following language, the data can be

retrieve/deletion is possible?

a) Data Manipulating language

b) Data Query language

c) Data Control language

d) Data Definition language

e) None of these

45) A device mounted on a communication satellite which receives,

amplifies and retransmits signals’ from earth stations is called _________.

a) Transmitter

b) Amplifier

c) Transponder

d) Connecter

e) None of these

46) Distributed data processing configuration where all activities passes

through a centrally located computer is _________

a) Ring network

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b) Spider network

c) Hierarchical network

d) Data control network

e) None of these

47) The overall design, construction, organization and interconnecting of

the various components of a computer system is referred as _______.

a) Computer design

b) Computer program

c) Computer architecture

d) Computer algorithm

e) None of these

48) The process of trying out a new product by independent users before it
is finally manufactured/ developed is known as _____

a) Alpha test

b) Beta test

c) Gamma test

d) System test

e) None of these

49) _______ is an application that captures TCP/IP data packets, which can
maliciously be used to capture passwords and other data while it is in
transit either within the computer or over the network.

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a) Security exploit

b) Vulnerability scanner

c) Packet sniffer

d) Data surfing

e) None of these

50) In Windows operating system it is the long horizontal bar at the bottom
of a screen. Unlike the desktop, which can get obscured by the windows on
top of it, it is visible almost all the time.

a) Task bar

b) Slide bar

c) Icon

d) Status bar

e) None of these

Answers :

41) Answer: a)

CIFS -> Common Internet File system.

42) Answer: b)

SUM (A3 : B5) is the shortcut key for adding the certain range of cells in excel

43) Answer: b)

In the VGA cable, there are 15 pins.

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44) Answer: b)

By using Data Query language the data can be retrieving/deletion is possible.

45) Answer: c)

A device mounted on a communication satellite which receives, amplifies and

retransmits signals’ from earth stations is called Transponder.

46) Answer: b)

Distributed data processing configuration where all activities passes through a

centrally located computer is called spider network.

47) Answer: c)

The overall design, construction, organization and interconnecting of the

various components of a computer system is referred as Computer architecture.

48) Answer: b)

The process of trying out a new product by independent users before it is finally
manufactured/ developed is known as Beta test.

49) Answer: a)

Security exploit is an application that captures TCP/IP data packets, which can
maliciously be used to capture passwords and other data while it is in transit
either within the computer or over the network.

50) Answer: a)

In Windows operating system it is the long horizontal bar at the bottom of a

screen. Unlike the desktop, which can get obscured by the windows on top of it,
it is visible almost all the time -> Task bar.

51) Both Switch and Bridge present in _____ layer

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a) Physical

b) Data link

c) Network

d) Transport

e) None of these

52) Which layer is responsible for deciding the simple duplex / full duplex /
half duplex?

a) Physical

b) Data link

c) Network

d) Transport

e) None of these

53) _____ layer is responsible for End to End delivery and _____ layer is
responsible for process to process delivery

a) Network, Transport

b) TCP, Network

c) Network, TCP

d) Application, Network

e) None of these

54) Which one of the following order is correct order?

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a) Byte< Kilobyte < Megabyte < Terabyte < Gigabyte < Petabyte

b) Byte< Kilobyte < Megabyte < Petabyte < Gigabyte < Terabyte

c) Byte< Kilobyte < Megabyte < Gigabyte < Terabyte < Petabyte

d) Byte< Kilobyte < Megabyte < Gigabyte < Petabyte < Terabyte

e) None of these

55) Which one of the following file extension for image?

a) *.png

b) *.jpg

c) *.jpeg

d) All of these

e) None of these

56) Which one of the following file extension for Database?

a) *.db

b) *.mdb

c) *.exe

d) *.txt

e) None of these

57) Which layer convert machine dependent data to machine independent

data?

a) Application

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b) Session

c) Presentation

d) Data link

e) None of these

58) Which of the following protocols is used in Application layer?

a) MIME

b) PPTP

c) TCP

d) SMPP

e) None of these

59) What command is used to permanently remove a record from a

database table?

a) Drop

b) Remove

c) Delete

d) Cut

e) None of these

60) By the use of _____ Command we can modify our exiting table?

a) Insert

b) Rename

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c) Delete

d) Alter

e) None of these

Answers :

51) Answer: b)

Both Switch and Bridge present in Data link layer.

52) Answer: a)

Physical layer is responsible for deciding the simple duplex / full duplex / half
duplex.

