1. Radiophysics (X-ray, C-Arm, CT, MRI, ⚙ 2.

Types of Machines + Principle

Mammography)
Q6. X-ray production mainly occurs when:
Q1. Who discovered X-rays? A) Electrons collide with a magnetic field
A) Albert Einstein B) Electrons strike the anode target
B) Marie Curie C) Protons are split
C) Wilhelm Roentgen D) Gamma rays are absorbed
D) Thomas Edison Answer: B) Electrons strike the anode target
Answer: C) Wilhelm Roentgen
Q7. What is the principle of CT scan imaging?
Q2. What is the typical energy range used in diagnostic A) Sound reflection
X-rays? B) Magnetic field interaction
A) 10–30 keV C) X-ray attenuation and cross-sectional imaging
B) 30–150 keV D) Radio wave interference
C) 1–5 MeV Answer: C) X-ray attenuation and cross-sectional
D) 500–1000 keV imaging
Answer: B) 30–150 keV
Q8. MRI uses:
Q3. What does the C-arm machine primarily assist in? A) Ionizing radiation
A) Brain Surgery B) X-rays
B) Real-time imaging during surgeries C) Ultrasound
C) Dental Procedures D) Magnetic fields and radiofrequency
D) ECG Monitoring Answer: D) Magnetic fields and radiofrequency
Answer: B) Real-time imaging during surgeries
Q9. Fluoroscopy is mainly used for:
Q4. In MRI, which element's nuclei are most commonly A) Static imaging
used for imaging? B) 3D imaging
A) Oxygen C) Real-time dynamic imaging
B) Hydrogen D) Biopsy
C) Calcium Answer: C) Real-time dynamic imaging
D) Carbon
Answer: B) Hydrogen Q10. In a conventional X-ray machine, the tube current
is measured in:
Q5. What does “mammography” primarily screen for? A) Volts
A) Lung cancer B) Ohms
B) Breast cancer C) Milliamperes (mA)
C) Bone density D) Tesla
D) Liver diseases Answer: C) Milliamperes (Ma)
Answer: B) Breast cancer
 3. Anatomy + Positioning 📸 4. Films & Solutions

Q11. Which position is best for chest X-ray? Q16. Which chemical is used as the developer in X-ray
A) Supine film processing?
B) Lateral A) Acetic acid
C) Prone B) Hydroquinone
D) Posteroanterior (PA) C) Sodium carbonate
Answer: D) Posteroanterior (PA) D) Glutaraldehyde
Answer: B) Hydroquinone
Q12. Which view is best to visualize the sinuses?
A) Waters view Q17. The fixing agent in X-ray film processing is:
B) Lateral view A) Sodium carbonate
C) Oblique view B) Sodium thiosulfate
D) AP view C) Boric acid
Answer: A) Waters view D) Potassium bromide
Answer: B) Sodium thiosulfate
Q13. For an X-ray of the hand, the standard positioning
is: Q18. What is the function of acetic acid in film
A) PA and oblique processing?
B) Supine and lateral A) Developer
C) PA and AP B) Hardener
D) AP and axial C) Stop bath
Answer: A) PA and oblique D) Fixer
Answer: C) Stop bath
Q14. Which bone is commonly fractured and assessed
using the scaphoid view? Q19. A foggy film usually results from:
A) Tibia A) Cold developer
B) Scaphoid B) Underwashing
C) Femur C) Light leak in darkroom
D) Humerus D) Proper processing
Answer: B) Scaphoid Answer: C) Light leak in darkroom

Q15. A lateral decubitus position is typically used for: Q20. The hardener used in the fixer solution is:
A) Brain scan A) Hydroquinone
B) Air-fluid levels in abdomen B) Potassium alum
C) Spinal alignment C) Acetic acid
D) Skull fractures D) Sodium hydroxide
Answer: B) Air-fluid levels in abdomen Answer: B) Potassium alum

Q21. Screen film is most commonly used in:

