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Chemistry 200 Questions

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions covering various topics in chemistry, including atomic theory, chemical reactions, properties of compounds, and electrolysis. Each question presents four answer options, requiring knowledge of chemical principles and concepts. The questions assess understanding of fundamental chemistry topics relevant to academic studies.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
117 views24 pages

Chemistry 200 Questions

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions covering various topics in chemistry, including atomic theory, chemical reactions, properties of compounds, and electrolysis. Each question presents four answer options, requiring knowledge of chemical principles and concepts. The questions assess understanding of fundamental chemistry topics relevant to academic studies.

Uploaded by

melatinda33
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Choose the best answer from the given alternatives

1. What property of the nitrogen atom represented by the equation N(g) + e- → N-


A. Electronegativity C. Lattice energy
B. First electron affinity D. First ionization energy
2. RCOOR’ represent the general structural formula of ______ functional group, where is R=
H&R’=alkyl:
A. Ketone B. Aldehyde C. Carboxylic acid D. Ester
3. Salts absorbs water from the atmosphere to form a solution is:
A. Hygroscopic salt B. Efflorescent salt C. Deliquescent salt D. Normal salt
4. Which one of the following is not an ionic compound?
A. CaCl2 B. Na2O C. CO2 D. K2S
5. If an electron in hydrogen atom falls from the state with n=5 to that where n=3,What is the wave
length of the photon emitted?
A. 3456nm B.1283nm C.1420nm D.4556nm
6. Which of the following oxides is not a neutral oxide?
A. NO B. CO C. H2O D. CaO
7. The most common reaction that alkenes undergo is:
A. elimination B. addition C. substitution D. decomposition
8. Which one of the following molecules contains hydrogen bonding?
A. CO2 B. HBr C. H2S D. NH3
9. Given the reaction X and Y below:
X: H2O + NH3 NH4+ + OH-
Y: H2O + HSO4- H3O+ + SO42-
Which statement describes the behaviour of the H2O in these reactions?
A. Water act as an acid in both reaction D. water act as a base in both reaction
B. Water act as an acid in the reaction X and as a base in the reaction Y
C. Water act as a base in the reaction X and as an acid in the reaction Y
10. Which of the following oxide is not salt forming oxide?
A. Acidic oxide C. neutral oxide
B. Basic oxide D. Amphoteric oxide
11. How many sigma ( ) and pi( ) bonds, respectively are there in CH3CH2CHO molecule?
A. 9,1 B.1,9 C.5,4 D.5,5
12. What is the main objective of green chemistry?
A. Minimize the use of chemicals in industrial processes
1
B. Increase the use of renewable energy sources
C. Reduce waste and pollution in chemical production
D. Improve the safety of chemical products
13. A base that contains large amounts of base and small amounts of water in a given solution is:
A. Concentrated B. Strong C. Weak D. Dilute
14. Which one of the following is not a normal salt?
A. NaCl B. NaHCO3 C. CaCl2 D. Mg3N2
15. The bond formed by and atom with electron configuration 1s22s22p63s1 and 1s22s22p4 is:
A. Ionic B. Covalent C. Dative D. Polar covalent
16. Which of the following properties of hydrocarbons (alkanes, alkenes and alkynes) are true?
Property Alkanes Alkenes Alkynes
i. Nature of flame Non-luminous Luminous Smoky luminous
ii. Effect on colour of No effect Decolorizes Decolorizes
Br2 in CCl4
iii. Effect on colour of No effect Decolorizes Decolorizes
alkaline KMnO4
A. II B. I, III C. I, II D. I, II, III
17. Which one of the following does not have unshared electron pairs?
A. H2O B. CH4 C. HCl D. NH3
18. The first atomic theory was proposed by
A. Thomson B. Dalton C. Democritus D. Rutherford
19. Assume that equal concentrations of three strong acids (HA, H2A and H3A) are ionized in
aqueous solution. Which is true about the concentrations of hydrogen ions in the solution?
A. [HA< [H2A] < [H3A] C. [HA] = [H2A] = [H3A]
B. [H3A] < [H2A] < [HA] D. [H2A] < [HA] < [H2A]
20. How many bonding and lone pair of electrons are there in CO2 respectively?
A. 4 and 4 B. 2 and 4 C. 3 and 3 D. 3 and 2
21. Atoms of the same element with the same atomic number but different mass number is:
A. Isotope B. Isomers C. Allotropy D. Isobars
22. Which one of the following molecules does not have a coordinate covalent bond?
A. H3O+ B. NH4+ C. BF3NH3 D. CO2
23. The maximum number of electrons in the third main energy level
A. 2 B. 18 C. 8 D. 32
24. The number of electrons, protons and neutrons in 5626Fe2+ respectively is

