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Mock Psychology Exam Questions

The document is a mock paper for a psychology test, featuring multiple-choice questions on topics such as attachment behavior, cognitive development, and personality theories. Each question includes feedback on incorrect answers, providing explanations and the correct responses. The test appears to be aimed at assessing knowledge in human development and basic psychology concepts.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
43 views22 pages

Mock Psychology Exam Questions

The document is a mock paper for a psychology test, featuring multiple-choice questions on topics such as attachment behavior, cognitive development, and personality theories. Each question includes feedback on incorrect answers, providing explanations and the correct responses. The test appears to be aimed at assessing knowledge in human development and basic psychology concepts.

Uploaded by

24228200
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

 Home Mock Paper Practice Tests Paper A(1) Test 5

Mock Paper A(1)

Started on Tuesday, 29 November 2016, 11:54 PM


State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 29 November 2016, 11:54 PM
Time taken 7 secs
Grade 0.00 out of 100.00
Feedback You are on the right track. Could you spend some more time on your revision?

Question 1 MoK HumanDevelopment 024


Not answered Which of the following attachment behaviour pattern has been commonly reported in children subjected to abuse?
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Anxious/avoidant attachment
Secure attachment
Multiple attachment
Disorganised attachment
Ambivalent/resistant attachment

Your answer is incorrect.


In addition to the 3 major types of attachment noted by Ainsworth, Main and Solomon in 1990 described a fourth category of attachment for children who did not fit neatly into the
three patterns described by Ainsworth. This fourth category is disorganised/ disorientated type. The children with this pattern appear insecure, fearful, with a dazed look, act as if it
is frightened of the mother and show overly conflicted behaviour during the strange situation procedure. 15% of children in middle-class non-clinical groups show this type of
attachment behaviour pattern. This is seen more often in maltreated or maternally deprived children. May be a precursor to personality difficulties later or dissociative experiences.
The mother may have been herself abused as a child. Some studies have reported the much higher proportion of this category of attachment behaviour pattern in children
subjected to abuse.
The correct answer is: Disorganised attachment

Question 2 MoK HumanDevelopment 027


Not answered Fears that show no particular age trend include:

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Fear of open spaces
Fear of snakes
Fear of the dark
Fear of animals
Fear of sex

Your answer is incorrect.


Fear of animals - age 3; fear of the dark - age 4 or 5; fear of imaginary creatures and supernatural things - 5 plus; Fear of bodily injury, disasters - 5 to 8 years; fears that arrive in
late childhood or adult life - fear of sex/open spaces, fear that occurs from teenage onwards includes fear of failure, illness and death. Fears that show no particular age trend
include fear of snakes or storms.
The correct answer is: Fear of snakes

Question 3 MoK HumanDevelopment 028


Not answered Deductive reasoning is achieved in which stage of Piaget's cognitive development theory?

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Operational stage
Concrete operational stage
Pre-operational stage
Sensorimotor stage
Formal operational stage

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Formal operational stage is characterized by the emergence of abstract reasoning, logical thinking and hypothesis testing. Hypotheticodeductive reasoning is achieved in a
proportion of children after age 12.
The correct answer is: Formal operational stage

Question 4 MoK HumanDevelopment 032


Not answered An 8-year-old boy is most likely to fall under which stage of Erikson's psychosocial development?

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Trust vs mistrust
Identity vs role confusion
Initiative vs guilt
Autonomy vs shame
Industry vs inferiority

Your answer is incorrect.


Between 6-11 years, the life crisis described by Erikson was industry vs. inferiority. The outcome expected is a sense of achievement/inadequacy.
The correct answer is: Industry vs inferiority

Question 5 MoK HumanDevelopment 033


Not answered In Ainsworth's strange situation experiment, a child showed no signs of distress at leaving the mother and ignored her on return. Which type of attachment behaviour is this?
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Disorganized attachment behaviour 

Insecurely attached anxious ambivalent behaviour


Insecurely attached anxious resistant behaviour
Insecurely attached anxious avoidant behaviour
Securely attachment behaviour

Your answer is incorrect.


Avoidant children (about 20%) don't appear too distressed by the separation, and, upon reunion, actively avoid seeking contact with their parent, sometimes turning their attention
to play objects on the laboratory floor.
The correct answer is: Insecurely attached anxious avoidant behaviour

Question 6 MoK HumanDevelopment 037


Not answered The mode of language designed to provide a means of communication for those with a learning disability is
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COPE method
BASDEC method
Jarmen system
Makaton system
Barthel method

Your answer is incorrect.


Makaton is a method of sign language designed to provide a means of communication to individuals who cannot communicate efficiently by speaking. It has been used effectively
in individuals with learning disabilities, autistic spectrum disorder and multisensory impairment
The correct answer is: Makaton system

Question 7 MoK HumanDevelopment 038


Not answered Who proposed a theory of identity development in children, independent of their mothers?
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Freud
Rutter
Margaret Mahler
Spitz
Winnicott

Your answer is incorrect.


Margaret Mahler described the development of a sense of identity in young children, independent of their mothers. This is called separation-individuation theory, and the proposed
stages are supposed to be universal in all children.
The correct answer is: Margaret Mahler

Question 8 MoK HumanDevelopment 041


Not answered Which of the following type of parents will not set any limit for child's behaviour but show poor impulse control and act aggressively if boundaries are violated?

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Authoritarian
Authoritative
Permissive
Good enough parent
Neglectful

Your answer is incorrect.


Authoritarian style parents impose strict rules that can be associated with low self-esteem and social withdrawal in the children. Permissive style parents set no limits, leading to
poor impulse control and aggression. The neglectful style of parenting can lead to poor self-esteem, impaired self-control, and increased aggression. Parents with an authoritative
style set firm rules but share decision-making with their children, creating a warm, loving environment, which promotes self-reliance and positive self-esteem.
The correct answer is: Permissive

Question 9 MoK HumanDevelopment 042


Not answered A 4-year-old child now recognizes she's a girl and wants to spend more time with her dad. According to Freud she's at what phase of psychosexual development?
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Genital phase
Oral phase
Anal phase
Latency phase
Phallic phase 

Your answer is incorrect.


In phallic phase (3-5 years), the main site of gratification is genital area. The girl develops penis envy (discontent with female genitalia following a fantasy that they result from a
loss of penis). This is theorized by Freud to lead to a wish to 'receive' the penis and to bear a child. The resolution occurs by identification with the mother. This phase has been
called as 'Electra complex'.
The correct answer is: Phallic phase

Question 10 MoK Basic Psychology 051


Not answered Which one of the following is an objective test of personality?
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Rorschach inkblot test
Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory
Sentence completion test
Draw a person test
Thematic apperception test

Your answer is incorrect.


Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory MMPI is a popular inventory for measuring personality. It has ten scales with clinical labels. It is NOT a projective test. Rorschach
inkblot test and Murray's Thematic Apperception Test are projective tests; so are sentence completion and draw-a-person tests. Projective tests use ambiguous stimuli, and the
patient is expected to generate narratives based on them; rating scales may or may not be used in conjunction to rate such measures.
The correct answer is: Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory

Question 11 MoK Basic Psychology 052


Not answered The best neuropsychological test of semantic memory is
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Naming objects and describing their meanings
Address recall
Rivermead behavioural memory test
Vocabulary test
Weschler's Memory Scale

Your answer is incorrect.


