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Major Test - 2 (JEE) QP

The document outlines a test paper for JEE consisting of three subjects: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, each with 25 questions divided into two sections. Section-I contains multiple choice questions with a specific marking scheme, while Section-II consists of Integral Value Type questions. The document also includes examples of questions from the Chemistry and Mathematics sections.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
82 views8 pages

Major Test - 2 (JEE) QP

The document outlines a test paper for JEE consisting of three subjects: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, each with 25 questions divided into two sections. Section-I contains multiple choice questions with a specific marking scheme, while Section-II consists of Integral Value Type questions. The document also includes examples of questions from the Chemistry and Mathematics sections.

Uploaded by

shreyashraj1108
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and

Mathematics having 25 questions in each subject and each subject having Two sections.

(i) Section-I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option. Marking scheme :
+4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
(ii) Section-II contains 5 Integral Value Type questions. Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if
not attempted and –1 in all other cases.

Best of luck !!!


Major Test - 2 (JEE)

(a) 80% (b) 75%


Test Id: 778265 (c) 20% (d) 25%

Part - A Chemistry 7. 6 g of C combines with 8 g of O2 in a reaction. The


product formed will weigh 14 g due to
Section - I: Single Correct
(a) Law of Conservation of Mass
This section contains a total of 20 questions.
All questions in this section are mandatory. (b) Law of Definite Proportions
For every correct response you shall be awarded 4 marks.
For every incorrect response -1 marks shall be deducted. (c) Law of Multiple Proportions
(d) Law of Reciprocal Proportions
1. Identify the region of spectral lines of electromagnetic
spectrum, when electron transition takes place from 8. Which of the following particles is not deflected by
higher energy levels to n = 3, 4, 5 in atomic spectrum of magnetic field?
hydrogen is
(a) Neutron
(a) Ultraviolet
(b) Positron
(b) Visible
(c) Proton
(c) Infrared
(d) Electron
(d) Microwave
9.
A pure compound contains 2.4 g of C, 1.2 x 1023 atoms
2. Vijayawada FM radio station broadcasts at frequency of of H, 0.2 moles of oxygen atoms. Its empirical formula is
103.4 MHz. The wavelength of the corresponding radio
waves (in m) is
(a) C2HO
(a) 2.90 (b) 29.0 (b) C2H2O2
(c) 9.20 (d) 92.0
(c) CH2O
3. In the reaction, 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3 when 1 mole of SO2
(d) CHO
and 1 mole of O2 are made to react to completion
10. Match List I with List II
(a) All the oxygen will be consumed
(b) 1.0 mole of SO3 will be produced

(c) 0.5 mole of SO2 is remained


(d) All of these
4.
6 g of urea (molar mass = 60 g mol–1) and 9 g of
glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol–1) were dissolved in
35 g of water. The mass percentage of urea and glucose
is respectively Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(a) 18, 12
(a) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(b) 6, 9
(b) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(c) 12, 18
(c) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(d) 9, 6
(d) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
5. The exact volumes of 1 M NaOH solution required to
neutralize 50 mL of 1 M H3PO3 solution and 100 mL of 11. Given below are the atomic masses of the elements:
2 M H3PO2 solution, respectively, are:

(a) 100 mL and 100 mL


Which of the following doesn't form triad?
(b) 100 mL and 50 mL
(c) 100 mL and 200 mL (a) Cl, Br, I

(d) 50 mL and 50 mL (b) Cl, K, Ca


(c) Li, Na, K
6. The percentage composition of carbon by mole in
methane is (d) Ba, Sr, Ca

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Major Test - 2 (JEE)

12. The atomic number of the element unnilennium is: 19. In ionisation of hydrogen, the energy required is

(a) 119 (b) 108 (a) 13.6 eV


(c) 102 (d) 109 (b) > 13.6 eV
13. The oxidation number of nitrogen atoms in NH4NO3 are (c) < 13.6 eV
(d) 1.5 eV
(a) +5, +5
20. Given below are two statements:
(b) -3, +5 Statement I: Bohr's theory accounts for the stability and
(c) +3, -5 line spectrum of Li+ ion.
Statement II: Bohr's theory was unable to explain the
(d) -3, -3 splitting of spectral lines in the presence of a magnetic
14. Match List I with List II field.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both statement I and statement II are true.