2 A. 26, 26, 30 B. 28,26,30 C. 24, 26, 30 D. 24,26,56


25. Un equal distribution of the shared pair of electrons between two atoms results in the formation
of:
A. Metallic bond C. Polar covalent bond
B. Dative bond D. Ionic bond
26. If fused PbCl2 is electrolyzed, which the following is correct?
A. Pb2+ is attracted to anode and it undergoes reduction by gaining 2electrons
B. 2Cl- is attracted to anode and it undergoes oxidation by losing 2electrons
C. 2Cl- is attracted to cathode and it undergoes reduction by gaining 2electrons
D. Pb2+ is attracted to anode and it undergoes oxidation by losing 2 electrons
27. What is the oxidation number of sulfur atom in Na2SO4 compound?
A. +6 B. +2 C. -2 D. -3
28. If the last electron of an element is 4s2, then the number of energy level is
A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 5
29. In every balanced chemical equation, each side of the equation has the same number of
A. Molecules C. Coefficients
B. Moles D. Atoms
30. The type of reaction in which two or more reactants combine to form a single product is
A. Decomposition C. Composition
B. Single displacement D. Double displacement
31. Choose the incorrect option regarding the physical properties of carboxylic acid.
A. Higher carboxylic acids are insoluble in water
B. Benzoic acid is soluble in cold water
C. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling point than aldehydes of comparable masses
D. Aliphatic carboxylic acids up to four C-atoms are coloured
32. In the reaction Al + HCl → AlCl3 + H2. What would be the coefficient of HCl if the equation
is balanced. A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 5
33. Which gas is liberated, when an acid reacts with an active metal?
A. Metal form ions C. Hydronium ion concentration is increased
B. Hydrogen gas is produced D. Carbon dioxide gas is produced
34. Which one of the following is non-redox reaction?
A. 2Mg +O2 → 2MgO C. CaO +HCl → CaCl2 + H2O
B. Zn + HCl → ZnCl2 + H2 D. CaCO3 → CaO +CO2
35. Which one of the following statement is true for the following reaction?
CuO +H2 → Cu + H2O
A. CuO is oxidizing agent C. H2O is reduced
3
B. H2 gains electron D. Cu2+ loses electron.
36. 2 moles of calcium is heated with 2moles of oxygen. How many CaO formed?
2Ca + O2 → 2CaO
A. 1 mole O2 B. 1.5 mole C. 2 mole D. 1 mole
37. Which one of the following is used as a raw material in the production of nitric acid?
A. NH3 B. N2O C. N2O3 D. NaNO3
38. When carbon burns in air CO2 and CO are formed. This is related to the law of
A. Conservation of mass C. Multiple proportion
B. Definite proportion D. constant composition
39. One of the following is true about acid and base?
A. Base is a substance when dissolved in water increases the [H3O+]
B. Acid is the substance when dissolved in water increases the [OH-]
C. Base is proton acceptor D. Acid is elector donor
40. The modern periodic table is periodic function of their
A. Atomic number C. mass number
B. atomic weight D. number of neutrons
41. The acid-base indicator methyl orange has a Ka value of 1 x 10−6. Its acidic form is red while its
basic form is yellow. If methyl orange is added to a solution with a pH = 7, the color of the
solution will be;
A. Pink B. Red C. Orange D. Yellow
42. Which one of the following factors does not affect chemical equilibrium?
A. Temperature B. Pressure C. Concentration D. Catalyst
43. In the reaction N2 + 3H2  2NH3 + heat. How does the equilibrium shift to the right?
A. Increasing pressure C. Increasing the concentration NH3
B. Increasing temperature D. Removing N2 and H2.
44. Which of the following are the correct steps for the production of sugar?
A. Cleansing → harvesting → juicing → clarifying → evaporation → crystallization
B. Harvesting → cleansing → juicing → clarifying → evaporation → crystallization
C. Harvesting → juicing → cleansing → evaporation → clarifying → crystallization
D. Harvesting → clarifying → juicing → evaporation → cleansing → crystallization
45. In the reaction x + H2O → H3PO3 “x” represents
A. P2O3 B. P2O5 C. PO33- D. pO43-
46. Which one of the following oxide does not change the color of indicators?
A. CO2 B. Na2O C. N2O D. SO3
47. According to Lewis concept, acids are:
4
A. Proton donors C. Release hydronium ions in water solution
B. Electron donors D. Electron a acceptors
48. Which one of the following element is required by plants in small amounts?
A. Phosphorous B. potassium C. zinc D. Nitrogen
49. Which of the following substance would be the possible repeating unit for polyethylene
terephthalate?
A. 1, 4-benzenedicarboxylic acid and 1, 6-hexanedioic acids
B. 1, 6-diaminohexane and 1, 6-hexanedioic acid
C. 1, 4-benzene dicarboxylic acid and 1, 2-ethanediol
D. 1, 6-diaminohexane and 1, 2-ethanediol
50. The anode half reaction during the electrolysis of a concentrated solution of sodium chloride is:
A. Na+ + e- → Na C. 2H2O → O2 + 4H+ + 4e-
B. 2Cl- → Cl2+2e- D. 2H2O + 2e- → H2 + 2OH-
51. From the conclusions of alpha scattering experiment, why most alpha particles pass through the
atom undeflected?
A. Due to the presence of a heavy positive centre (nucleus) in the atom
B. Because, most of the space in an atom is empty
C. Because, the space occupied by the nucleus is very small
D. Due to the presence of a heavy negative centre in the atom
52. Which of the following components of the environment is composed of 78 % of nitrogen, 21 % of
oxygen and 1 % of other gases?
A. Hydrosphere B. Atmosphere C. Lithosphere D. Biosphere
53. Electrolysis is not used for the:
A. purification of metal C. Production of non-metals
B. Electroplating of metal D. Production of electricity
54. Among the following isomeric substances, which one is trans-1, 4-dibromo-2, 3-dimeth-2-butene?