Semantic Memory is the accumulation of facts and experience gained over a lifetime. Tasks dependent on semantic memory include object naming, generation of definitions for
spoken words, word-picture and picture-picture matching and the generation of exemplars on category fluency tests (e. g. animals). Weschler's Memory Scale reports on Auditory
Memory, Visual Memory, Visual Working Memory, Immediate Memory, and Delayed Memory - but not specifically on Semantic Memory (Excerpt from Hodges et al., Brain (1992),
115, 1783-1806).
The correct answer is: Naming objects and describing their meanings

Question 12 MoK Basic Psychology 055


Not answered Which of the following scales utilizes the theory of Big Five personality constructs?
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Eysenck's Personality Inventory
IPDE
NEO Inventory
Thematic Apperception Test
Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

Your answer is incorrect.


The NEO Personality Inventory, or NEO PI, is a 240-item measure of the Big Five personality traits: Extraversion, Agreeableness, Conscientiousness, Neuroticism, and Openness
to Experience.
The correct answer is: NEO Inventory
Question 13 MoK Basic Psychology 056
Not answered In Skinner box experiments, rats receive food pellets in response to pressing a lever. What type of learning is this?
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Backward conditioning
Operant conditioning
Forced conditioning
Classical conditioning
Forward conditioning

Your answer is incorrect.


Operant conditioning also known as instrumental conditioning was first demonstrated by Skinner using a box in which a rat received food pellets in response to pressing a lever.
Operant conditioning refers to a type of learning in which the likelihood of a behaviour being repeated depends on the associated consequences. The ABC refers to antecedents,
behaviour and consequences. 

The correct answer is: Operant conditioning

Question 14 MoK Basic Psychology 058


Not answered Star charts are effective in managing certain behavioural problems. They work on the basis of

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Modelling
Social learning
Operant conditioning
Classical conditioning
Covert conditioning

Your answer is incorrect.


Star charts are used to positively reinforce each dry night in children who have a delay in developing bladder control. The charts are often used along with a no-blaming parental
attitude towards the enuresis.
The correct answer is: Operant conditioning

Question 15 MoK Basic Psychology 060


Not answered A child was told to finish homework tasks before he can play outside. This is based on

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Reciprocal inhibition
Classical conditioning
Cognitive mapping
Premack's principle
Operant conditioning

Your answer is incorrect.


Premack's principle states that more probable behaviors will reinforce less probable behaviors. Premack's Principle suggests that if a person wants to perform a given activity, the
person will perform a less desirable activity to get at the more desirable activity.
The correct answer is: Premack's principle

Question 16 MoK Basic Psychology 061


Not answered With respect to memorising a list of words, which one among the following statements is true?

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In immediate recall the primacy effect is stronger than the recency effect
The retroactive inhibition refers to prior learning interfering with subsequent learning
Primacy effect is related to initial items receiving most consolidation
Elaborative rehearsal helps to store information in STM.
Retrieval of material from semantic long term memory is an implicit process which requires clear knowledge of the time of acquisition of the semantic
knowledge

Your answer is incorrect.


An accurate recollection of an item is more likely if it is one of the first (primacy effect) or last items (recency effect) to be learnt. Primacy is because initial items receive most
consolidation and recency is because immediate information is still in STM. The Proactive inhibition of 'interference theory' refers to prior learning interfering with subsequent
learning. Retroactive inhibition is based on the fact that over time, new memories interfere with existing ones and this interference effect is increased if there is a considerable
similarity between the new memory and existing ones. The other hypothesis for forgetting is decay theory due to the trace of the memory fading with time.
The correct answer is: Primacy effect is related to initial items receiving most consolidation

Question 17 MoK Basic Psychology 062


Not answered Which of the following is a type of non-declarative memory?
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Semantic memory
Autobiographical memory
Procedural memory
All of the above
Episodic memory

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There are two forms of LTM, which includes declarative (explicit) and non-declarative (implicit) memory and their subdivisions. Declarative memory has two components; episodic
and semantic memory. Non declarative memory is made of procedural memory for skills and habits, priming, classical conditioning and non-associative learning.
The correct answer is: Procedural memory

Question 18 MoK Basic Psychology 064 


Not answered A family has got a new dog. A 3 year old child in the family is afraid of dogs and would stay in the same room with the dog only if he could sit on his mother's lap and had his
favourite ice cream. Select the learning theory principle employed here
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Avoidance learning
Extinction
Operant conditioning
Reciprocal inhibition
Classical conditioning

Your answer is incorrect.


The modification of a behavioural pattern by the conditioning of responses that are incompatible with the response to be eliminated is called as reciprocal inhibition.
The correct answer is: Reciprocal inhibition

Question 19 MoK Basic Psychology 066


Not answered Identify the term that best denotes the feeling of familiarity that accompanies the return of stored material to consciousness;

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Jamais vu
Retrieval
Dejavu
Recognition
Recollection

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The feeling of knowing that characterizes recognition is a "fringe conscious" phenomenon, that is, an event that has high accuracy but low reported conscious content (Baars,
2002). There is considerable evidence that people are conscious of retrieved memories in a recall, but not necessarily in a recognition task (e.g., Gardiner et al., 1998). For
pioneering memory researchers like Ebbinghaus, indeed, the term "recall" meant retrieval to consciousness (Excerpt from Franklin et al., The Role of Consciousness in Memory,
Brain Minds and Media, 2005;93;1505). In numerous experiments, these differences result in striking dissociations between subjective reports in "remember" vs. "know" -types of
retrieval.
The correct answer is: Recognition

Question 20 MoK Social Psychology 009


Not answered Which of the following can reduce groupthink?

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Strong chairperson
Financial incentives
Unplanned meetings of the group
Seeking external opinion
Pairing up group members

Your answer is incorrect.


Various strategies that can reduce groupthink include encouraging open debate, acknowledging the presence of groupthink, seeking external opinion, splitting the group into
smaller units for discussion, holding last chance meetings to encourage challenges and reserving leader's opinions until after the groups discussion has been completed.
The correct answer is: Seeking external opinion

Question 21 MoK Social Psychology 010


Not answered People prefer relationships that appear to offer an optimum cost benefit ratio and with expectations that our actions towards others will be reciprocated in some way. Which of the
following theories suggest this?
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Cannon Baird theory
Functional attribution error
James Lange theory
Social Cognitive Theory
Social exchange theory

Your answer is incorrect.


Social exchange theory is a theory of social interaction based on the proposition that people expect rewards and costs from a social exchange to be equitable. Most of our social
behaviour is influenced by the expectations that our actions towards others will be reciprocated in some way and relationships are based on a mutual exchange of benefits. The
US sociologist George Caspar Homans developed this theory. (Ref: Oxford Dictionary of Psychology- Pg 709)
The correct answer is: Social exchange theory

Question 22 MoK Sociocultural Psychiatry 025


Not answered The ethics to determine goodness from acts and intentions behind them rather than their consequences is
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Teleologic ethics 

Liberation ethics
Utilitarian ethics
Deontologic ethics
Virtual ethics

Your answer is incorrect.


