LEA diagnostic
1. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the
members and officers of the PNP.
a. DILG
b. PLEB
c. NAPOLCOM
d. IAS
2. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any act or
omission of his subordinates in relation to the performance of their official
duties, we are referring to:
a. Chain of Command
b. Command Responsibility
c. Delegation of Responsibility
d. Span of Control
3. A principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily
go upward and downward through establish channels in the hierarchy?
a. Chain of Command
b. Unity of Command
c. Span of Control
d. Delegation of Authority
4. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of performing his law
enforcement duties in consequence of an offense and violation of rules and
regulations.
a. Dismissal
b. Suspension
c. Restriction
d. Reprimand
5. Under the law, the city/ municipal jail warden should have a rank of
ล. Inspector
b. Senior Inspector
c. Chief Inspector
d. Superintendent
6. The required rank for the Chief of the Bureau of Fire Protection.
a. Chief Superintendent
c. Director General Director
d. Deputy Director General
7. It is the premier institution for the police, fire, and jail personnel.
a. Philippine Military Academy (PMA)
b. Development Academy of the Philippines
c. Philippine College of Criminology (PCCR)
d. Philippine Public Safety College (PPSC)
8. A Functional Unit within a Division, this is necessary for specialization is;
a. Bureau
b. Division
c. Section
d. Unit
9. An association or group of individuals with a common goal.
a. Police Organization
b. Law Enforcement Group
c. Law Enforcement Organization
d. Organization
10. Recognition and definition of problem is the first step in planning. Which of
the following is not a further step in planning?
a. Command Responsibility
b. Analyzing the facts
c. collecting all permanent facts
d. selling the plan
11. Indefinite and unstructured organization that has no definite subdivision
and comprised of unconscious group feelings, passions, and activities of
individuals is referred to as -
a. Formal Organizations
b. Informal Organizations
c. Police Administration
d. Law Enforcement Dynamics
12. A supervisor Span of Control is generally determined in terms of
a. Number of subordinates directly reporting.
b. Number of superiors to who one report
c. Number of superiors from who he takes orders
d. Number of task assigned
13. The process of determining the problem of the organization and coming
up with proposed solutions and finding the best solution is called -
a. Staffing
b. Planning
c. Organizing
d. Coordinating
14. Planning lea formal process of choosing the following, EXCEPT
a. purpose for which the organization performs
b. an organizational mission and overall objectives for both the short and long
run
c. strategies to achieve the objectives
d. divisional, departmental and individual objective based on organizational
objective
15. Why is it that every group of personnel mast have only one supervisor
a. to ensure command of the group
b. to avoid confusion of authority
c. to protect the supervisor
d. all of these
16. The span of control of a supervisor over personnel or units shall than not
mean more than what he can effectively direct and coordinate. This means
that:
a. Levels of authority shall be kept to a minimum
b. Subordinates be controlled by several supervisors
c. Supervisor's responsibility should be re-delegated
d. Units shall be clustered into several groups
17. The number of subordinates that can be supervised directly by one person
tends to
a. increase as the physical distance between supervisor and subordinate as
well as the individual subordinate increases
b. decrease with an increase in the knowledge and experience of the
subordinate
c. decrease as the duties of subordinates increases in difficulty and
complexity
d. increase as the level of supervision progresses fie the first-line supervisory
level and management level
18. It focuses on the negative effects and unintended results in planning
a. Transactive Planning
b. Advocacy Planning
c. Synoptic Planning
d. Incremental Planning
19. Keeping those to whom the executive is responsible informed as to what
is going on which thus includes keeping himself and his subordinates
informed through records, research and inspection.
a. Coordinating
b. Budgeting
c. Reporting
d. Organizing
20. It states that the responsibility for performance of the deputy chief to the
chief of there on the activities performed by his subordinates. police is and
vice versa, and that the chief of police cannot escape his accountability on the
activities performed by his subordinates.