A. CH2Br B. CH2Br CH2Br


CH3
C C C C
CH2Br CH3 CH3
CH3

C. CH2Br CH3 D. CH2Br CH2Br


C C C C
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH2Br
55. In laboratory, one is allowed. Which one?
A. Eating and drinking C. direct smelling of chemicals
5
B. Sucking chemical by mouth D. wearing lab coat
56. What would be the position in the periodic table of an element with atomic number of 13?
A. Period 1, group III C. Period 2, group II
B. Period 3, group I D. Period 3, group III
57. Which of the following bacteria can convert ammonium ion (NH4+) to nitrate ion (NO3−) in the
soil?
A. Nitrosomonas bacteria C. Elecosolobus bacteria
B. Nitrosolobus bacteria D. Nitrification
58. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms) describes the highest energy
electron of Potassium in its ground state? (Atomic number = 19)
A. 4, 0, 0, +½ B. 3, 0, 0, +½ C. 3, 2, -2, -½ D. 4, 3, +3, +½
59. The electrolyte in car battery is
A. H2SO4 B. PbSO4 C. HCl D. PbO2
60. Which of the following is true about electrolytic conductivity?
A. Cations move towards the anode
B. Electrons are carried out by ions through the electrolyte
C. Electrons move form cathode to anode in the electrolyte
D. Anions move through the conducting wires.
61. The ejection of electron from metals by shining of a light on the metal surface is;
A. work function B. binding energy C. photoelectric effect D. speed of light
62. What is the cathode material in a dry cell (Lechlanche cell)?
A. Lead B. Magnesium C. Graphite D. Zinc
63. The following figure shows an energy diagram for a certain chemical reaction.

Which of the following is true about the reaction shown in the diagram?
A. B indicates heat content of the reactant
B. A indicates heat change of the reaction
C. C indicates heat content of the product
D. The reaction is exothermic
6
64. What is the name given for the relationship between volume and moles at constant temperature
and pressure:
A. Boyle’s Law B. Charles’ law C. Combined gas law D. Avogadro’s law
65. Which of the following statement is not correct about non-volatile liquids?
A. They evaporate easily at room temperature
B. They have weak intermolecular forces between their particles
C. They have low vapour pressure
D. They have high vapour pressure
66. The process of covering metals by a thin layer of another metal using electrolysis is
A. purification C. electroplating
B. electrolytic refining D. anodizing
67. The reaction of alcohols with carboxylic acids produces compounds with the general structural
formula.
A. RCOOR B. RCOR C. RCOOH D. ROR
68. Consider the reaction: 2CO(g) + 5H2(g) → C2H2(g) + 2H2O(g) The rate at which carbon
-3 -1 -1
monoxide, CO, reacting is 2x10 mol L s . What is the rate at which H2 reacting?
A. 5x10-3 molL-1s-1 B.2x10-3 molL-1s-1 C.0.8x10-3 molL-1s-1 D.1x10-3 molL-1s-1
69. Which one of the following compounds doesn’t contain a carbon atom doubly boned to oxygen
in its functional group?
A. Alcohol B. Esters C. Ketones D. Aldehydes
70. Which substance is the reducing agent in the following reaction?
4H+(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) + MnO2(s) → Cl2(g) + Mn2+(aq) + 2H2O(l)
A. H+ B. Cl- C. MnO2 D. H2O
71. What are the substances that give fruits their characteristics smell and flavor?
A. Ethers C. Esters
B. Carboxylic acids D. Ketones
72. Ethyl acetate can be prepared by the reaction between ethanol and____
A. CH3CHO B. CH3CH2OH C. CH3COOH D. HCOOH
73. Which one of the following is the correct electron configuration of the copper atom (29Cu)?
A. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d9 C. 1s22s22p63s23p64s13d10
B. 1s22s22p63s23p63d9 D. 1s22s22p63s24s23p53d10
74. A compound formed between group IIIA elements and that of group VIA would have the formula
A. A2B2 B. A2B2 C. A3B6 D. A6B3
75. Which acid would be expected to have the lowest boiling point?
A. Stearic (CH3(CH2)16CO2H) C. formic (HCO2H)
7
B. acetic (CH3CO2H) D. benzoic (C6H5CO2H)
76. Which one of the following properties of an element decreases across a period?
A. ionization energy C. Electro affinity
B. Atomic size D. Electro negativity
77. A 3L sample of a gas at 348K has its volume changed to 10L by changing its temperature at
constant pressure what will be the new Celsius temperature of the gas?
A. 1160oC B. 887oC C. 687oC D. 267oC
78. The quantity of heat liberated during crystallization equals the quantity of heat absorbed during
A. vaporization B. fusion C. sublimation D. condensation
79. Hund's rule states that:
A. Lower energy orbitals are filled with electrons before higher energy orbitals.
B. All orbitals of a given sublevel must be occupied by a single electron before pairing begins
C. No two electrons in an atom can have the same four quantum numbers.
D. It is impossible to accurately determine both the position and momentum of an electron.
80. Find the volume that 65ml of air would occupy if the temperature changes from -13oC to 23oC
(pressure is constant)
A. 80ml B. 50ml C. 74ml D. 79ml
81. Which of the following is true about kinetic molecular theory of matter?
A. Matter is composed of motionless particles
B. Particles of matter possess kinetic energy, but no potential energy
C. The three states of matter differ in energy and particle motion
D. Motion of particles of matter is independent of temperature
82. The temperature at which a solid changes to a liquid state is known as
A. condensation point B. Sublimation point
C. melting point D. boiling point
83. A quantity of methane gas has a volume of 100L to 27oC and 700 mmKg pressure. What will be
its volume at 0oC and 760mm Kg?
A. 84.4L B. 160L C. 119.3L D. 1008.8L
84. How many times faster is the rate of diffusion of PH3 than the rate of diffusion of NH3?
A. ½ B. 1/√ C. 4 D. 2
85. The Pauli Exclusion principle
A. Tells the energy of an electrons
B. Tells the shape of the orbitals
C. Limit the number of electrons in an orbital in to two