A) MRI
B) CT
C) Conventional X-ray
D) Ultrasound
Answer: C) Conventional X-ray
Q22. The function of intensifying screens is to: Q28. Non-ionic contrast media is preferred because it:
A) Increase radiation dose A) Is cheaper
B) Protect the film B) Has higher osmolality
C) Convert X-rays to light C) Has fewer side effects
D) Make film waterproof D) Has better taste
Answer: C) Convert X-rays to light Answer: C) Has fewer side effects

Q23. Rare earth screens emit which light? Q29. Barium sulfate is used primarily in:
A) Blue A) Chest CT
B) Red B) GI tract imaging
C) Green C) Brain MRI
D) Yellow D) Doppler studies
Answer: C) Green Answer: B) GI tract imaging

Q24. What causes yellow stains on a processed film? Q30. A serious reaction to contrast media may cause:
A) Underexposure A) Sneezing
B) Improper drying B) Itching only
C) Incomplete fixing C) Anaphylactic shock
D) Excessive washing D) Fever
Answer: C) Incomplete fixing Answer: C) Anaphylactic shock

Q25. Which of the following is used to store unexposed Q31. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of
films? contrast media?
A) Darkroom safelight A) Nausea
B) Lead-lined box B) Vomiting
C) Refrigerator C) Bradycardia
D) Iron cabinet D) Hypoglycemia
Answer: B) Lead-lined box Answer: D) Hypoglycemia

Q32. Which route is commonly used for injecting

💉 5. Contrast Media contrast in IVP?
A) Intradermal
B) Intravenous
Q26. Iodinated contrast media is mainly used in:
C) Subcutaneous
A) MRI
D) Intra-arterial
B) CT scan
Answer: B) Intravenous
C) Ultrasound
D) ECG
Q33. What should be done before giving contrast to a
Aswer: B) CT scan
patient with renal disease?
A) Give high dose
Q27. Which contrast is used in MRI?
B) Avoid hydration
A) Iodine
C) Check serum creatinine
B) Barium
D) Increase fluid intake post-exam
C) Gadolinium
Answer: C) Check serum creatinine
D) Air
Answer: C) Gadolinium
Q34. Which test is done before using contrast in allergic Q40. What is the annual occupational radiation dose
patients? limit?
A) Blood sugar A) 5 mSv
B) Skin test B) 50 mSv
C) Chest X-ray C) 100 mSv
D) Blood pressure D) 200 mSv
Answer: B) Skin test Answer: B) 50 mSv

Q35. Gadolinium is: Q41. Pregnant radiographers should avoid exposure

A) Nephrotoxic especially in:
B) Magnetic A) First trimester
C) Radiopaque B) Second trimester
D) Radioactive C) Third trimester
Answer: B) Magnetic D) Delivery
Answer: A) First trimester