53) Answer: a)

Network layer is responsible for End to End delivery and Transport layer is
responsible for process to process delivery.

54) Answer: c)

Byte< Kilobyte < Megabyte < Gigabyte < Terabyte < Petabyte

55) Answer: d)

File extension for image

*.png

*.jpg

*.jpeg

56) Answer: b)

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File extension for Database

*.mdb

57) Answer: c)

Presentation layer convert machine dependent data to machine independent

data.

In presentation layer

-> Syntax and semantics

->Compression

->Data formatting

-> Encryption and Decryption

58) Answer: d)

Protocols is used in Application layer

->FTP

->SMPP

->SNMP

->SMTP

->Telnet

->DHCP

59) Answer: a)

Drop command is used to permanently remove a record from a database table.

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60) Answer: d)

By the use of Alter Command we can modify our exiting table

->Adding New Columns

->Dropping a Column from the Table

->Modifying Existing Table

61) Weak entity does not have sufficient attributes to form _____ key

a) Alternate key

b) Composite primary key

c) Primary key

d) Foreign key

e) None of these

62) Which key is used for relationship between tables?

a) Alternate key

b) Composite primary key

c) Primary key

d) Foreign key

e) None of these

63) Database Architecture can be viewed as _____________

a) Two levels

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b) Three levels

c) Four levels

d) One levels

e) None of these

64) Intersection of rows and columns are Known as ____

a) Sector

b) Cell

c) Data

d) Pointer

e) None of these

65) Which one is collection of data that is stored electronically as a series of

records in a table?

a) Spread sheet

b) Web page

c) Word Document

d) Database

e) None of these

66) Conceptual level also called as _________

a) Logical level

b) Physical level

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c) View level

d) Internal level

e) None of these

67) Which level describes the interaction between the user and the system?

a) Logical level

b) Physical level

c) View level

d) Internal level

e) None of these

68) Which one is collection of conceptual tools for describing data, data
relationship, data semantics?

a) Schema

b) Data Abstraction

c) Data Models

d) Database Administrator

e) None of these

69) From the set of candidate keys after selecting one of the keys as
primary key, all other remaining keys are known as ____

a) Secondary key

b) Alternate key

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c) Candidate key

d) Foreign key

e) None of these

70) In which type of database, data is organised in the form of trees with
nodes?

a) Network

b) Hierarchical

c) Relational

d) Structured

e) None of these

Answers :

61) Answer: c)

Weak entity does not have sufficient attributes to form Primary key.

62) Answer: d)

Foreign key is used for relationship between tables.

63) Answer: b)

Database Architecture can be viewed as three levels. The System does not
provide all the details of the data, rather it hides the details of how the data are
stored and maintained.

64) Answer: b)

Intersection of rows and columns are known as Cell.

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65) Answer: d)

Database is collection of data that is stored electronically as a series of records

in a table.

66) Answer: a)

Conceptual level also called as Logical level. It describes what type of data is
stored in the database, the relationship among the data without effecting to the
physical level.

67) Answer: c)

View level is the highest level of data abstraction describes the interaction
between the user and the system.

68) Answer: c)

Data Models is collection of conceptual tools for describing data, data

relationship, data semantics etc. They are generally divided in three data
models: Relation, Network and Hierarchical model.

69) Answer: b)

From the set of candidate keys after selecting one of the keys as primary key, all
other remaining keys are known as Alternate key.

70) Answer: b)

In Hierarchical database, data is organised in the form of trees with nodes.

Nodes are connected via links.

71) Which one of the following language is used in 3GL?

a) COBOL

b) PASCAL

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c) BASIC

d) All of these

e) None of These

72) Which one of the following is used to stores the data in tabular format?

a) DBMS

b) RDBMS

c) Both a and b

d) Dbase

e) None of These

73) Which one of the following commands is used to allow specified users to
perform specified tasks?

a) Call

b) Rollback

c) Grant

d) Revoke

e) None of These

74) Which one of the following commands is used to cancel previously

granted or denied permissions?

a) Commit

b) Rollback

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c) Revoke

d) Grant

e) None of These

75) Which one of the following has no transitive functional dependencies?

a) 1 NF

b) 2 NF

c) 3 NF

d) 4 NF

e) None of These

76) If every attribute in that relation is singled valued attribute then it is in

