CVS 122/ (2025)

Question Bank

1. After birth, the umbilical vein will be obliterated and fibrosed forming which of
the following ligaments?
a) Ligamentum venosum
b) Ligamentum arteriosus
c) Ligamentum teres hepatis
d) Medial umbilical ligament

2. Nonunion of two sternal plates of developing sternum, leads to which of the

following heart congenital anomalis?
a) Dextrocardia
b) Situs inversus totalis
c) Ectopia cordis
d) Fallot’s tetralogy

3. Persistent truncus arteriosus occurs due to which of the following embryological

causes?
a) Non-spiral development of aorticopulmonary septum
b) Aorticopulmonary septum fails to develop
c) Spiral development of aorticopulmonary septum
d) Unequal division of aorticopulmonary septum

4. Which of the following nerves traverse both superior and middle mediastinum?
a) Vagas nerves
b) Phrenic nerves
c) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
d) Esophageal nerve plexus

5. Trachea ends by dividing into two main bronchi in which of the following
mediastinal divisions?
e) Superior mediastinum
f) Anterior mediastinum
g) Middle mediastinum
h) Inferior mediastinum

6. Which of the following is true anatomical describtion of posterior mediastinum?

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a) Contain Arch of aorta with its 3 major branches

b) Phernic nerve and pericardiphernic vessles traverse it
c) Sypmathetic trunks traverse it and give splanchnic branches
d) IVC traverse it to reach right atrium

7. Which of the following anatomical landmarks is considered the possterior lower

limit of superior mediastinal?
e) Disc between thoracic vertebra T2-T3
f) Disc between thoracic vertebra T4-T5
g) Disc between thoracic vertebra T6-T7
h) Disc between thoracic vertebra T8-T9

[Link] sinus which is the principal vein of the heart located in which heart
grooves?
a) Anterior interventricular groove
b) Posterior interventricular groove
c) Right part of atrioventricular groove
d) Posterior part of atrioventricular groove

[Link] of the following internal features of the heart prevent over distention of the
heart?

a. Right papillary muscles

b. Chorda tendineae
c. Crista terminalis
d. Moderator band

[Link] limbus (Annulus)of fossa ovalis is located at which of the following

a- Left side of interatrial septum.
b- Right side of interatrial septum
c- Right side of interventricular septum
d- Anterior wall of right atrium
[Link] valve of fossa ovalis is located in which of the following

a- Right side of interatrial septum.

b- Right side of interventricular septum
c- left side of interatrial septum
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d- Anterior wall of right atrium

[Link] part of left ventricle is which of the following:

a- called vestibule and leads to opening of pulmonary trunk

b- called vestibule and leads to opening of aorta
c- called infundibulum and leads to opening of aorta
d- called infundibulum and leads to opening of pulmonary trunk
[Link] of the following is a character of papillary muscles?
a- present in both atria and ventricles
b- attached by their apex to the cusps
c- attached by their bases to the cusps
d- They are three in left side and two in right side

[Link] fibrous pericardium is anchor inferiorly to the diaphragm via:

A. Sternal ligament
B. Pericardiacophrenic ligament
C. Pulmonary ligament
D. Central tendon of the diaphragm
E. Costo diaphragmatic recess

[Link] pericardial sinus lies between the posterior surface of the ascending aorta and pulmonary
trunk and the anterior surface of the superior vena cava?
A. Transverse sinus
B. Oblique sinus
C. Cardiac sinus
D. Atrioventricular groove
E. Pericardial reflection

16.A 23-year-old man is stabbed in a bar fight. The blade of the knife enters his chest in the left 5th
intercostal space, just lateral to the sternum, and pierces to a depth of approximately 4 cm. What structure
is most likely damaged?
(A) Left lung

(B) Pulmonary trunk

(C) Left bronchus

(D) Stomach

(E) Pericardium
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[Link] pericardial recess lies posterior to the left atrium?

A. Transverse sinus
B. Oblique sinus
C. Postcaval recess
D. Coronary sinus.

18. Which of the following layers of the pericardium is NOT sensitive to pain?
A. Visceral layer of serous pericardium
B. Fibrous pericardium
C. Endocardium
D. Myocardium

19. A 60-year-old man with pericardial effusion undergoes pericardiocentesis. The needle is inserted at the
left xiphocostal angle. Which cardiac chamber is most at risk of injury?
A. Right atrium
B. Left atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Left ventricle
E. Coronary sinus

[Link] birth, closure of the foramen ovale is mainly due to:

A. Fusion of endocardial cushions
B. Pressure increase in the left atrium
C. Disappearance of septum primum
D. Growth of septum secundum

1. Thevessels have the character of compliance and elastic recoil are……:

a) Arteries.
b) Arterioles.
c) Capillaries.
d) Veins.
2. The contractile property of cardiac muscle is characterized by………….:
a) Obeys all or none law.
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b) Starts at the same time of electric excitation.

c) Cardiac muscle can be tetanized.
d) Adrenaline and noradrenaline have negative inotropic effect.