a. Principle of Absoluteness of Responsibility
b. Principle of Parity and Responsibility
c. Principle of Balance
d. Principle of Authority Level
21. Which Philippine government organization is responsible for supervising
the care and rehabilitation of individuals who are incarcerated in national
penitentiaries and other penal facilities?
a. NBI (National Bureau of Investigation)
b. Napolcom (National Police Commission)
c. BJMP (Bureau of Jail Management and Penology)
d. BuCor (Bureau of Corrections)
22. Which of the following is the function of PNP?
a. Delegate authority to the commission or other officers of rank within the
department.
b. Issuance of immigration documents and identification certifications a non-
immigrants, immigrants, and special non-immigrant visas.
c. The lead anti-drug law enforcement agency, responsible for preventing,
investigating and combating any dangerous drugs, controlled precursors and
essential chemicals within the Philippines.
d. Maintaining, public order and safety, enforcing the law, and preventing
detecting and investigating criminal activities.
23. Tt is the policy-making and strategy-formulating body in the planning and
formulation of policies and programs on drug prevention and control of the
Philippine government.
a. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)
b. Dangerous Drug Board (DĐB)
c. Philippine National Police (PNP)
d. National Police Commission (NAFOLCOM)
24. What is Extradition?
a. Extradition is an act where one jurisdiction delivers a person accused or
convicted of committing a crime to another prison facility.
b. The process by which one state, upon the request of another, affects the
return of a person for trial for a crime punishable by the laws of the requesting
state and committed outside the state of refuge.
c. The transfer of people from one place to another
d. the facilitation, transportation, attempted transportation, or illegal entry of a
person or persons across an international border, in violation of one or more
countries' laws, either clandestinely or through deception, such as the use of
fraudulent documents.
25. What is a transnational crime?
a. crimes that have an actual or potential effect across national borders and
emeries that are intrastate but offend fundamental values of the international
community.
b. a mechanism by which one sovereign request and obtains custody of a
fugitive located within the jurisdiction and control of another sovereign.
c. the facilitation, transportation, attempted transportation, or illegal entry of a
person or persons across an international border, in violation of one or more
countries laws, either clandestinely or through deception, such as the use of
fraudulent documents.
d. All of these
26. The process by which person charged with on convicted of a crime
against the laser of a State and found in a foreign State and returned by the
latter to the former for trial or punishment. It applies to those where merely
charged with an offense but have not been brought to trial, to those who have
been tried and convicted and have subsequently. escaped from custody, and
to those who have been convicted in absentia.
a. Extradition
b. Bilateral Agreement
c. Deportation
d. Extradition Convention
27. Which of the following either function of INTERPOL- Manila?
a. Monitor and coordinate all activities of all law enforcement agencies relative
to the transnational crime committed against or affecting the Philippines
b. Maintain records and minutes of all meetings of NEB-INTERPOL Manila.
c. Operate and maintains the operation center Of NCB INTERPOL Manila as
the focal point for international cooperation against transnational crimes, for
all law enforcement agencies in the Philippines
d. All of these
28. The INTERPOL. uses notice system in sharing vital information. What do
you mean by a yellow notice?
a. To locate a missing, person or to identify person unable to identify
himself/herself
b. to seek information on unidentified bodies
c. To warn of an event, a person, an object, or a process representing an
imminent threat and danger to persons or property
d. To inform Interpol's members that an individual or an entity is subject to UN
sanctions
29. Which of the following are the core functions of INTERPOL?
i. Secure global police communications services
Il. Global databases and data services it.
iii. Operational police support services
iv. Training and Development
x. Connecting police for a safer world
xi. Preventing and fighting crime through enhanced cooperation and
innovation. on police and security matters
a. i,ii, ill, and iv.
b: ii,iii,iv and xi
c.
d. til,iv, v, and vi
30. What do you mean by under policing?
a. The authorities have little concern or neglected the affair of the community
b. The authorities are so strict and harsh in enforcing the law
c. The authorities are inconsistent: sometimes harsh, sometimes too lenient.
