1. What signs are the indications for adenotomy?

A) all below
B) open mouth, headache
C) snoring, the difficulty of nasal breathing
D) recurrent sleep apnea
E) pharyngeal tonsil hypertrophy
2. Which tonsil hypertrophy is called ‘adenoid’?
A) pharyngeal
B) palatine
C) lingual
D) laryngeal
E) tubal
3. What method is most commonly used for the diagnostic of adenoid vegetations?
A) posterior rhinoscopy
B) anterior rhinoscopy
C) median rhinoscopy
D) indirect laryngoscopy
E) direct laryngoscopy
4. What causes hearing impairment in adenoid vegetations?
A) auditory tube obturation
B) condition of an intracranial congestion
C) intoxication of acoustic analyzer’s ganglionic formations
D) sclerosis of the auditory ossicles
E) cochlear neuritis
5. Which of the following is not typical for adenoid vegetations?
A) dysphonia
B) snoring
C) the difficulty of nasal breathing
D) abnormal development of the facial skeleton
E) hearing loss
6. 7 years old patient, complains of difficulty of nasal breathing, nasal mucus discharge, enuresis,
twang, abnormal development of jaw skeleton. What can be suspected?
A) adenoid vegetation
B) juvenile angifibromu
C) chronic tonsillitis
1
D) nasopharyngitis
E) nasal foreign body
7. What degree of adenoid vegetation is the most common indication for surgical treatment?
A) II-III
B) I
C) I-II
D) II
E) all above
8. What of the following diagnosis should be differentiated with adenoid vegetations?
A) all below
B) nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
C) choanal polyp
D) cerebral hernia
E) none
9. How is an acute inflammation of nasopharyngeal tonsil called?
A) adenoiditis
B) acute pharyngitis
C) angina
D) acute laryngitis
E) adenoid vegetations
10. What type of hearing loss occurs in adenoid vegetations?
A) conductive
B) sensorineural
C) mixed
D) none of above
E) All
11. At what age the involution of pharyngeal tonsils begins?
A) 14-15
B) 2-3
C) 4-5
D) 6-7
E) 8-9
12. What is the most common age for retropharyngeal abscess in children?
A) 0- 4 years old
B) 10-12
2
C) 8-10
D) over 12
E) 14-15
13. Which disease causes ‘chicken breast’?
A) adenoid vegetation
B) hypertrophy of the tonsils
C) lingual tonsil hypertrophy
D) Ludwig's angina
E) diphtheria
14. How is throat examination called?
A) pharyngoscopy
B) otoscopy
C) rhinoscopy
D) laryngoscopy
E) bronchoscopy
15. In which part of the pharynx is the pharyngeal tonsil?
A) epipharynx (nasopharynx)
B) hypopharynx
C) mesopharynx (oropharynx)
D) the nasal cavity
E) between the palatine arches
16. Which of these anatomical structures is not involved in the formation of the fauces?
A) the hard palate
B) root of the tongue
C) palato-glossal fold
D) palato-pharyngeal
E) the soft palate
17. What microorganisms are the most common agents causing acute tonsillitis?
A) streptococcus
B) viruses
C) fungus
D) staphylococcus
E) spirochetes
18. What diseases are the most common cause of acute tonsillogenic sepsis?
A) paratonsillar abscess
3
B) acute pharyngitis
C) chronic tonsillitis
D) catarrhal tonsillitis
E) chronic pharyngitis
19. Which of the following arteries is not involved in the blood supply of the throat?
A) tonsillitic branch of the facial artery
B) ascending palatine artery
C) descending palatine artery
D) ascending pharyngeal artery
E) inferior thyroid artery
20. What medications are used to treat diphtheria?
A) "Diaferm"
B) antistaphylococcal gamma globulin
C) gamma globulin against measles
D) antistaphylococcal plasma
E) plasma against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
21. What is the causative agent of diphtheria?
A) Löffler bacillus (Corynebacterium)
B) Koch bacillus
C) pneumococcus
D) staphylococcus
E) e. coli
22. Which is an etiological agent of pharyngomycosis?
A) leprotrix
B) candida
C) aspergillus
D) virus
E) fusiformis
23. Specify angina occurring in blood diseases?
A) neutropenic angina
B) lacunar tonsillitis
C) follicular tonsillitis
D) Ludwig's angina
E) Vincent’s angina
24. Which of these methods is not used for conservative treatment of chronic tonsillitis?
4
A) X-ray therapy
B) UV of cervical lymphatic nodes
C) immunotherapy
D) lavage of lacuna with antiseptics
E) applying Lugol’s Solution
25. Which of the following symptoms is the most pathognomonic sign of chronic tonsillitis?
A) frequent angina
B) Zack’s symptom
C) Gisez’s symptom
D) cervical lymphadenitis
E) tonsillar hypertrophy
26. Which of the following signs occurs in the 1st degree throat burn?
A) erythema
B) hyperemia
C) necrosis
D) blisters
E) erosion
27. What alteration in blood test is found in neutropenic angina?
A) acute leukopenia
B) normal WBC count
C) leukocytosis
D) eosinophilia
E) neutrophilia
28. What is the length of the pharynx of an adult?
A) 12-14cm
B) 10-12cm
C) 14-16cm
D) 8-12cm
E) 11-15cm
29. At which vertebrae level the pharynx ends starting with the base of the skull?
A) 5-6
B) 4-5
C) 7-8
D) 2-4
E) 3-4
5
30. What muscle lifts the soft palate?
A) m. levator veli palatini
B) m. palatoglossus
C) m. palatopharyngeus
D) m. tensor veli palatini
E) m. uvulae
31. What anatomical structures are found in the nasopharynx?
A) all below
B) nasopharyngeal tonsil
C) the Eustachian tube opening
D) tubular tonsils
E) fossa Rosenmüller
32. What is mucous coat of nasopharynx arch covered with?
A) multilayer cylindrical ciliated epithelium
B) a single-layer flat epithelium
C) multilayer squamous epithelium
D) none of those
E) cubic epithelium
33. Which method is not used for the nasopharynx examination?
A) anterior rhinoscopy
B) posterior rhinoscopy
C) Endoscopy
D) X-ray
E) digital examination
34. What is the causative agent of the monocytic angina?
A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) adenoviruses
C) staphylococcus
D) streptococcus
E) pneumococcus
35. Where is the pharyngeal tonsil found?
A) nasopharynx
B) oropharynx
C) None of those
D) root of the tongue
6
E) laryngopharynx
36. What negative pressure is formed inside the mouth while sucking?
A) 100 mm Hg
B) 150 mm Hg
C) 200 mm Hg
D) 250 mm Hg
E) 300 mm Hg
37. What structures form the fauces?
A) all below
B) the root tongue
C) the soft palate
D) uvula
E) anterior and posterior palatine arches
38. What lymphadenoids are found in the oropharynx?
A) palatine tonsils
B) tubal tonsils
C) solitary follicles
D) adenoids
E) lingual tonsil
39. What forms a throat arch?
A) os sphenoidale and pars basilaris of the occipital bone
B) body of cervical vertebrae I and II
C) os sphenoidale and cervical vertebra I
D) the occipital bone and the body of cervical vertebra II
E) wings of the os sphenoidale and sella turcica
40. How many degrees of the pharyngeal tonsils hypertrophy are there?
A) three
B) two
C) four
D) five
E) six
41. What does adenoid vegetation mean?
A) nasopharyngeal tonsil hypertrophy
B) tubal tonsils enlargement
C) nasopharyngeal tonsil inflammation
7
D) atrophy of the palatine tonsils
E) the Jacobson organ of septum
42. Within what period does the cicatricial narrowing appears after the burn of the esophagus?
A) 1-2 months
B) 5-10 days
C) 10-15 days
D) 3-4 months
E) 5-6 months
43. How long does the act of swallowing in adults last?
A) 6-8 sec
B) 3-5 sec
C) 1-3 sec
D) 5-7 sec
E) 7-10 sec
44. What do the tonsills consist of?
A) all below
B) stroma
C) parenchyma
D) epithelial layer
E) capsule
45. What separates the tonsil from the lateral wall of the pharynx?
A) capsule
B) muscles
C) is not connected
D) fascia
E) multilayer squamous epithelium
46. What is the main function of the tonsils?
A) all below
B) lymphopoesis
C) enzymatic function
D) elimination function
E) synthesis of immunoglobulins
47. Which of the following muscles lifts the throat?
A) m. Stylopharyngeus and m. pharyngopalatinus
B) m. Constrictor pharyngeus superior and m. stylopharyngeus
8
C) m. Constrictor pharyngeus medius and m. pharyngopalatinus
D) m. Constrictor pharyngeus inferior and m. uvulus
E) m. Tensor veli palatini and m. pharyngopalatinus
48. How is the space between the capsule of the tonsils and the pharynx muscles called?
A) peritonsillar
B) peripharyngeal
C) retropharyngeal
D) none of these
E) lateropharyngeal
49. What are the crypts on the surface of the pharyngeal tonsils called?
A) lacuna
B) trabeculae
C) tonsils’ pole
D) bed
E) follicles
50. Which arterial pool supplies the tonsils with blood?
A) the external carotid artery
B) none of these
C) internal carotid artery
D) vertebral artery
E) common carotid artery
51. What forms the back wall of the retropharyngeal space?
A) prevertebral fascia
B) mm. tensor soft palate
C) mm. levatores pharyngis
D) none of these
E) fibrous layer
52. How many degrees of hypertrophy of the palatine tonsils by Palchun – Preobrazhensky are
there?
A) three
B) two
C) four
D) five
E) six
53. Where does the lymph flow from the nasopharynx?
9
A) lymphoid nodes profundi and posterior
B) retropharyngeal lymphoid nodes
C) submandibular lymphoid nodes
D) occipital lymphoid nodes
E) paratracheal lymphoid nodes
54. What nerve provides motor innervation of the upper part of the pharynx?
A) n. glossopharyngeus
B) n. trochlearis
C) n. trigeminus
D) n. vagus
E) n. facialis
55. What nerve provides sensory innervation of the upper part of the pharynx?
A) the second branch of n. trigeminus
B) n. accessorius
C) n. vagus
D) n. glossopharyngeus
E) n. facialis
56. What nerve provides motor innervation of the soft palate?
A) n. glossopharyngeus
B) n. facialis
C) n. trigeminus
D) n. vagus
E) n. accessories
57. How is the recess in the upper pole of the tonsils called?
A) sinus Tourtuali
B) fossa Rosenmüller
C) plica triangularis
D) Gize pit
E) vallecula
58. Where are the Weber’s glands found?
A) in the upper pole of the palatine tonsils
B) in retropharyngeal space
C) around the lingual tonsil
D) in the lower pole of the tonsils
E) in paratonsillar area
10
59. Which of the following is not a function of the pharynx?
A) olfaction
B) speech
C) respiration
D) protection
E) resonator
60. What belongs to the lymphadenoid pharyngeal ring (Waldeyer’s-Pirogov)?
A) all below
B) lingual tonsil
C) tubal tonsils
D) palatine tonsils
E) nasopharyngeal tonsil
61. Which of the tonsils has a capsule?
A) palatal
B) all of these
C) nasopharyngeal
D) lingual
E) pipe
62. What does not apply to the functions of the tonsils?
A) erythropoiesis
B) enzyme function
C) participate in the formation of immunity
D) lymphopoiesis
E) An elimination function
63. What disposes in the space around the pharynx (retropharyngeal and peripharyngeal)?
A) spongiose connective tissue
B) muscle
C) lateral spines
D) intervertebral plexus
E) the carotid artery
64. What method can you use to explore the nasopharynx?
A) epipharingoscopy
B) mesopharingoscopy
C) otoscopy
D) laryngoscopy
11
E) rhinoscopy
65. What muscle raises the soft palate and constrict nasopharyngeal hole of auditory tube?
A) M. levator veli palatini
B) M. Palatoglossus
C) None of the above
D) M. tensos veli palatini
E) M. Palatopharyngeus
66. What forms the front wall of the nasopharynx?
A) choanae
B) pharyngeal tonsils
C) tube tonsils
D) opening of auditory tube
E) none
67. Which of the following are paired tonsils?
A) palatine and tube
B) nasopharyngeal and tube
C) nasopharyngeal and lingual
D) lingual and tube
E) palatine and lingua
68. Which of the endocrine glands is closely related with pharyngeal lymphoid ring?
A) with all
B) thymus
C) pituitary
D) thyroid gland
E) adrenal gland
69. Where are the pharyngeal opening auditory tubes disposed?
A) at the posterior edge of the inferior turbinate
B) on the border of the upper and posterior wall of nasopharynx
C) in the superior nasal meatus
D) superior turbinate level
E) on the posterior third of the middle turbinate
70. On which of pharyngeal walls does retropharyngeal abscess occur?
A) posterior
B) anterior
C) inferior
12
D) anterior and superior
E) lateral
71. How many tonsils are involved in Valdeyyer -Pirogov ring formation?
A) 6
B) 4
C) 3
D) 5
E) 7
72. What muscles constrict throat?
A) [Link] pharingei superiror, media et inferior
B) [Link], [Link]
C) [Link], [Link]
D) [Link] veli palatini, [Link]
E) [Link] veli palatini, [Link]
73. Which of the following is characteristic of throat burns II degree?
A) Vesicle
B) Erythema
C) congestion
D) necrosis
E) erosion
74. Which of the following is a Gize symptom?
A) hyperemia of the anterior palatine arches
B) edema on the edges of tonsils
C) thickening of the rear edge of the palatine arches
D) increase in regional lymph nodes
E) the presence of purulent caseous-stoppers in the crypts
75. What form is the outer layer of the pharynx?
A) fibrous layer
B) muscle
C) bone
D) mucosa
E) loose connective tissue
76. How is the inflammation of a mucous membrane of pharynx called??
A) pharyngitis
B) angina
13
C) laryngitis
D) none
E) folliculitis
77. In what angina are following symptoms observed: hyperemia of the surface of palatine tonsils,
mouth of lacunas are covered with a yellowish fur, fibrous fur covers most part of a surface of
tonsils, but does not leave beyond its limits, fur can be easily removed with a spatula.
A) lacunar angina
B) throat diphtheria
C) herpangina
D) follicular angana
E) catarrhal angina
78. Which of the following is not involved in occurrence of angina?
A) malaria
B) syphilis
C) scarlatina
D) measles
E) diphtheria
79. Which of the following is Zack symptom?
A) swelling of aterior edges of palatine arches
B) hyperemia of palatine arches
C) thickening of front edges of arches
D) increase in regional lymph nodes
E) caseous plug in the gaps
80. What angina is formed by symbiosis fusiform bacillus (B. fusiformus) and buccal spirochaet
(Spirochaeta buccalis)?
A) Simanovsky-Vincent angina
B) follicular angina
C) lacunar angina
D) Ludwig angina
E) herpetic angina
81. Which of the following diseases are characterized by greenish layer, with a putrid odor, small
superficial ulcers located on the upper pole of the tonsils?