____ Form

a) 1 NF

b) 2 NF

c) 3 NF

d) 4 NF

e) None of These

77) A relation is in ______ if it has No Partial Dependency is dependent on

any proper subset of any candidate key of the table

a) 1 NF

b) 2 NF

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c) 3 NF

d) 4 NF

e) None of These

78) Which one of the following cannot be decomposed into any number of
smaller tables without loss of data?

a) 2NF

b) 3 NF

c) 4 NF

d) 5 NF

e) None of These

79) Which one of the following is the act of secretly listening to a private
conversation, typically between hosts on a network?

a) Phishing

b) Eavesdropping

c) Spoofing

d) Direct-access attacks

e) None of These

80) Which one of the following shortcut key is used to insert a page break?

a) Ctrl + A

b) Ctrl + D

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c) Ctrl + Enter

d) Shift + F3

e) None of These

Answers :

71) Answer: d)

3rd – High level languages

->FORTRAN II – IV

->COBOL

->PASCAL

->BASIC

->ALGOL68

72) Answer: b)

RDBMS

->RDBMS stores data in tabular form.

->Normalization is present in RDBMS.

73) Answer: c)

Grant

-> Allow specified users to perform specified tasks.

74) Answer: c)

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Revoke

-> Cancel previously granted or denied permissions.

75) Answer: c)

3NF

->A relation is in third normal form, if there is no transitive dependency for

non-prime attributes is it is in second normal form.

->A relation is in 3NF if at least one of the following condition holds in every
non-trivial function dependency X –> Y.

76) Answer: a)

1 NF

->A relation is in first normal form if every attribute in that relation is singled
valued attribute.

->If a relation contain composite or multi-valued attribute, it violates first

normal form or a relation is in first normal form if it does not contain any
composite or multi-valued attribute.

77) Answer: b)

2 NF

->It should be in second normal form, a relation must be in first normal form
and relation must not contain any partial dependency.

->A relation is in 2NF if it has No Partial Dependency, i.e., no non-prime

attribute (attributes which are not part of any candidate key) is dependent on
any proper subset of any candidate key of the table.

78) Answer: d)

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5NF

->A table is in 5th Normal Form only if it is in 4NF.

->It cannot be decomposed into any number of smaller tables without loss of
data.

79) Answer: b)

Eavesdropping

-> It is the act of secretly listening to a private conversation, typically between

hosts on a network.

80) Answer: c)

Ctrl + Enter

->Insert a page break.

81) Which of the following in not a input device?

a) Touch screen

b) Keyboard

c) Joystick

d) Scanner

e) Printer

82) A technique for searching special databases, called data warehouses,

looking for related information and patterns is called _____.

a) Data redundancy

b) Data mining

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c) Data integrity

d) Data programming

e) None of these

83) While studying about computer, we may came to know about the term
QDR. Expand QDR?

a) Quad data rate

b) Quad decryption region

c) Quad degree region

d) Quad deficit rate

e) None of these

84) Imagine that a user has a WORD document open at a workstation and
that workstation is unexpectedly disconnected from the school network and
from the Internet. Where should the user BEST save her work?

a) USB key

b) P drive

c) H drive

d) S drive

e) None of these

85) _____ cells involve creating a single cell by combining two or more
selected cells.

a) Splitting

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b) Uniting

c) Together

d) Merging

e) None of these

86) Multiple choice examination answer sheets can be evaluated atomically

by _______

a) Optical character recognitions

b) Optical character reader

c) Optical Mark reader

d) Magnetic tape reader

e) None of these

87) A file is corrected immediately after the input of a transaction. This is

an example of _____.

a) Online updating

b) Batching

c) Sorting

d) Offline Updating

e) None of these

88) While studying about networking, we may came to know about the
term SACK. What does SACK represents?

a) Selection Acknowledgement

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b) Selective Acknowledgement

c) Supreme request

d) Suppress Data

e) None of these

89) What is the short cut key to centre the paragraph?

a) Ctrl + T

b) Ctrl + J

c) Ctrl + E

d) Ctrl + W

e) None of these

90) Which of the following memories has the shortest access time?

a) Main memory

b) Secondary memory

c) Cache memory

d) Virtual memory

e) None of these

Answers :

81) Answer: e)

Printer is an output device

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82) Answer: b)

A technique for searching special databases, called data warehouses, looking for
related information and patterns is called Data mining.

83) Answer: a)

QDR -> Quad data rate

84) Answer: c)

The data which are opened in the workstation, which are disconnected will be
stored in H drive.

85) Answer: d)

Merging cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected
cells.