Consequentialist moral theories are teleological: they aim at some goal state and evaluate the morality of actions in terms of progress toward that state. The best-known version of
consequentialism is utilitarianism. As most clearly stated by Mill a proponent of the utilitarianism (teleology), the basic principle of utilitarianism is: Actions are right to the degree
that they tend to promote the greatest good for the greatest number. In contrast, deontological principles are duty based. Kant's theory is an example of a deontological or duty-
based ethics: it judges morality by examining the nature of actions and the will of agents rather than goals achieved. A deontological theory looks at inputs rather than outcomes
(Retrieved from Kay, C. Utilitarianism, [Link] ).
The correct answer is: Deontologic ethics

Question 23 MoK Sociocultural Psychiatry 026


Not answered A patient is next on waiting list to receive CBT. A new referral comes up which needs more urgent treatment. The psychotherapist refuses to displace the next patient on the list as
this would be against his sense of duty and responsibility. Which ethical principle is he upholding?
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Teleology
Beneficience
Deontology
Non maleficience
Autonomy

Your answer is incorrect.


Deontology and Teleology are two alternative higher-order ethical principles concerning medical practice. The term Deontology derives from the Greek 'Deon' for 'duty' indicating
the centrality of rules in governing medical practice. Accordingly, rights and duties determine action and so it is also called as absolutism. The term Teleology derives its name from
the Greek 'Teleon', meaning 'purpose' and the central concept is that rather than rights, people have interests, whether these are concerns, desires or needs. Accordingly, a broad
judgment of benefits and harm determine medical practice.
The correct answer is: Deontology

Question 24 MoK Sociocultural Psychiatry 035


Not answered Which of the following offers a guideline for principles of ethical research?
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Hippocartic oath
Mt. Sinai declaration
Helsinki declaration
Bristol code
Warsaw pact

Your answer is incorrect.


The World Medical Association (WMA) has developed the Declaration of Helsinki as a statement of ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects, including
research on identifiable human material and data.
The correct answer is: Helsinki declaration

Question 25 MoK Sociocultural Psychiatry 039


Not answered A 40 year old man has chest pain and dizziness. His bloods and ECG are normal. He is advised to take medications, fat restricted diet, exercise. This is called
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Illness behaviour
Illness
Sick role
Worried well
Depression
Your answer is incorrect.
The concept of illness behavior was largely defined and adopted during the second half of the twentieth century. Broadly speaking, it is any behavior undertaken by an individual
who feels ill to relieve that experience or to better define the meaning of the illness experience.
The correct answer is: Illness behaviour

Question 26 MoK Sociocultural Psychiatry 041


Not answered The first written account on ethical aspects of medicine was authored by

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Burton
Childress
Hippocrates

Charaka
Ishaq bin Ali al-Ruhawi

Your answer is incorrect.


The first written book on medical ethics was authored by Ishaq bin Ali Rahawi. This book, called Adab al-Tabib (Conduct of a Physician), is thought to be first published in 9th
century
The correct answer is: Ishaq bin Ali al-Ruhawi

Question 27 MoK Sociocultural Psychiatry 044


Not answered Which of the following model of reducing stigma demands equal rights and criminal responsibility for the mentally ill?

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Disability inclusion model
No fault approach
Libertarian model
Brain disease model
Individual growth model

Your answer is incorrect.


The libertarian approach advocates equal rights with no discrimination - both positive and negative. It has the risk of inducing serial losses for the mentally ill at workplaces or
courts.
The correct answer is: Libertarian model

Question 28 MoK Sociocultural Psychiatry 047


Not answered Tearooom Trade Study is an example of ethically controversial research practices. Which of the following was the subject of investigation in this study?

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Response to hepatitis vaccine
Response to injected cancer cells
Male sexual behaviours
Natural history of syphilis
Female contraception

Your answer is incorrect.


During 1960s, a sociologist called Laud Humphries followed up many men who had anonymous sex in public places by tracing their number plates after falsely befriending them.
The research was conducted without explicit informed consent and became a matter of debate, highlighting the important of ethics in scientific research in non-medical fields of
enquiry.
The correct answer is: Male sexual behaviours

Question 29 MoK Sociocultural Psychiatry 048


Not answered The nurses in your ward do not like a newly admitted patient. They are angry that she is trying to split them up by giving conflicting messages at ward rounds. Which of the
following phenomenon is likely?
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Introjection
Identification
Elimination
Malignant alienation
Transference

Your answer is incorrect.


Morgan (1979) coined the term malignant alienation to describe a process characterised by a progressive deterioration in the relationship between carers (staff in a ward) and a
patient, including loss of sympathy and support from members of staff, who tended to construe these patients' behaviour as provocative, unreasonable, or overdependent. In some
instances, such alienation may precede suicide/ attempted suicide of the patient (Excerpt from Watts & Morgan, Br J Psychiatry. 1994 Jan;164(1):11-5.
[Link]
The correct answer is: Malignant alienation

Question 30 MoK Sociocultural Psychiatry 049


Not answered Which of the following is not a central antipsychiatry belief?
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Medication and hospitalisation are harmful to the individual so treated
The scientific method cannot explain the subjective abnormalities of mental disorder as no direct observation can take place
Mental disorder can be best explained by social, ethical and political factors
Mind is a bodily organ and can be diseased
The labelling of individuals as 'ill' is an artificial device used by society to maintain its stability in the face of challenge

Your answer is incorrect. 

Antipsychiatry refers to the many different individuals and organizations who have criticised the consideration of psychiatry as a scientific discipline ever since it became a
recognized medical specialty in the 1800s. Antipsychiatry advocates claim that psychiatry presents itself as a healing art yet actually controls behaviour deemed abnormal,
irrational or socially unacceptable.
The correct answer is: Mind is a bodily organ and can be diseased

Question 31 MoK Sociocultural Psychiatry 050


Not answered The most common reason for doctors to be taken to the court is
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Problems in the doctor/patient relationship
Misuse and abuse
Negligence
Not obtaining informed consent
Breaking confidentiality

Your answer is incorrect.


Negligence: This requires the plaintiff to prove three things 1. That the doctor owed a duty of care to the particular patient 2. That the doctor was in breach of the appropriate
standard of care imposed by the law. 3. That the breach in duty of care caused the patient harm, meriting compensation.
The correct answer is: Negligence

Question 32 MoK Sociocultural Psychiatry 051


Not answered With respect to population studies, cultural analysis refers to
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Racial profile of groups
Norms in a group
Beliefs among the group members
Lingual diversity in a group
Geographical clusters of separation

Your answer is incorrect.


Cultural analysis refers to the study of norms or behavior patterns that are typical of specific cultural groups. These norms are often passed down from generation to generation by
observational learning by the groups gatekeepers - parents, teachers, religious leaders, and peers. Cultural norms include how people choose marriage partners, attitudes toward
alcohol consumption, and acceptance (or rejection) of spanking children.
The correct answer is: Norms in a group

Question 33 MoK Sociocultural Psychiatry 053


Not answered Which of the following form the basis of official social classification in Britain?
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Residential status
Land ownership
Financial status
Educational status
Occupational status

Your answer is incorrect.