d. The police have little or no specialization in handling the crime
31. It is a type of policing strategy which refers to all policing strategies that
have as one of their goals the prevention or reduction of crime and disorder,
Police personnel may be deployed in the scene both uniformed and plain-
clothed officers and engaging the public to karn their concerns, as will as
investigating and discovering offered and compliances to commit emes
thereby preventing crime from taking place in the first place.
a. Reactive
b. Traditional
c. Proactive
d. Community Oriented Policing
32. It is the INTiRPOLa permanent administrative headquarters It coonlinates
the international activities of member countries/holds a library of international
criminal records, and orpanizes regular meetings at which delegates can
exchange information on police work.
a. General Secretary
33. D
34. A
35. A
36. B
37. B
38. C
39. C
40. D
41. Globalization entails a reconfiguration of geography so that social space is
no longer wholly mapped in terms of territorial places, territorial distances, and
territorial borders.
a. Globalization as Universalization
b. Globalization as Westernization
c. Globalization as Internationalization
d. Globalization as Deterritorialization
42. The following are the challenges of law enforcement in a growing and
diversified society as the result of modernization and globalization. Which is
not?
a. Cultural Barrier
b: Communication Barrier
c. Educational Barrier
d. All of these
43. What is the national police force of Japan?
a. National Police Force (NPA)
b. Japan National Police Force INPA)
c. Japan Federal Police (FP)
d. Federal Police of Japan (FPI)
44. The national police force of Canada.
a. Canadian National Police
b. Canadian Federal Police Royal
c. Canadian Mounted Police
d. Canadian Möunted National Police
45. The Indian model of police force is
a. Centralized Multiple-Coordinated
b. Centralized Multiple-Uncoordinated.
c. Decentralized Multiple-Coordinated.
d. Decentralized Multiple coordinated
46. It is regarded as the world's oldest democratic country and its policing is
grown from the principle of policing by consent.
a. UK
b. Australia
c. US
d. Canada
47. Physical security is a system of barriers placed between the potential
intruder and the object matter to be protected. As criminologists, this is simply
a denial of
a. Opportunity to commit the offense
b. Opportunity to the object of protection
c. Access to the object of protection
d. Criminal instinet to surface in the potential offender
48. The weakest link in the security chain.
a. Security Guards
b. Barriers
c. Manager
d. Personnel
49. Perimeter barriers protective lighting and _____ system is known in
industrial security as physical security.
a. Guarding
b. Relieving
c. Reporting
d. Accounting
50. This is an additional outward inclined fixed structure usually harted wire
placed above a vertical fence to increase physical protection from intruders of
a certain Parsa, this is known as:
a. Cellar Guard
b. Top Guard
c. Tower Guard
d. Top Tower
51. The exterior and interior parallel are near the perimeter barrier of an
industrial compound to afford better observation and patrol movement is
known as
a. Protective zone
b. Twilight zone
c. Clear zone
d. Patrol Lane zone
52. Who of the following is qualified to organize a security or watchman
agency?
a. Any filiping eitizen with a misman sapital of ve thousand peas;one hundred
percent of which is owned and controlled by filpino eltzus Provided, That the
operator or manager ofsaid agency must be at loan 25 years of age, a college
graduate and or a commisitoned officer in the inactive nervice of the Armed
Forces of the Philippinen of good moral character, having no previous record
of any conviction of any crime or offente involving moral turpitude. Is, Any
corporation, partnenship, or association, with a minimum capstal of five
thousand pesos, one hundred percent of which in owned and controlled by
Eulipino citizens, Provided, that the operator or manager of said agency mast
be at Jeast 30 years of age, a college gradunte and /ot a commissioned
officer in the of the Armed Forces of the Philippines of good moral character,
having no previous record of any convictión of any crime or offente involving
moral furpitude and not a habitual drunkard nor addicted to the use of narcotic
drugs
c. Any Filipino citizen of a corporation, partnership, or association, with a
minimum capital of five thousand pesos, one hundred percent of which is:
owned and controlled by Filipino citizens may organize a security on
watchman agency: Provided, that any pemon related to government
employees by affinity or consanguinity in the first civil degree shall not hold
any interent, directly or indirectly in any security guard or watchman agency.
d. all of the above.