3. The cardiac output is defined as………:

a) The combined blood volumes pumped by both ventricles/ minutes.
b) The combined blood volumes pumped by both ventricles/ beats.
c) The blood volume pumped by each ventricle/beat.
d) The blood volume pumped by each ventricle/ minute.

4. The volume of the ventricle at the end of diastole is known as………:

a) Stroke volume.
b) Cardiac output.
c) End systolic volume.
d) End diastolic volume.
5. When the cardiac output of a 50-year-old man at rest is 6000 mL / minute, HR is 75
beat/minute and left ventricular end-diastolic volume is 120 ml. the ejection fraction
equals……….:
a) 35 %.
b) 50 %.
c) 66 %.
d) 75 %.

6. An increased discharge of impulses from the arterial baroreceptors leads to:

a) Inhibition of vasoconstrictor center.
b) Inhibition of cardioinhibitory center (CIC).
c) An increase in the secretion of aldosterone hormone.
d) An increase in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
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7. Which is correct regarding volume receptors regulating arterial blood pressure?

a) It is present in the wall of the aorta and carotid artery
b) Stimulated by increased central venous pressure
c) Its impulses are carried along glossopharyngeal nerve
d) Its stimulation will stimulate pressor area of cardiovascular centers

8. Cushing reflex is caused by………….:

a) Decrease of arterial blood pressure
b) Increase intracranial pressure
c) Hypotension
d) Tachycardia

9. Regarding coronary circulation, the correct statement is:

a) Coronary arteries have a great anastomosis
b) Coronary capillaries are one capillary for each muscle fiber
c) Coronary arterial oxygen is 15 ml\ 100 ml blood
d) Oxygen extraction by the cardiac muscle is low
10. Coronary blood flow to the left ventricle increases during………:
a) Early systole.
b) Myocardial hypoxia.
c) Hypocapnia
d) Parasympathetic stimulation to the heart.
11. The mechanism by which hypoxia causes coronary vasodilatation is:
a) Increase CO2 level
b) Decrease Hydrogen level
c) Nervous effect
d) Release of adenosine
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12. The chemical substance that causes pulmonary vasodilatation is:

a) Catecholamines
b) Serotonin
c) Histamine
d) acetylcholine
13. The plateau phase (phase 2) of the cardiac action potential is primarily due to:
a) Influx of sodium
b) Efflux of potassium
c) Influx of calcium and efflux of potassium
d) Influx of chloride

14. The first heart sound coincides with which of the following phases of cardiac cycle?
a) Isometric contraction phase.
b) Isometric relaxation phase.
c) Maximum ejection phase.
d) Reduced ejection phase.
15. What is the normal systolic and diastolic blood pressure for a newborn?
a) 90/60 mmHg
b) 120/80 mmHg
c) 80/40 mmHg
d) 150/90 mmHg
16. Why does arterial blood pressure typically increase with age?
a) Increase in blood volume
b) Decrease in heart rate
c) Decrease in elasticity of arteries
d) Increase in body temperature
17. What is the main difference between the blood pressure of a newborn and a 20-year-old
adult?
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a) Newborns have higher blood pressure.

b) Newborns have lower blood pressure due to higher vessel elasticity.
c) Adults have lower blood pressure due to stronger heart muscle.
d) Blood pressure is the same in both.
18. During which of the following conditions is arterial blood pressure normally lowest?
a) Physical exercise
b) Stress
c) Deep sleep
d) Anxiety
19. Which characteristic is seen in a first-degree AV block?
a) Dropped QRS complex
b) Normal P-R interval
c) Prolonged P-R interval with all impulses conducted
d) Inverted P wave
20. Plasma oncotic pressure is about……….:
a) 25 mmHg.
b) 3 mmHg.
c) 35 mmHg.
d) 15mmHg.
21. Which of the following statements is TRUE about third-degree AV block?
a) All impulses from the SA node reach the ventricles
b) Ventricular rhythm is controlled by the SA node
c) Atria and ventricles beat independently
d) ECG shows no QRS complexes
22. Which heart block can be detected by auscultation due to dropped beats?
a) First-degree AV block
b) Sino-atrial block
c) Second-degree AV block
d) Complete AV block
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Complete the following:

1. The mechanism by which angiotensin II increases arterial blood pressure is: (1.5 marks)
a. ……………………
b. …………………..
c. ……………………..
answer:
a. V.C
b. Increase aldosterone hormone
Stimulate ADH release

1. A teenage boy presents with moderate to sever epigastric pain. Blood

sample shows milky plasma, with triacylglycerol level in excess of
2000mg/dl (normal is upto 150 mg/dl). Which of the following is the most
likely lipoprotein to be elevated in this patient’s plasma?
a) Chylomicrons.
b) VLDL.
c) LDL
d) IDL.
2. In chylomicrons and VLDL, apoprotein C-II acts as:
a. Cofactor for Lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase enzyme.
b. Inhibitor for Lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase enzyme.
c. Cofactor for Lipoprotein lipase enzyme.
d. Inhibitor for Lipoprotein lipase enzyme.

3. The receptors for LDL particles:

a. Recognize apo B-100 only.
b. Have low affinity for LDL.
c. Recognize both apo B-100 and apo E.
d. Are not specific.
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4. The the regulatory enzyme in cholesterol synthesis is:

a. HMG-CoA synthase
b. HMG- CoA reductase
c. Lansterol oxidase
d. Cholesterol synthase

5. In cholesterol biosynthesis, which of the following is regarded as the precursor

molecule:
a. Acetyl CoA
b. Acyl CoA
c. Methyl CoA
d. Glutaryl CoA

6. Which of the following lipoprotein particles have the function of reverse

cholesterol (centripetal) transport?
a. Very low density lipoproteins.
b. Low density lipoproteins.
c. High density lipoproteins.
d. Chylomicrons.

7. A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow obese. Which
of the following lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his blood?
a. Chylomicrons
b. VLDL
c. LDL
d. HDL

8. The scavenger receptors A …………….:

a. uptake normal LDL .
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b. uptake modified LDL

c. Are downregulted when cholesterol is in excess.
d. Are specific

9. Lpa increases the risk of coronary artery diseases because it :

a. prevents fibrinolysis
b. Activates fibrinolysis
c. Similar to plasminogen activator
d. Similar to plasminogen inhibitor

10. The …………….has a protective role against atherosclerosis:

a. LDL
b. HDL
c. VLDL
d. CHYLOMICRONS

11. Which of the following are the Integral proteins?

a. ApoA, ApoB-100, ApoB-48

b. ApoC, ApoB-100, Apo48.
c. ApoA, ApoE, ApoB-48.
d. ApoC, ApoE

Rheumatic fever is primarily characterized by :

A. Bacterial invasion of tissues
B. Viral infection
C. Inflammatory and degenerative changes in connective tissue
D. Autoimmune disease
2. The pathogenesis of rheumatic fever is thought to be primarily:
A. Direct bacterial invasion of tissues
B. Cross-reactivity between streptococcal antigens and host tissues
C. Immune complex formation in the bloodstream
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D. Infection of the heart valves by streptococci

3. Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor for rheumatic fever?
A. Hereditary predisposition
B. Poor living conditions
C. Bacterial infection
D. Overcrowding

[Link] of the following is a major manifestation of rheumatic fever?

A. Elevated blood levels of acute phase reactants
B. Fever
C. Migratory arthritis of large joints
D. Antistreptolysin O titre
E. Sydenham chorea
5. Aschoff's bodies, seen in rheumatic fever, are characterized by:
A. Central fibrinoid degeneration surrounded by lymphocytes, plasma cells,
and histiocytes
B. Central calcification with peripheral fibrosis
C. Central necrosis with surrounding neutrophils
D. Central lipid accumulation with peripheral inflammation
6. Which of the following is NOT a major manifestation of rheumatic fever?
A. Migratory arthritis of large joints
B. Carditis
C. Subcutaneos nodules
D. Fever
7. Which of the following is a complication of rheumatic fever?
A. Migraine headaches
B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Asthma

8. which of the following is correct regarding rheumatic fever:

A- It is common in adult.
B- It follows infection by staphylococci.
C- It has only cardiac manifestations.
D-All layers of heart are affected.
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E-Decreased blood levels of acute phase reactants

9. All of the following are extracardiec manifestations of Rheumatic fever

except
A-Erythema marginatum
B-Rheumatic chorea
C-Fleeting arthritis
D-Fibrinous pericarditis
E-Rheumatic arteritis

[Link] of the following describe Vegetations ?