8 D. Describe the location of electrons in space


86. Which one of the following factor does not have an effect on the rate of evaporation of a liquid?
A. surface area B. volume of the liquid
C. temperature D. intermolecular force
87. Which elements differ in position in Mendeleev’s and Modern Periodic Tables?
A. silicon and aluminium C. argon and potassium
B. hydrogen and helium D. sodium and potassium
88. In any group of the periodic table, as atomic number increases, the elements:
A. become less reactive C. tend to lose electron more readily
B. tend to lose electron less readily D. tend to accept electron more readily
89. The valence configuration of the element just above Z = 42 in the periodic table is:
A. 3d54s2 B. 3d64s1 C. 3d54s1 D. 3d64s2
90. Given the electrochemical reaction shown, if the standard reduction potential of Ni2+ →Ni is -0.26
V, and the standard reduction potential of Al3+ → Al is -1.66V, what is E˚ for the following? Al /
Al3+(aq) // Ni2+ (aq) / Ni, Calculate the value of E˚
A. +1.26 V B. +0.85 V C. +0.46 V D. +1.40 V
91. Which set of atomic numbers shows elements of the same group?
A. 22, 40, 72 B. 23, 41, 72 C. 16, 52, 86 D. 19, 37, 56
92. Francium has the largest atomic size of all elements because it has:
A. the highest atomic number C. the greatest shielding effect
B. the greatest effective nuclear charge D. the highest number of shells
93. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a sublevel for which l = 4 is:
A. 18 B. 10 C. 6 D. 14
94. What change do we observe when 20Ca loses an electron?
A. Atomic number increases C. effective nuclear charge increases
B. It becomes more stable D. Its radius decreases
95. Breaking a chalk into pieces has a limit. This statement demonstrates that:
A. matter is continuous C. matter is not destroyed by any method
B. matter has discrete building blocks D. matter comprises fundamental particles
96. Which one of the following electromagnetic radiations has the shortest wavelength?
A. X–rays B.UV rays C. microwaves D. gamma rays
97. When H+ forms a bond with H2O to form the hydronium ion H3O+, this bond is called a
coordinate covalent bond because
A. both bonding electrons come from the oxygen atom C. it forms an especially strong bond
B. the electrons are equally shared D. the oxygen no longer has eight valence electrons
98. According to the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom:
9
A. an electron emits energy as it rotates around the nucleus
B. the electron possesses the highest possible energy when it stays near the nucleus
C. the electron is located in a volume of space called orbital
D. the energy of the electron increases with increase in size of the orbit.
99. In acid-base, titration why the PH of strong acid-strong base titration is equal to 7 at
equivalence point?
A. Because the anion derived from the acid undergoes hydrolysis
B. Because the cation derived from the base undergoes reaction with water
C. Neither the anion of the acid nor the cation of the base reacts with water
D. Both the cation derived from the base & the anion derived from the acid reacts with water
100. Isotopes of an element differ in:
A. chemical property C. nuclear charge
B. symbol on the periodic table D. nuclear mass
101. Choose the correct statement.
A. No two atoms of an element can have the same proton number
B. An atom of silicon would no longer be silicon if it were divided any further
C. The first suggestion that matter is composed of atoms is attributed to Dalton
D. No two atoms of the same proton number form an element
102. Which of the following ideas is introduced by the quantum mechanical model of an atom?
A. For atoms of the known elements, there are four types of sublevels
B. The structure of an atom resembles the solar system
C. Electrons revolve around the nucleus in a circular orbit called shell
D. Electrons are embedded in a positively charged sphere
103. Which of the following atomic model is also known as Plum-pudding model?
A. Thomson’s atomic model C. Dalton’s atomic model
B. Bohr’s atomic model D. Rutherford’s atomic model
104. The energy of first orbit in a hydrogen atom is:
A. 3.18 x 10-12J B. -2.18 x 10-18J C. -3.18 x 10-18J D. 2.18 x 10-18J
105. Minimum amount of energy that can be store or radiated in discrete amount is referred to as
A. radiation B. spectrum C. generation D. quanta
106. The correct increasing order of rate diffusion of gases H2, O2, NH3, CH4 is:
A. O2 < NH3 < CH4 < H2 C. H2 < O2 < NH3 < CH4
B. CH4 < NH3 < O2 < H2 D. NH3 < H2 < CH4 < O2
107. Which of the following is the correct increasing order of atomic radius for the elements: Al, Ar,
Na, Si?
10
A. Si, Na, Al, Ar C. Ar, Si, Al, Na
B. Na, Al, Si, Ar D. Al, Si, Ar, Na
108. Which of the following properties increases down the group in the modern periodic
classification of elements?
A. Electron affinity C. Electro negativity
B. Ionization energy D. Metallic character
109. The energy released when an electron is added to an isolated neutral atom is:
A. Electron affinity C. ionization energy
B. Electro negativity D. Activation energy
110. What is the conjugate acid and conjugate base of dihydrogen phosphate (H2PO4-)
respectively?
A. HPO42-, PO43- C. H2PO4-, HPO42-
B. H3PO4, PO43- D. H3PO4, HPO42-
111. In a molecule, the most electronegative atom
A. repels electrons more strongly and acquires a partial negative charge
B. repels electrons more strongly and acquires a partial positive charge
C. attracts electrons more strongly and acquires a partial negative charge
D. attracts electrons more strongly and acquires a partial positive charge
112. For the reversible reaction,
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) + Heat. The equilibrium shifts in forward direction:
A. by increasing the concentration of NH3
B. by decreasing the pressure
C. by decreasing the concentrations of N2 and H2
D. by increasing pressure and decreasing temperature
113. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about chemical equilibrium?
A. Chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature
B. The reaction is reversible in nature
C. There is no net change in the concentrations of the reactants and products of the reaction
D. The reaction is irreversible in nature
114. Equilibrium constant(Kp) expression for,
CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO (s) + CO2 (g) is:

A. pCO2 B. pCaO. pCO2 C. D.

115. For the reaction: SO2 (g) + NO2 (g) → NO (g) + SO3 (g), the concentration of the reagents is
as follows: [SO3] = 0.2 mol.dm−3, [NO2] = 0.1 mol.dm−3, [NO] = 0.4 mol.dm−3 and [SO2] =
11 0.2 mol.dm−3. What is the unit of Kc value?
A. Mol.dm-3 B. dm3.mol-1 C. mol.L-1 D. unitless
116. Real gases obey ideal gas law at:
A. High temperature and low pressure C. low temperature and high pressure
B. High temperature and high pressure D. low temperature and low pressure
117. If 0.5 mole of nitrogen gas occupies a volume of 11.2L at 0 oC; what volume will 2 mole of
nitrogen gas occupy at the same temperature and pressure?
A. 22.4L B. 11.2L C. 44.8L D. 33.6L
118. A certain gas occupies a volume of 10cm3 at a pressure of 100kPa. If its volume is increased to
20cm3, what would be the new pressure of the gas assuming temperature remains constant? A.
50kPa B. 25kPa C. 100kPa D. 20kPa
119. The overall reaction is given by the sum of the three reactions as:
A + B ⇌ C +D K1 = 2
E+F⇌C+D K2=4
E + F ⇌ G +H K3 = 0.8, what is the value of K for the overall reaction, if the overall reaction
is A + B ⇌ G +H? A. 6.4 B. 0.8 B. 0.4 D. 0.2
120. Which of the following bonds is the most polar?
A. H – F B. O – N C. H – N D. Cl – Cl
121. Which hybridization changes when does the carbon atom undergo in the combustion of
methane? CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) →CO2 (g) +2H2O (g)
A. SP→ SP2 C. SP3→SP
B. SP2→ SP3 D. SP2→SP
122. In the zinc-carbon dry cell the electrolyte contains:
A. 30% H2SO4 solution by mass C. KOH solution
B. Paste NH4Cl D. Molten NaCl
123. Which of the following is the anodic reaction in the discharge of lead acid storage battery?
A. PbO2(s) + SO42-(aq) + 4H+ + 2e- ⇋ PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l)
B. 2MnO2 (s) + H2O(l) + 2e- ⇋ Mn2O3(s) + 2OH-(aq)
C. Pb(s) + SO42-(aq) ⇋ PbSO4(s) + 2e-
D. Cd(s) + 2OH-(aq) ⇋ Cd(OH)2(s) + 2e-
124. Pi bond consists of two regions of electrons cloud density:
A. Along the bond axis C. Along and perpendicular to bond axis
B. Below the bond axis D. Above and below the bond axis
125. The iron obtained directly from the blast furnace is:
A. Pig Iron B. Hematite C. Wrought Iron D. Steel

12 126. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid. This means that:


A. HCl dissociates completely to H+ and Cl- when dissolved in water
B. Aqueous solution of HCl contain equal concentrations of H+ and OH-
C. HCl does not dissociate at all when it is dissolved in water
D. HCl produces a gaseous product when it is neutralized
127. Which one of the following metallic elements is most likely to be found as the free metal/native
state in nature?
A. Ca B. Cu C. Al D. Fe
128. According to MO theory, the atomic species C2:
A. Bond order is zero & it is paramagnetic C. bond order is two & it is paramagnetic
B. Bond order is zero & it is diamagnetic D. bond order is two & it is diamagnetic
129. Consider the following reactions in the process of sulphuric acid production. Which reaction
requires a catalyst?
A. S8 (s) + 8O2 (g) 8SO2 (g) C. SO3 (g) + H2SO4 (l) H2S2O7(l)
B. 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) D. H2S2O7 (l) + H2O (l) 2H2SO4 (aq)
130. Which of the following chemicals is used as a bleaching agent in the manufacturing of pulp and
paper?
A. sulphur dioxide C. sodium bisulphate
B. magnesium bisulphate D. hydrogen peroxide
131. How does protein substance in animal hide or skin be prevented from bacterial infection during
the process of tanning?
A. By soaking in water C. By curing using brine
B. By deliming using an acid D. By scudding using plastic tool
132. Among the following pollutants, which pair causes photochemical smog?
A. Carbon monoxide and ozone C. Hydrocarbon and ozone
B. Particulate and lead compounds D. Nitrogen and sulphur oxides
133. Which of the following methods can NOT be used to reduce water pollution?
A. Treatment of water before discharge into rivers and lakes
B. Using moderate amounts of agricultural chemicals
C. Recycling industrial and agricultural wastes
D. Discharging heat ladened water into natural water systems
134. Which step in the manufacturing of pulp and paper is used to remove coloring matter from wood
pulp?
A. Pulping B. Sulphite process C. Kraft process D. Bleaching
135. Which one is used as anode in the electrolytic refining of copper?

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A. Pure copper C. Impure copper
B. Graphite rod D. Pure iron rod
136. Which of the following hydrocarbons does not belong to the homologous series of alkanes?
A. C3H8 B. C8H18 C. C6H10 D. C10H22
137. Which of the following alkanes is a liquid at room temperature?
A. CH4 B. C10H22 C. C4H10 D. C3H8
138. If the Kc for A ⇋ B is X, What is the Kc for 2B ⇋ 2A?
A. X2 B. 1/X C. X-2 D. X3
139. Which of the following is not an application of equilibrium constant? Equilibrium constant:
A. Tell us the position of equilibrium C. predict the direction of the reaction
B. Predict the extent of the reaction D. calculate the initial conc. of reactants

14
140. Rate of a reaction can be expressed as :
I. the rate of decrease in concentration of any one of the reactant per unit time.
II. the rate of increase in concentration of any one of the product per unit time.
Which of the above mentioned statements is/are correct? Choose the correct option.
A. Only I B. Only II C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II
141. Factors affecting the rate of a reaction are :
I. ∆H of reaction. II. Size of the vessel. III. Amount of the reactants taken. IV. Inert gas added.
Which option are the correct factors?
A. I, II and III B. I, II, III and IV C. I, III and IV D. I, II and IV
142. In which of the following cases does the reaction go farthest towards completion:
A. Kc = 103 B. Kc = 10-2 C. Kc = 10 D. Kc = 1
143. The general formula that represents the olefin homologous series is:
A. CnH2n+1 B. CnH2n+2 C. CnH2n–2 D. CnH2n
144. The correct IUPAC name for the following compounds is:

A. 6-Ethyl-3,3-dimethyl-2-heptanol C. 3,3,6-Trimethyl-2-octanol
B. 2-Ethyl-5,5-dimethyl-6-heptanol D. 3,6,6-Trimethyl-7-octanol
145. Which one of the following is a double displacement reaction?
A. H2 + Br2 2HBr C. 2HgO 2Hg + O2
B. Zn + 2HCl ZnCl2 + H2 D. NaOH + HCl NaCl H2O
146. Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of the valence shell electron pairs
repulsion energies?
A. Bonding pair-bonding pair, bonding pair-lone pair, lone pair-lone pair
B. Bonding pair-lone pair, lone pair-lone pair, bonding pair-bonding pair
C. Lone pair-lone pair, bonding pair-lone pair, bonding pair-bonding pair
D. Lone pair-lone pair, bonding pair-bonding pair, bonding pair-lone pair
147. The compounds CH3OH and CH3COOH react in the presence of an acid catalyst to form:
A. a carboxylic acid B. an aldehyde C. a ketone D. an ester
148. Which species has the largest X-A-X bond angle, where A is the central atom?
A. BF3 B. CF4 C. NF4+ D. OF2
149. The shift in the position of equilibrium caused by the addition of an ion already involved in

15 the reaction is known as_____________.