☢ 6. Radiation Hazards & Protection Q42. The protective barrier in the X-ray room is called:
A) Grid
B) Wall
Q36. SI unit of radiation dose is:
C) Lead shield
A) Roentgen
D) Collimator
B) Gray
Answer: C) Lead shield
C) Sievert
D) Becquerel
Q43. The term ALARA stands for:
Answer: C) Sievert
A) As Low As Reasonably Achievable
B) Always Lead And Radiation Alarm
Q37. Which organ is most sensitive to radiation?
C) All Levels Are Radiated Around
A) Bone
D) Accurate Level As Radiated Application
B) Skin
Answer: A) As Low As Reasonably Achievable
C) Gonads
D) Liver
Q44. Which of these is used to detect radiation
Answer: C) Gonads
exposure over time?
A) CT scanner
Q38. The radiation badge is worn at:
B) Dosimeter
A) Waist
C) PACS
B) Back
D) MRI
C) Chest level
Answer: B) Dosimeter
D) Foot
Answer: C) Chest level
Q45. Protective lead apron should have minimum lead
equivalent of:
Q39. Which shielding material is used for protection
A) 0.1 mm
from X-rays?
B) 0.25 mm
A) Steel
C) 0.5 mm
B) Glass
D) 1 mm
C) Lead
Answer: C) 0.5 mm
D) Aluminum
Answer: C) Lead
💻 7. Digital Radiography / PACS / C-Arm Q67. What does DICOM stand for?
A) Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine
B) Direct Imaging and Camera Output Method
Q61. What does PACS stand for?
C) Digital Imaging and Calculation Mechanism
A) Picture Archiving and Communication System
D) Data Interface for Clinical Observations in Medicine
B) Patient Access Control System
Answer: A) Digital Imaging and Communication in
C) Portable Access Computer Software
Medicine
D) Pulse and Cardiac System
Answer: A) Picture Archiving and Communication
Q68. CR stands for:
System
A) Clinical Radiography
B) Computed Radiography
Q62. Digital radiography primarily uses:
C) Conventional Radiograph
A) Films
D) Cold Radiator
B) Plates and cassettes
Answer: B) Computed Radiography
C) Detectors and computers
D) Optical fibers
Q69. C-Arm movement is mainly in which direction?
Answer: C) Detectors and computers
A) Lateral and Vertical
B) Forward only
Q63. The main advantage of PACS is:
C) Horizontal only
A) Physical storage
D) Rotational only
B) Data encryption
Answer: A) Lateral and Vertical
C) Quick access and sharing of images
D) Image distortion
Q70. Exposure in digital radiography is measured by:
Answer: C) Quick access and sharing of images
A) Temperature
B) Voltage
Q64. Which detector is used in digital radiography?
C) Exposure Index (EI)
A) CCD
D) Time
B) CR cassette
Answer: C) Exposure Index (EI)
C) DR panel
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q71. Image noise in digital X-rays is caused by:
A) High mA
Q65. C-Arm is most commonly used in:
B) Low signal
A) ENT surgery
C) Increased SID
B) Orthopedic surgery
D) Proper contrast
C) Dental procedures
Answer: B) Low signal
D) Colonoscopy
Answer: B) Orthopedic surgery
Q72. Which software is used to view and manage digital
radiographs?
A) Excel
Q66. What is the benefit of Flat Panel Detectors (FPD)
B) Photoshop
over conventional film?
C) PACS viewer
A) Lower cost
D) Notepad
B) Slower processing
Answer: C) PACS viewer
C) Immediate image display
D) Larger size
Answer: C) Immediate image display
Q73. In digital systems, artifacts can occur due to: Q79. Hounsfield units are used in:
A) Dust A) MRI
B) Software errors B) Ultrasound
C) Detector malfunction C) CT Scan
D) All of the above D) Radiotherapy
Answer: D) All of the above Answer: C) CT Scan

Q74. Which is faster: DR or CR? Q80. Radiotherapy is mainly used to treat:

A) CR A) Fractures
B) DR B) Infections
Answer: B) DR C) Tumors
D) Blood disorders
Q75. The C-Arm produces: Answer: C) Tumors
A) Static images only
B) Real-time fluoroscopic images Q81. Lithotripsy is used for:
C) Ultrasound images A) Brain tumors
D) MRI images B) Bone healing
Answer: B) Real-time fluoroscopic images C) Kidney stones
D) Skin treatment
Answer: C) Kidney stones

Q82. Which imaging does not use ionizing radiation?

🧠 8. CT / MRI / Radiotherapy / A) X-ray
Lithotripsy B) CT
C) MRI
Q76. CT stands for: D) PET
A) Complete Tomography Answer: C) MRI
B) Computed Tomography
C) Cranial Tomography Q83. Which gas is used in MRI cooling system?
D) Continuous Therapy A) Helium
Answer: B) Computed Tomography B) Nitrogen
C) Oxygen
Q77. The basic unit of CT image is: D) Neon
A) Voxel Answer: A) Helium
B) Pixel
C) Slice Q84. CT scan rotation involves:
D) Cell A) Static imaging
Answer: A) Voxel B) Rotating X-ray source and detectors
C) Film movement
Q78. MRI is contraindicated in patients with: D) Fluoroscopic screen
A) Hearing aids Answer: B) Rotating X-ray source and detectors
B) Pacemakers
C) Dental fillings
D) Braces
Answer: B) Pacemakers
Q85. What does "slice thickness" affect in CT scan? 🛠 10. Equipment Maintenance & Record
A) Radiation dose
B) Image contrast
Keeping
C) Resolution
D) All of the above Q91. Regular maintenance of X-ray equipment helps in:
Answer: D) All of the above A) Increased radiation
B) Decreasing image quality
C) Reducing downtime and errors
D) Slowing workflow
🚮 9. Biomedical Waste Management Answer: C) Reducing downtime and errors