Social class is determined by occupation, financial status (paying capacity), education, type of residence, and leisure activities. In Britain, occupational classification forms the main
mode of social classification.
The correct answer is: Occupational status

Question 34 MoK Classification 051


Not answered Which personality disorder is the most likely in a 23-year-old man who is sensitive to rebuffs and avoids close contact as a result?

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Paranoid personality disorder
Dissocial personality disorder
Narcissistic personality disorder
Schizoid personality disorder
Schizotypal disorder

Your answer is incorrect.


A pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others such that their motives are interpreted as malevolent, beginning by early adulthood and present with (1) suspicion without
sufficient basis (2) preoccupation with unjustified doubts about the loyalty or trustworthiness of friends or associates (3) reluctance to confide in others (4) reads hidden demeaning
or threatening meanings into benign remarks or events (5) persistently bears grudges, i.e., is unforgiving of insults, etc.
The correct answer is: Paranoid personality disorder


Question 35 MoK Classification 052
Not answered A 28-year-old man has complained to local council numerous times about his neighbours throwing rubbish into his garden. Being vengeful, he emptied his weekly rubbish
collection into their backyard before going in person to council office to make a complaint. He has always had trouble with different neighbours and has changed 9 houses in last 3
Marked out of 1.00
years.
Flag question
Select one:
Borderline personality disorder
Schizotypal personality disorder
Paranoid personality disorder
Schizoid personality disorder
Anankastic personality disorder

Your answer is incorrect.


Paranoid personality disorder: Suspicious of other people and their motives, hold longstanding grudges against people, believe others are not trustworthy, emotionally detached
and feel other people are deceiving, threatening, or making plans against them. Tenacious sense of personal rights, excessive self-importance with self-referential nature are seen
in paranoid personality disorder.
The correct answer is: Paranoid personality disorder

Question 36 MoK Classification 059


Not answered An 8 year old child present with multiple tics. Which of the following must be explored during mental state examination?

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Presence of delusions
Presence of formal thought disorder
Absence of insight
Presence of obsessions
Psychomotor retardation

Your answer is incorrect.


Obsessions commonly accompany tics especially in children. This is particularly true if the diagnosis is Tourette's syndrome.
The correct answer is: Presence of obsessions

Question 37 MoK Classification 060


Not answered Which of the following is treated as a measurement of severity of depression in ICD 10?

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Presence of psychomotor retardation
Presence of somatic symptoms
Presence of psychotic features
History of mania
Presence of suicidal ideas

Your answer is incorrect.


Irrespective of the total symptom count, the presence of psychotic symptoms contribute towards the classification of a depressive episode as severe.
The correct answer is: Presence of psychotic features

Question 38 MoK Classification 061


Not answered Which of the following is a type of narcissistic defences?
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Acting out
Repression
Projection
Suppression
Splitting
Your answer is incorrect.
People with narcissistic thinking and behavior strive to defend their fragile self-esteem through projection and denial. They also use other primitive defenses.
The correct answer is: Projection

Question 39 MoK Classification 062


Not answered Select one typical feature of depressive episode with psychotic symptoms
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Prominent affective symptoms and mood congruent delusions
Systemised delusions
Persecutory delusions
Bizzare delusions 

Non prominent affective symptoms and mood congruent delusions

Your answer is incorrect.


Affective symptoms of depression are prominent, and delusions are almost always mood-congruent though the mere presence of mood incongruence need not negate a diagnosis
of psychotic depression. Bizarre delusions point to schizophrenia. In mania, delusions are often fleeting and not systematized.
The correct answer is: Prominent affective symptoms and mood congruent delusions

Question 40 MoK Classification 064


Not answered In DSM IV axis 4 is a description of which of the following?
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Psychiatric disorder
Psychosocial functioning
General medical health
Personality traits
Intellectual ability

Your answer is incorrect.


Psychosocial and environmental factors contributing to a psychiatric disorder were described in axis 4. DSM-5 has abolished the multiaxial system.
The correct answer is: Psychosocial functioning

Question 41 MoK Classification 065


Not answered A 27-year-old soldier returns from war field with distressing feelings, flashbacks, nightmares, and hypervigilance. Which of the following diagnosis is likely?
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Generalised anxiety disorder
Schizophrenia
Panic disorder
PTSD
Dissociative disorder

Your answer is incorrect.


PTSD generally starts within six months; delayed onset is rare.
The correct answer is: PTSD

Question 42 MoK Classification 066


Not answered In comparison to DSM, ICD10 has the following features, except:
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Flag question
Includes schizotypal disorders under schizophrenia
Has acute polymorphic psychosis as a diagnosis
Post-psychotic depression is included under schizophrenia
Has dissocial personality disorder as a diagnostic entity
Requires 6 months criteria for schizophrenia

Your answer is incorrect.


ICD10 is somewhat more lenient in diagnosing schizophrenia. One month of symptom duration is enough to diagnose schizophrenia using ICD10 where as six months duration
criteria is required for DSM-IV.
The correct answer is: Requires 6 months criteria for schizophrenia

Question 43 MoK Classification 067


Not answered Which of the following features validate a diagnosis of OCD when a patient presents with repetitive thoughts?
Marked out of 1.00 Select one:
Flag question Thoughts spoken aloud
Resisting the thoughts
Possessing full control of the thoughts
Thoughts coming from an external agent
Repeating thoughts take a variety of new themes each day

Your answer is incorrect.


Ego dystonicity and resulting resistance is characteristic of OCD
The correct answer is: Resisting the thoughts

Question 44 MoK Classification 068 


Not answered Which of the following distinguishes depressive reaction of adjustment disorder from major depressive disorder?

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Resolution is seen within 6 months after termination of the stressor
Symptoms develop within 1 month of the onset of the stressor
Marked psychosocial and occupational impairment in functioning is seen
Symptoms are distinctly different from those seen in depressive episode
Follows a stressful life event

Your answer is incorrect.


Symptoms of adjustment disorder (depressive reaction) are phenomenologically same as those seen in depression. In both disorders, these can follow a stressful life event. But in
adjustment reactions, one expects resolution of symptoms within 6 months of the cessation of the stressor.
The correct answer is: Resolution is seen within 6 months after termination of the stressor

Question 45 MoK Classification 069


Not answered A patient complains of poor sleep due to paraesthesia in her legs. The most probable diagnosis is

Marked out of 1.00


Select one:
Flag question
Akathisia
Anxiety
Periodic limb movement disorder
Dyskinesia
Restless leg syndrome

Your answer is incorrect.


Patients with restless legs syndrome experience tingling, burning, itching (paresthesia) or cramping of calf muscles; often relieved by moving or rubbing their legs.
The correct answer is: Restless leg syndrome

Question 46 MoK Classification 070


Not answered Who first described Bulimia Nervosa?

Marked out of 1.00


Select one:
Flag question
Klermann and Weissmann
Greisinger
Russell
Liddle
Crow

Your answer is incorrect.


Russell sign is a classical skin marker of induced vomiting. Russell described bulimia nervosa in 1979
The correct answer is: Russell

Question 47 MoK Classification 071


Not answered Which of the following personality disorders is not included in both ICD 10 and DSM 5?
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
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Borderline
Paranoid
Histrionic
Sadistic
Schizoid

Your answer is incorrect.