A) Simanovsky Vincent angina
B) all
C) None
14
D) Ludwig's angina
E) diphtheria throat
82. Which localization of paratonsillitis occurs more often?
A) supratonsillar
B) lower localization
C) all of the above
D) lateral localization
E) posterior localization
83. At what stage of paratonsillit is mainly anti-inflammatory treatment used?
A) edema and infiltration
B) edema
C) abscess formation
D) none
E) for all
84. What forms of chronic pharyngitis are occur?
A) catarrhal, hypertrophic, atrophic
B) serous, purulent, atrophic
C) hypertrophic, allergic, purulent
D) catarrhal, purulent, allergic
E) serous, hypertrophic, purulent
85. Which pharyngitis has the following symptoms: dryness in throat, thinning shiny pale - pink
mucous covered by crust and thick mucus
A) atrophic
B) serous
C) hypertrophic
D) all
E) catarrhal
86. Which of the following diseases are least of all connected with chronic tonsillitis?
A) Radiculit
B) acute and chronic tonsillogen sepsis
C) rheumatism
D) infectious arthritis
E) Glomerulonephritis
87. Which of the following does not belong to the local characteristics of chronic tonsillitis?
A) coated tongue
15
B) infiltration of the anterior edges of the arches
C) caseous plugs in the lacuna
D) swelling of superior arches
E) infiltration and hyperplasia on anterior of arches
88. Which of angina starts with a unilateral lesion of the pharynx?
A) Simanvskogo-Vincent
B) catarral
C) follicular
D) lacunar
E) agranulocitar
89. Which of the following does not belong to the structure of the tonsils?
A) prevertebral cervical fascia
B) gap
C) trabecula
D) connective tissue of capsules
E) crypt
90. Which of the following is Preobrazhensky sign?
A) thickened front edges of tonsils arches
B) hyperemia front edges of tonsils arches
C) swelling of the front edges of tonsils arches
D) increase in the regional lymph nodes
E) caseous plugs in gaps of tonsils
91. What is "Ronсhopaty"?
A) snoring
B) disorder of swallowing
C) disorder of smelling
D) speech disorder
E) respiratory disorder
92. What form of chronic tonsillitis on classification of Preobrazhensky-Palchun
is the indication for tonsillectomy?
A) toxic-allergic form II
B) simple form
C) all
D) toxic-allergic form I
E) none
16
93. Which of the following is not characteristic for toxic-allergic form II of chronic tonsillitis?
A) laryngitis
B) tonsillogen sepsis
C) rheumatism
D) functional changes in internal organs
E) rheumatic heart disease
94. At what stage of paratonsillitis emergency opening of paratonsillar abscess or tonsilectomy is
required?
A) abscess formation
B) infiltrative
C) edematous and infiltrative
D) edematous
E) catarrhal
95. What are the common complications of angina ranks first in frequency?
A) rheumatism and heart disease
B) sepsis
C) lesion of gastrointestinal tract
D) polyarthritis
E) lesion blood-forming organs
96. Which of the following is the most common local complication of angina?
A) paratonsillitis
B) retropharyngeal abscess
C) acute cervical lymphadenitis
D) parapharyngeal abscess
E) pharyngeal bleeding
97. What is the most frequent tumour of the throat?
A) Carcinoma
B) limfoepitelioma
C) cytoblastoma
D) mixed tumors
E) retikulotcitoma
98. What is the main causative agent of banal angine?
A) Streptococcus B-haemolyticus
B) Strafilacoccus aureus
C) Streptococcus viridans
17
D) Moraxella catarrhalis
E) Heamophilus influenzae
99. Which of the following does not refer to limfadenoid pharyngeal ring?
A) cervical lymph nodes
B) paired tonsils
C) unpaired pharyngeal tonsils
D) unpaired lingual tonsil
E) paired tubal tonsils
100. Which of the following isn’t a semi-surgical treatment method of chronic tonsillitis?
A) tosillectomy
B) laser Surgery
C) lakunotomiya
D) cryoablation
E) halvanocaustic
101. What is an etiological factor of Simanovsky-PlauT-Vincent angina?
A) [Link], Spirochaeta buccalis
B) Moraxella catarrhalis
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Stafilacoccus aureus
D) Streptococcus viridans
E) Leptotryx buccalis
102. In which angina is penicillin effective for 6-8 days is?
A) Simanovsky-Plau-Vincent
B) angina in leukemia
C) neutropenic angina
D) angina in infectious mononucleosis
E) diphtheric angina
103. Which one is used in hypertrophy of the tonsils?
A) tonsillotomy
B) tonsillectomy
C) adenotomy
D) lakunotomy
E) crioablation
104. At what age is retropharyngeal abscess most often meets?
A) pre-school children
B) adults
18
C) teens
D) young
E) women
105. For which disease exception the swab from pharynx is most often used?
A) diphtheria
B) salmonella
C) TB
D) syphilis
E) none
106. What is the most frequently encountered dangerous complication of pharyngeal diphtheria?
A) myocarditis
B) tromboh-emorragic syndrome
C) polyneuritis
D) acute renal failure
E) toxic shock
107. What is the most frequent complication of tonsillectomy?
A) bleeding
B) paresis of the pharynx
C) emphysema
D) snuffles
E) dysphonia
108. In what tonsils disease can we use term "chronic tonsillitis"?
A) palatine tonsils
B) lingual tonsil
C) pharyngeal tonsils
D) tubular tonsils
E) inflammation of the pharynx
109. Which of the following symptoms is considered to be a characteristic of angina in scarlet
fever?
A) "raspberry" language
B) Filatov-Koplik spots on the cheeks
C) high temperature
D) severe pain on swallowing
E) regional lymphadenitis
110. What sign is characteristical for III degree pharyngeal burn?
19
A) necrosis
B) erythema
C) congestion
D) blisters (burn)
E) edema
111. What is peculiar to lacunary angina?
A) the fur on lacunas doesn't extend beyond the arches
B) follicles are involved in process
C) it is difficult to separate fur and lining bleeds
D) fur spreads beyond the tonsils
E) microbiological found Leffler sticks
112. What features on tonsils are characteristic in pharyngeal diphtheria?
A) fur spreads beyond the tonsils and sinks in water
B) fur doesn't extend beyond the arches and sinks in water
C) necrotic changes is not observed, fur color is dark-brown, easily separates
D) fur on surface, can be easily removed
E) there is a yellowish-whitish fur
113. Which of the following applies to the banal angina?
A) follicular angina
B) phlegmonic angina
C) agranulocitar tonsillitis
D) monocytar angina
E) Ludwig angina
114. What is not an indication for tonsillectomy?
A) simple form of chronic tonsillitis
B) toxic-allergic form II degree
C) decompensated form
D) tonsillogen sepsis
E) recurrent abscesses
115. How many percent cases " without angina" form of chronic tonsillitis meets?
A) 4%
B) 6%
C) 8%
D) 10%
E) 12%
20
116. Which of the following is characteristic of a simple form chronic tonsillitis?
A) caseous pus plug in the lacunas, increasing of regional lymph nodes, signs of Zack and Gize
B) subfebrile fever, joint pain, regional lymphadenitis
C) tachycardia, low-grade fever, pain in heart and joints
D) rheumatism, glomerulonephritis, a low-grade fever
E) ECG changes, rheumatism, tachycardia
117. Which of the following medications may be recommended before tonsillectomy, for the
prevention of bleeding?
A) calcium gluconate, vitamin C, vikasol
B) aspirin, atropine, analgin
C) dimedrol, sinkumar, askorutin
D) heparin, vikasol, vitamin C
E) dimedrol, atropine, aspirin
118. What forms of paratonsillitis can be defined clinic-morfological?
A) edematous, infiltrative, abscess
B) edematous, infiltrative, necrotic
C) abscess, necrotic, edematous
D) hypertrophic, atrophic, edematous
E) infiltrative, hypertrophic, hypotrophic
119. What factors play a major role in development of chronic tonsillitis?
A) oral cavity infections, anatomic-topographical and hystologic features of tonsils, body’s resistance
B) body's resistance and endocrine diseases
C) body's resistance and sinusitis
D) body's resistance and hypertrophy of tonsils
E) allergic processes
120. Which of the following methods is conservative treatment of chronic tonsillitis?
A) washing the lacunas of tonsils, improving the overall resistance of the body
B) Antibiotic
C) Hormone
D) treatment with leeches
E) radiofrekans
121. For what reason, is not it assigned to gargle for the first 2 days after tonsillectomy?
A) not to interfere with the wound fibrin coating (protective wall)
B) is an inflammation of the wound area
C) pain on the operated area
21
D) risk of bleeding
E) weakening of the regenerative processes of wound area
122. Which of the following does not apply to the wall of pharynx?
A) periosteal
B) fibrous
C) connective
D) muscle
E) mucosa
123. What is angina?
A) general acute infectious-allergic disease, manifested by acute local inflammation of the tonsils
B) acute streptococcal disease etiology, manifested like acute pharyngitis
C) non-specific inflammation of one or more components of pharyngeal limfoadenoyd ring
D) a specific disease of pharyngeal mucous membranes
E) general infectious disease
124. How many part pharynx divided to?
A) three
B) two
C) four
D) five
E) six
125. What is the choana?
A) It is the aperture which communicate nose with the nasapharynx
B) inferior part of the superior meatus
C) inferior part of the inferior meatus
D) inferior part of the middle meatus
E) anterior part of the inferior meatus
126. Where does the flow the blood from external nose?
A) v. facialis
B) v. oftalmicus
C) v. thriodeus
D) v. lingualis
E) v. head-neck
127. Which wall of nasal cavity does the vomer make?
A) medial
B) inferior
22
C) lateral
D) superior
E) none
128. What does the lamina chribrosa of ethmoid bone consist of the in newborn?
A) fibrosis tissue
B) muscular tissue
C) bone tissue
D) cartilage
E) hialin tissue
129. In which wall the nasal turbinates of the nasal cavity locate?
A) lateral
B) inferior
C) medial
D) superior
E) anterior
130. That does not belong to the lateral wall of nasal cavity?
A) nasal bone
B) frontal process of maxilla
C) medial surface of alar major of sphenoid
D) perpendicular plate of palatine bone
E) lacrimal bone
131. That does not belong to the superior wall of nasal cavity?
A) palatine bone
B) sphenoid and ethmoid bone
C) one part of nasal bone
D) sphenoid bone
E) ethmoid bone
132. Which turbinates are there in the nasal cavity?
A) inferior,middle,superior
B) superior,inferior,lateral
C) only superior and inferior
D) medial,lateral
E) only inferior and middle
133. What is common examined during anterior rhinoscopy?
A) nasal septum,inferior and middle turbinate
23
B) only medial turbinate
C) superior turbinate
D) only inferior turbinate
E) superior meatus
134. In what part of nasal cavity does the Yacobson rudimentar organ locate?
A) on nasal septum
B) on inferior wall
C) on middle turbinate
D) in middle meatus
E) on superior wall
135. Where does the nasolacrimal duct open?
A) to inferior nasal meatus
B) to middle nasal meatus
C) to superior nasal meatus
D) to general nasal meatus
E) to spheno-ethmoidal zone
136. What open to the middle nasal meatus?
A) anterior and middle ethmoid cells, frontal and maxillary sinuses
B) nasolacrimal duct
C) all paranasal sinuses
D) posterior cells of ethmoid labyrinth
E) sphenoid sinus
137. What opens to the superior nasal meatus?
A) posterior ethmoid cells, sphenoid sinus
B) frontal sinus
C) all ethmoid cells
D) nasolacrimal duct
E) maxillary sinus?
138. Where is ‘Kisselbach’splexus’ in the nasal cavity situated ?
A) on the anterior-inferior part of nasal septum
B) on the superior part of nasal septum
C) on the middle nasal turbinate’s mucosa
D) on the inferior nasal turbinate’s mucosa
E) in the deep of nasal cavity
139. What is the main role of the thermoregulation of air in nasal cavity?
24
A) cavernous tissue
B) cartilage tissue
C) bone tissue
D) mucosalglands
E) cilia epithelia
140. What is the asthmatic(aspirin) tirade?
A) sensitivity to aspirin, polyposis changes of nasal mucosae and attacks of asthma