Q86. Which color bag is used for disposing of human Q92. Quality control (QC) in radiology ensures:
anatomical waste? A) Low patient safety
A) Red B) Accurate and consistent imaging
B) Yellow C) Frequent retakes
C) Black D) Equipment damage
D) Blue Answer: B) Accurate and consistent imaging
Answer: B) Yellow
Q93. Preventive maintenance is usually performed:
Q87. Blue color bag is used for: A) Daily
A) Infected linen B) Weekly
B) Sharps and glassware C) Monthly or quarterly
C) Expired drugs D) Annually
D) Soiled dressing Answer: C) Monthly or quarterly
Answer: B) Sharps and glassware
Q94. Which record is maintained for machine
Q88. Syringes with fixed needles go in: breakdown?
A) Red bag A) Cleaning record
B) Blue bag B) Downtime log
C) White puncture-proof container C) Requisition book
D) Yellow bag D) Film register
Answer: C) White puncture-proof container Answer: B) Downtime log

Q89. Biomedical waste should be treated within: Q95. Which log helps track usage of contrast media?
A) 24 hours A) X-ray register
B) 48 hours B) Maintenance log
C) 72 hours C) Contrast usage log
D) 1 week D) Inventory sheet
Answer: A) 24 hours Answer: C) Contrast usage log

Q90. The symbol of biohazard includes: Q96. Which form tracks the number of X-rays taken?
A) Three interlocking circles A) PACS log
B) Triangle with skull B) X-ray procedure register
C) Red star C) Radiologist duty log
D) Green tree D) Breakdown record
Answer: A) Threes interlocking circle Answer: B) X-ray procedure register
Q97. Film rejection analysis is useful for: Q103. PACS downtime should be recorded in:
A) Diagnosing diseases A) Downtime register
B) Identifying technical errors B) PACS image folder
C) Improving patient condition C) Printer
D) Preventing PACS failure D) Duty schedule
Answer: B) Identifying technical errors Answer: A) Downtime register

Q98. A record of radiation exposure to staff is called: Q104. Film usage can be tracked using:
A) Billing record A) Inventory record
B) Dose report B) Bedside notes
C) TLD log C) Nursing report
D) Patient summary D) Laundry register
Answer: C) TLD log Answer: A) Inventory record

Q99. What is the main document to authorize Q105. What is required for radiology audits?
radiographic tests? A) Only cleaning schedules
A) Duty roster B) Only technician salary
B) Doctor's requisition form C) Complete equipment and patient record
C) Maintenance chart D) MRI hardware only
D) PACS report Answer: C) Complete equipment and patient record
Answer: B) Doctor's requisition form
🎯 11. High-Yield & Mixed Previous Year
Q100. The responsibility to maintain radiographic
records lies with:
Q106. Grids are used in radiography to:
A) Surgeon
A) Increase radiation dose
B) Radiologist
B) Decrease image clarity
C) X-ray technician
C) Reduce scatter radiation
D) Pharmacist
D) Improve PACS
Answer: C) X-ray technician
Answer: C) Reduce scatter radiation

Q107. Which device measures the amount of radiation

Q101. Calibration of equipment ensures:
received?
A) Inaccuracy
A) Radiometer
B) Overheating
B) Thermometer
C) Proper functioning
C) Dosimeter (TLD Badge)
D) Delay in imaging
D) Photometer
Answer: C) Proper functioning
Answer: C) Dosimeter (TLD Badge)

Q102. Which document includes patient consent?