Though described in the research manual, DSM does not include sadistic PD in its clinical manual. It is not included in ICD either. The DSM Research criteria describe Sadistic
Personality Disorder as a pervasive pattern of cruel, demeaning and aggressive behaviour, beginning by early adulthood.
The correct answer is: Sadistic

Question 48 MoK Classification 073


Not answered Mr Wells has spent most of his life researching about a time machine. He is unmarried and has poor communication skills. He has extensive theories about extraterrestrial species.
He admits to unusual experiences wherein he is able to communicate with some extraterrestrial species using clairvoyance. He is most likely to have
Marked out of 1.00

Flag question Select one:


Paranoid schizophrenia
Schizoid personality disorder
Schizotypal personality disorder
Cyclothymic personality
Paranoid personality disorder 

Your answer is incorrect.


This is a classical description of schizotypal disorder (a personality disorder in DSM-IV). Patients may appear odd or eccentric, may have illusions, magical thinking, obsessions
without resistance, thought disorders and paranoia. Some of them are often members of quasi-cultural groups and may believe in ESP, clairvoyance, etc. They may even claim
themselves to be mediums and may have transient psychotic features.
The correct answer is: Schizotypal personality disorder

Question 49 MoK Clinical Examination 021


Not answered Clock drawing test can be used to detect
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
Flag question
Abnormal time perception
Episodic memory loss
Poor attention
Constructional dyspraxia
Disorientation

Your answer is incorrect.


A number of cognitive, motor and perceptual functions are required simultaneously for successful completion of the clock drawing test. Visual-spatial organization (constructional
praxis), memory and executive function, auditory comprehension, visual memory, motor programming, numerical knowledge, semantic instruction, inhibition of distracting stimuli,
and concentration and have all been highlighted as contributing to the successful drawing of clock.
The correct answer is: Constructional dyspraxia

Question 50 MoK Clinical Examination 042


Not answered A 42-year-old man presents with motor clumsiness, poor coordination and unsteadiness of gait. He is apathetic and his thinking process is slowed. He has a strong family history
of similar presentations. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Marked out of 1.00

Flag question Select one:


CJD
Lewy body dementia
Huntington's disease
Alzheimer's dementia
Wilson's disease

Your answer is incorrect.


A strong family history with motor disturbances in a patient with psychosis and cognitive impairment suggests Huntington's.
The correct answer is: Huntington's disease

Question 51 MoK Clinical Examination 043


Not answered Which of the following is a good opening question when discussing compliance with treatment?
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
Flag question
It is very important that you take your tablets
Are you taking your tablets?
How many times have you missed your tablets so far?
Why are you not taking your tablets?
Is there any difficulty with your tablets?

Your answer is incorrect.


Asking "Is there any difficulty with your tablets?" is less judgmental and least confrontational among all the other given options.
The correct answer is: Is there any difficulty with your tablets?

Question 52 MoK Clinical Examination 046


Not answered Mr Z is a 49-year-old gentleman with history of memory loss and personality changes. He also presents with wing beating tremors. The biochemical abnormality to be identified in
Marked out of 1.00
this case would be

Flag question
Select one:
Low serum ceruloplasmin
Low albumin
Low serum calcium
Low serum thyroxine
Low serotonin

Your answer is incorrect.


The diagnosis is Wilson's disease, which is caused by copper deposits in the lenticular nuclei in the brain due to deficiency of serum ceruloplasmin. Wing beating tremors is a
characteristic feature of Wilson's disease.
The correct answer is: Low serum ceruloplasmin 

Question 53 MoK Clinical Examination 047


Not answered A patient is suspected to have parietal damage related to a vascular lesion. Which of the following signs may be elicited in neurological examination?

Marked out of 1.00


Select one:
Flag question
Bitemporal hemianopia
Homonymous hemianopia
One sided blindness
Upper quadrantonopia
Lower quadrantanopia

Your answer is incorrect.


Lower homonymous quadrantanopias are usually caused by damage to the optic radiation as it passes through the parietal lobes.
The correct answer is: Lower quadrantanopia

Question 54 MoK Clinical Examination 048


Not answered An anorexic patient repeatedly purges with laxatives. Which of the following is a possible complication?

Marked out of 1.00


Select one:
Flag question
Hyponatraemia
None of the above
Hyperkalaemia
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis

Your answer is incorrect.


In laxative induced diarrhoea, a large amount of bicarbonate may be lost in the stool. With normal kidneys, the lost bicarbonate is replaced effectively, and a serious base deficit
does not develop. When there is poor renal blood flow due to hypovolaemia/starvation, base deficit and acidosis develop rapidly. Acidosis also results from excessive production of
lactic acid when patients have severe diarrhoea.
The correct answer is: Metabolic acidosis

Question 55 MoK Clinical Examination 049


Not answered Which test would you do to screen the cognitive functions of elderly at bedside?

Marked out of 1.00


Select one:
Flag question
MOCA
Addenbrookes cognitive examination
MMSE
Mini-COG
Clock drawing test

Your answer is incorrect.


The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is the standard screening instrument for dementia. It takes 5-10 minutes to administer. It is a brief tool used to quickly assess the
cognitive functions of elderly at bedside, for grading cognitive impairment in elderly and screening for dementia.
The correct answer is: MMSE

Question 56 MoK Clinical Examination 050


Not answered Read the strip of ECG shown below and identify the relevant abnormality. Blue lines indicate PR intervals. A 'P wave' is also marked in the figure.
Marked out of 1.00

Flag question

Select one:
Complete heart block
Type I second degree heart block
Mobitz type II
Mobitz type I
Normal ECG

Your answer is incorrect.


Mobitz type I AV block: The PR interval shows progressive lengthening until one P wave fails to be conducted and fails to produce a QRS complex. The PR interval resets to
normal, and the cycle repeats. (Ref: Houghton & Gray, Making sense of the ECG. Pg 120-122)
The correct answer is: Mobitz type I

Question 57 MoK Clinical Examination 051


Not answered Read the strip of ECG shown below and identify the relevant abnormality. Blue lines indicate PR intervals. A P wave is also marked in the figure.

Marked out of 1.00

Flag question

Select one:
Type I second degree heart block
Normal ECG
Mobitz Type II
Complete heart block
Mobitz type I

Your answer is incorrect.


Mobitz type 2 block: If the PR interval is fixed and normal but occasionally a P wave fails to produce a QRS complex, the patient has Mobitz type 2 block. (Ref: Houghton & Gray,
Making sense of the ECG. Pg 120-122)
The correct answer is: Mobitz Type II

Question 58 MoK Clinical Examination 052


Not answered Choose one advantage that a MRI scan has over a CT scan of the brain:

Marked out of 1.00


Select one:
Flag question
MRI scan is cheaper to obtain than CT scans
MRI scan can get multiple views of brain anatomy
MRI scan is very useful for calcified lesions
MRI scan can be done in emergencies
MRI scan produces less claustrophobia

Your answer is incorrect.


Using MRI one can obtain multiple slices of different views that can be useful in analysing brain pathology in greater detail.
The correct answer is: MRI scan can get multiple views of brain anatomy

Question 59 MoK Clinical Examination 053


Not answered A man was admitted with severe depression and on examination has bilateral ptosis and reduced muscle tone. Which of the following medical condition is most likely?