B) sensitivity to penicillin, paroxysmal sneezing
C) aspirin sensitivity ,paroxysmal sneezing,nasal breathing difficulty
D) aspirin and analgin sensitivity, excessive rhinorrhea, nasal congestion
E) aspirin sensitivity,nasal congestion, purulent maxillary sinusitis
141. How does the molecule of smelling substances call?
A) odorivectors
B) opsonins
C) endoporfirins
D) otokinitis
E) otoliths
142. Does not belong to the basic specialties of nose
A) taste
B) breathing
C) olfaction
D) protection
E) resonance
143. From what nasal meatus does the main part of air flowing pass during inspiration?
A) general
B) middle
C) inferior
D) superior
E) middle and superior
144. What is Kokosmia?
A) perversion of sense of smell
B) total loss of sense of smell
C) partial loss of sense of smell
D) hallucination of smell
E) increase sense of smell
25
145. What means are there in blood supply of nose and paranasal sinuses?
A) external and internal carotid arteries branches
B) spinal arteries branches
C) lingual arteries branches
D) superior thyroidal arteria
E) inferior thyroidal arteria
146. Which is lymphatic’s drain into lymph nodes from anterior part of nasal cavity?
A) submandibular
B) retropharyngeal
C) anterior cervical
D) profundus cervical
E) posterior cervical
147. Belong to the lower respiratory tract:
A) bronchus
B) nose
C) paranasal sinuses
D) larynx
E) pharynx
148. Which epithelium fulfill conduction- transport functionin the nasal cavity
A) ciliar
B) squamous
C) cuboid
D) olfaction
E) transition
149. Which nerve fibers goes through the lamina cribrosa of ethmoid bone?
A) olfactory nerve
B) vagusnetve
C) fist branch of trigeminal nerve
D) second branch of trigeminal nerve
E) facial nerve
150. What is not belong to the ostieometal complex?
A) inferior turbinate
B) anterior part of middle turbinate
C) uncinate process and hiatussemilunaris
D) ethmoid sinus
26
E) nasal septum part which convenient to the middle turbinate
151. What is the main function of nasal septum?
A) to divide two part of nasal cavity
B) protected
C) resonator
D) olfaction
E) respiration
152. Where is the most active mucociliary clearance part of nasal cavity mucosa?
A) inferior conchae
B) middle conchae
C) superior conchae
D) nasal septum
E) in the deep of nasal meatus
153. What is located in the ‘lamina propria’ of inferior nasal turbinate?
A) cavernous venous plexus
B) arterial plexus
C) capillary vessel
D) mixed vessel plexus
E) olfactory cells
154. What is the function of cavernous venous plexus in nasal cavity?
A) warming
B) respiration
C) transmission
D) resonance
E) humidifying
155. Which is the largest paranasal sinus?
A) maxilla
B) ethimoid
C) frontal
D) sphenod
E) anterior cells of ethmoidlabyrinth
156. How many paranasal sinuses are developed adults?
A) 8
B) 6
C) 4
27
D) 10
E) 2
157. Which paranasal sinus is border with pterygopalatine fossa?
A) maxilla
B) frontal
C) sphenodalae
D) labyrinthusethmoidalis
E) anterior cell of ethmoidal labyrinth
158. Which wall of maxillary sinus situated the fossa canina?
A) anterior
B) inferior
C) superior
D) posterior
E) medial
159. Which wall of maxillary sinuses situated the nasolacrimal canal?
A) medial
B) inferior
C) superior
D) anterior
E) posterior
160. What is the thinnest wall of maxillary sinus?
A) superior
B) medial
C) inferior
D) anterior
E) posterior
161. Which wall of maxillary sinus located n. infraorbitalis?
A) superior
B) posterior
C) medial
D) anterior
E) inferior
162. What is the posterior wall of maxillary sinus?
A) tuber maxillae
B) alveolar process
28
C) sphenoid bone
D) corpus of maxilla
E) zygomatic process of maxillary bone
163. Which nerve canal pass through the orbital wall of maxillary sinus?
A) infraorbital nerve
B) vidian nerve
C) trigeminal nerve
D) ethmoidal nerve
E) olfactory nerve
164. Where are opening the maxillar sinus?
A) middle nasal meatus
B) inferior nasal meatus
C) superior nasal meatus
D) common nasal meatus
E) spheno-ethimoidal area
165. Which specialty of sinus ostium playing role leading to maxillary sinusitis?
A) locating superior part of the maxillary sinus
B) to be narrower
C) common fontanellaes
D) to be close to the ethmoidal cells
E) to be close to the fronto-nasal canal
166. Which wall of maxillary sinus is formed by the alveolar process?
A) inferior
B) superior
C) posterior
D) anterior
E) medial
167. Where is the situated the natural ostium of maxillary sinus ?
A) medial
B) inferior
C) posterior
D) anterior
E) superior
168. Where does mucous toward in the maxillary sinus ?
A) to the natural ostium of maxillar sinus
29
B) from thedeep of the sinus
C) to the deep of the sinus
D) from the natural ostium of the sinus
E) from front to back
169. Which paranasal sinus is abscent?
A) temporal sinus
B) frontal
C) ethmoid
D) sphenoid
E) maxilla
170. What are the most common diseases of paranasal sinuses?
A) maxillary
B) frontal
C) ethmoid
D) sphenoid
E) same incidence of all sinuses
171. Cells of ethmoidale labyrinth situated symmetrically:
A) no
B) yes
C) only childen
D) only adults
E) only older
172. Which cranial fossae bordered by ethmoid labyrinth?
A) anterior
B) middle
C) posterior
D) anterior and middle
E) middle and posterior
173. How many ethmoidal cells in adults?
A) 8-10
B) 20-40
C) 40-60
D) 24
E) 3-5
174. Which voices creates the resonance of ethmoid labyrinth cells?
30
A) high tone
B) high and low tone
C) lower tone
D) not participating in the resonator function
E) only low tone
175. Where is opening ostium of posterior ethmoid cells?
A) to the superior nasal meatus
B) to the middle nasal meatus
C) to the inferior nasal meatus
D) to the choanae
E) spheno-ethmoidal area
176. What nasal meatus relates cells of ethmoid sinuses with nasal cavity?
A) middle and superior
B) inferior and middle
C) only superior
D) middle
E) only inferior
177. When does the air pass into the paranasal sinuses?
A) during expiration
B) during expiration
C) during inspiration and expiration
D) relate with age
E) does not pass
178. What is the most deserve examine methods of ethmoid labyrinth?
A) Computer tomography
B) Contrast X-ray
C) X-ray examination
D) diaphonoscopy
E) nasal endoscopy
179. What sinuses take part in resonation function of nose?
A) all paranasal sinuses
B) maxillary
C) posterior cells of ethmoid labyrinth
D) sphenoid sinus
E) frontal sinus
31
180. With which nerve does the posterior cells of ethmoid labyrinth bordered?
A) optic nerve
B) trigeminal nerve
C) trochlear nerve
D) abduces nerve
E) oculomotorius nerve
181. Thickest wall of frontal sinus:
A) anterior
B) inferior
C) medial
D) posterior
E) superior
182. In what wall of frontal sinus there is not sponge tissue and consist only compact tissue?
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) inferior
D) medial
E) superior
183. What form has frontal sinus in sagittal section ?
A) triangle
B) cuboid
C) pryzmoid
D) oval
E) multi-faced
184. What cranial fossa borders on frontal sinus?
A) anterior
B) middle
C) inferior
D) anterior and middle
E) middle and posterior
185. What does the posterior wall of frontal sinus border on?
A) anterior cranial fossa
B) middle cranial fossa
C) fossa pterygopalatine
D) sinus sigmoideus
32
E) cavernous sinus
186. In what wall of frontal sinus is foramen of nasofrontal duct?
A) inferior
B) posterior
C) anterior
D) medial
E) superior
187. In which bone does frontal sinus locate?
A) pars squamosal of frontal bone
B) sphenoid sinus
C) corpus maxillaries
D) ethmoid sinus
E) pars squamosal of temporal bone
188. Where does the frontal sinus open?
A) middle nasal meatus
B) inferior nasal meatus
C) superior nasal meatus
D) general nasal meatus
E) chonae
189. What does inferior wall of frontal sinus mainly border on?
A) orbit
B) pterygopalatin fossa
C) ethmoid labyrinth
D) nasal cavity
E) choanae
190. Which wall of frontal sinus border on orbit?
A) inferior
B) posterior
C) medial
D) anterior
E) superior
191. What does inferior wall of orbit sinus border on?
A) with maxillary sinus
B) with ethmoid labyrinth cells
C) with frontal sinus
33
D) with sphenoid sinus
E) with nasal cavity
192. What does superior wall of orbit border on?
A) with frontal sinus
B) with ethmoid labyrinth cells
C) with sphenoid sinus
D) with maxillary sinus
E) with nasal cavity
193. What separates the border of the orbit and nasal cavity?
A) Lamina papyracea
B) Lamina cribrosa
C) Nasafrontal canal
D) Foramen supraorbitalis
E) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone
194. In which wall does the sphenoid sinus’s ostium locate?
A) anterior wall
B) inferior wall
C) posterior wall
D) superior wall
E) lateral wall
195. Where is the sphenoid sinus situated?
A) body of sphenoid bone
B) body of frontal bone
C) body of frontal bone
D) body of maxillary bone
E) ethmoid labyrinth
196. The average volume of sphenoid sinus:
A) 3-4 sm
B) 1-2
C) 5-6
D) 7-8
E) 9-10
197. What wall of sphenoid sinus border on hyphophys ( pitiutrin gland) ?
A) superior
B) inferior
34
C) posterior
D) lateral
E) anterior
198. What leans against the superior wall of sphenoid sinus?
A) one part of frontal lobe and hyphophys
B) only hyphofiz
C) temporal lobe of the brain
D) occipital lobe of the brain
E) cerebellum
199. Which paranasal sinus borders with the tree cranial fossas on?
A) sphenoid
B) frontal
C) anterior cells of ethmoid labyrinth
D) posterior cells of ethmoid labyrinth
E) maxillary sinus
200. What leans against the lateral wall of sphenoid sinus?
A) internal carotid artery
B) external carotid artery
C) jugular vein
D) basilar artery
E) optic chiazm
201. Which wall of the sphenoid sinuses does the cavernous sinus lean against?
A) lateral
B) inferior
C) posterior
D) superior
E) anterior
202. Where does the natural ostium of sphenoid sinus open?
A) spheno-ethmoid region of superior nasal meatus
B) middle nasal meatus
C) general nasal meatus
D) choanae
E) inferior nasal meatus

203. What is the main role in the etiopathogenezis of nasal furuncle?

35
A) decreasing of local immunity of skin and general organism
B) inflammation of nasal cavity
C) presence of atrophic process in the nasal cavity
D) climate factor
E) micro traumas of skin during itching
204. Which of these facts makes more condition for the nasal furuncle?
A) diabetes mellitus
B) kidney pathology
C) congenital nasal anomalies
D) cardiovascular pathology
E) sinusitis
205. What is not characteristic for the asthmatic triad?
A) local corticosteroids sensitivity
B) acetyl salicylic acid sensitivity
C) polyploidy changes of nasal cavity’s mucosa
D) bronchial asthma
E) analgin and penicillin groups sensitivity
206. What is the etiology of nasal furunculous?
A) staphylococcus
B) blue-green pus sticks
C) herpes virus
D) allergy
E) micoplazma
207. What is the nasal furuncle?
A) acute inflammation of hair follicle
B) inflammation of epidermis
C) acute inflammation of submucosal gland
D) acute inflammation of mucosal tissue
E) acute inflammation of frontal sinus
208. What is the main role of the pathogenesis of the nasal furuncle?
A) thrombi of small blood vessels
B) decreasing of vascular conductivity
C) exudation
D) increasing of vascular conductivity
E) infiltration
36
209. What is the presence of furuncle in the nose and another part of the body?
A) furunculous
B) carbuncles
C) siccoz
D) folliculit
E) erysepelasis
210. How it is called two or more furuncles containing?
A) carbuncles
B) furunculous
C) siccoz
D) ostiofolliculit
E) erysipelas
211. What is determined during infiltration stage of nasal furuncle?
A) antibacterial therapy
B) surgical treatment
C) acupuncture
D) vitamin therapy
E) physiotherapy
212. This form of chronic sinusitis is not met:
A) phlegmanotic
B) purulence
C) marginal- hyperplastic
D) polyposis
E) necrotic
213. What is not used in the treatment of nasal furuncle?
A) naphthyzin
B) aspirin
C) suprastin
D) erythromycin
E) vishnevskiy ointment
214. When does incision should be done during nasal furuncle?
A) abscessing stage
B) infiltration stage
C) healing stage
D) all stages
37
E) not done
215. Main treatment method during infiltration stage of the nasal furuncle:
A) antibiotics and ointment application
B) incision, pressing, vitamin therapy
C) pressing
D) vitamin therapy
E) physiotherapy
216. The main treatment during abscess stage of nasal furuncle:
A) incision and antibacterial therapy
B) antibacterial therapy and ointment application
C) pressing
D) stimulation of immune system
E) physiotherapy
217. Which solution compress is convenient after incision of nasal furuncle?
A) hypertonic solution of NaCl
B) isotonic solution of NaCl
C) 70% spirits
D) polyspirits solution
E) hydrogen peroxide
218. Which spreading infected- inflamated disorders of ENT organ‘s skin occurred with powerful
general reaction of organism?
A) erysipelas
B) sicoz
C) nasal furuncle
D) eczema
E) carbuncle
219. Main causes of erysipelas:
A) streptococcus
B) staphylococcus
C) herpes virus
D) fungal
E) mycoplasma
220. What is not used in the treatment of nasal erysipelas?
A) antifungal ointments
B) autohemotherapy
38
C) antibacterial drugs
D) radiation with quartz
E) vitamintherapy
221. The indication to the surgery of septum deviation:
A) difficulty of nasal respiration
B) atrophic rhinitis
C) acute rhinitis
D) chronic tonsillitis
E) violation of olfaction
222. What is excluded during submucosal resection?
A) deviation part of quadrangular cartilage and bony part of septum
B) triangle cartilage
C) sesamoid cartilage
D) alar cartilage
E) nasal septum’s near part cartilage to nasal dorsum
223. What is the nasal cavity’s synechia?
A) scar tissue between nasal cavity and lateral wall
B) sclerotized part of nasal cavity’s mucosa
C) bony spur of superior part of nasal cavity
D) polypoid derivative of nasal septum
E) cartilage spur of inferior part of nasal cavity
224. The most common causes of septum hematoma:
A) the damaging of nasal septum without spoiling of nasal mucosa’s completeness
B) infection disorder
C) viral disorder
D) vasotomy
E) the damaging nasal septum with spoiling of the completeness nasal septum mucosa