A. Thrombi formed of red blood cells only.
B. Non detachable thrombi.
C. Fragmented thrombi.
D. Thrombi formed of platelets and fibrin.
2. Perforation of the valve is a complication of which of the following?
A. Acute bacterial endocarditis.
B. Libman-sacks endocarditis.
C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis.
D. Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis.
3. Libman-Sacks endocarditis occurs in which one of the following?
A. Rheumatic fever.
B. Rheumatoid arthritis.
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus.
D. Systemic sclerosis.
4. Which of the following endocarditis associated with malignant tumors?
A. Rheumatic fever.
B. Bacterial endocarditis.
C. Libman-sacks endocarditis.
D. Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis.

5. Which of the following is an infective vegetation?

A. Rheumatic vegetation.
B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis.
C. Libman-sacks endocarditis.
D. Carcinoid heart disease.
6. Which of the following is complicated by pyaemic abscess formation?
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A. Carcinoid syndrome.
B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis.
C. Libman-sacks endocarditis.
D. Acute bacterial endocarditis.

ESSAY:
1. Describe gross and microscopic features of acute and subacute endocarditis?
2. List 3 differences between acute and subacute bacterial endocarditis?

1. Which of the following disease associated with large vessel vasculitis?

A. Kawasaki disease
B. Takayasu arteritis
C. Wergener granulomatosis
D. Chrug Strauss Syndrome
2. The anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies are usually negative in which of the
following condition of vasculitis?
A. Microscopic Polyangiitis (MPA)
B. Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (EGPA)
C. Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN)
D. Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)
3. Which of the following is the primary cause of varicose veins?
A. Bacterial infection
B. Weak or damaged valves in the veins
C. High cholesterol
D. Autoimmune disorder
4. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing varicose veins?
[Link] protein diet
B. Leg trauma
C. Low sodium intake
D. Regular exercise
5. A 21-year-old woman is in the third trimester of an un-complicated pregnancy.
She has noted an enlarging nodule in her mouth for the past 2 weeks. On
physical examination there is a 1-cm red nodule on the left lateral gingiva below
the first molar. The nodule regresses following delivery. What is this nodule most
likely to be?
[Link] angiomatosis
B. Pyogenic granuloma
C. Cavernous lymphangioma
D. Kaposi sarcoma
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Which of the following is the most common cause of ischemic heart disease?
A. Vasculitis
B. Coronary artery spasm
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Embolism
Answer: C
2. Transmural infarctions typically involve:
A. Subendocardial region
B. Full thickness of ventricular wall
C. Only the epicardium
D. Atrial myocardium
Answer: B
3. The pathophysiology of most acute myocardial infarctions involves:
A. Coronary artery embolism
B. Spasm of coronary arteries
C. Sudden plaque rupture with thrombus formation
D. Congenital coronary anomaly
Answer: C
4. Which coronary artery is most commonly occluded in myocardial infarction?
A. Right coronary artery
B. Left circumflex artery
C. Left anterior descending branch of left coronary artery
D. Posterior descending artery
Answer: C: Left anterior descending branch of left coronary artery

1- Which type of aneurysm is characterized by a complete but attenuated

arterial wall?
A) True aneurysm
B) False aneurysm
C) Mycotic aneurysm
D) Syphilitic aneurysm
2- Mycotic aneurysms are primarily associated with:
A) Degenerative diseases
B) Infectious processes
C) Traumatic events
D) Genetic abnormalities
3-Which of the following is a commonest complication of an atherosclerotic
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aneurysm?
A) Calcification
B) Hypertension
C) Rupture causing hemorrhage
D) Hyperlipidemia
4-What is the major risk factor for arterial dissection aneurysm?
A) Hypertension
B) Congenital defects
C) Trauma
D) Infection
5- A 70-year-old man presents with a history of visualized calcified arteries on
radiographs, but no significant clinical symptoms. Which condition is most
likely responsible for his findings?
A) Atherosclerotic aneurysm
B) Monkberg Medial Calcific Sclerosis
C) Arterial dissection
D) Mycotic aneurysm
6- Which of the following may complicate a healed myocardial infarction?
A. Myocardial aneurysm
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Acute pulmonary edema
D. Acute left-sided heart failure
7- Which of the following is true regarding Dissecting aneurysm is a
A) True aneurysm
b) False aneurysm
c) Mycotic aneurysm
d) Syphilitic aneurysm
8- Which of the following is true regarding common site of Syphilitic aneurysm is
a
A) Arch of Aorta
B) Abdominal aorta
C) Circle of wills
D) Lower limb aneurysm
II- ASSAY
1- Enumerate the Complications of atherosclerosis:
• Myocardial infarction (heart attack),
• Cerebral infarction (stroke),
• Aortic aneurysms,
• Peripheral vascular disease (gangrene of the legs) are the major
consequences of atherosclerosis.
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2- Enumerate the Complications of aneurysm:

❖ Pressure atrophy
❖ Rupture:
cerebral---subarachnoid H.
aortic---retroperitoneal H.
dissecting---hemopericardium
❖ Thrombosis
❖ Embolic manifestation
3-Enumerate Complication of atheromatous plaque:
Rupture and fissure -subintimal hemorrhage
-ulceration of covering endothelium--- -thrombus formation -dystrophic
calcification -aneurysm
Essay Question

L1
Rheumatic heart disease
1. What are the gross and microscopic features of acute rheumatic heart
disease?
2. Explain the pathogenesis of rheumatic fever, including the role of immune
response and molecular mimicry.
3. List the extracardiac manifestations associated with rheumatic heart
disease.
4. Enumerate the complications that can arise from untreated or recurrent
rheumatic fever.
L2
Infective Endocarditis.
1. Describe gross and microscopic features of acute and subacute
endocarditis?
2. List 4 differences between acute and subacute bacterial endocarditis?
3. Enumerate types of endocarditis.
L3
Ischemic heart disease & MI
1. Enumerate Effects & complications of Chronic ischemic heart disease
2. Enumerate 4 Differences between Subendocardial and Transmural
Infarcts
3. Enumerate 4 complications of myocardial infarction
L4
Atherosclerosis and Aneurysm
1. Describe the pathological features of atheromatous plaques.
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2. classify aneurysm according to the Shape

3. classify aneurysm According to the causes
4. Enumerate 4 Complications of atherosclerosis
5. Enumerate 4 Complications of aneurysm
6. Enumerate Complication of atheromatous plaque
L5
Hypertension
1. Enumerate 4 causes of Secondary hypertension
2. Describe the vascular changes seen in both small and large blood
vessels in patients with hypertension.
3. Describe the morphology of Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis
4. Enumerate 4 differences between benign & malignant hypertension
L6
Cardiovascular tumors
1. Enumerate causes of Varicose veins
2. Enumerate Common sites of Varicose veins
3. Describe the morphology of Varicose veins
4. Describe the morphology of Pyogenic granuloma
5. Describe the morphology of Kaposi sarcoma
6. List three benign vascular tumors

1. The tunica intima is characterized by the following:

a. It represents the most outer layer of blood vessels.
b. A layer of simple cubical epithelium.
c. Has a subendothelial layer.
d. May be separated from the media by EEL in arteries.

2. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of cardiac muscle tissue?

A. Multinucleated fibers with peripheral nuclei
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B. Voluntary control and rapid contraction

C. Intercalated discs connecting individual muscle cells
D. Absence of striations

3. Which of the following best describes smooth muscle cells?

A. Striated, branched cells with multiple nuclei
B. Non-striated, spindle-shaped cells with a single central nucleus
C. Striated, cylindrical cells with peripheral nuclei
D. Non-striated, cuboidal cells with multiple nuclei

4. Which one of the following is a characteristic histological feature of the aorta?

a. None clear internal elastic lamina.
b. No internal elastic lamina.
c. Muscular tunica media.
d. Vasa vasorum in tunica intima.
5. Intercalated discs in cardiac muscle contain which of the following structures?
A. Tight junctions and desmosomes only
B. Gap junctions and desmosomes
C. Hemidesmosomes and tight junctions
D. Adherens junctions only

6. Which feature allows cardiac muscle cells to function as a functional syncytium?

A. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Sarcomeres
C. Gap junctions
D. T-tubules

6. Which of the following is characteristic of the tunica media?

A. It represents the most outer layer of blood vessels.
B. A layer of simple squamous epithelium.
C. Has a subendothelial layer.
D. May be separated from the adventitia by external elastic lamina (EEL) in arteries.