A. Common-ion effect C. hydrolysis
B. Buffer-ion effect D. titration-effect
150. A neutral molecule having the general formula AB3 has two unshared pair of electrons on A.
What is the hybridization of A?
A. sp B. sp2 C. p3d D. sp3
151. A 250mL solution is formed from 24.5g of sulphuric acid (H2SO4). What is the normality of
this solution? ( Mt.wt. H2SO4= 98g/mol)
A. 4N B. 2N C. 0.25N D. 0.125N
152. What is the electron set and molecular geometry of ICl4+?
A. Trigonal planar, trigonal planar C. Trigonal pyramidal, linear
B. Tetrahedral, trigonal planar D. Trigonal bipyramidal, seesaw
153. What is the shape of the SF5- anion?
A. See-saw C. Trigonal pyramidal
B. Square pyramidal D. Trigonalbipyramidal
154. According to VSEPR theory, what is the molecular geometry of XeF3+?
A. Trigonal pyramidal C. Seesaw
B. T-shape D.Trigonal planar
155. Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt of
A. A weak acid & a weak base and the cation of the weak base can be hydrolyzed
B. A strong acid & a weak base & the anion of the strong acid can be hydrolyzed
C. A strong base & a weak acid & the anion of the weak acid can be hydrolysed
D. A strong base & a strong acid & the anion of the strong acid can be hydrolyzed
156. A certain weak acid (HA) ionizes in water according to the following reaction.
𝐻𝐴 ⇌ 𝐴−(𝑎𝑞) + 𝐻+(𝑎𝑞). What is the percent dissociation of 2.0 M HA at 25℃?
(𝐾𝑎 = 2 × 10−6 ) A. 0.4% B. 0.2% C. 0.3% D. 0.1%
157. If a molecule has a trigonal pyramidal shape, how many non-bonding pairs of electrons are
present in the valence shell of the central atom?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
158. In a certain electrolysis experiment, 1.44g of Ag were deposited in one cell (containing an
aqueous AgNO3 solution), while 0.120g of an unknown metal X was deposited in another cell
(containing an aqueous XCl3 solution) in series with the AgNO3 cell. What is the molar mass of
X?
A. 71g/mol B. 54g/mol C. 27g/mol D. 40g/mol
159. What mass of chlorine gas can be produced when a current of 0.50A is passed through molten

16
CaCl2 for 1h?
A. 0.662g B. 0.507g C. 0.898g D. 0.331g
160. When electricity is passed through molten aluminum chloride, 13.5 gram of Al are deposited.
What must be the number of Faraday’s of electricity passed?
A. 0.5 B. 2.0 C. 1.0 D. 1.5
161. Consider a solution which is 0.10 M in CH3COOH and 0.20 M in CH3COONa. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. If a small amount of NaOH is added, the pH decreases very slightly.
B. If NaOH is added, the OH- ions react with the CH3COO- ions.
C. If a small amount of HCl is added, the pH decreases very slightly.
D. If HCl is added, the H+ ions react with CH3COOH ions. E. If more CH3COOH is added, the
pH increases.
162. Which of the following statements is incorrect about molecular orbitals of molecules?
A. Anti- bonding molecular orbitals are higher in energy than bonding molecular orbitals
B. Sigma molecular orbitals are symmetrical around bonding axis
C. Pi molecular orbitals are unsymmetrical around bonding axis
D. Molecular orbitals are singly occupied in diamagnetic molecules
163. The monomer of polypropylene is:
A. propane B. propene C. styrene D. acetylene
164. A way of treating and cleaning wastes after it is generated is
A. Prevention B. Atom economy C. Reduce derivatives D. Design of safer chemicals
165. Which one of the following is a thermosetting plastic?
A. polyethylene B. dacron C. polypropylene D. Bakelite
166. Perspex is used for making:
A. squeeze bottles C. electrical insulation
B. trash bags D. airplane windows
167. Which one of the following is not a synthetic polymer?
A. nylon B. polyethylene C. cotton D. Dacron
168. Which one of the following is not formed by addition polymerization?
A. polyethylene B. teflon C. PVC D. dacron
169. HA is a weak acid. Which equilibrium corresponds to the equilibrium constant Kb for A-?
A. HA (aq) + H2O (l) ⇌ H2A (aq) + OH- (aq)
B. A- (aq) + H3O+ (aq) ⇌ HA (aq) + H2O (l)
C. HA (aq) + OH- (aq) ⇌ H2O (l) + H+ (aq)
D. A- (aq) + H2O (l) ⇌ HA (aq) + OH- (aq)

17 170. The electronic configuration of four elements are:


L= 1s22s22p63s23p1
P= 1s22s22p63s2
Q= 1s22s22p5
R= 1s22s22p63s1
Which of the following elements could form ionic bond?
A. L and P B. P and Q C. P and R D. L and R
171. Aldehydes and ketones are prepared by the oxidation of:
A. Primary and secondary alcohols C. secondary and primary alcohols
B. Green primary and tertiary alcohols D. secondary and tertiary alcohols
172. Lead (Pb) has an average atomic mass of 207.19 amu. The three major isotopes of Pb-206
(205.98 amu), Pb-207 (206.98 amu) and Pb-208 (207.98 amu). If the isotopes of Pb-207 and
Pb-208 are present in equal amounts, what is the percent abundance of Pb-206, Pb-207 and Pb-
208 respectively?
A. 19.34 %, 40.33 % and 40.33 % C. 15.22 %, 42.39 % and 42.39 %
B. 24.16 %, 37.92 % and 37.92 % D. 34.08 %, 32.96 % and 32.96 %
173. Which statement describes the formation of a covalent bond? In covalent bond electrons are:
A. Shared between metallic atoms
B. Transferred from metallic atoms to non-metallic atoms
C. Transferred from non-metallic atoms to metallic atoms
D. Shared between non-metallic atoms.
174. Which region of electromagnetic spectrum is capable of inducing electron transition with the
greatest energy? A. Orange B. Red C. Violet D. Yellow
175. In acidic solution, [H+] ion is found to be 1x 10-3 M. What is the [OH-] ion in molarity? A.
1x10-14M B. 1x10-11M C. 1x10-7M D. 0.003M
176. The reaction of benzene with concentrated HNO3 mixed with some concentrated H2SO4
give_______.