225. The main symptoms of nasal septal hematoma:
A) the difficulty of nasal respiration
B) nasal hemorrhage or bleeding
C) the loosing of smell
D) deformation of external nose
E) purulent rhinorrhea
226. What is the base of putting diagnosis to the nasal septum hematoma?
A) anterior rhinoscopy
39
B) bacteriological examination
C) palpation of nasal bones
D) X-ray exam
E) posterior rhinoscopy
227. What is used in the treatment of the septal hematoma?
A) punction and aspiration of blood
B) anemization of nasal mucosa
C) hemostatic therapy
D) physiotherapy
E) submucosal resection of nasal septum
228. Most informative method for diagnosis of abscess of nasal septum:
A) anterior rhinoscopy and punction of swelling
B) X-ray exam of nasal bones
C) posterior rhinoscopy
D) CT-scan of paranasal sinuses
E) middle rhinoscopy
229. What’s the special complication of the nasal septal abscess?
A) hematoma of the nasal septum
B) vasomotor rhinitis
C) adenoid vegetation
D) acute rhinitis
E) maxillar sinusitis
230. What is done in the treatment of nasal septum abscess?
A) Incision and drainage
B) punction of abscess
C) anterior tamponade of nose
D) Physiotherapy
E) conservative treatment
231. It is not the cause for the formation of septal perforation:
A) acute supurative maxillar sinusitis
B) ozena
C) abscess of nasal septum
D) thirdly syphilis
E) rood surgical intervention to the nasal septum
232. What is the reason of the nasal septum perforation?
40
A) rood surgical intervention to the nasal septum
B) acute supurative maxillar sinusitis
C) longterm keeping anterior tamponed
D) punction of maxillar sinus
E) longterm keeping posterior tamponed
233. Indicate the reducing of sense of smell:
A) hyposmia
B) anosmia
C) hyperosmia
D) parosmia
E) normosmia
234. What is hyposmia?
A) decrease of smelling
B) total loss of smelling
C) perversion of smelling
D) hallucination of smelling
E) increase of smelling
235. What is the anosmia?
A) total loss of sense of smell
B) perversion of sense of smell
C) decrease of sense of smell
D) hallucination of sense of smell
E) normal sense of smell
236. What is the total loss of sense of smell?
A) anosmia
B) parosmia
C) hyperosmia
D) ozena
E) hyposmia
237. What is the admission of the perversion of unpleasant smell?
A) parosmia
B) anosmia
C) hyposmia
D) mormosmia
E) hyperosmia
41
238. Where is the epistaxis mostly?
A) on anterior- inferior part of nasal septum
B) on the middle turbinate
C) on the inferior turbinate
D) on posterior-inferior part of nasal septum
E) on posterior-superior part of nasal septum
239. In what mucosa are the most epistaxis ?
A) of the nasal septum
B) of the inferior turbinate
C) of the middle turbinate
D) in the deep of nasal cavity
E) of the superior turbinate
240. What does not belong to the complex therapy of allergic rhinitis?
A) longterm using nasoconstrictor drops to the nasal cavity
B) individual methods for preventing allergen factors affect to the organism
C) special immunotherapy
D) unspecific hyposensibilization therapy
E) local corticosteroids therapy
241. Local causes of epistaxis:
A) trauma
B) atherosclerosis
C) leucosis
D) arterial hypertension
E) haemophylia
242. What is the cause of epistaxis?
A) all counts
B) hypertonic disorder
C) blood disorders
D) atherosclerosis
E) kidney disorders
243. When does occur epistaxis?
A) all counts
B) during influenza
C) nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
D) teleangioectasia
42
E) cancer of the nasal cavity
244. What does locate anterior – inferior part of nasal septum?
A) kisselbach plexus
B) cavernous sinus
C) lymphatic plexus
D) sinus sigmoideus
E) all counts
245. What is the most reason of nasal bleeding?
A) atherosclerosis
B) rheumatic arthritis
C) myocardial infarcts
D) inter ventricular septum defect of cardio
E) intestinal dysfunction
246. What may be the cause of nasal hemorrhage ?
A) all counts
B) atrophy and erosion of nasal septum
C) malignant tumors of nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses
D) surgeries and damages in the nasal cavity
E) benign tumors of nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses ( angioma, papilloma)
247. During what disorder does not happen symptomatic nasal bleeding?
A) pneumonia
B) angiofibroma of nasopharynx
C) hypertonic disorder
D) haemophylia
E) leucosis
248. What is used during anterior part of nasal cavity’s bleeding?
A) pressing of nasal alares to the septum and inserting 3% hydrogen peroxide wet to the anterior part of
nasal cavity
B) posterior tamponed
C) parental injection of dibazoli
D) ligaturation of external carotid artery
E) parental injection of vikasoli
249. What is not used during anterior part of bleeding of nasal cavity?
A) posterior tamponed
B) insertion of 3% hydrogen peroxide wet to the nasal cavity
43
C) coagulation of vessel
D) pressing nasal valve to the septum
E) anterior tamponade
250. Stopping –keeping methods of nasal hemorrhage:
A) all counts
B) anterior tamponed of nasal cavity
C) insertion of 3% hydrogen peroxide wet to the nasal cavity
D) electro –chemical coagulation
E) posterior tamponed of nasal cavity
251. When specific immunotherapy is doing during allergic rhinitis?
A) after exactly determining allergen
B) during acute stages of disorder
C) if antihistamines using are effectless
D) when hormonal drugs are effectless
E) allergic rhinitis with purulent- polyposis sinusitis
252. What is the specific immunotherapy based during allergic rhinitis?
A) subcutaneous insertion of minimal doze of allergen and gradually increase it
B) oral acceptation of antihistamines
C) using of first generation of antihistamines
D) using of second generation of antihistamines
E) using of topical corticosteroids
253. How long is anterior tamponed put?
A) 24-72 hours
B) 10- 72 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 7-10 hours
E) 2 hours
254. What must be done during powerful nasal hemorrhages?
A) anterior and posterior tamponed of nasal cavity
B) surgical diathermy
C) galvanocautherization
D) chemical coagulation
E) insertion of 3% hydrogen peroxide wet to the nasal cavity
255. How is the measure of tampon determined for the posterior tamponed?
A) the size of distal phalanges of both thumb fingers
44
B) the size of distal phalanges of both little fingers
C) the size which determined during digital examination of nasopharynx
D) approximately
E) the size of distal phalanges of both testimony fingers
256. What is the necessary for doing posterior tamponed?
A) all counts
B) the posterior tampon closed with silk thread
C) the wet for anterior tamponed
D) thin rubber tube and catheter
E) nasal forcep and Hartmann
257. Why do we keep the thread in the mouse during posterior tamponade?
A) for taking out the tampon
B) fixation of tampon
C) preventing of asphyxia
D) needn’t anything
E) all counts
258. What may be the result of the staying of tampon in the nasopharynx during posterior
tamponed for a longterm?
A) acute supurative otitis media, sinusitis
B) pneumonia
C) bronchitis
D) sensorineural hearing loss
E) nasal septum deviation
259. The duration of dry irritation stage in acute rhinitis:
A) from any hours to 1-2 days
B) 30 minutes -2 hours
C) 3-4 days
D) 1 week
E) 5 days
260. How many stages are there in the acute rhinitis?
A) 3
B) 2
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
45
261. How is the first stage of acute rhinitis called?
A) dry irritation
B) serous irritation
C) mucopurulent rhinorrhea
D) none symptom
E) latent
262. What may we determine the way of the acute catharalrhinitis in the early days of the diseases?
A) heating and sweating procedures
B) antihistamines
C) vasoconstrictors
D) longboard antibiotics
E) washing of nasal cavity with isotonic solution of NaCL
263. What is formed during the using of congestion drops for a long time?
A) vasomotor rhinitis
B) ozena
C) chronic hypertrophic rhinitis
D) chronic atrophic rhinitis
E) allergic rhinitis
264. What does the restoration of nasal breathing supply in newborns?
A) all counts
B) preventing inflammation of auditory tube and middle ear
C) calm sleeping
D) normal feeding
E) normal function of stomach – intestinal tract
265. What is the cause of the dysfunction of hypertrophy of posterior edges of nasal turbinate
during rhinosinusitis?
A) auditory tube’s
B) tympanic membrane’s
C) corti organ’s
D) nasal vestibule’s
E) eye’s
266. Where are the thickness and large part of mucosa during hypertrophic rhinitis?
A) cavernous tissue of inferior turbinate
B) auditory tube
C) paranasal sinuses
46
D) palatine tonsils
E) cavernous tissue of superior turbinate
267. That does not belong to the etiology of secondarily atrophic rhinitis?
A) chronic tonsillitis
B) environmental negative factors
C) broad surgical intervention of nasal cavity
D) diabetic - mellitus
E) damages of nasal mucosa
268. What is used in the treatment of the atrophic rhinitis ?
A) vitamin A,E , iodine solutions
B) euphyllini
C) bismuth drugs
D) protorgol solutions
E) vasoconstrictors
269. Triad symptom during vasomotor rhinitis:
A) paroxysmal sneezing, hardness of nasal breathing, itching, many discharge
B) sometimes nasal obstruction, mucopurulent rhinorrhea, headache
C) hardness of nasal breathing, dryness in the nasal cavity, anosmy
D) headache, hypertrophy of nasal turbinate, hardness of nasal breathing
E) hardness of nasal breathing, headache, powerful nasal hemorrhage
270. The specialty of secretion in the allergic rhinitis:
A) many mucous and serous
B) hemorrhagic
C) purulent
D) a small amount
E) foul smell
271. That is not the symptom of the allergic form of vasomotor rhinitis :
A) pharyngeal pain
B) rhinorrhea
C) violation of sense of smell
D) nasal congestion
E) paroxysmal sneezing
272. What is not characteristic to the vasomotor rhinitis?
A) nasal bleeding
B) odema of nasal turbinate
47
C) mucoid secretion
D) hardness of nasal breathing
E) sneezing
273. What is the ozena?
A) atrophic rhinit’s form
B) hypertrophic rhinit’s form
C) vasomotor rhinit’s form
D) acute catharal rhinitis
E) sinusitis form
274. What is found on anterior rhinoscopy during ozena?
A) dark brown and yellow –green crusts
B) ulcers
C) pustules
D) many purulent secretion
E) grey patches
275. What does not belong to the method of sinusitis’ diagnosis ?
A) pneumoencephalography
B) CT –scan of nose and paranasal sinuses
C) endoscopy of nasal cavity
D) X-ray exam of paranasal sinuses
E) diagnostic punction of paranasal sinuses
276. Wha t is used for the diagnosis of the frontal sinusutus?
A) anterior and lateral section X-ray exam of paranasal sinuses
B) with Mayer method X-ray exam of temporal bone
C) with Fuller method X-ray exam of temporal bone
D) audiometry
E) axial section X-ray exam of paranasal sinuses
277. What is used for the diagnosis of the ethmoid sinusitis?
A) nasal-mandibular projection X-ray exam and CT –scan of paranasal sinuses
B) punction of maxillar sinus
C) impedancometry
D) with Stanvers method X-ray exam of temporal bone
E) checking of mucociliar clearance
278. Wha t is used for the diagnosis of the sphenoid sinusitis?
A) nasal-mandibular and axial projection X-ray exam and CT –scan of paranasal sinuses
48
B) MRI of brain
C) percussion of anterior wall of maxillary sinus
D) lazer Doppler flowmetry
E) with Shuller method X-ray exam of temporal bone
279. What is used for the diagnosis of sinusitis?
A) sinusoscopy
B) bacteriological survey of nasal mucus
C) rhinomanometry
D) smear exam
E) olphactometry
280. The most common pathways of paranasal sinuses :
A) rhinogen
B) lymphogen
C) odontogen
D) hemathogen
E) labyrinthogen
281. Which teeth of maxillary bone may be the cause of maxillary sinusitis?
A) 5, 6, 7
B) 2, 3
C) 3, 4
D) 8
E) 1,2
282. Which method is not correct during treatment of acute frontal sinusitis?
A) punction of frontal sinus through the medial wall
B) adrenalization of middle meatus with vasoconstrictors
C) punction of frontal sinus through the inferior wall
D) trepanopunction of frontal sinus
E) general antiinflammation therapy
283. Most optimal temporary surgical intervention to the sphenoid sinus during sphenoidithis?
A) endoscopic
B) Danker method
C) Caldwell – Luc method
D) Ivanov method
E) Ritter – Yansen method
284. The most common symptom in acute maxillar sinusitis?
49
A) all counts
B) pus in the middle meatus
C) pain on the ill side of maxillary sinus and headache
D) oedema of nasal mucosa (difficulty of nasal breathing)
E) violation of sence of smell
285. The direction of Clukovskiy neddle during punction of maxillary sinus?
A) directed external angle of eye in ipsilateral side
B) inferior
C) posterior
D) perpendicular
E) directed external angle of eye in contralateral side
286. What morphologic form is not characteristic to sinusitis?
A) papillamatous
B) wall- marginal hyperplastic
C) exudative (purulent)
D) polypoid
E) cholestheatomatous
287. What is not used in the treatment of acute rhinosnusitis?
A) diurethics
B) antihistaminic drugs
C) physiotherapy
D) decongestants
E) antibiotics
288. General causes of acute sinusitis:
A) all counts
B) harmfully factors of environment
C) constitutional features
D) condition of immunity
E) decreaimg local and genereal immunity of organism
289. Local causes of sinusitis:
A) all counts
B) acute rhinitis
C) chronic rhinitis
D) deviated nasal septum
E) adenoid vegetation
50
290. Where punctured the maxillary sinus?
A) inferior nasal meatus
B) middle nasal meatus
C) superior nasal meatus
D) deep the nasal cavuty
E) anterior wall
291. To what disease is it characteristic during anemization of nazal cavity’s mucosa if head flexed
opposite side and pus found in the middle meatus?
A) maxillary sinusitis
B) vasomotor rhinitis
C) sphenoid sinusitis
D) frontal sinusitis
E) catharal rhinitis
292. Which is the less informative method for diagnosis of sphenoid sinusitis?
A) anterior rhinoscopy
B) endoscopic examination
C) posterior rhinoscopy
D) CT –scan of paranasal sinuses
E) MRI of paranasal sinuses
293. Most common complication during puncture of maxillary sinus?
A) puncture of orbit
B) puncture of alveoli
C) puncture of palate
D) damage of sphenoid sinus
E) puncture of middle turbinate
294. What is the hemisinusitis?
A) inflammation of all sinuses in one side
B) inflammation of all sinuses
C) maxillary and ethmoidal sinusitis
D) bilateral frontal and sphenoid sinusitis
E) bilateral ethmoid sinusitis
295. What is the pansinusitis?
A) inflammation of all paranasal sinuses
B) unilaterally inflammation of all sinuses
C) maxillar and ethmoid sinusitis
51
D) frontal and sphenoid sinusitis
E) bilaterally maxillary sinusitis
296. The treatment method of maxillary sinusitis:
A) punction of maxillary sinus
B) puncture of frontal sinus
C) endoscopic ethmoidotomy
D) using of hemostatic
E) using of diuretic
297. Surgical treatment of maxillary sinusitis:
A) Caldwell – Luc method surgery
B) frontotomy
C) sphenoidotomy
D) ethmoidotomy
E) pus evacuation with Proet’s exchange method
298. Acute ethmoid sinusitis complicated with orbital subperiostal abscess or flegmonae. How must
be treatment tactic?
