VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS TRICHY

[CBSE IIT/NEET Integrated Senior Secondary School]

GRADE: XII NEET PHYSICS DELTA WORKSHEET

1. If two soap bubbles of different radii are in communication with each other

1) air flows from larger bubble into the smaller one until the two bubbles are of equal size

2)) the sizes of the bubbles remain unchanged.

3) the air flows from the smaller bubble into the larger one and large bubble grows at the expense of the
smaller one.

4) air flows from the larger into the smaller bubble until the radius of the smaller one becomes equal to that
of larger one and of the larger one equal to that of the smaller one

2. Four soap bubbles p, q, r & s have volumes 8cm3, 27cm3, 64cm3 and 125cm3 respectively. Then excess of
pressures in them in ascending order will be

1) p, s, q and r 3) s, r, q and p

2) p, q, r and s 4) p, s, r, p

3. A) : A large soap bubble expands while a small bubble shrinks, when they are connected to each other by
a capillary tube.

R) : The excess pressure inside bubble (or drop) is inversely proportional to the radius

4. Section – A Section - B

a) Surface tension decreases e) Minimum potential energy

b) Capillary rise f) Domination of adhesive force

c) Spherical shape of rain drops g) Increase in temperature

d) Tiny droplets of water act as ball bearings h) Excess of pressure

1) a – e; b – f; c – g; d – h 2) a – h; b – g; c – f; d – e

3) a – f; b – e; c – g; d – h 4) a – g; b – f; c – e; d – h

5.The surface tension of soap water is 0.04Nm-1. The excess of pressure inside a soap water bubble of
diameter 10 mm is

1) 64Pa 2) 8Pa 3) 32Pa 4) 16Pa

6. The pressure inside two soap bubbles is 1.01 and 1.02 atmospheres respectively. The ratio of their
volumes is (atmospheric pressure=105 Pa)

1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 3 3) 8 : 1 4) 3 : 5

7. Two bubbles of radii 2mm and 3mm when touch each other, the radius of curvature of their interface is

1) 1.7mm2) 0.017cm 3) 6mm4) 0.17cm

8. A spherical soap bubble of radius 1 cm is formed inside another of radius 3cm. The radius of single soap
bubble which maintains the same pressure difference as inside the smaller and outside the larger soap bubble
is ....cm

1) 4/3 2) ¾ 3) 1/2 4) 2

9. The pressure in air bubble just below the water surface is (Surface tension of liquid is

72dyne cm–1 and atmospheric pressure = 1.0 x 105Nm-2, Radius of bubble = 0.1mm)

1) 1.0144x105Nm-2 2) 2.0274x105Nm-2 3) Zero 4) 3.0274x105Nm-2

10. The ratio of radii of two soap bubbles is 1:4, then the ratio of excess of pressures in them will be

1) 4:1 2) 1:4 3) 1:16 4) 16:1

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.
16. Two particles are oscillating along two close parallel straight lines side by side, with the same frequency
and amplitudes. They pass each other, moving in opposite directions when their displacement is half of the
amplitude. The mean positions of the two particles lie on a straight line perpendicular to the paths of the two
particles. The phase difference is

(a) 0 (b) 2π/3 (c) π (d) π/6

17. The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the equation,

Which one of the following graphs shows correctly the variation of ‘a’ with ‘t’?

18. A particle is executing a simple harmonic

motion. Its maximum acceleration is a and maximum velocity is b. Then its time period of vibration will be:

19. A simple pendulum attached to the ceiling of a stationary lift has a time period T. The distance y covered
by the lift moving upwards varies with time t as y = t2 where y is in metres and t in seconds. If g = 10 m/s2,
the time period of pendulum will be

20. A simple harmonic motion along the x-axis has the following properties: amplitude = 0.5 m, the time to
go from one extreme position to other is 2 s and x = 0.3 m at t = 0.5 s. The general equation of the simple
harmonic motion is
21. ASSERTION : A particle executing simple harmonic motion

comes to rest at the extreme positions .

REASON : The resultant force on the particle is zero at

these positions.

(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a

correct explanation for assertion.

(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is

not a correct explanation for assertion

(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect

(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

22.

23. In a step up transformer, the ratio of turns of primary to secondary is 1:10 and primary

voltage is 230 V. If the load current is 2A, then current in the primary is

1) 20A 2) 10A 3) 2A 4) 1A

24. In a transformer, number of turns in the primary are 140 and that in the secondary

are 280. If current in primary is 4A then that in the secondary is

1) 4A 2) 2A 3) 6A 4) 10A

25.The number of turns in primary and secondary windings of a transformer are 1000

and 100 respectively. If 200V dc voltage is impressed across the primary terminals, the

voltage across secondary terminals is

1) 22V 2) 2200V 3) 220V 4) zero

26.The number of turns in primary and secondary coils of a transformer is 50 and200. If the current in

the primary coil is 4A, then the current in the secondary coil is

1) 1 A 2) 2 A 3) 4 A 4) 5 A

27.A transformer has 1500 turns in the primary coil and 1125 turns in the secondary coil. If

the voltage in the primary coil is 200 V, then the voltage in the secondary coil is(2008-M)

1) 100 V 2) 150 V 3) 200 V 4) 250 V

28.An inductance of 1 mH and a charged capacitor capacitance of 10F are connected

across each other. The resonating angular frequency of circuit is

1) 105 rad/s 2) 104 rad/s 3) 103 rad/s 4) 102 rad/s

29.An inductor of inductance 100mH is connected in series with a resistance, a variable capacitance and
an AC source of frequency 2.0 kHz. the value of the capacitance so that maximum current may be drawn
into the circuit.