Q108. Which is not a feature of modern X-ray
A) Radiation log
machines?
B) Maintenance form
A) Automatic exposure control
C) Informed consent form
B) Manual film washing
D) X-ray register
C) Digital display
Answer: C) Informed consent form
D) DR detector
Answer: B) Manual film washing
Q109. Maximum permissible dose for general public per Q115. What does SID stand for?
year is: A) Standard Imaging Dose
A) 50 mSv B) Source to Image Distance
B) 5 mSv C) Signal in Detector
C) 1 mSv D) Speed Index Digit
D) 20 mSv Answer: B) Source to Image Distance
Answer: C) 1 mSv
Q116. ALARA principle promotes:
Q110. The primary factor controlling image contrast in A) No exposure
radiography is: B) Low radiation without compromising image
A) mA C) Frequent exposure
B) kVp D) Increasing voltage
C) Time Answer: B) Low radiation without compromising image
D) SID
Answer: B) kVp Q117. Before performing X-ray, the technician should:
A) Take payment
Q111. Intensifying screens are used in: B) Check machine oil
A) CT C) Verify patient identity and request form
B) Digital X-ray D) Sharpen pencils
C) Conventional radiography Answer: C) Verify patient identity and request form
D) MRI
Answer: C) Conventional radiography Q118. The full form of IVP is:
A) Intravenous Position
Q112. The most common cause of blurred X-ray image B) Intravenous Pyelogram
is: C) Internal Vertebral Procedure
A) Overexposure D) Interstitial Volume Pressure
B) Patient motion Answer: B) Intravenous Pyelogram
C) Underwashing
D) High contrast Q119. For chest X-ray, best phase of respiration is:
Answer: B) Patient motion A) Normal
B) Deep expiration
Q113. CR plate is scanned by: C) Deep inspiration
A) LED D) Forced expiration
B) Laser Answer: C) Deep inspiration
C) X-ray beam
D) Camera Q120. Which radiological investigation gives the highest
Answer: B) Laser dose?
A) Chest X-ray
Q114. Which controls quantity of X-rays? B) MRI
A) kVp C) CT abdomen
B) Time D) Ultrasound
C) mA Answer: C) CT abdomen
D) SID
Answer: C) mA
⚕ 12. Scenario-Based & Repeated MCQs Q126. X-ray of a hand is requested for a child with pain.
What positioning is ideal?
A) AP
Q121. A patient with suspected bowel perforation
B) PA
needs which contrast?
C) Oblique
A) Barium
D) PA + Oblique
B) Gadolinium
Answer: D) PA + Oblique
C) Water
D) Non-ionic iodine contrast
Q127. The patient complains of warmth after contrast
Answer: D) Non-ionic iodine contrast
injection. What should the technician do?
A) Stop injection
Q122. You notice motion blur in an abdominal X-ray.
B) Reassure the patient
The likely cause is:
C) Administer oxygen
A) High kVp
D) Inject saline
B) Long exposure time
Answer: B) Reassure the patient
C) High SID
D) Low mA
Q128. In which procedure is fluoroscopy always used?
Answer: B) Long exposure time
A) MRI
B) IVP
Q123. During a barium meal study, the patient
C) CT
aspirates. What should be done immediately?
D) Ultrasound
A) Continue study
Answer: B) IVP
B) Call radiologist
C) Stop the procedure and notify doctor
Q129. Which of the following is critical in pediatric
D) Start IV injection
radiography?
Answer: C) Stop the procedure and notify doctor
A) Long exposure time
B) High mA
Q124. An unconscious trauma patient arrives. Which
C) Immobilization
imaging is done first?
D) Non-use of grids
A) MRI
Answer: C) Immobilization
B) Chest X-ray
C) PET scan
Q130. X-ray request mentions “erect abdomen.” Which
D) Ultrasound
view is preferred?
Answer: B) Chest X-ray
A) AP Supine
B) Lateral
Q125. You see double exposure on a film. What could
C) AP Erect
be the cause?
D) Oblique
A) Faulty cassette
Answer: C) AP Erect
B) Reuse of exposed film
C) Underdevelopment
Q131. Which method reduces patient dose in
D) Light fog
fluoroscopy?
Answer: B) Reuse of exposed film
A) Increase mA
B) Use of pulsed fluoroscopy
C) Use grid
D) Increase SID
Answer: B) Use of pulsed fluoroscopy
Q132. A black crescent artifact appears on CR image. Q138. Patient has a pacemaker. Which test is avoided?
Likely cause is: A) X-ray
A) Detector error B) CT
B) Improper erasure C) MRI
C) Static discharge D) IVP
D) Dust Answer: C) MRI
Answer: C) Static discharge
Q139. Portable X-ray should be taken with minimum
Q133. What is the first step if you suspect a contrast distance of:
reaction? A) 1 foot
A) Call for crash cart B) 3 feet
B) Start CPR C) 6 feet
C) Continue injection D) 12 feet
D) Ask patient to rest Answer: C) 6 feet
Answer: A) Call for crash cart
Q140. While doing mobile radiography in ICU, the
Q134. In trauma cases, cervical spine is checked with: technician must ensure:
A) MRI A) Power supply
B) CT B) Patient consent
C) Lateral X-ray C) Isolation precautions and shielding
D) Ultrasound D) Patient’s food intake
Answer: C) Lateral X-ray Answer: C) Isolation precautions and shielding