A) surgical intervention –ethmoidotomy, orbitotomy
B) antibiotic therapy
C) punction of ethmoid sinus and antibioticotherapy
D) punction of frontal sinus
E) pus evacuation with Proet’s exchange method
299. It is important during foreign body of maxillary sinus:
A) to open maxillary sinus
B) radical operation of frontal sinus
C) take out with hook
D) tracheotomy
E) punction of maxillary sinus
300. What may filling droping to the maxillary sinus cause?
A) chronic maxillary sinusitis
B) chronic frontal sinusitis
C) chronic ethmoid sinusitis
D) chronic sphenoid sinusitis
E) chronic frontal and ethmoid sinusitis
301. Indication during odontogenic maxillary sinusitis:
A) haymorotomy
52
B) ethmoidotomy
C) sphenoidotomy
D) frontotomy
E) only tooth extracting
302. If antiinflammated conservative treatment is effectless in a 3 days during frontal sinusitis
which confirmed with X-ray exam and CT-scan the following is indicated:
A) trepanopunction of frontal sinus
B) endonasalethmoidotomy
C) haymorotomy
D) endonasalsphenoidotomy
E) radical operation of frontal sinus
303. If there is not present positive dynamic in the first day conservative treatment during
maxillary sinusitis with confirmed X-ray exam and CT-scan the following is indicated:
A) punction of maxillary sinus
B) radical operation of maxillary sinus
C) endonasal ethmoidotomy
D) trepanopunction of frontal sinus
E) endonasal sphenoidotomy
304. The main pathway of infection during rhinogenic orbital complication:
A) contact
B) perineural
C) traumatic
D) lymphogenic
E) hemathogenic
305. There is not such form of rhinogenic orbital complication:
A) thrombosis of cavernous sinus
B) thrombosis of orbital soft tissue venous
C) flegmona of orbital soft tissue
D) retrobulbar abscess
E) orbital osteoperiostit
306. It is not rhinogenic orbital complication:
A) subdural abscess
B) retrobulbar abscess
C) flegmona of orbital soft tissue
D) reactive edema of eyelid and orbital soft tissue
53
E) eyelid abscess
307. It is not characteristic for the orbital flegmona:
A) normal movement of eyeball
B) increasing of temperature
C) decreasing of loss of vision
D) egzophtalm
E) diplopia
308. It does not belong to the rhinogenic orbital complication:
A) epidural abscess
B) retrobulbar abscess
C) eyelid abscess
D) orbital soft tissue abscess
E) subperiostal abscess of orbita
309. With this pathway rhinogenic intracranial complication does not happen:
A) typanogenic
B) hematogenic
C) contact
D) limphogenic
E) perineural
310. This intracranial complication is not rhinogenic:
A) cerebral glioma
B) cavernous sinus thrombosis
C) meningitis
D) cerebral abscess
E) extradural abscess
311. Cavernous sinus borders:
A) internal carotid artery
B) external carotid artery
C) jugular vein
D) facial artery
E) optic chiasm
312. How cavernous sinus thrombosis differs from the orbital soft tissue flegmonae?
A) no pain during palpation of eye ball
B) decreasing of vision and blindness
C) decreasing movement of eye ball
54
D) egzophtalm
E) chemosis of conjunctiva
313. It is not characteristic for the cavernous sinus thrombosis?
A) normal temperature
B) odema of eyelid
C) chemosis of conjunctiva
D) egzophtalm
E) stasis or odem of the disc of optic nerve
314. It does not belong to the symptoms of rhinogenic purulent meningitis?
A) anosmia
B) unconsciousness
C) diffuse headache
D) high contunia tip temperature
E) nausea and vomiting
315. It is not the meningeal symptom:
A) Ortner
B) Kernig
C) Brudzinskiy
D) neck rigidity
E) Babinskiy
316. It is not characteristic symptom for the purulent meningitis?
A) Gallant
B) Oppenhehm
C) Brudzinskiy
D) Rossolimo
E) Kernig
317. The meningitis diagnosis is put on the base of this indicator:
A) spinal cord punction
B) urine analysis
C) sternal punction
D) blood analysis
E) CT-scan of cerebral brain
318. It does not belong to the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) changes during purulent meningitis?
A) sugar raise
B) protein raise
55
C) cytoz ( neutrophylioz)
D) flow under tension, not pure
E) sugar and chlorides reduce
319. It is not characteristic symptom of manifestation stages of frontal lobe abscess?
A) labyrinthitis
B) general brain
C) general
D) meningeal
E) focal
320. It is not characteristic symptom for the frontal lobe abscess?
A) adiodochokinesis
B) frontal ataxia
C) local supraorbital pain
D) psychological violation
E) meningeal symptoms
321. Necessary examination method during rhinogenic cerebral abscess:
A) CT-scan and MRI or cerebral brain
B) electroencephalography
C) audiometry
D) impedancometry
E) olphactometry
322. It is not the reason of traumatic deformation of external nose?
A) poliartritis
B) welfare traumas
C) sportive traumas
D) transportation trauma
E) military trauma
323. The purpose of tamponed during reposition of external nasal bones:
A) all counts are true
B) fixation of broken active nose
C) to avoid of synechia
D) stoping epistaxis
E) to avoid hematoma
324. It is done during broken with side movement of nasal bones :
A) finger reposition
56
B) rhinoplasty
C) intubation of trachea
D) septoplasty
E) tracheotomy
325. It is the indication in the damaging of skin cover during the breaking of nasal bones:
A) antitetanus serum
B) antidyphtheria serum
C) morphological analysis of blood
D) analgetics
E) hemostatic
326. Broken nose classified:
A) closed, open
B) only open
C) only closed
D) only not damaging with mucosal cover
E) only damaging with mucosal cover
327. If there is the sign of cerebral shaking in the patient with the breaking of nasal bones tactic
should be:
A) postponement reposition of nasal bones (5-6 days)
B) urgently reposition of nasal bones
C) punction of sphenoid sinus
D) trepanation of cranium
E) hemostatic therapy and urgently reduction of nasal bones
328. If there is the suspicion of breaking skull base in the patient of breaking nasal bones what does
the treatment begin with?
A) spinal puncture (for reveal the hemorrhage in the subarachnoid space)
B) urgently reconstruction of nasal bones
C) attentively observing
D) antishock therapy
E) trepanation of cranium
329. In which part of nose and paranasal sinus do we often meet the osteoma?
A) frontal and ethmoid sinuses
B) maxillary sinuses
C) sphenoid sinuses
D) in the floor of the nasal cavity
57
E) nasal septum
330. How many stages are separated during malignant tumor of the nose?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 3
D) 2
E) is not separated
331. Which paranasal sinuses is often damaged with primarily malignant tumors?
A) maxillary
B) ethmoid
C) frontal
D) sphenoid
E) same incidance
332. This is the most persistent symptom early stages of Vegener granulomatosis:
A) the formation of bloody-purulent crust in the nasal mucosa
B) foul smeling crust in the nasal mucosa
C) paroxysmal sneezing
D) excessive serous rhinorhea
E) smelling violation
333. Describe the main characteristic of acute catarrhal laryngitis:
A) cough, hoarseness, foreign body sensation
B) cough, hoarseness, respiratory failure
C) heat, pain on swallowing, respiratory failure
D) cough, high temperature, respiratory failure
E) hoarseness, high temperature, pain on swallowing
334. Specify the laryngoscopic picture of acute catarrhal laryngitis:
A) swelling of mucous membranes. Hyperemia of mucosa. Infiltration of mucosa. Incomplete closure of
vocal folds
B) swelling of mucous membranes. Extensive hemorrhage. Purulent infiltration of mucosae
C) swelling of mucous membranes. Hyperemia of mucosa. Purulent infiltration of mucosae
D) swelling of mucous membranes. Hyperemia of mucosa. Purulent discharge
E) swelling of mucous membranes. Hyperemia of mucosa. Paralysis of vocal folds
335. At what age is most common subglottic laryngitis?
A) Up to 5-8 years
B) In the 12-14 years
58
C) 6-8 years
D) to the annual age
E) In the 9-11 years
336. In 2 days after taking cold food the patient has hoarseness, cough, low-grade fever. Your
presumptive diagnosis?
A) laryngitis
B) Angioma
C) Paratonzillit
D) Pharyngitis
E) Adenoids
337. Where are throat abscess most often localized?
A) in the epiglottis
B) in the ventricles of the larynx
C) in the vocal cords
D) in the subglottic space
E) in the vestibular, false folds
338. Where is pachydermia most often located?
A) in between-arytenoid space. In the posterior third of the vocal folds
B) in the ventricular folds
C) in the epiglottis
D) on the under-fold field
E) on the cricoid cartilage
339. Specify the width of the glottis in case of compensation stage of acute laryngeal stenosis:
A) 5-6 mm
B) 4-5 mm
C) 8-9 mm
D) 2-3 mm
E) 1-2 mm
340. Specify the width of the glottis under subcompensation severe stenosis of the larynx:
A) 4-5 mm
B) 2-3 mm
C) 8-9 mm
D) 6-7 mm
E) 10-12 mm
341. Specify the width of the glottis to acute decompensation of stenosis of the larynx:
59
A) 2-3 mm
B) 4-5 mm
C) 10-12 mm
D) 6-7 mm
E) 8-9 mm
342. At which stage of laryngeal stenosis appearing in rest and accompanied by constriction of the
glottis to 4-5 mm inspiratory dyspnea develops?
A) subcompensation
B) compensation
C) decompensation
D) at asphyxia stage
E) this stage does not exist
343. When should be tracheostomy performed?
A) at acute laryngeal stenosis decompensation stage
B) at acute laryngeal stenosis subcompensation stage
C) in chronic laryngeal stenosis
D) at acute laryngeal stenosis compensation stage
E) in case of under-fold laryngitis
344. Which of the following muscles expands the glottis?
A) posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
B) transverse arytenoid muscle
C) oblique arytenoid muscle
D) lateral cricoarytenoid muscle
E) cricothyroid muscle
345. Which of the following nerves are involved in the innervation of the mucous membrane of the
larynx?
A) superior laryngeal nerve
B) glossopharyngeal nerve
C) hypoglossal nerve
D) lower laryngeal nerve
E) The trigeminal nerve
346. Which of the given below muscles groups recurrent nerve innervates?
A) internal laryngeal muscles
B) external laryngeal muscles
C) pharyngeal muscles
60
D) neck muscles
E) lingual muscles
347. Which of the given below is not the paralysis of recurrent nerve cause?
A) laryngeal foreign bodies
B) aneurysm of aortic arch
C) Various intoxication
D) mediastinal tumor
E) enlargement of heart
348. Which of the given below is the cause of recurrent nerve paralysis?
A) aneurysm of aortic arch
B) laryngeal foreign bodies
C) laryngeal tuberculosis
D) papillomatosis
E) laryngeal scleroma
349. Tracheostomy should be applied in bilateral paralysis of:
A) M. Posticus
B) M. Transversus
C) M. Anticus
D) M. Vocalis
E) M. Lateralis
350. Which pathological process can be caused by aortic aneurysm, esophageal, tracheal or
mediastenal tumors, pericarditis, lung apex fibrosis?
A) laryngoparalysis,
B) soft palate paralysis,
C) mimic paralysis,
D) anesthesia of the larynx
E) gustatory dysfunction
351. Which of the given below is affected first in unilateral laryngoparalysis?
A) vocal function of larynx - hoarseness
B) protective function of larynx
C) distinction funvtion of larynx
D) respiratory function of larynx
E) all laryngeal functions
352. 60 years old woman suffered from the strumectomia due to thyroid cancer. In early post-
surgical period the laryngeal stenosis signs appeared. What is the cause?
61
A) laryngoparalysis
B) post-intubational laryngeal granuloma
C) cicaricial stenosis of the larynx
D) inflammation of larnx
E) parasthesia of laryx
353. 7 years old child was in coma for 45 days after auto crash. Nasotracheal intubation and
artificial lung ventilation (ALV) are applied. After extubation the signs of the laryngeal stenosis
developed. What is the possible cause?
A) post-intubational laryngeal granuloma
B) laryngeal perichondritis at sclerosing stage
C) unilateral laringoparalysis
D) bilateral laringoparalysis
E) cicatrical stenosis of the larynx
354. 3 years old child suffered transferred from aphonia to disphonia after 3 months of URI. What
is the possible diagnosis?
A) laryngeal papillomatosis
B) chronic catarrhal laryngitis
C) acute laryngitis
D) allergic edema of vocal cords
E) chronic hiperplastic laryngitis
355. 3 years old child suffered transferred to aphonia from disphonia after 3 months of URI.
Which of the investigation methods should be applied to confirm the initial diagnosis?
A) direct laryngoscopy
B) audiometry
C) automatic spirometry
D) larynxeal and tracheal lateral X-ray
E) indirect laryngoscopy
356. Which of the following methods is most often used in the study of the larynx in young
children?
A) direct laryngoscopy
B) X-ray
C) stroboscopy
D) palpation
E) indirect laryngoscopy

62
357. Where is cicatricial laryngeal stenosis aroused as a result of chemical burns most often
localized?
A) vestibule of larynx
B) cricoid cartilage
C) vocal folds
D) thyroid cartilage region
E) under-fold space
358. Where is cicatricial stenosis of larynx most often localized after prolonged intubation?
A) subglottic space
B) vestibule
C) vocal folds area
D) laryngeal ventricules
E) falce and vocal folde
359. What internal muscles paralysis caused nondisclosure of and develops acute stenosis?
A) posterior cricoarythenoid
B) lateral cricoarythenoid
C) transversal arythenoid
D) oblique arytenoid
E) aryepiglottic
360. Choose the most common inflammatory disease of larynx in children:
A) viral laryngotracheitis
B) acute epiglottitis
C) all answers
D) laringofaringeal reflux
E) herpetic laryngitis
361. Choose the most frequently encountered tumors of larynx in children:
A) papillomatosis
B) atheroma
C) lipoma
D) hemangioma
E) fibroma
362. Laryngeal tumor of which floor frequently gives metastasis
A) The vestibular area
B) Areas of the vocal folds
C) Areas of false vocal folds
63
D) the middle and lower floors together
E) the transition region of the larynx in the trachea
363. What operation is differently called as “Alternative tracheostomy”?
A) conicotomy
B) staged laringotraheoplasty
C) laryngeal reinnervation
D) cricotraheal resection
E) one-step laringotraheoplastik
364. Describe the main causes of acute stenotic laryngitis:
A) influenza virus and parainfluenza virus
B) hemolytic streptococci
C) staphylococcus aureus
D) hemophilus bacillus
E) None of the above
365. On what anatomical structure is conicotomy operation made?
A) conic cricothyroid ligament
B) thyroid cartilage
C) cricoid
D) thyrohyoid ligament
E) cricotracheal ligament
366. At what floor of larynx disease is the voice broken?
A) middle
B) upper
C) vestibular
D) lower
E) vestibular folds
367. What is characteristic of laryngeal stenosis in decompensation stage?
A) cyanosis and acrocyanosis of nasolabial triangle, fear, forced position, stridor
B) convulsions
C) aphonia
D) All answers
E) dysphonia
368. In what cases is the rapid breathing with the auxiliary muscles of the chest observed?
A) second degree stenosis
B) none of the above answers
64
C) laryngeal stenosis fourth degree
D) laryngeal stenosis first degree
E) laryngeal stenosis third degree
369. Where is the cicatricial stenosis of larynx most often met during false CROUP?
A) Subglotic area
B) with the same frequency in all departments
C) folds area
D) None
E) vestibule
370. Which diseases belong to true croup?
A) infectious diseases
B) allergic diseases
C) tumors and granuloma
D) none of these
E) congenital malformations
371. Which area of larynx is affected in case of false croup?
A) subglottic area
B) vestibular folds
C) epiglottis
D) vocal folds
E) laryngeal ventricles
372. What pathological process develops at false croup in children?
A) laryngeal subglottic space swelling
B) swelling of epiglottis
C) throat phlegmon
D) laryngeal tumors
E) congenital anomaly
373. Specify the early complications of tracheostomy:
A) all answers
B) subcutaneous emphysema
C) mediastinal emphysema
D) bleeding
E) pneumothorax
374. What kind of operation is usually carried out on injury larynx?
A) lower tracheostomy
65
B) conicotomy
C) intubation
D) all
E) upper tracheostomy
375. What is the symptom of larynx 3 rd floor cancer?
A) hard breath
B) paroxysmal cough
C) dysphagia
D) hoarseness
E) dysarthria
376. The 3-year-old child suddenly had a barking cough and inspiratory dyspnea in the night. Your
presumptive diagnosis?