86) Answer: c)

Multiple choice examination answer sheets can be evaluated atomically by

Optical Mark reader.

87) Answer: a)

A file is corrected immediately after the input of a transaction. This is an

example of Online updating

88) Answer: b)

SACK -> Selective Acknowledgement

89) Answer: c)

The shortcut key to centre the paragraph is Ctrl + E

90) Answer: c)

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Cache memory will take shortest access time.

91) While editing an MS Word document if you accidentally loose text,

which of the following can then be used to revert the action?

a) Copy

b) Replace

c) Insert

d) Repair

e) Undo

92) What among the following displays the content of the active cell in
Microsoft Excel?

a) Status Bar

b) Row Headings

c) Formula Bar

d) Task Panel

e) Title Bar

93) Which among the following is a function of the F4 key in MS Word?

a) Used as a refresh key

b) Repeat last action performed while typing in

c) Used for “spell-check”

d) Opens the full screen mode

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e) To rename a highlighted icon or file

94) In Word Processing the green underline indicates _____.

a) Number mistake

b) Grammar mistake

c) Spelling mistake

d) Space mistake

e) None of these

95) In MS Word, to get to the ‘Symbol’ dialog box, click on the ______
menu and choose ‘Symbol’.

a) File

b) Format

c) Insert

d) Table

e) Tools

96) Which of the following refers to the appearance or presentation of your

essay on a Word file?

a) Text formatting

b) Point size

c) Typeface

d) Text Layout

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e) Character formatting

97) ________ is a feature supported by many word processors that enables

you to surround a picture or diagram with text.

a) Image Wrap

b) Text Wrap

c) Picture Wrap

d) All of the above

e) None of these

98) In MS Excel, the expression A1 < = B1 returns

a) TRUE if A1 is less than B1 and FALSE if A1 is greater than B1

b) TRUE if A1 is equal to or greater than B1 and FALSE if A1 is less than B1

c) TRUE if A1 is equal to or less than B1 and FALSE if A1 is greater than B1

d) TRUE if A1 is not equal to B1 and FALSE if A1 is equal to B1

e) None of these

99) In MS Excel, when does the #N/A error occur?

a) Excel does not recognize the text specified in a formula

b) A value is not available to a function or formula

c) An invalid cell is referenced

d) A formula includes an argument or operand of the wrong type

e) None of these

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100) In Word, you can use ________ for consistent document formatting.

a) SmartArt

b) Chart

c) Character and Paragraph styles

d) Page Margin

e) None of these

Answers :

91) Answer: e)

The Undo command undoes anything you do in Word, which includes

formatting text, moving blocks, typing and deleting text, formatting etc.

92) Answer: c)

A toolbar at the top of the Microsoft Excel spreadsheet window that you can use
to enter or copy an existing formula in to cells or charts. It is labelled with
function symbol (fx). By clicking the Formula Bar, or when you type an equal
(=) symbol in a cell, the Formula Bar will activate.

93) Answer: b)

The F4 key will repeat the last command or keystroke you just did.

94) Answer: b)

Red underlines indicate spelling errors, green underlines are grammar errors,
and blue underlines indicate inconsistent formatting.

95) Answer: c)

Symbol is sub-menu under Insert menu in MS-Word.

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96) Answer: a)

Formatting text in Microsoft Word involves tasks like bolding the text,
italicising it, and changing the font and size. The commands to perform all of
these formatting tasks are found on the Home tab in the Font group.

97) Answer: b)

Text wrap is a feature supported by many word processors that enables you to
surround a picture or diagram with text. The text wraps around the graphic. Text
wrap is also called text flow. Text wrapping allows us to place text behind an
image, in front of an image or around an image.

98) Answer: c)

The less than or equal to (< =) operator in Excel returns ‘TRUE’ if given
expression is correct and ‘FALSE’ if it is incorrect. For given expression, if the
value in column A, row 1 of the file is either equal to or less than the value in
column B, row 1, the returned value would be ‘TRUE’.

99) Answer: b)

The #NA error occurs because a look up value cannot be found in your lookup
data range. Excel attempts to lookup a value, cannot find it in the cells you have
told it to look so it returns the #NA result.

100) Answer: c)

You can apply formatting to text quickly and easily by using style in Word.
Four kinds of styles are available: paragraph, character, table, and list styles.
Paragraph styles determine the look of text in a document at the paragraph level.
Character styles usually control the formatting of smaller sections of text, for
example, to make one word in a paragraph stand out.

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