Marked out of 1.00


Select one:
Flag question
Myasthenia Gravis
Addison's disease
Carcinoid tumors
Diabetes
Hypothyroidism

Your answer is incorrect.


Myasthenia often presents with ptosis with fatigue and reduced muscle tone upon examination. The two classic features of myasthenic weakness are variability, in that weakness
changes over minutes or days, or even shifts between different muscles, and fatigability, which means that the weakness worsens with repeated use and improves with rest. Many
people (15-20%) who are diagnosed with myasthenia develop depression (Retrieved from [Link]
neuromuscular-junction/i-myasthenia-gravis).
The correct answer is: Myasthenia Gravis

Question 60 MoK Clinical Examination 054


Not answered Mr. Y is a 63 year old man who presents with a dementia characterised by disinhibition, lack of concern towards others and recklessness. Which of the following language deficits
is he most likely to experience first?
Marked out of 1.00

Flag question Select one:


Receptive dysphasia
Dyslexia
Non-fluent expressive dysphasia
Dysarthria
Fluent expressive dysphasia

Your answer is incorrect.


In frontal lobe type of dementia the following frontal lobe behavioral abnormalities occur over time: disinhibition, impulsivity, impersistence, inertia, loss of social awareness, neglect
of personal hygiene, mental rigidity, stereotyped behavior, and utilization behavior (ie, tendency to pick up and manipulate any object in the environment). These descriptions
included language abnormalities such as reduced speech output, mutism, echolalia, and perseveration.
The correct answer is: Non-fluent expressive dysphasia

Question 61 MoK Clinical Examination 055


Not answered Which of the following is NOT correct with regard to body language during a psychiatric interview?
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
Flag question
Reduced eye contact suggests passive behaviour 

Sitting on the edge of the chair suggests anxiety


Lack of congruent facial expression can occur in schizophrenia
Non-invasive but direct eye contact suggests aggressiveness
Lack of voice modulation is seen in depression

Your answer is incorrect.


Reduced eye contact may suggest passive behaviour with a lack of assertiveness, but direct eye contact does not mean aggressiveness if non-invasive. Eye contact is also
subject to the cultural background of the therapist and the patient.
The correct answer is: Non-invasive but direct eye contact suggests aggressiveness

Question 62 MoK Clinical Examination 056


Not answered A characteristic magnetic gait is seen in which of the following disorders?
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
Flag question
Fronto-temporal dementia
Parkinson's disease
Lewy Body Dementia
Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
Corticobasal degeneration

Your answer is incorrect.


Normal-pressure hydrocephalus is caused by a deficiency in the resorption of CSF and is responsible for 2% to 5% of all dementias. Normal-pressure hydrocephalus causes a
characteristic triad of dementia, gait disturbance, and (later) incontinence. The dementia is frontal-subcortical in nature, characterized by deficits in attention, visuospatial skills,
abstraction, judgment, and new learning. The gait slows, strides become shorter, and step height decreases, producing a characteristic 'magnetic gait.' Incontinence is more likely
to be urinary than fecal.
The correct answer is: Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

Question 63 MoK Clinical Examination 057


Not answered 'Sometimes when people are very depressed, they think of hurting themselves. Has this been true for you?' What technique is being used in this question?
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
Flag question
Facilitation
Deception
Normalisation
Symptom exaggeration
Suggestion

Your answer is incorrect.


Normalisation helps in reducing guilt.
The correct answer is: Normalisation

Question 64 MoK Clinical Examination 058


Not answered Which of the following features correlate well with the severity of Alzheimer's dementia?
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
Flag question
Age of onset
Number of plaques
Size of plaques
Family history of dementia
Gender of the patient

Your answer is incorrect.


Nevertheless, the burden of neurofibrillary tangles is a much better correlate of severity than the burden of plaques.
The correct answer is: Number of plaques

Question 65 MoK Clinical Examination 059


Not answered A patient revealed his drug dependency to you after an eye drop test failed to dilate his pupils. Which of the following drug dependency will produce this effect?
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
Flag question
Cocaine
Alcohol
Cannabis
Opioids
Amphetamines

Your answer is incorrect.


It has been shown that tolerance develops to the miotic effects more than to constipation when using µ-opioid agonists. It can be readily observed that patients taking large doses
of opioids over a long term do not have miotic pupils, unless they are measured in bright light or have other conditions that produce miosis. Hence, dark pupillography can be
useful to study opioid [Link] E, Shick J: Pupillography response to methadone challenge: Aid to diagnosis of opioid dependence. Drug Alcohol Depend 1978; 3:133-8
The correct answer is: Opioids

Question 66 MoK Clinical Examination 060


Not answered Which of the following symptoms are observed secondary to hyperventilation?
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
Flag question
Nystagmus
Hyper-reflexia
Vertigo
Ataxia
Paraesthesia

Your answer is incorrect.


Patients with acute hyperventilation (often in the context of panic attack in psychiatry) often present with agitation, hyperpnea and tachypnea, chest pain, dyspnea, wheezing,
dizziness, palpitations, tetanic cramps (carpopedal spasm), paresthesias, generalized weakness, and syncope. They may complain of a sense of suffocation. Paresthesias occur
more commonly in the upper extremity and are usually bilateral. Unilateral paresthesias are left-sided in approximately 80% of cases. Perioral numbness is very common.
[Link]
The correct answer is: Paraesthesia

Question 67 MoK Clinical Examination 061


Not answered Which of the following is the most prominent risk factor for depression that can be identified in a clinical interview?
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
Flag question
Sub-average educational achievement
Lack of positive life events
Anxious personality traits
Family history of depression
Past history of depression

Your answer is incorrect.


The most prominent factor for depression that could be identified during a clinical interview is having a past history of depression. If measured using validated scales, neuroticism
could be a risk factor too, but generally cross-sectional clinical interviews are not reliable in diagnosing enduring personality traits.
The correct answer is: Past history of depression

Question 68 MoK Assessment EMI019


Not answered Delusions in clinical practice
Which one of the following descriptions below correctly refers to the psychopathological terms above?
Marked out of 4.00

Flag question
A 34-year-old psychotic patient sees two white cars pulling up in front of his home. He is convinced that he is about to be accused of being a Choose...
paedophile.

A 40-year-old psychotic patient who believes that parts of the Bible are about him directly. Choose...

A 33-year-old man requested admission to a hospital because he had become convinced that God had granted him the greatest possible sort of Choose...
mind and that coming into contact with him would cure others of mental illnesses.

A 34-year-old man with psychotic patient on the ward recalled being anxious and a sense of 'something about to happen' prior to his admission Choose...

Your answer is incorrect.