A) false croup
B) acute pharyngitis
C) angina
D) true croup
E) acute bronchitis
377. What epithelium lined the most part of internal surface of larynx?
A) multirow cylindrical ciliated epithelium
B) stratified squamous epithelium
C) transitional epithelium
D) flat epithelium
E) cylindrical epithelium
378. Specify external muscles of larynx?
A) [Link], [Link], [Link]
B) [Link], [Link], [Link]
C) [Link], [Link], [Link]
D) [Link] transversus, [Link], [Link]
E) [Link], [Link], [Link] lateralis
379. Which anatomical structures behind of larynx?
A) pharynx
B) subhyoid muscles
C) thorax lymphatic duct
D) prevertebral plate of cervical fascia
E) tongue base
66
380. What nerve generally provides motor innervation of larynx?
A) recurrent nerve
B) upper laryngeal nerve
C) glossopharyngeal nerve
D) accessory nerve
E) hypoglossal nerve
381. What is the main sensory nerve of the larynx?
A) superior laryngeal nerve
B) recurrent nerve
C) accessory nerve
D) glossopharyngeal nerve
E) hypoglossal nerve
382. Specify the clinical manifestations of vocal nodules:
A) dysphonia, hoarseness
B) pain
C) paroxysmal cough
D) does not manifests clinically
E) expiratory dyspnea
383. Specify, which diseases applies to purulent laryngitis group?
A) laryngeal abscesses, phlegmonal laryngitis
B) laryngeal diphtheria, laryngeal angina
C) laryngeal abscesses, laryngeal diphtheria
D) laryngeal erysipelas, laryngeal angina
E) phlegmonal laryngitis, laryngeal erysipelas
384. What is includes to the middle floor of larynx?
A) true vocal folds (cords) and glottis
B) under-fold areas tissues
C) epiglottis, arytenoepiglottic folds, ventricular (false) vocal folds, morganies ventricles
D) ventricular (false) and true vocal folds
E) epiglottis, true vocal folds (cords) and morganies ventricles
385. What applies to lower floor of the larynx?
A) subglottic area tissues
B) epiglottis, true vocal folds (cords) and morganies ventricles
C) true vocal folds (cords) and glottis
D) ventricular (false) and true vocal folds
67
E) epiglottis, aryteno-epiglottic folds, ventricular (false) vocal folds, morganies ventricles
386. Call treatment method which is carried out at laryneal diphtheria:
A) introduction of diphtheria serum, intubation, tracheotomy
B) laringofissura
C) conicotomy
D) laryngectomy
E) turbinotomy
387. Specify the characteristics of laryngeal papillomatosis:
A) dysphonia, hoarseness and progressively hard breath
B) shortness of breath and dysphagia
C) cough, and dysphagia
D) aphonia and dysphagia
E) chest pain and forced position
388. From what nerve depart superior and inferior laryngeal branch?
A) N. Vagus
B) N. Glossopharyngeus
C) N. Hypoglossus
D) N. Accesorius
E) N. Vestibulocochlearis
389. Which muscle plays a major role in the process of voice?
A) internal thyreo-arytaenoid muscle (voice muscle)
B) rear crico-arytenoid muscle
C) oblique arytenoid muscle
D) side crico-arytenoid muscle
E) transverse arytenoid muscle
390. How is laryngeal diphtheria differed from acute catarrhal laryngitis?
A) presence of dirty-gray plaque
B) edema and infiltration of vocal folds
C) hyperemia of mucous membrane
D) presence of purulent white plaque
E) presence of dry crusts in the glottis
391. How is initial form of laryngeal tuberculosis differed from acute catarrhal laryngitis?
A) presence of hyperemia and edema unilateral vocal folds
B) presence of hyperemia and edema on both vocal folds
C) hyperemia of mucous membrane
68
D) presence of purulent white plaque
E) presence of a dirty-gray plaque
392. Select the symptoms of laryngeal stenosis in compensation stage:
A) fall and deepen breathing, loss of pauses between expiration and inspiration, dyspnoe during physical
activity
B) inspiratory dyspnea, rapid shallow breathing, acrocyanosis, psychomotor agitation, fear of death
C) breathing Cheyne-Stokes type, acrocyanosis, loss of consciousness
D) stridor, acrocyanosis, psychomotor agitation, fear of death
E) inspiratory dyspnea, acrocyanosis, loss of consciousness, fear of death
393. Specify changes in the larynx in subglottic laryngitis:
A) hyperemia and edema of the subglottic cavity rollers mucosa, obstruction
B) pus on mucous of laryngeal mucosa
C) appearance of a dirty-gray plaque on laryngeal mucosa
D) inflammatory infiltrate in the epiglottis
E) dry crusts between the true vocal folds
394. What is the leading symptom in upper floor laryngeal cancer?
A) dysphagia
B) hoarseness
C) paroxysmal cough
D) shortness of breath
E) dysarthria
395. Specify laryngoscopic symptoms of chronic atrophic laryngitis?
A) thinning and dryness of laryngeal mucosal membrane, crusts
B) laryngeal pachydermia
C) contact ulcers on the vocal fold
D) thick mucus and hypertrophy of vocal folds
E) polypoid hyperplasia of the vocal folds
396. What kind of tissue in great quantity located in laryngeal subglottic area in children?
A) fragile tissue
B) connective tissue
C) ciliated epithelium
D) squamous epithelium
E) ciliated and flat epithelium
397. In what part of a larynx is the lymphatic network more up?
A) vestibular
69
B) vocal folds
C) under-fold space
D) Morganie ventricles
E) arytenoid cartilage
398. What epithelium covered voical folds?
A) squamous
B) ciliated
C) neuroepithelial tissue
D) connective tissue
E) loose tissue
399. What level of cervical vertebras do the upper and lower bound of a larynx correspond to in
adults?
A) IV-VI cervical vertebras
B) III-V cervical vertebras
C) IV-VII cervical vertebras
D) III-VI cervical vertebras
E) III-VII cervical vertebras
400. Which of the followings methods is used for research of a larynx?
A) direct and indirect laryngoscopy
B) X-ray of the larynx, computer research, pharyngoscopy
C) stroboscopic, pharyngoscopy
D) indirect laryngoscopy, otoscopy
E) indirect laryngoscopy, upper pharyngoscope
401. What is the symptom of laryngeal middle floor cancer?
A) hoarseness
B) dysarthria
C) dysphagia
D) hard breath
E) paroxysmal cough
402. What is the main function of the tympanic membrane?
A) Sound conduction
B) Sound perceiving
C) Tactile
D) Keep balance
E) Barofunction
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403. In what quadrant of the tympanic membrane paracentezis must be done? (HelD)
A) Posterior inferior
B) Posterior superior
C) Anterior inferior
D) Anterior superior
E) Central
404. How many walls have the tympanic cavity?
A) 6
B) 5
C) 4
D) 3
E) 2
405. In which wall are the aditus ad antrum of the tympanic cavity situated?
A) Posterior wall
B) Internal wall
C) Superior wall
D) Inferior wall
E) Anterior wall
406. By which function of the insufflation of auditory tube is the pressure difference between
tympanic cavity and the environment restored?
A) Ventilation
B) Drainage
C) Protecting
D) Conduction
E) Ototopic
407. By which method is it necessary to expel alien bodies from external ear passage?
A) Washing of ear passage
B) Forcep
C) Paracentezis
D) Blowing of hearing pipe
E) Radical surgery
408. Which signs coincide with furunculous of the external auditory canal that mentioned below?
A) Increasing pain during chewing
B) Narrowing bony part of auditory canal
C) Disbalance
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D) Mastoiditis symptoms
E) Spontaneous nistaqmus
409. What signs do not exist during non-inflammatory diseases of the ear?
A) Vestibular dysfunction
B) Confusion and stuffy ear
C) Tightening inwards of the tympanum
D) Conductive hearing loss
E) Autophony
410. What are the main symptoms of the ear wax?
A) Acute weakening of the hearing when water dropping
B) Purulent otorhea
C) Earache
D) Disbalance
E) Increasing temperature
411. What does the diagnose of chronic mezotimpanic otitis?
A) Perforation in pars tensa and periodic purulent otorhea
B) Perforation in pars flaccida
C) Clouding and retraction of tympanic membrane
D) Tympanum has changed with scars
E) Hyperemia of tympanic membrane during otoscopy
412. Which of these symptoms characterizes the diffuse external otitis?
A) Narrowing of external ear passage, hyperemia of the skin, and pain while pressure on tragus
B) Perforation in tympanum membrane, purulent otorrea
C) Sensoneurological hearing loss
D) Dizziness and disbalance
E) Stuffy ear, clouding of tympanic membrane and retraction
413. How many periods distinguishes during acute purulent otitis media ?
A) 3
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
E) 5
414. Which of these are the main symptoms of otosclerosis ?
A) bilateral Hearingloss and tinnitus
B) Conductive Hearing loss, Gelle (+)
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C) Purulent otorrea
D) Perforation in Tympanic Membrane
E) Earache
415. What is the surgical therapy of otosclerosis?
A) Stapedoplasty
B) RadicalEar Surgery
C) Tympanoplasty
D) Antromastoidotomy
E) Labyrintotomy
416. What is the pathogenesis of Meniere`s (disease) illness?
A) Hydrops of labyrinth
B) Purulent inflammation of labyrinth
C) Fistula of semicircular canal of labyrinth
D) Purulent inflammation of tympanic cavity
E) Collecting transudation in tympaniccavity
417. Which symptom does not exist during Meniere’s illness (disease) ?
A) Purulent otorrhea
B) Tinnitus
C) Systemic dizziness
D) Hearing loss
E) Disbalance and Vegetative reactions
418. Which symptom does not exist during of Meniere’s illness?
A) Earache- Otalgia
B) Tinnitus
C) Disbalance
D) Dizziness
E) Progressive Hearing loss
419. What diseaseis characterized by tinnitus, dizziness and sensoneurological hearing loss?
A) Meniere disease
B) Otosclerosis
C) Chronic otitis media
D) Collecting transudation in tympanic cavity
E) Adgeziv otitis media
420. What reasons has of acute catarrh of the middle ear?
A) Dysfunction of auditory tube
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B) Ankylosis of hearing ossicles
C) Infection
D) Vibration
E) Ear trauma
421. Which of the following results is characteristic for acute purulent otitis media?
A) Rinne (-) negative
B) Rinne (+) positive
C) Lateralization of Weber to healthy side
D) Weber in Midline
E) Schwabach has beenshortened in the damaged ear
422. How is Rinne test appreciate during pathology of sound conduction apparatus?
A) Rinne negative (-)
B) Rinne positive (+)
C) Rinne small positive (+)
D) Rinne Shorted
E) Rinne is not changed
423. From what distance (meter) people must hear the whispering low voices in normal?
A) 6 meter
B) 2 meter
C) 4 meter
D) 8 meter
E) 10 meter
424. Why Gellee test is applied for?
A) Checking of mobilization of stapes over the oval window
B) Comparative appraising of terms bone and air conductivity
C) Determination of auditory lateralization
D) Checking of mobilization of malleas over the tympanic membrane
E) For comparative appraising of terms of the bone conduction in both ear
425. In what part of the ear is the pathological process going during otosclerosis?
A) Bony wall of labyrinth
B) Tympanic cavity
C) Mastoid process
D) Tympanic Membrane
E) Auditory tube
426. What is the chronic purulent otitis media?
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A) Continuous or periodic purulent discharge from ear for more than 3 months, continuous observation
of perforation in tympanic membrane, purulent of middle ear inflammation with hearing loss
B) Purulent discharge from ear for more than 4 months and observation with non-perforation in the
tympanum of the purulent middle ear inflammation
C) Purulent discharge from ear for more than 1 month
D) Scar proses in the tympanic membrane
E) retraction of tympanic membrane and hearing loss
427. Which of these symptoms doesn’tcharacterize the chronic epitympanic otitis ?
A) Perforation in Pars tense of tympanic membrane
B) Foul smelling
C) Pus mixed with cholesteotoma
D) Caries cavity in mastoid Process.
E) Conductive type hearing loss
428. Which of these symptoms characterize the chronic mezatimpanit?
A) Perforation exist in pars tense of the tympanic membrane
B) Clouding, retraction of tympanic membrane
C) Observation of transudate in the tympanic
D) Perforation exist in pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane
E) Caries cavity in mastoid process
429. Which of these diseases is not indicated for the radical operation in the ear?
A) Chronic exudative otitis and hearing loss
B) Chronic purulent otitis media and Meningitis.
C) Chronic purulent Otitis Media and limited labyrinthitis
D) Chronic purulent Otitis Media and Facial Nerve paralysis.
E) Chronic purulent Otitis Media and Sepsis
430. On what membrane is Corti organ situated which is the periphery repertorof the hearing
analyzer?
A) Basilar membrane
B) Reusnere membrane
C) Tectorialmembrane
D) Both Reusnere and tectorial
E) Lateral wall of ductus endolymphaticus
431. Which of the inside liquids of the ear has the relation (contact) with subarachnoid space?
A) Perylymph
B) Endolymph
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C) Cortilymph
D) Ear lymph
E) Both endolymph and cortilymph
432. What must the diagnostic cochlear neuritis be based on?
A) Audiometric information
B) Otoscopy
C) “X”-ray
D) CT, computer tomography
E) Tympanometry
433. Which nerve does ototoxic antibiotic influence toxically?
A) Auditory nerve
B) Optic nerve
C) Olfactory nerve
D) Glossopharyngeal nerve
E) Vagal nerve
434. Which of these antibiotics has ototoxic influence?
A) Aminoqlikozid group (strepmysin, neomycin, kanamycin, qenatimysin and etc.)
B) Penicillin group (benzyl penicillin, bicillin, ampicillin and etc.)
C) Sefalospiryne group (kefzol, sefamezin, seftriaksion and etc.)
D) Tetracycline qroup (tetracycline, vibramicin and etc.)
E) Antibiotic macrolides (eritromicin, oletetrin and etc.)
435. Where are the pathological proses going during sensoneurological hearing loss?
A) In the central part of hearing analyzer which exist from cochlear receptors to the hearing center of the
brain
B) Tympanic cavity
C) Oval window and stapes
D) External auditory canal
E) Pars tympanicus of facial nerve
436. Choose the treatment tactics during toxic sensoneurological hearing loss ?
A) Infusion therapy, prednisolone, medicine that improves the circulation of blood capillary
B) Doing radical ear surgery immediately
C) Postpone treatment for 10-30days
D) Injection of ototoxic antibiotics
E) lazics, uregit, asetylsalicil l acid medicines
437. Which of the followings is not the risk factor of the hearing pathology in children?
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A) Application of cephalosporin’s
B) Application of aminoglycosides
C) Consanguineous marriages
D) Birth trauma
E) Asphyxia newborns
438. Where is the higher center of hearing situated?
A) Temporal lobe
B) Inferior colliculus
C) Medial geniculate body
D) In the debt of the 4th ventricle
E) Olives
439. Where does the sound lateralize during Veber trial in unilateral sensoneurological pathology ?
A) Healthy side
B) Damaged side
C) Bilateral
D) Frontal
E) Occipital
440. What is the hearing prosthesis?
A) Increasing of hearing by using hearing apparatus.