53. Refers to a permit issued by the Chief PNP or the duly authorized
representative, certifying and authorizing a person to engage in employing
and deploying security guards, K9 teams, protection agents, private
detectives and other licensed specialized security personnel, ar a juridical
person to establish, engage, direct, manage or operate a private detective
agency or private security agency or company guard force after complying
with all the requirements as provided by the rules and regulations of RA
11917.
a. License to Operate
b. License to Exercise Security Profession
c. Pre-Licensing Training Programs
d. Duty Detailed Order
54. Refers to any person, natural or juridical, who contract, recruits, furnishes
or posts any security guard, to perform its functions to engage its service or
those of its security guards, for hire, commission or compensation through
subscription or as a consultant/trainer to any private or public corporation, or
to provide highly: specialized security, private escort, detective and
investigation services.
a. Private Security Agency (PSA)
b. Private Security Industry
c. Private Security Professional
d. Private Security Guard
55. The License to Operate (LIO) is valid far how many years?
a. 3 years
b. 10 years
с. 5 years
d. 15 years
56. A Private Security Agency (PSA) shall be entitled to possess firearms
after having successfully passed the requirements prescribed by the Chief
PNP and in accordance with Republic Act No, 10591. What type of firearms
should the PSA may possess?
a. PSA shall only be allowed to possess handguns, not exceeding one (1)
firearm for each guard, to include single-post, in its employ: Provided that
possession of firearms by guards shull only be allowed during their tour of
duty, in proper uniform, within the compound of the establishment.
b. PSA shall be allowed to possess any firearms, provided that the ratio of
firearm per guard is 1st, this include single post, in its employ: Provided,
further, that possession of firearms by Private Security Professionals only be
allowed during their tour of duty, within the compound of the establishment,
except when they escort and secure large amounts of cash or valuables:
C. PA shall only be allowed to possess small arms, not exceeding one (1)
firearm for each Private Security Professionals, to include single-post, in its
employ: Provided that possession of firearms by PSPs shall only be allowed
curing their tour of duty, except when they escort and secure large amounts of
cash or valuables, which firearms must be determined by the PNP.
d. all of the above
57. As a security officer, you cannot prevent nor predict natural hazards like
storms, earthquakes; floods, and the like, In order to reduce the disastrous
effect of these natural hazards, what should you do?
a. Prepare a disaster on emergency plan for these hazards for the firm.
b. Notify the guard and other employees to be prepared at all times.
c. Call the PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming.
d. Vacate all activities and evacuate to a safe location:
58. Under the law, the maximum ratio of a firearm to every security guard in
the employment of a private security agency 15-
a. One firearm for every security guard
b. One firearm for two security guards
c. One guard for every firearm
d. All of these
59. As security chief of an industrial firm, inventory shows that pilferage is
rampant in the warehouses, what will be your choice of action?
a. Tighten checking at exits of vehicles of the compound/ complex.
b. Prepare your protective plans and confer with management for their
immediate implementation.
c. Deploy intelligence men in pilferage prone areas to catch the culprits,
d. To resign as you have failed your job.
60. What should a guard do after making an arrest?
a. Deliver the arrested person to the nearest police station.
b. Bring the arrested person to jail.
c. Tum over the arrested person to the management for investigation and
filing of a formal complaint.
d. Keep the arrested person in your custody and inform him how much
damage he cost.