1) 50 nF 2) 60 nF 3) 63 nF 4) 79 nF

30.The magnetic field energy in an inductor changes from maximum value to minimum value in 5.0 ms
when connected to an AC source. the frequency of the source is

1) 20 Hz 2) 50Hz 3) 200Hz 4) 500Hz

31.A step up transformer works on 220V and gives 2A to an external resistor. The turn ratio

between the primary and secondary coils is 2 : 25. Assuming 100% efficiency, find the

secondary voltage. Primary current and power delivered.

1) 2750V, 25A, 5500W

2) 5500V, 0.16A, 2750W

3) 1600V, 1A, 5000W

4) 4000V, 1A, 5500W

32. A step down transformer has primary voltage 1100V. The transformer ratio is 1 : 5. If the

primary current is 10A find the secondary voltage, secondary current assuming the

transformer to be an ideal transformer.

1) 1100V, 10A 2) 2200V, 20A 3) 3300V, 30A 4) 5500V, 50A

33.A radio tuner has a frequency range from 500 kHz to 5 MHz. If its LC circuit has an effective

inductance of 400 H z , what is the range of its variable capacitor πsquare=10 ?

1) 2.5 pF to 250 pF 2) 5.0 pF to 500 pF 3) 7.5 pF to 750 pF 4) 10 pF to 1000 pF

 34. In a transformer, the number of turns in the primary and secondary coils are 1000 and

3000 respectively. If the primary is connected across 80V AC, the potential difference across

each turn of the secondary will be

1) 240 V 2) 0.24 V 3) 0.8 V 4) 0.08 V

35.A transformer changes 220 V to 22 V. If the currents in the primary and secondary coils are

10A and 70A respectively then its efficiency will be

1) 100% 2) 90% 3) 70% 4) 80%

36. When a charged capacitor is made to discharge through an inductor, the charge Q on the capacitor and
the current i in the inductor vary sinusoidally. The phase difference between Q and i is

1)  2) 2  3) 4  4) zero

37. An L–C circuit contains a 0.60 H inductor and a 25 F  capacitor. What is the rate of change of the
current (in Amp/sec) when the charge on the capacitor is 3.0X10 -5 C

1) 2.0 2) 4.0 3) 3.0 4) 6.0

38. In an oscillating circuit, the maximum. change on capacitor is Q. The charge on capacitor when energy is
shared equally between the electric and magnetic field is:

1) Q /√ 3 2) Q/√ 2 3) Q 4) Q /2

39. A 100 W light bulb is placed at the centre of a sphericalchamber of radius 0.10 m . Assume
that 66 % of the energy supplied ¿ the bulb is converted intolight ∧that the surface of
chamber is perfectly absorbing .The pressure exerted by thelight on the surface of the
chamber is

a) 0.87 × 10−6Pa

b) 1.77 ×10−6Pa

c) 3.50 ×10−6Pa

d) None of these

40. The maximum wavelength of radiation that can produce photoelectric effect in certain metal is 200 nm.

The maximum kinetic energy acquired by electron due to radiation of wavelength 100 nm will be

a) 12.4 eV

b) 6.2 eV

c) 100 eV

d) 200 eV
41. Given that a photon of light of wavelength 10,000 Å has an energy equal ¿ 1.23 eV .When light of
wavelength 5000 Å∧intensity I 0 falls on a photoelectric cell , the surface current is
−6
0.40 ×10 A∧the stopping potential is 1.36 V ,then the work f unctionis
a) 0.43 eV

b) 0.55 eV

c) 1.10 eV

d) 1.53 eV

42. Monochromatic light of wavelength 3000 Å is incident on a surface area 4 cm2. If intensity of light is
150mWm−2, then rate at which photones strike the target is
a) 3 ×1010 s−1

b) 9 13 −1
×10 s
c) 7 ×10 15 s−1

d) 19 −1
6 ×10 s

43. If n R and nV denote the number of photons emitted by a red bulb and violet bulb of equal power in
a given time, then
a) n =n
R V

b) n >n
R V

c) n <n
R V

d) n ≥ n
R V

44. The energy of incident photons corresponding to maximum wavelength of visible light is

a) 3.2 eV

b) 7 eV

c) 1.55 eV

d) 1 eV

45. Energy from the sun is received on earth at the rate of 2 cal per cm2 per min. if average wavelength of
solar
 light be taken at 5500 A then how many photons are received on the earth per cm2 per min is
(Take h=6.6 ×10−34Js, 1cal=4.2 J).
a) 1.5 ×1013

b) 2.9 ×1013

c) 2.3 ×1019

d) 1.75 ×1019