Q135. Before giving gadolinium, which lab test is

crucial? 🔍 13. Emergency Imaging & Radiology Logic
A) Hemoglobin
B) Liver function Q141. FAST scan is used in:
C) Renal function (Creatinine) A) Fracture detection
D) ESR B) Head trauma
Answer: C) Renal function (Creatinine) C) Abdominal trauma
D) Spinal cord injury
Answer: C) Abdominal trauma
Q136. A repeating artifact is seen on all DR images.
Likely cause? Q142. Which view is essential in trauma pelvis imaging?
A) Software bug A) PA
B) Dead pixel in detector B) Oblique
C) PACS error C) AP
D) Film fog D) Lateral
Answer: B) Dead pixel in detector Answer: C) AP

Q137. The purpose of lead shutters in the collimator is: Q143. Which contrast agent is safest in renal failure?
A) To control kVp A) Ionic iodine
B) To increase magnification B) Barium
C) To limit the beam to the area of interest C) Gadolinium
D) To focus the tube D) No contrast
Answer: C) To limit the beam to the area of interest Answer: D) No contrast
Q144. For a suspected pneumothorax, which is the Q150. Which modality is best in stroke diagnosis within
most sensitive X-ray position? first 1 hour?
A) PA erect A) MRI
B) AP supine B) CT
C) Lateral decubitus C) Ultrasound
D) Oblique D) Angiography
Answer: A) PA erect Answer: B) CT