NO2 SO3H
B. C. D.
A Br

177. Which of the following combinations cannot produce a buffer solution?


A. HNO2 and NaNO2 C. HClO4 and NaClO4
B. HCN and NaCN D. NH3 and NH4Br
178. Which one of the following is NOT the measure of strength of acid?
A. Dissociation constant C. Taste of acid
B. % ionization D. PH
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179. If the [OH-] is equal to the [H+]. It’s solution is:
A. Acidic B. Basic C. neutral D. unknown
180. In a sample of pure water, only one of the following statements is always true at all
conditions of temperature and pressure. Which one is always true?
A. [H3O+] = 1.0 x 10-7 M C. [OH-] = 1.0 x 10-7 M
B. PH = 7.0 D. [H3O+] = [OH-]
181. What is the PH of an aqueous solution in which [H3O+] = 100[OH-] at 25oC?
A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 4
182. Consider the galvanic cell: Al(s)/Al3+(aq)//Fe2+(aq)/ Fe(s). What is the cell reaction?
A. Al(s) + Fe2+(aq) →Fe(s) + Al3+ B. Fe(s) + Al3+(aq) →Al(s) + Fe2+(aq)
B. 2Al(s) + 3Fe2+(aq) →3Fe(s) + 2Al3+(aq) D. Al(s) + Al3+(aq) →Fe2+(aq) + Fe(s)
183. When the two reactions occur at the same rate, the system reaches
A. a state of completion C. a state of equilibrium
B. 90% completion D. 50% completion
184. For the reaction,
SO2 (g ) + 1/2O2 (g) ⇌ SO3 ( g) if Kp = Kc (RT)∆n where the symbols have usual meaning,
then the value of n is: A. −1 B. – 1/2 C. 1/2 D. 1
185. The value of Kc for the reaction, 2A (g) ⇌ B (g) + C (g) is 2 × 10−3. At a given time, the
composition of reaction mixture is [A] = [B] = [C] = 3×10−4 M. In which direction, the reaction
will proceed?
A. Forward direction B. Reverse direction C. At equilibrium D. None
186. Which of the following pair is true about the general properties of the different types of
crystalline solids?
Type of solid Hardness Melting point Conduction of heat
and electricity
iv. Ionic Hard High Good
v. Covalent Hard High Poor
vi. Molecular Soft Low Good
vii. Metallic Soft to hard Low to high Good
A. II, III B. I, III C. I, IV D. I, II
187. The ratio of the actual yield to the theoretical yield multiplied by 100 is:
A. Experimental yield B. Percentage yield C. Actual yield D. Theoretical yield
188. When 4 g of magnesium was heated in excess of oxygen. What is the theoretical yield of
magnesium oxide (MgO)? A. 3.70g B. 4.20g C. 5.44g D. 6.66g
19 189. one of the best solutions to get rid of non-biodegradable solid wastes is:
A. Leaching B. Recycling C. Dumping D. Spilling
190. which of the following is NOT the general characteristics of industries
A. use synthetic materials as raw materials for the production process
B. use large amounts of energy in their manufacturing process
C. test their products during and after manufacturing in their quality control laboratory
D. involve chemical processes to transform the raw materials to the desired products.
191. Which of the following is the purpose of treating the crude bauxite ore with hot aqueous
sodium hydroxide in the extraction of aluminum by Hall process?
A. To get pure aluminum oxide
B. To decrease the solubility of Al2O3
C. To dissolve impurities like Fe2O3
D. To lower the melting point of crude bauxite
192. Which of the following is not an application of equilibrium constant? Equilibrium constant:
A. Tell us the position of equilibrium C. predict the direction of the reaction
B. Predict the extent of the reaction D. calculate the initial conc. of reactants
193. Which of the following is the modern method for processing and preserving foods?
A. Drying C. Smoking
B. Freezing D. Canning
194. Which one of the following polymer-monomer pairs is incorrectly matched?
A. Teflon-propylene C. Plexiglass-methyl methacrylate
B. PVC-chloroethene D. Bakelite-phenol and formaldehyde
195. Of the following, which one is the effect of air pollutants?
A. Hydrocarbons and ozone- formation of smog
B. Particulates – enhance greenhouse effect leading to global warming
C. CFCs – cause an acid rain
D. Excess carbon dioxide – cause drop in pH of rivers and lakes.
196. Which of the following is NOT a major factor for land pollution?
A. The use of organic fertilizers C. The spillage of oil
B. Dumping non-biodegradable wastes D. Leaching of heavy metals
197. What are some of the negative effects of industries on the environments? They
A. Discharge pollutants into the environment
B. Process waste products
C. Treat water before discharge
D. Reduce carbon dioxide emission
198. Which electron transition in a hydrogen atom releases the largest energy?
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A. n=2→ n=1 B. n=4 → n=2 C. n=6 → n=3 D. n=7 → n=6
199. Eutrophication can be caused by an inappropriate use of:
A. Hydrocarbons and ozone C. Phosphate and nitrate fertilizers
B. Heavy metals D. Insecticides and herbicides
200. The diagram shows a reaction sequence:

Which row names the processes X, Y and Z?


X Y Z
A. Cracking Fermentation Respiration
B. Cracking Hydration Combustion
C. Substitution Addition Elimination
D. Combustion cracking Fermentation

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