Explanation:
In delusional perception, a normally perceived object is given a new meaning, usually in the sense of self-reference - the conclusion being entirely unwarranted, the perception is
normal. Hence, it is a two-staged process - ordinary perception preceding the attachment of delusional significance. The percept is a real external object and not a hallucinatory
experience. The only type of delusion included in Schneider's first-rank symptoms is delusional perception.
Delusions of reference are beliefs that external events or situations are arranged in such a way as to have a particular significance for or to convey a message to the affected
individual. In the above scenario, the patient believes that parts of the Bible 'refer' to him directly.
Grandiose delusion is a delusional belief that one has special powers, is unusually rich or powerful or that one has an exceptional destiny. It occurs in all psychotic illnesses but
particularly in manic illness.
Delusional mood refers to the sense of perplexity and uncertainty that exists during a prodrome of psychosis, usually ending in an autochthonous delusion, which will make sense
of the perplexity on arrival. Delusional mood/atmosphere can precede other primary delusions. It is the only psychiatric phenomenon that can directly precede and be causally
related to primary autochthonous delusions. Note that delusional mood is a specific affective experience - not a thought or an idea. This abnormal mood state is characterized by
anticipatory anxiety and a sense of 'something about to happen'.
(Ref: Oxford Handbook of psychiatry-Pg 84-87)
The correct answer is: A 34-year-old psychotic patient sees two white cars pulling up in front of his home. He is convinced that he is about to be accused of being a paedophile. –
Delusional perception, A 40-year-old psychotic patient who believes that parts of the Bible are about him directly. – Delusions of reference, A 33-year-old man requested admission
to a hospital because he had become convinced that God had granted him the greatest possible sort of mind and that coming into contact with him would cure others of mental
illnesses. – Delusions of grandiosity, A 34-year-old man with psychotic patient on the ward recalled being anxious and a sense of 'something about to happen' prior to his
admission – Delusional mood

Question 69 MoK Assessment EMI027



Not answered Defence mechanisms in operation
Identify the defence mechanism used in each of the following situations:
Marked out of 4.00

Flag question
A boy who is being bullied at school takes on the identity of Superman Choose...

A woman is not able to recall the abuse she sustained as a child Choose...

An idle woman who is not performing well at her job is fired. She states this is because her colleague is bad-mouthing her rather than admitting her
Choose...
poor performance.

A man who was diagnosed to have cancer says, "This cannot be true... I follow a healthy lifestyle." Choose...

Your answer is incorrect.


Explanation:
Reaction formation is the transformation of unacceptable thoughts and feelings into their opposite.
Repression refers to the process by which impulses, thoughts and memories are pushed out or excluded from the conscious mind.
Rationalization involves offering rational explanations in an attempt to justify attitudes, beliefs, or behaviour that may otherwise be unacceptable. Such underlying motives are
usually instinctually determined. It often involves finding excuses that will justify unacceptable behaviours when self-esteem is threatened.
Denial is the explicit refusal to acknowledge a threatening reality. It may persist despite persistent explanation of the facts.
The correct answer is: A boy who is being bullied at school takes on the identity of Superman – Reaction formation, A woman is not able to recall the abuse she sustained as a
child – Repression, An idle woman who is not performing well at her job is fired. She states this is because her colleague is bad-mouthing her rather than admitting her poor
performance. – Rationalization, A man who was diagnosed to have cancer says, "This cannot be true... I follow a healthy lifestyle." – Denial

Question 70 MoK Assessment EMI029


Not answered Diagnosing neurotic disorders
Choose the correct diagnosis for each of the following clinical situations;
Marked out of 3.00

Flag question
The medical teams have reviewed a woman several times over four years for symptoms of abdominal pain and shortness of breath. No Choose...
organic cause has ever been found

A man presents with low mood and anhedonia. He also has fatigue, poor sleep and headache Choose...

A man presents with an abscess in his left groin. He requires constant reassurance from the nursing staff. A member of the night staff Choose...
observes him injecting from a soiled syringe into the area adjacent to the abscess.

Your answer is incorrect.


Explanation:
Case 1: It is a case of somatisation, which is the experience of bodily symptoms with no, or no sufficient, physical cause for them, with presumed psychological causation.
Case 2: This man has core features of depression such as low mood, anhedonia and low energy levels.
Case 3: It is a case of factitious disorder in which a person deliberately produces, feigns, or exaggerates symptoms.
The correct answer is: The medical teams have reviewed a woman several times over four years for symptoms of abdominal pain and shortness of breath. No organic cause has
ever been found – Somatisation, A man presents with low mood and anhedonia. He also has fatigue, poor sleep and headache – Moderate depressive episode, A man presents
with an abscess in his left groin. He requires constant reassurance from the nursing staff. A member of the night staff observes him injecting from a soiled syringe into the area
adjacent to the abscess. – Factitious disorder

Question 71 MoK Assessment EMI034


Not answered Diagnosing culture-bound syndromes
For each of the descriptions given below chose one most appropriate culture-bound syndrome as a diagnosis from the list above
Marked out of 3.00

Flag question
A 32-year-old Greek woman presents with extreme sorrow, nausea, insomnia and fatigue Choose...

A 44-year-old Mexican woman presents feeling despondent with involuntary tics and diarrhoea since her husband met with a sudden death in her presence Choose...

A 22-year-old Nepalese man presents with the fear that he is losing semen in the urine. He describes symptoms suggestive of Urinary Tract infection along
Choose...
with tiredness.

Your answer is incorrect.


Explanation:
Nerfiza (also called as nerves, nevra, and nervios) is seen in Egypt, northern Europe, Greece, Mexico, Central and South America. It involves recurrent or unremitting episodes of
despair often with anxiety, and a plethora of somatic complaints including headaches, sluggishness, gastrointestinal intolerance, sleeplessness, fatigue and in some cases,
psychomotor agitation. The syndrome is more common in women than in men.
Susto (also called as espanto) is seen in Mexico, Central and South America. It has a highly diverse presentation all of which are considered to be related to loss of one's soul that
follows a severe fright reaction involving supernatural beliefs. In some cases, individuals may be stricken when others suffer a fright/sudden death. Symptoms include agitation,
anorexia, insomnia, fever, diarrhoea, mental confusion and apathy, depression and introversion.
Ref: Christmas, D. Culture Specific Disorders, [Link] (accessed April 21, 2015).
The correct answer is: A 32-year-old Greek woman presents with extreme sorrow, nausea, insomnia and fatigue – Nerfiza, A 44-year-old Mexican woman presents feeling
despondent with involuntary tics and diarrhoea since her husband met with a sudden death in her presence – Susto, A 22-year-old Nepalese man presents with the fear that he is
losing semen in the urine. He describes symptoms suggestive of Urinary Tract infection along with tiredness. – Dhat syndrome

Question 72 Mok Assessment CXEMI038


Not answered
Subtypes of OCD
Marked out of 5.00 A 35-year-old gentleman has been diagnosed with Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD). He enquires about the various forms of this illness.

Flag question
1. Which one symptom-based subtype confers a higher genetic risk to first-degree relatives?

2. Which two types predict a poor response to treatment with SSRI antidepressants?

3. Which two types predict a poor response to CBT?

Explanation: Symmetry/ordering rituals tend to be chronic and confers a higher genetic risk on first-degree [Link]/religious obsessional thoughts and hoarding rituals
predict a poor response to SSRIs and CBT. Compulsive hoarding may be a neurobiologically distinct form of obsessive-compulsive disorder. Hoarding is notoriously difficult to treat
by either psychological or pharmacological means.
The correct answer is:
Which one symptom-based subtype confers a higher genetic risk to first-degree relatives? - Symmetry/ordering rituals,
Which TWO types predict a poor response to treatment with SSRI antidepressants?- Sexual/religious obsessional thoughts, Hoarding rituals,
Which TWO types predict a poor response to CBT? - Sexual/religious obsessional thoughts, Hoarding rituals

Question 73 Mok Assessment CXEMI039


Not answered Catatonic signs
Marked out of 6.00 From the above list chose the most appropriate terms describing each of the following clinical observations;

Flag question
1. A patient moves his arm on slightest pressure regardless of any instruction given

2. Despite being asked to comply with, a patient resists with same pressure an attempt to move his arm.

3. When asked to put out his hand, a patient extends, withdraws and then extends his hand repeatedly for 23 times before allowing it to rest on the examiner's hand.