Q145. Trauma to which part can cause airway Q151. ECG leads must be:
compromise and needs lateral neck X-ray? A) Left during X-ray
A) Mandible B) Removed during CT
B) Larynx C) Radio-opaque
C) Clavicle D) Properly positioned to avoid artifact
D) Spine Answer: D) Properly positioned to avoid artifact
Answer: B) Larynx
Q152. Which of these is least radiation dose?
A) Chest CT
Q146. What to do if a pregnant woman needs a chest X- B) Skull X-ray
ray? C) Mammography
A) Avoid X-ray D) PET scan
B) Perform without protection Answer: C) Mammography
C) Use abdominal shielding
D) Deny procedure Q153. Which view shows a pleural effusion better?
Answer: C) Use abdominal shielding A) Supine
B) Erect
Q147. What indicates pneumoperitoneum on X-ray? C) Lateral decubitus
A) Gas in stomach D) Oblique
B) Free air under diaphragm Answer: C) Lateral decubitus
C) Dilated bowel
D) Air-fluid level Q154. Emergency contrast reaction kit must contain:
Answer: B) Free air under diaphragm A) Water
B) Syringes and adrenaline
Q148. The Glasgow Coma Scale is useful for: C) Glucose powder
A) Contrast selection D) Film badges
B) Radiation dose Answer: B) Syringes and adrenaline
C) Head injury assessment
D) Radiotherapy planning Q155. In suspected kidney stone, best imaging is:
Answer: C) Head injury assessment A) MRI
B) X-ray
Q149. CT scan of spine is best for: C) NCCT (Non-contrast CT)
A) Soft tissue D) IVP
B) Ligaments Answer: C) NCCT
C) Bony fracture
D) Tumors
Answer: C) Bony fracture
Q156. Emergency X-ray is requested for newborn. What 🧠 14. Tricky Repeats & Logic-Based MCQs
should be avoided?
A) Shielding
Q161. The “bull's eye” appearance is seen in which
B) Immobilization
imaging?
C) High kVp
A) CT brain
D) Excessive repeat exposures
B) MRI liver (hemangioma)
Answer: D) Excessive repeat exposures
C) Barium enema
D) IVP
Q157. Golden hour in trauma refers to:
Answer: B) MRI liver (hemangioma)
A) Time to give IV contrast
B) First 60 minutes after injury
Q162. The lead apron should be stored:
C) Time before operation
A) Folded
D) Waiting time in ER
B) Hung vertically
Answer: B) First 60 minutes after injury
C) Kept under heavy objects
D) Rolled tightly
Q158. Which of the following is not an emergency
Answer: B) Hung vertically
radiology case?
A) Pneumothorax
Q163. The photo-timer is part of which system?
B) Stroke
A) PACS
C) Hernia
B) AEC (Automatic Exposure Control)
D) Fracture
C) CR
Answer: C) Hernia
D) DR
Answer: B) AEC (Automatic Exposure Control)
Q159. A patient falls in MRI room. First step is:
A) Move patient toward magnet
Q164. Which of the following increases patient dose?
B) Run from room
A) Collimation
C) Call code blue and remove patient safely from
B) Use of grid
magnetic field
C) Low mA
D) Switch off MRI
D) High kVp
Answer: C) Call code blue and remove patient safely
Answer: B) Use of grid
from magnetic field
Q165. If you increase kVp and reduce mAs, what
Q160. CPR in radiology department should be started
happens to image?
by:
A) High contrast
A) Waiting for doctor
B) High noise
B) Only radiologist
C) Lower patient dose
C) Any trained staff immediately
D) None
D) Only code team
Answer: C) Lower patient dose
Answer: C) Any trained staff immediately

Q166. The radiolucent area on X-ray appears:

A) White
B) Black
C) Grey
D) Yellow
Answer: B) Black
Q167. Penumbra in X-ray refers to: Q173. Why do we use the left lateral decubitus view in
A) Image brightness abdomen?
B) Shadow blur around the image A) Better bowel loops
C) Digital noise B) Liver acts as a background for free air
D) Grid line C) Kidney visibility
Answer: B) Shadow blur around the image D) To relax patient
Answer: B) Liver acts as a background for free air
Q168. What is the result of short SID?
A) Better resolution Q174. TLD badge is replaced:
B) Increased magnification A) Weekly
C) Low contrast B) Monthly or quarterly
D) Reduced exposure C) Daily
Answer: B) Increased magnification D) Only when damaged
Answer: B) Monthly or quarterly
Q169. Which of the following shows up white on an X-
ray? Q175. Which of these causes ghost images in CR?
A) Air A) Film overlap
B) Fat B) Incomplete erasure
C) Metal C) Low mA
D) Skin D) High kVp
Answer: C) Metal Answer: B) Incomplete erasure

Q170. X-rays are: Q176. The field of view in CT means:

A) Electromagnetic waves A) Slice thickness
B) Sound waves B) Amount of body area imaged
C) Mechanical energy C) Dose
D) Chemical rays D) Software quality
Answer: A) Electromagnetic waves Answer: B) Amount of body area imaged