B) Increasing of hearing by doing tympanoplasty
C) Improvement of hearing by mobilizing of stapes
D) Hearing restoration by conservative treatment
E) Tubotympanostomy
441. Where are the periphery receptors of the vestibular analyzer situated?
A) Semicircular canals and vestibul
B) Only vestibul
C) Cochlea
D) Only semicircular canals
E) Antrum
442. Which is the vestibular analyzer`s adequate irritation?
A) Acceleration
B) Sound waves
C) Smell structures
D) Light
E) Electromagnetic waves
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443. Which of these methods doesn’t include to the vestibular passport?
A) Rinne trials
B) Romberg position
C) Straight and aside walking
D) Nose-finger trial
E) Spontaneous nystagmus.
444. In what cases is the pressor nystgamus observed?
A) Limited labyrinthitis.
B) Acute otitis media
C) Diffuse labyrinthitis
D) Tubotymanic otitis
E) Cochlear neuritis
445. Which of the followings does not belong to vegetative reactions which mentioned in the
vestibular analyzer pathology?
A) Hyposmia
B) Nausea
C) Vomiting
D) Up-arterial blood pressure
E) Breathlessness
446. Which of the following methods are applied for the examination of the vestibular analyzer?
A) Caloric trial
B) Audiometry
C) Tympanometry
D) Olphactometry
E) Stroboscope
447. What is the main role of the vestibular apparatus in the organism?
A) Keeping balance
B) Smell function
C) Hearing function
D) Taste function
E) Vision function
448. Which of the following doesn’t belong to the character of spontaneous nystagmus?
A) Registration
B) Direction
C) Plane
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D) Amplitude
E) Power
449. Which of these are not intracranial complication?
A) Labyrinthitis
B) Sinustrombose
C) Cerebral abscess
D) Ontogeny sepsis
E) Meningitis
450. Where is going inflammation process duringotogenic leptomeningitis?
A) Pia mater
B) Duramater
C) Arachnoid mater
D) Brain tissue
E) Subdural space
451. Which of these symptoms is pathognomonic for otogeny leptomeningitis?
A) High pleosytozis in C.S.F
B) Purulent otorhea
C) Headache and high temperature
D) Meningeal
E) Up-I.C.P symptoms (intracranial pressure)
452. Which anatomic structures the external ear be arranged?
A) Auricul and external auditory canal
B) Internal auditory canal and tympanic cavity
C) Tympanic cavity
D) Mastoid process
E) Hearing ossicles
453. In which anatomic part of auricule does not exist cartilage?
A) lobule
B) helix
C) Antihelix
D) tragus
E) helix pelvis
454. Which of the following spaces does the upper wall of the external auditory canal border on?
A) Middle cranial fossa
B) Anterior cranial fossa
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C) Tympanic cavity
D) Temporo-mandibular joint
E) Posterior cranial fossa
455. Which of the followings does the posterior wall of the external auditory canal border on?
A) Mastoid process
B) Middle cranial fossa
C) Parotid glandular
D) Temporomandibular joint
E) Posterior cranial fossa
456. In which part of the external auditory canal does furuncle form?
A) Cartilage part
B) Bony part
C) Cartilage and bony parts
D) Furuncle does not form in the external auditory
E) Isthmus of external auditory canal
457. Why does coughing happen when we enter the ear speculum into the external auditory canal?
A) At the result of irritation of vagal nerve
B) Trigeminal nerve
C) Sympathetic nerves
D) Glossopharyngeal nerve
E) Chorda timpani
458. Which of these doesn’t include to the structures of the middle ear?
A) E.A.C ( external auditory canal)
B) Auditory tube
C) Tympanic cavity
D) Antrum
E) Mastoid Process
459. How many walls has the tympanic cavity?
A) 6
B) 4
C) 3
D) 8
E) 5
460. What does the upper wall of the tympanic cavity border on?
A) Middle cranial fossa
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B) Anterior cranial fossa
C) Posterior cranial fossa
D) Bulbous of jugular vein
E) Auditory tube
461. On which wall of the tympanic cavity is the hole of auditory tube?
A) Anterior
B) Superior
C) Inferior
D) Posterior
E) Internal
462. On which wall of the tympanic cavity are the aditus ad antrum situated?
A) Posterior
B) Superior
C) Anterior
D) Medical
E) Inferior
463. What doesn’t belong to the landmarks of the tympanic membrane during otoscopy?
A) Helix
B) Cone of light
C) Manubrium mallei
D) short process of mallei
E) Anterior and posterior folds
464. What does the pars tensa of the tympanic membrane differ from the pars flaccida?
A) Presence of fibrous layer
B) Absence of mucosal layer
C) Absence of epidermal layer
D) Presence of mucosal layer
E) Only presence of fibrous layer
465. Which of these does not exist in the tympanic cavity?
A) Pretympanium
B) Epitympanium
C) Mezotympanium
D) Hypotympanium
E) Epi and Mezotympanium
466. Beginning from the tympanic membrane orderly show the hearing ossicles?
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A) malleus, incus, stapes
B) incus, malleus, stapes
C) stapes,incus, malleus,
D) incus, stapes, malleus
E) stapes, malleus, incus
467. What structural peculiarities of the auditory tube do exist in the children?
A) Short, wide and more horizontal
B) Long and tide
C) Long and wide
D) Located sagittal position
E) Vertical position
468. On which wall of the external auditory canal‘s change have the diagnostic importance during
mastoidits?
A) Posterior-superior
B) Anterior-inferior
C) Superior
D) Inferior
E) Anterior-inferior
469. In which direction auricule must be drawn during otoscopy in the children?
A) inferior-posterior
B) Superior-posterior
C) Inferior and anterior
D) Superior and anterior
E) Straightly
470. Which anatomic structure joins the tympanic cavity with the nasopharynx?
A) Auditory tube
B) Oval window
C) Round window
D) Internal auditory canal
E) External
471. Which of the followings belongs to the examine methods of the auditory tube?
A) Catheterization
B) Otoscopy
C) Palpation
D) X-ray
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E) Rhinoscopy
472. How can we determine the mobility of the tympanic membrane with?
A) Pneumatic speculum
B) Politser balloon
C) Otoscopy
D) Ear catheter
E) “X”-ray grapy
473. During what diseases in children pain is noted when pressured on the tragus?
A) External and middle otitis
B) Only external otitis
C) Only middle otitis
D) Inflammation of eustachian tube
E) Antrithis
474. Which clinically important structures do not exist on the medial wall of the tympanic cavity?
A) Aditus ad antrum
B) Oval window
C) Round window
D) Promontorium
E) Facial nerve
475. Which projections are used in X-ray diagnosis of temple bone?
A) Shuller and Mayer method
B) Aside projection of cranium
C) Fronto-Nasal projection
D) Only axial projection
E) Nasa-Mandibular
476. Where can spread of inflammation of the middle ear during the damage of the upper wall of
the tympanic cavity?
A) Middle cranial fossa
B) Mastoid process
C) Sinus Sigmoideus
D) Bulbus jugular vein
E) Parotis gland
477. Show the examine method of the ear:
A) Otoscopy
B) Rhinoscopy
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C) Larynqoscopy
D) Pharyngoscopy
E) Stroboscope
478. About what part’s activity of the ear does inform with otoacoustic emission method?
A) External hair cells function
B) External auditory canal
C) Middle ear hearing ossicles
D) Internal hair cells
E) Auditory tube
479. About what part`s activity of the hearing analyzer does inform the BERA test (brainstem
evoked response audiometry) ?
A) Auditory nerve, ascending ways, brainstem centers function
B) Receptor part of hearing analyzer
C) Sound conductive apparatus
D) Tympanic cavity
E) External ears condition
480. Which of the following anatomic structure is arranged the wall of the ductus
endolymphaticus?
A) Basilar membrane
B) Utriculus
C) Tympanic membrane
D) Sacculus
E) Otolit membrane
481. What liquid is there in the scala tympani?
A) Perilymph
B) Endolymph
C) Spinal fluid
D) Plazma
E) Cortilimpha
482. What cells is Corti organ consisted of?
A) Hair cells
B) Goblet cell
C) Epiletial cells
D) Squamous epitelium
E) Cubic epiletial
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483. What functions does Corti organ fulfill?
A) Sound acceptance
B) Sound conductive
C) Hearing and balance
D) Sound transfer and acceptance
E) Balance
484. What conductivity is spoiled (damaged) during the disease of the sound receiving apparatus?
A) Bony and air conductivity
B) Only bony conductivity
C) Only air conductivity
D) None
E) Bony conductivity stays normal, only air conductivity damages
485. Which of the following anatomic structures belong to sound conduction apparatus?
A) External auditory canal, tympanic membrane
B) Auditory Nerve
C) Corti organ
D) Spiral ligament
E) Ascending ways of hearing
486. Which of the following anatomic structures belong to the sound receiving apparatus?
A) Corti organ
B) Auricular
C) External auditory canal, tympanic cavity
D) Hearing ossicles
E) Mastoid process
487. Normally, from what distance does person hear whispering voices?
A) 6 m
B) 20 m
C) 12 m
D) 30 m
E) 15 m
488. Which signs will be in the tuning fork tests of the sound receiving apparatus pathology?
A) Shortening of both air and bony conductivity with C128 (tuning fork) test
B) Shortening of bony conductivity while C128 test
C) Stretching of bony conductivity while C128 test
D) While C128 therapy, Rinne is negative, only bony conductivity is shortening
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E) Stretching of hearing while C128 therapy
489. For what purpose does Gelle test carry out?
A) Ensure mobility of the stapes over the oval window?
B) Ensure mobility of the tympanum
C) For diagnosis of sound receiving apparatus pathology
D) For diagnosis of cochlear apparatus pathology
E) Ensure conductivity of auditory tube
490. To what ear does the sound lateralize during the pathology of sound conduction apparatus in
Veber test?
A) Damaged side
B) Healthy side
C) Midline
D) No hearing
E) Both ear can hear
491. Which results are compared during Rinne test?
A) Duration of bone and air conductivity
B) Both ears air conductivity
C) Bony conductivity
D) No indication compared
E) Whispering distance of speech perception
492. If the high frequencies decrease according to the bone conducting in audiogram, about which
apparatus` disease should we think?
A) Sound receiving apparatus
B) Sound conductive apparatus
C) Sound receiving and transmission apparatuses
D) None
E) Vestibular Analyzer
493. Which element of the sound conduction system is damaged during purulent otitis media?
A) Tympanic membrane
B) External ear Canal
C) Oval window
D) Round window
E) Oval and round window
494. Characterize the position of the auditory analyzer if there are the complains subjective and
objective signs during the examination: The weakening of the right-ear hearing, scar change in the
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tympanic membran, reduction of air conductivity while tuning fork test, Rinne test is negative,
sound lateralization to the right ear while Veber test.
A) Weakening of pathology of the hearing sound transmission apparatus
B) Weakening of pathology of the hearing sound receiving apparatus
C) Weakening of pathology (mixed) of the hearing both apparatuses
D) Mainly, observing of injury of the sound receiving apparatus
E) No change in the sound conduction system
495. What anatomic elements are including to the vestibular part of internal ear?
A) Vestibular part, semicircular canals
B) Vestibular part, cochlea
C) Cochlea, semicircular candle
D) Corti organs, vestibular part
E) Corti organs, semicircular canals
496. Show the function of the vestibule apparatus?
A) Equilibrium
B) Hearing
C) Hearing and Equilibrium
D) Tactile
E) Resonance
497. Which of the following receptor apparatuses is situated in the semicircular canals?
A) Crista ampularis
B) Otolit receptors
C) Cochlear apparatus
D) Macula
E) Smelling receptors
498. Where does ductus endolymphaticus begins?
A) Ductus utriculosaccularis
B) Utriculus
C) Sacculus
D) Ductus cochleanic
E) Horizontal semicircular canal
499. By which anatomic ways does labyrinth connects with the cranial fossae?
A) Aquaductus vestibulocohlearis, internal auditory canal
B) Only ductus vestibularis
C) Only ductus cochlear
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D) Only internal auditory canal
E) None connected
500. Which labyrinth liquid has the relation with the subarachnoid space?
A) Perilymph
B) Endolymph
C) Both
D) None
E) Cortilymph
501. What is the name of receptors in utriculus and sacculus?
A) Otolit receptors
B) Ampular part
C) Corti organ
D) Otolit and Ampular apparatus
E) Olfactory receptors
502. Which of following pathway connect spinal cord with vestibular nucleus?
A) Vestibule-spinal way
B) Vestibule-cortical way
C) Vestibule-oculomotor way
D) Vestibule-thalamic way
E) vestibule-cerebellum way
503. What is the adequate irritant for otolit apparatus?
A) Gravitation and linear acceleration
B) Non-linear acceleration
C) Angular acceleration
D) Light
E) Sound
504. Which tests are used for the examination of the functions of ampular part of the vestibular
apparatus?
A) Rotary test (Barani )
B) V. I. Voyachek`s double rotary test
C) Pneumatic test
D) K. L. Khilov`s rostrum test
E) Jelly test
505. Which symptoms are not particular for the damage of the vestibular apparatus?
A) Hearing loss, headache, tinnitus
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B) Dizziness, nausea, vomiting, disbalance, spontaneous nystqamus
C) Dizziness, nausea, disbalance, nystagmus
D) Dizziness, nausea, vomiting
E) Spontaneous nystagmus, disbalance, systemic dizziness
506. Which is the adequate irritant of the ampular apparatus?
A) Angular acceleration
B) Sound
C) Gravitation
D) Linear acceleration
E) Strong sounds
507. Show the symptoms which characterize the disbalance of vestibule-somatic reflexes:
A) disbalance, spontaneous nystagmus
B) Dizziness, nausea
C) Vegetative reactions, headache
D) Nausea, vomiting, bradycardia,unconsciousness
E) Dismovement towards aside, adiodochokinesis
508. What direction does nistagmus toward after rotary test led to the right side during horizontal
semicircular canalis examination?
A) Left side
B) Right side
C) Midline
D) Absent
E) Only right and midline
509. Which direction does nystagmus toward during cold caloric test?
A) Contralateral side
B) Ipsilateral side
C) Midline
D) Bilateral
E) Superior and inferior
510. Which direction does nystagmus toward during warm caloric test?
A) Ipsilateral side
B) Contra lateral side
C) Midline
D) Bilateral
E) Superior and inferior
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511. When we change the position of the head the patient’s falling direction changes, what is it?
A) Pathology of vestibular apparatus
B) Pathology of Cerebellum
C) Pathology Cerebral
D) Both cerebellum and
E) Vestibular system temporal ataxia
512. Characterize the position of the right labyrinth considering the followings: spontaneous
nystagmus is right sided, left turned nystagmus which continues more than 1 minute while cold
caloric test done in the right side, observation of right turned nystagmus which continues more
than 2 minute after rotary test.