7. Endothelial cells which form capillaries are sometimes surrounded by:

a. Smooth muscle cells
b. Pericytes
c. Myoblast
d. Inner elastic membrane
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8. Which of the following is the thickest layer in the wall of Inferior vena cava?
a. Tunica media
b. Tunica adventitia
c. Tunica Intima
[Link] layer.
9. Vasa vasorum are usually seen in:
a. Media of large arteries
b. Media of muscular arteries
c. Adventitia of large veins
d. Media of large veins

[Link] of the following is an antiarrhythmic agent that has relatively

few electrophysiologic effects on normal myocardial tissue but suppresses
the arrhythmogenic tendencies of ischemic myocardial tissues?
a. Propranolol
b. Procainamide
c. Quinidine
d. Lidocaine
e. Disopyramide

Which of the following is the drug of

choice for management of cardiac
arrhythmias that occur in digitalis
toxicity?
(a) Amiodarone
(b) Lidocaine
(c) Propranolol
(d) Sotalol
(e) Prazosin

Myocardial oxygen demand is increased by all of the following factors except

(a) Exercise
(b) Smoking
(c) Cold temperatures
(d) Isoproterenol
(e) Propranolol

Strong anticholinergic effects limit the antiarrhythmic use of

(a) Quinidine
(b) Procainamide
(c) Tocainide
(d) Flecainide
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(e) Disopyramide

A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains

of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus
(SLE). The patient is most likely receiving
(a) Lidocaine
(b) Procainamide
(c) Quinidine
(d) Flecainide
(e) Propranolol

Which of the following drugs is a class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment
of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias?
(a) Lbutilide
(b) Mexiletine
(c) Diltiazem
(d) Quinidine
(e) Propranolol

Which of the following agents has a direct effect on the AV mode, delaying calciumchannel
depolarization?
(a) Lidocaine
(b) Diltiazem
(c) Bretylium
(d) Quinidine
(e) Lbutilide

Which of the following drugs is a class III antiarrhythmic agent that is effective in
the acute management of atrial fibrillation
or atrial flutter of recent onset ?
(a) Bretylium
(b) Lbutilide
(c) Metoprolol

(d) Disopyramide

B blockers are contraindicated in which of the following?

1- Vasospastic angina
2- Hypertension
3- Arrhythmia
4- Mild to moderate heart failure
Tachycardia is NOT likely to occur with which of the following?
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1- Nitroglycerin
2- Nifedipine
3- Verapamil
4- Amlodipine

Which of the following is a good combination for treatment of angina

pectoris?
1- Nitrates and B blockers
2- Nitrates and nefidipine
3- B blockers and verapamil
4- Nitrates and sildenafil

6- Which of the following is the cause that Labetalol is unique among antihypertensives ?
because it blocks:

A) Only beta-1 receptors

B) Both alpha-1 and beta receptors
C) Only angiotensin II receptors
D) Only L-type calcium channels

7- Which of the following is the primary mechanism of antihypertensive action for

thiazide diuretics?

A) Direct stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors

B) Decreased circulatory volume and vasodilation via increased prostaglandin synthesis
C) Blockade of angiotensin II receptors

D) Inhibition of ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme)

8-Which of the following is the cause of combination of beta blockers to vasodilators?

A)To prevent reflex tachycardia

B)To decrease volume overload

C) To decrease renin release

D)To prevent postural hypotension

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9- Non-selective beta-blockers (e.g., propranolol) are contraindicated in patients

with…………

A) Hypertension
B) Bronchial asthma
C) Osteoporosis
D) Gout

10-which of the following is a sure sign of digitalis toxicity?

a-tachycardia
b-yellow vision
c-hypertension
d-Headache

11-positive inotropic drug of choice in septic shock is:

A- Atropin
B- Noradrenaline
C- Histamine
D- Isoprenaline

12. This drug is a Class IA antiarrhythmic drug:

a) Sotalol
b) Propranolol
c) Verapamil
d) Quinidine

1. What is the standard calibration (standardization) setting for ECG paper in terms of
amplitude and speed?
a) 10 mm/mV and 50 mm/sec
b) 5 mm/mV and 25 mm/sec
c) 10 mm/mV and 25 mm/sec
d) 20 mm/mV and 25 mm/sec
2. ST segment depression is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?
a) Acute pericarditis
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Myocardial ischemia
d) Early repolarization
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3. In which type of arrhythmia there is increase in heart rate with regular contraction of the
cardiac muscles
a) Sinus tachycardia
b) ventricular fibrillation
c) atrial fibrillation
d) ventricular tachycardia
4. which of the following acts as the natural heart pacemaker
a) AV node
b) [Link]
c) purkinjie fibers
d) right and left bundle branch