61. Which of the following firearms should not be issued to a private security
guard. under normal conditions?
a. Cal. 45
b. Magnum 22
c. Cal 38
d. 12 Gauge Shotgun
62. Refers to a permit issued by the Chief of the Philippine National Police
(PNP) or the duly authorized representative, recognizing a natural person to
be qualified to perform the duties as a security professional or training
personnel.
a. License to Exercise Security Profession
b. license to Operate
c. Regular License to Operate
d. Temporary License to Operate
63. Which of the following is not advantageous for a solid fence?
a. Denies visual access to the installation
b. Denies the intruder the opportunity to become familiar with the personnel,
activities, and schedule of the movement of the guards.
c. This prevents the guards from observing the area around the installation
64. What is done in which after the initial briefing, the specialist conducts a
tour of the area surrounding the officer?
a: Preliminary survey
b. Preliminary exterior and interior check
c. Initial check
d. All of these
65. It is an inspection whose imminent is known only to certain selected
personnel, normally the office head and intelligence personnel of the office to
be inspected, it is usually conducted during non-duty hour periods
a. Unannounced security inspection
b. Informal Security inspection
c. Security inspection:
d. Unstructured Inspection
66. Follow-up surveys and inspections are conducted to-
a. Increase the number of security personnel needed
b. Perform the responsibilities of the security officers
c. Check whether the security personnel are doing their jobs
d. Make the security system applicable to the present and future demands of
the establishment ANTINOSYAN
67. This consists of any formula, pattern, device, or compilation of information
which is used in one's business and which gives him an opportunity to gain an
advantage over competitors who do not know or use it.
a. Secret
b. Proprietary information
c. Trade Secrete
d. Trademark
68. Paten refers to the grant made by the government to an inventor,
conveying or securing to him the exclusive night to make, use, or sell his
invention for the term of years. How many years does the patent may expire?
a.10
b. 18
c. 17
d. 20
69. In the point of view of the management, the application of the
recommendations by security specialist is-
a. Mandatory
b. Obligatory
c. Optional:
d. Required
70. It is a check of how well existing security measures and regulations are
being carried out within a command.
a. Security Inspection
b. Security Survey
c. Security Investigation
d. Security Management
71. This principle is anchored in the premise there is no impenetrable barrier"
thus, to achieve maximum result in the field of security it is necessary to add
barriers after barrier to delay the intruder activity or “do not rely on a single
security console but a combination is required"
a. Risk analysis theory
b. Security analysis theory
c. Risk assessment theory
d. Defense-in-depth theory
72. Which of the following should be done by the police operating leans prior
to the conduct of any police operation?
a. A pre-operational clearance should be secured first by the team leader of
the operating team prior to the conduct of the operation and shall be approved
by the concerned police unit commander
b. The team leader of the police unit shall coordinate, personally, or through
an official representative, with the Police Regional, Provincial, or City Police
Office within whose jurisdiction the operation is to be conducted.
c. The Territorial Police Office shall make an incident report prior to the
termination of the operation. Except in cases where formal inter-unit
coordination cannot be, made due to the nature and/or urgency of the
situation, the incident report shall be made formally.
73. The head of the office to whom the warrant of arrest has been delivered
for implementation shall cause the warrant to be implemented within 10 days.
What will happen to the warrant of arrest if it is not been served within the 10-
day period?
a. The warrant will become null and void, and the office to whom the warrant
is issued shall apply for another warrant/ to the court. having territorial
jurisdiction of the case if the person to be arrested has been located.
b. The officer to whom the warrant is assign for implementation shall make a
report to the court who issued the warrant stating the reasons for not carrying
out the warrant
c. The arresting officer who is mandated to execute the warrant shall make a
report to his / her superior stating the reasons hereof.
d. The warrant will be temporarily put on hold, but it can be put into effect at
any time it the person to be arrested is found, provided, the arresting officer
Shall file an affidavit of arrest describing the circumstances of the arrest once
the person is in custody.
74. A warrant of arrest shall be valid for how many days?
a. 10 days upon its issuance.
b. Within 10 days upon the receipt of the warrant. If the warrant is not
executed within 10 days, it will be null and void.
C. Within 10 days upon issuance by the issuing court. However, it may be
extended if the person to be arrested is nowhere to be found.
d. No expiration, provided, the officer will inform the court the reasons it itis
not served within 10 days.