Q171. Digital X-rays are superior because they offer:

A) Less detail Q177. MRI safe metals include:
B) Slower speed A) Stainless steel
C) Easy image enhancement and storage B) Aluminum
D) Lower image quality C) Copper
Answer: C) Easy image enhancement and storage D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q172. When grid is removed, what happens?
A) Image becomes darker Q178. A high contrast X-ray is achieved by:
B) Image gets more scatter A) Low kVp
C) Dose increases B) High mA
D) Contrast improves C) High SID
Answer: B) Image gets more scatter D) Low grid ratio
Answer: A) Low kVp
Q179. In a lateral skull X-ray, which side of the head is Q185. The inverse square law applies to:
placed near the cassette? A) Film contrast
A) Right B) Image sharpness
B) Left C) Radiation intensity with distance
C) Either side D) TLD badge usage
D) Back Answer: C) Radiation intensity with distance
Answer: C) Either side (based on indication)
Q186. Radiopaque substances appear:
Q180. Which imaging is used to assess bony integrity in A) Black
the spine? B) White
A) Ultrasound C) Gray
B) CT D) Transparent
C) MRI Answer: B) White
D) PET
Answer: B) CT Q187. A digital artifact seen due to patient motion is:
A) Ring
15. Mock-Test Style MCQs B) Blur
C) Stripe
Q181. Which machine uses piezoelectric crystals? D) None
A) X-ray Answer: B) Blur
B) CT
C) Ultrasound Q188. The window level in CT controls:
D) MRI A) Brightness
Answe: C) Ultrasound B) Contrast
C) Dose
Q182. PACS image storage duration depends on: D) Exposure
A) Film quality Answer: A) Brightness
B) Hospital policy and law
C) Machine voltage Q189. Hounsfield Unit of water is:
D) Lead shield A) 100
Answer: B) Hospital policy and law B) 0
C) -1000
Q183. What is used to clean CR plates? D) 500
A) Water Answer: B) 0
B) Alcohol
C) Manufacturer-supplied wipes Q190. In PACS, the smallest storable unit of image is:
D) Cotton A) Pixel
Answer: C) Manufacturer-supplied wipes B) Byte
C) Voxel
Q184. During a skull X-ray, which positioning line is D) Slice
used? Answer: A) Pixel
A) OML (Orbitomeatal line)
B) AML
C) IPL
D) MML
Answer: A) OML
Q191. The first radiograph in history was of: Q197. Maximum penetration of X-rays occurs at:
A) Skull A) High mA
B) Hand B) Long time
C) Spine C) High kVp
D) Chest D) Low SID
Answer: B) Hand Answer: C) High kVp

Q192. Proper cassette orientation in CR avoids: Q198. Barium is contraindicated in:

A) Ghost images A) Swallowing difficulty
B) Artifacts B) Constipation
C) Exposure errors C) Suspected perforation
D) All of the above D) GERD
Answer: D) All of the above Answer: C) Suspected perforation

Q193. The main component of fixer that clears Q199. What is used to record image in CR system?
unexposed silver halide is: A) Silver film
A) Acetic acid B) Phosphor plate
B) Sodium thiosulfate C) Dry film
C) Potassium bromide D) Carbon sheet
D) Hypo solution Answer: B) Phosphor plate
Answer: B) Sodium thiosulfate
Q200. The mnemonic ALARA is related to:
Q194. Radiographic density is controlled mainly by: A) Disease diagnosis
A) kVp B) Patient communication
B) mAs C) Radiation safety
C) SID D) Contrast selection
D) OID Answer: C) Radiation safety
Answer: B) mAs

Q195. A radiograph with excessive blackness indicates:

A) Underexposure
B) Proper exposure
C) Overexposure
D) Improper positioning
Answer: C) Overexposure

Q196. Image sharpness can be improved by:

A) Increasing OID
B) Decreasing SID
C) Using small focal spot
D) Using low mA
Answer: C) Using small focal spot