A) Irritation condition
B) Destroyed
C) Normal
D) None change
E) It is difficult to argue
513. Characterize the position of the left labyrinth considering the followings:spontaneous
nystagmus is left sided, nystagmus is right sided and continues more than 2 minute after which
cold caloric test that conducted in the left side, observation of left sided nystagmus that continues
60 seconds after which rotary test.
A) Irritation condition
B) Destroyed
C) Normal
D) None change
E) Hyporeflex
514. Which of the followings doesn’t belong to otogenic intracranial complications?
A) Subarachnoidal haemorrhage
B) Extradural abscess
C) Subdural abscess
D) Cerebral
E) Meningitis
515. How do we call otogenic dura mater inflammation ?
A) Pachymeningits
B) Arachnoiditis
C) Meningitis
D) Leptomeningits
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E) Subdural abscess
516. Where does pus gather during subdural abscess?
A) Between dura and arachnoid
B) Between skull bone and dura
C) Arachnoid and pia mater
D) Between dura and pia mater
E) Brain tissue
517. Which part`s inflammation of the ear is common lead to the intracranial complications?
A) Epitimpanium
B) External Auditory canal
C) Auricle
D) Mezotympanium
E) Hypotympanium
518. By which of these ways does the infection not spread to the cranial cavity while otogen
intracranial complications?
A) Auditory tube
B) Contact way cavity
C) perineural way
D) Perivascular way
E) Labyrinthogenic way
519. Where is intracranial complication mainly observed during labyrinthit?
A) Posterior cranial fossae
B) Middle cranial fossae
C) Anteriorcranial fossae
D) Ant and Middlecranial fossae
E) Skull Base
520. In what form of the middle otitis does the probability of formation of the intracranial
complication is very high?
A) Chronic Purulent Epitympanic Otitis
B) Mesotympanic Otitis
C) Hypotymic otitis
D) Acute Purulent Otitis Media
E) Serous otitis
521. Where does extradural abscess mainly occur after the acute purulent otitis media?
A) Posterior cranial fossa
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B) Middle cranial fossa
C) Anterior
D) Ant and Middle
E) Skull base
522. Where does extradural abscess mainly occur after the chronic purulent otitis media?
A) Middle cranial fossa
B) Posterior cranial fossa
C) Anterior cranial fossa
D) Ant and middlecranial fossa
E) Skull base
523. What is the common pathway does the infection spread into the cranial cavity from the ear in
children?
A) Fissure petrosquamosa, squamomastoidea
B) Auditory tube
C) Anterior wall of mastoid process
D) External auditory canal
E) Posterior wall of the tympanic cavity
524. Which brain cover membrane is attracted to the process during the extradural abscess?
A) Dura mater
B) Arachnoid mater
C) Pia mater
D) Arachnoid and pia mater
E) Directly pia mater
525. What operation is executed during acute purulent middle otitis with complication of
extradural abscess of the posterior cranial fossil?
A) Exploring dura mater of posterior cranial fossa with trepanation of Mastoid Process (broadened
antromastoidotomy)
B) Simple trepanation of Mastoid Process (antromastoidotomy)
C) Exploring dura mater of middle cranial fossil with trepanation of Mastoid Process (broadened
antromastoidotomy)
D) Radical surgery of temporal bone
E) Labyrintechtomy
526. What operation is executed during chronic purulent otitis media with complication of
extradural abscess of the middle cranial fossa?
A) Radical ear surgery with exploring dura mater of middle cranial fossa
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B) Simple trepanation of mastoid process. (antromastoidotomy)
C) Trepanation ofmastoidprocess with exploring dura mater of middle cranial fossa
D) Radical ear surgery of temporal bone
E) With exploring ofdura mater of posterior cranial fossa radical surgery of temporal bone
527. Determine the indication to the surgery in the temporal bone during the otogenic intracranial
complications?
A) Emergency ear surgery
B) Ear surgery is not important
C) Ear surgery is conducted in a scheduled way
D) Depends on dynamic of disorder
E) Postponedradical ear surgery
528. Show the localization of the process in the otogenic internal pachymeningitis
A) Internal layer of dura mater
B) Arachnoid mater
C) Pia mater
D) Pia and arachnoid maters
E) External layer of dura mater
529. Show the symptoms of subdural abscess in the posterior cranial fossa:
A) Meningeal and Cerebellum damaged symptoms
B) There is no pathognomonic symptom
C) Facial nerve paresis
D) Cramps
E) Aphasia
530. Differentiate the subdural abscess from leptomeningit according the changes in the brain-
cerebral spinal liquid
A) While subdural abscess cell`s amount in the C.S.F either few increase, or stay normal. But sugar and
chloride amount does not change.
B) While subdural abscess cell`s amount in the C.S.F increase sharply
C) While subdural abscess cell`s amount in the C.S.F reduce, chloride amount increase
D) While subdural abscess cell`s amount in the [Link] cells, sugars and chloride`s amount increase
E) Observation of disassociation of the cell – protein in the subdural abscess
531. Which changes confirm the diagnose of subdural abscess during the surgery in the ear?
A) Necrosis of dura, fistula and collecting pus under dura
B) Presence caries cavity filled with pusin Mastoid Process
C) Presence granulation over dura mater
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D) Presence pus over sinus sigmadeus
E) Collecting pus in extradural space
532. Show the treatment tactics in chronic purulent middle otitis patients with subdural abscess
complication
A) Broadened radical ear surgery of temporal bone, antibiotictherapy dehydrationtherapy
B) Only antibiotictherapy
C) Antibiotictherapy and dehydration therapy
D) Surgery of Temporal Bone in case infectiveness of the antibiotictherapy and dehydration therapy
E) Simple trepanation of mastoid process
533. Which cover membrane of the brain inflammation is called meningit?
A) Pia Mater
B) Arachnoid Mater
C) External layer of Dura Mater
D) Pia and Arachnoid Maters
E) Internal layer of Dura Mater
534. Which of these doesn`t include the otogen leptomeningitis form?
A) Exudative
B) Diffuse
C) Serous
D) Purulent
E) Limited
535. Chose the complaints of the patients that is suffer from otogen meningents and objective
changes during this time
A) Headache, high temperature, nausea, vomiting, pleocytosis in C.S.F
B) Headache, nausea, vomiting, high temperature
C) Headache, speech disruptions
D) Nausea, vomiting, movement disturbances , protein reduction in C.S.F
E) Headache, movement disturbances, high temperature
536. What temperature is characteristic for otogen meningit?
A) Continuous
B) Hectic
C) Remittaus
D) Intermission
E) Incorrect
537. Show the infection disease symptoms during otogen meningit.
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A) High temperature, shivering, leucositosis
B) Neck rigidity, Kernig symptom
C) Adiodochokinesis,spontaneous nystaqmus
D) Bradicardy,unconsciousness
E) Increasing of sugar and protein in C.S.F
538. Which of these includes to the meningeal symptoms?
A) Kernig Symptoms
B) Facial Nerve Paresis
C) Adiodochokinesis
D) Stasis of Optic Disc
E) Aphasia
539. During what diseases does the neck rigidity observe?
A) Cerebellum abscess, Meningitis
B) Temporal lobe abscess
C) Parietal lobe abscess
D) Only during meningitis
E) Arachnoidis
540. Which cranial nerves are mainly damaged during otogen basal meningitis?
A) Glossopharyngeal, abducens, hypoglossus nerve
B) Oculomotorius nerve
C) Olphactory and trigeminal nerve
D) Trigeminal, bloc and vestibule-cochlear nerve
E) Optic nerve
541. Show the symptoms which characterizebasalmeningitis?
A) Meningeal symptoms, paresis of cranial nerves
B) Central paralysis of facial nerve
C) Paresis or paralysis of extremities
D) Infection disorders symptoms
E) Adiodochokinesis
542. On which stage do the otogen brain and cerebellum abscesses usually diagnose?
A) 3rd stage
B) 1th stage
C) 2nd stage
D) 4th stage
E) 5th stage
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543. How does the 3rd stage of otogenic abscess called?
A) Manifestation stage
B) Early stage
C) hidden stage (latent)
D) Terminal stage
E) There is not stages
544. Which group of symptoms is characteristic for 3rd stage of the otogenic brain abscess?
A) General brain symptoms and focal symptoms.
B) Infection disorders symptoms.
C) Meningeal
D) General brain meningeal symptoms
E) Dislocation symptoms
545. Show the reasons of the pressure rising while otogenic brain and cerebellum abscess clinics:
A) Cerebral edema, purulent focal in the brain tussue
B) Purulent otitis media, stasis optic disc,Unconsciousness
C) Dislocation of brain structures
D) Damaging of central part of brain
E) Labyrinth hydrops
546. When does capsule’s formation happen around otogenic brain abscesses?
A) several weeks after abscess formation
B) Initial days of the abscess formation
C) 7-10 days after abscess formation
D) 4 months after abscess formation
E) 1 year after abscess formation
547. What does the clinic importance has the examination of cerebral spinal fluid during otogenic
meningitis?
A) It is urgent for verification of diagnose and has therapy importance
B) It has contrubutory importance for diagnose
C) It has no diagnostic importance
D) It is useful only to reduce intracranial pressure
E) For specification of the process that is labyrinth origin
548. What do the characteristic changes exist in the brain-cerebral spinal liquid during diffuse
purulent meningitis?
A) There are more than 500 sitoz in 1 mcl. C.S.F
B) There are 10 sitoz in 1 mcl. C.S.F
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C) There are 100 sitoz in 1 mcl. C.S.F
D) There are no more 50 sitoz in 1 mcl. C.S.F
E) There are 70-80 sitoz in 1 mcl. C.S.F
549. Which characteristic changes are there in the cerebrospinal fluid during seroz meningitis?
A) There are 100-200 cells in the 1 mcl. C.S.F, number of lymphocytes increase
B) There are more than 500 sitoz in the 1 mcl. C.S.F, number of neutrophils increase
C) There are 10 cells in the 1 mcl. C.S.F
D) There is no sitoz in the C.S.F
E) There are 300-400 neutrophils in the 1 mcl. C.S.F
550. Show the changes in the C.S.F (cerebrospinal fluid) during tuberculosis meningitis.
A) There are 50-500 cells in the 1 mcl, mainly lymphocytes
B) There are 100 cells in the 1 mcl, mainly neutrophils
C) There are 10 cells in the 1 mcl, mainly lymphocytes
D) There are 300 cells in the 1 mcl, mainly neutrophils
E) There are 200 cells in the 1 mcl, mainly neutrophils
551. How must the doctor’s tactics be during otogenic meningitis?
A) Immediately broadening surgery in the temporal bone
B) Firstly high dozed antibiotics, dezintoxication treatment, then surgery
C) Highly dozed antibiotics, dezintoxication and dehydratotion therapy
D) Selectionof surgery depends on the complication level of the disease
E) Only radical ear surgery
552. Which o of the otogenic intracranial complication prognosis is harder?
A) Cerebral and cerebellum abscess
B) Extradural abscess
C) Subduralabscess
D) Meningitis
E) Arachnoiditis
553. Show the common localization of otogenic cerebral abscesses:
A) Temporal lobe
B) Frontal lobe
C) Parietal lobe
D) Occipital lobe
E) Cerebral column
554. Show the symptoms of the 1st stage of otogenic cerebral abscess.
A) Light headache, general weakness, rising of temperature, sometimes vomiting
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B) Acute headache, unconsciousness, stasis of optic nerve disc
C) Focal cerebral symptoms
D) Unconsciousness, aphasia, misbalance
E) Meningeal and dislocationsymptoms
555. Which of the followings belong to the symptoms that show the intracranial pressure rise in
otogenic cranial abscesses clinics?
A) Unconsciousness, bradicardy, stasis of optic nerve disc, headache, sudden vomiting
B) Aphasia, hemianobsia, neck rigidity, lessaj symptom
C) Disbalance, spomtaneus nystaqmus
D) Adiadochokinesis
E) Hemiparesis, cramp
556. Show the reason of the clinic focal symptoms formation in the otogenic cerebral and
cerebellum abscesses:
A) Directly damaging cerebral and cerebellar central parts
B) Up I.C.P (intracranial pressure)
C) Up Cerebrospinal canal pressure
D) Inflammation of pia mater
E) Damaging of cranial nerves
557. Which of the followings are the focal symptoms of the left sided temporal lobe abscess of the
brain?
A) Amnestic aphasia
B) Aqnosia, Amnesia,Apraxia
C) Spontaneous nystaqmus, adiodochoxinesis, hypotonic plegia, discoordination of movement in
ipsilateral of absess side, disarticulation
D) Static ataxia
E) Agnosia
558. Which are the focal symptoms of cerebellum abscess?
A) Dizziness, disbalance, discoordination, disarticulation, adiodochoxinezis, spontaneous nystagmus,
muscle hypotonia
B) Amnestic aphasia
C) Agnosia, amnesia, apraxia
D) Agnosia, metamorphobsia
E) Stasis of optic disc, bradicardy, unconsciousness.
559. Which does focal symptoms own of the right sided temporal abscess of the brain?
A) Agnosia, Amnesia, Apraxia, vestibular pathology
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B) Adiodochoxinesis, hypotonic pleqia, discoordination of movement psilateral abscess
C) Amnestic Aphasia
D) Hemianobsia
E) Disarticulation
560. Show the characteristic peculiarities of dizziness and spontaneous nystagmus during
cerebellum abscess?
A) Dizziness is not systemic, nystagmus is high amplitude, horizontal plane, components cannot be
distinguished, direction ipsilaterial
B) Dizziness is a systemic; nystagmus is high amplitude, horizontal plane, components can be
distinguished, contralateral direction
C) Dizziness is not a systematic; nystagmus is low amplitude, two components, direction ipsilaterial,
D) Dizziness is a systematic; nystagmus is low amplitude, two components
E) There is no dizziness, nystagmus ipsilaterial, no observation of the extremity trembling
561. Show the characteristic peculiarities of dizziness and spontaneous nistagmus during
labyrinthitis?
A) Dizziness is a systematic; nystagmus is low amplitude, two components
B) Dizziness is not a systematic; nystagmus is high amplitude, horizontal plane, components cannot be
distinguished, direction ipsilaterial
C) Dizziness is a systematic;nystagmus is low amplitude,horizontal plane,components cannot be
distinguished, contralateral direction
D) Dizziness is not a systematic;nystagmus is low amplitude,two components, vertical plane, and
direction ipsilaterial
E) Dizziness is non-systematic;spontaneous nystagmus continues 3 months
562. Show the symptoms of cerebellum abscess.
A) Non-systemic dizziness, disarticulation, adiodochoxinezis.
B) Systemicdizziness, disarticulation, adiodochokinezis
C) Amnestic aphasia, small amplitude,two components, contralateral directed nystagmus
D) Discoordination, spontaneous nystaqmus
E) Unilateral deafness

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