75. Does a Police Officer have the right to stop a citizen on the street,
interrogate him, and pat him for weapons?
a. No, the authority of the police is not absolute and has limitations. Every
person has the right not to invade his/her privacy no/matter what he/she is
doing
b. Yes, the Police in the instrument of peace and maintainer of order. The
police have every right to stop anyone suspected of committing a crime,
interrogate them, and pat them for weapons.
c. No, it is unconstitutional for any agent of the state to stop and search
anyone on the street without a search warrant.
d. Yes, the police have the right to stop a citizen, interrogate, and pat them for
weapons whenever the police observe unusual conduct that convinces
him/her that a criminal activity exists.
76. It is a law enforcement operation that is in a form of entrapment whereby a
Law enforcer agent disguised as a buyer of illegal drugs undertakes a sales
transaction with a seller.
a. Buy Bust Operation
b. Police Entrapment
C. Test Buy Operation:
d. Instigation
77. Refers to a coordinated and planned activity conducted, by law
enforcement agencies and officers to achieve specific objectives related to
public safety, crime prevention, investigation, or the enforcement of laws and
regulations.
a. Police Operation
b. Operation
c. Law Enforcement Operation
d. Police Operational Manual
78. is a Philippine law enforcement agency that serves as the primary
government organization responsible for coordinating and supervising the
country's intelligence and counterintelligence efforts.
a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. National Intelligence Coordinating Agency
C. Criminal Detection and Investigation Group
79, It is a limited and typically manual search technique used by law
enforcement officers and security personnel to ensure the safety of the officer
and to check for weapons or contraband that a person may be carrying.
a. Stop and Frisk
b. "Checkpoint”
c. Chokepoint
d. Arrest
80. It is a dominant approach in planning and a point of depalture for most of
the other planning approaches, this model is based on the problem-oriented
approach to planning especially appropriate for law enforcement agencies!"
a. Synoptic Planning
b. Transaction Planning
C. Incremental Planning
d. Radical Planning
81. This planning methodology is typically linked with safeguarding the
interests of the vulnerable and politically powerless, particularly in situations
where they may be at a disadvantage against more influential entities. The
positive attributes of this approach encompass a heightened awareness of the
unintended and adverse consequences that plans may bring about.
a. Advocacy Planning
b. Transactive Planning
c. Radical Planning
d. Incremental Planning
82. It is occasionally referred to as conventional planning. This method
delineates a rational and logical systematic procedure applicable for crafting
various plans through a series of sequential steps.
a. Systematic Planning
b. Synoptic Planning
c. Radical Planning
d. Incremental Planning
83. These relate to plans that are long-range in application and determine the
organization's original goals and strategies.
a. Strategic plan
b. Operational plan
c. Intermediate plans
d. Tactical plan
84. What right does any person arrested, detained, or under custodial
investigation, have as provided by our constitution and existing laws?
a. The right to receive financial compensation.
b. The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel.
c. The right to conduct their own investigation with the assistance of the
council on their own preference.
d. The right to choose the arresting officer.
85. A doctrine of law enforcement planning that direct the organization on how
to attain their fundamental responsibility.
a. Fundamental Doctrine
b. Functional Doctrine
C. Operational Doctrine'
d. Line Doctrine
86. What is the primary purpose of crime mapping?
a. To create artistic representations of crime scenes
b. To analyze and visualize spatial patterns of criminal activities
c. To design effective and accurate police plans based on the problem that
exists.
d. To map the locations of police stations in a city
87. What does a point feature represent in crime mapping?
a. The location of a specific crime incident
b. The entire geographical area of a city
c. The average response time of law enforcement
d. The legal boundaries of police jurisdiction
88. What is a crime hotspot in crime mapping?
a. A fictional location in crime novels
b. A point feature with a unique crime patter
c. A concentrated area with a higher frequency of criminal act
89. d 96. B
90. c 97. a
92. c 98. B
92. d 99. D
93. d 100 d
94. b
95. b