4. On hearing a sudden noise, a patient feels that his knees are buckling. He falls and hurts himself.

5. A patient allows his arms to be manipulated freely without much resistance and maintains the posture in which the examiner leaves him for few minutes. (TWO)

Explanation:
Mitgehen or "angle-poise lamp" sign: The patient yields to slightest of pressures, without much resistance, similar to an angle-poise lamp that bends easily. This happens even if
the patient is instructed to resist any manipulation.
Gegenhalten is a milder form of resistance/negativism. Patients with negativism resist or oppose all passive movements attempted by the examiner. A mild form of this resistance
is Gegenhalten or opposition.
In ambitendency, the patient makes a series of tentative, opposing alternate movements that do not reach the intended goal. This becomes evident when the patient is asked to
carry out a motor act. Ambivalence is the inability to make a decision - a dilemma of volition.
Cataplexy is the abrupt loss of muscle tone resulting in a collapse. It occurs following emotional stress in patients with narcolepsy.
In catalepsy the patient's limbs can be passively moved to any posture which will then be held for prolonged periods of time. It is also called as waxy flexibility (flexibilitas cerea)
here the patient shows wax-like plastic 'mouldable' quality. His limbs can be moved by the examiner to occupy certain postures, which are then maintained, even if these are
uncomfortable and bizarre.
The correct answer is:
A patient moves his arm on slightest pressure regardless of any instruction given- Mitgehen,
Despite being asked to comply with, a patient resists with same pressure an attempt to move his arm.- Gegenhalten,
When asked to put out his hand, a patient extends, withdraws and then extends his hand repeatedly for 23 times before allowing it to rest on the examiner's hand.- Ambitendency,
On hearing a sudden noise, a patient feels that his knees are buckling. He falls and hurts himself - Cataplexy,
A patient allows his arms to be manipulated freely without much resistance and maintains the posture in which the examiner leaves him for few minutes. (TWO) - Catalepsy, Waxy
flexibility

Question 74 Mok Assessment EMI040


Not answered Drug Detection in Urine
How long could each of the following drugs be detected in urine?
Marked out of 5.00

Flag question
Cannabis (chronic user) Choose...

Cocaine Choose...

Amphetamine Choose...

Heroin Choose...
Methadone Choose...

Your answer is incorrect.


Explanation: Occasional use of cannabis could be detected in urine for up to 3 days. High daily use for long time would last up to 4 weeks. The cocaine could be found in urine for
6-8 hours; metabolites found up to 2-4 days. The half-life of methadone is longer than heroin and could be detected for three days or more in the urine.
The correct answer is: Cannabis (chronic user) – 28 days, Cocaine – 6-8 hours, Amphetamine – Up to 48 hours, Heroin – 1-3 days, Methadone – 3 days or more

Question 75 MoK Assessment EMI037


Not answered Supportive techniques
For each of the following examples, identify the type of supportive techniques aimed at eliciting information
Marked out of 3.00

Flag question
I note that these side effects are rather inconvenient for you. But you have shown some notable improvement, and if you continue with the Choose...
treatment it is likely that you will achieve sustained response.

I can see that you look anxious and upset when talking about those voices Choose...

You have been through a lot. I am impressed at how you have hung in there and you must be a strong person Choose...

Your answer is incorrect.


Explanation: Reassurance: Used to instil positive hope and avoid or reduce despair. Must not be falsely reassuring. Acknowledgement of affect: Making a remark about patient's
affect can facilitate [Link] of respect: Affirmative statements (must be genuine and appropriate) indicating respect and dignity along with positive reinforcement. Ref:
Adapted from Kay J & Tasman A. Essentials of Psychiatry, 2nd edition, 2006. John Wiley & Sons, Ltd.
The correct answer is: I note that these side effects are rather inconvenient for you. But you have shown some notable improvement, and if you continue with the treatment it is
likely that you will achieve sustained response. – Reassurance, I can see that you look anxious and upset when talking about those voices – Acknowledgment of affect, You have
been through a lot. I am impressed at how you have hung in there and you must be a strong person – Statement of respect

Finish review


Common questions

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Reciprocal inhibition works by conditioning responses that are incompatible with the behavior being eliminated. For example, a child who fears dogs may be placed in proximity to a dog while receiving comforting stimuli, like sitting on a parent's lap and having ice cream, which counters the fear response and reduces anxiety over time .

In ICD-10, a depressive episode is classified as severe if psychotic symptoms are present. These symptoms indicate a significant severity level irrespective of the total symptom count and necessitate specific intervention strategies .

The clock drawing test assesses constructional dyspraxia, testing an individual's ability to organize visuospatial and motor skills into a coherent representation, such as drawing the face of a clock. It is used in neuropsychological assessments to detect deficits in these areas, often indicating broader cognitive impairments .

Semantic memory consists of general world knowledge accumulated over a lifetime, including facts and concepts. The best method to evaluate semantic memory is through object naming and describing their meanings, as these tasks directly engage the retrieval and use of factual information stored in semantic memory .

Procedural memory, a form of non-declarative (implicit) memory, involves skills and habits, such as riding a bicycle, which do not require conscious recall. In contrast, declarative memory (explicit) involves conscious recall of facts and experiences, subdivided into episodic and semantic memory .

Paranoid personality disorder involves pervasive distrust and suspicion of others, interpreting their motives as malevolent. Key features include unwarranted suspicion, preoccupation with doubts about loyalty, reluctance to confide in others, interpreting benign remarks as threatening, bearing grudges, and emotional detachment .

According to Freud's theory, a 4-year-old girl is in the phallic phase of psychosexual development, wherein she develops penis envy and a desire to possess her father, leading her to want to spend more time with him. This phase involves identifying with the mother as a resolution to these feelings, known as the Electra complex .

Authoritarian parenting can lead to low self-esteem and social withdrawal, as it involves imposing strict rules. Permissive parenting, characterized by a lack of limits, often results in poor impulse control and aggression. Neglectful parenting can cause poor self-esteem, impaired self-control, and increased aggression, while authoritative parenting, which combines firm rules with shared decision-making, fosters self-reliance and positive self-esteem by creating a warm, loving environment .

Operant conditioning, demonstrated in Skinner box experiments, involves learning in which behaviors are repeated based on associated consequences, such as a rat receiving food for pressing a lever. Classical conditioning, on the other hand, involves pairing a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus to trigger a conditioned response, without involving active decision-making or consequences .

The NEO Personality Inventory is suitable for measuring the Big Five personality traits because it is designed specifically to assess Extraversion, Agreeableness, Conscientiousness, Neuroticism, and Openness to Experience. This inventory comprehensively covers these dimensions, providing a reliable framework for understanding personality .

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