(b) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
(c) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(d) Statement I is true but statement II is false.

Section - II: Integer


The correct answer is
This section contains a total of 5 questions.
All questions in this section are mandatory.
(a) (A) → (i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iii); (D) → (iv) For every correct response you shall be awarded 4 marks.
(b) (A) → (iv), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii); (D) → (i) For every incorrect response -1 marks shall be deducted.

(c) (A) → (ii), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii); (D) → (iv) 21. Wavenumber for a radiation having 5800 Å wavelength
is x × 10 cm −1 . The value of x is _____.
(d) (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii); (D) → (ii)
22. Weight of a 5% by weight of a NaCl solution required to
15. The atomic mass of sodium is 23. The number of moles yield 0.3 g of NaCl is
in 46 g of sodium is 23. By absorbing some energy the electron in a sample of
Li2+ ions goes from the first to third Bohr orbit. How
(a) 1 (b) 2
many spectral lines are observed in the emission
(c) 2.3 (d) 4.6 spectrum of the above exciting system?

16. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the 24. Consider the complete combustion of butane, the
ion 32 2−
respectively are amount of butane utilized to produce 72.0 g of water is
16 S
_______ x 10–1 g. (to the nearest integer)
(a) 18, 16, 16 25.
Number of moles of electrons in 0.5 mole of N3– will be
(b) 16, 16, 16 ________.
(c) 16, 18, 16
Part - B Mathematics
(d) 16, 16, 18
17. “Oxygen combines with 2 grams of Hydrogen to form Section - I: Single Correct
two different compounds in which mass of Oxygen
present is in the ratio 1:2’’. This section contains a total of 20 questions.
All questions in this section are mandatory.
Which Law does the above statement follow? For every correct response you shall be awarded 4 marks.
For every incorrect response -1 marks shall be deducted.
(a) Law of Conservation of mass
26. The minimum value of 27 cos 2x. 81 sin 2x is
(b) Law of Definite Proportions
(c) Law of Multiple Proportions (a) 1
(d) Law of Reciprocal Proportions (b)
1

The Vapour density of a gas is 8. Its molecular mass will


9
18.
be (c)
1
81
(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64

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Major Test - 2 (JEE)

(d)
1 33. A survey shows that 63% of the Americans like cheese
243 whereas 76% like apples. If x% of the Americans like
both cheese and apples, then
27. If sin 6 θ + cos 6 θ + k cos 2 2θ = 1, then k is equal to:
(a) x = 39
(a)
1
tan 2 2θ
2 (b) x = 63

(b)
1
tan 2 2θ (c) 39 ≤ x ≤ 63
(d) None of these
4
(c) 4 cot 2 2θ
34. The value of
(d) (a 8 + a − 8 )(a 8 − a − 8 )(a 4 + a − 4 )(a 2 + a − 2 ) is
3 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
tan 2 2θ
4
28. If tan 15 ∘ +
1 1
+ tan 195 ∘ = 2a, then (a) (a + a −1 )
∘ +
tan 75 tan 105 ∘
(b) (a − a −1 )
the value of (a + ) is:
1
(c) (a 2 − a −2 )
a

(a) 4 (d) (a 2 − a − 2 )
1 1

(b) 2 35. The minimum value of 3 tan 2 θ + 12 cot 2 θ is


(c) 4 − 2√3
(a) 6
(d) 5 − √3 (b) 15
3
2
The value of tan 3A − tan 2A − tan A is equal to: (c) 24
29.
(d) none of these
(a) tan 3A tan 2A tan A
36.
The value of cos ( ) is
2π 4π 6π
(b) − tan 3A tan 2A tan A
) + cos ( ) + cos (
7 7 7
(c) tan A tan 2A − tan 2A tan 3A − tan 3A tan A equal to:

(d) tan 6A (a) −1


30. The value of sin
π π 2π 5π
is: (b) −
+ sin + sin + sin 1
18 9 9 18 2

(c) −
1
(a) sin
7π 4π
+ sin 3
18 9
(b) 1 (d) −
1
4
(c) cos If A and B are two sets, then A ∪ B = A ∩ B iff
π 3π
6
+ cos
7 37.

(d) cos + sin (a) A ⊆ B


π π
9 9
(b) B ⊆ A
31. If n(A) = 10, n(B) = 15 and n(A ∪ B) = x, then-
(c) A = B
(a) 15 < x < 25 (d) None of these
(b) 15 ≤ x ≤ 25
38.
Let , where A, B, C are angles of a
sin A sin(A − C)
(c) 5 ≤ x ≤ 15
=
sin B sin(C − B)
triangle ABC. If the lengths of the sides opposite these
(d) None of these
angles are a, b, c respectively, then:
32.
If cos θ = (x + ), then (x 2 + 2 ) is equal to:
1 1 1 1
2 x 2 x (a) b 2 − a 2 = a 2 + c 2
(b) b 2 , c 2 , a 2 are in A.P.
(a) sin 2θ
(c) c 2 , a 2 , b 2 are in A.P.
(b) cos 2θ
(d) a 2 , b 2 , c 2 are in A.P.
(c) tan 2θ
39.
(d) ?? sec θ
5π π
2 sin ( ) sin ( ) =
12 12

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Major Test - 2 (JEE)

(a) −
1
2 Section - II: Integer

(b) This section contains a total of 5 questions.


1
2 All questions in this section are mandatory.
For every correct response you shall be awarded 4 marks.
(c)
1
3 For every incorrect response -1 marks shall be deducted.

(d)
1 46. If log 10 sin x + log 10 cos x = −1 and
, then the value of
6 (log 10 n) − 1 n
log 10 (sin x + cos x) =
40. The expression 8 sin cos cos cos , when
x x x x 2 3
8 2 4 8 is _____
simplified, is equal to
47. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}; B = {2, 3, 6, 7}. Then the number of
elements in (A × B) ∩ (B × A) is
(a) 8 cos x
48. In the given figure, the sum of all the interior angles is
(b) cos x equal to ________ right angles.
(c) 8 sin x
(d) sin x

41. If sin θ + cosecθ = 2 then the value of sin 8 θ + cosec 8 θ is


equal to:

(a) 2
(b) 2 8
49. Number of integral values ofa for which the equation
(c) 2 4 cos 2 x − sin +a = 0 has roots when x ∈ (0, ) is ____
π

(d) None of these


2
50. Let a, b and c be real numbers which satisfy the
42. The angles of a triangle are in A.P. and the number of
equationsa + and c + = .
1 1 1 −1 1 1
degrees in the least to the number of radians in greatest bc
= ,b +
5 ac
=
15 ab 3
is 60 to π. The angles in degree are:
The value of is equal to
c−b
c−a
(a) 60 ∘ , 60 ∘ , 60 ∘
Part - C Physics
(b) 30 ∘ , 60 ∘ , 90 ∘
(c) 45 ∘ , 60 ∘ , 75 ∘ Section - I: Single Correct
(d) 15 ∘ , 60 ∘ , 105 ∘ This section contains a total of 20 questions.
43. Which of the following numbers is exactly divisible by 99 All questions in this section are mandatory.
? For every correct response you shall be awarded 4 marks.
For every incorrect response -1 marks shall be deducted.

(a) 3572403 51. Statement I: Gravitational force is the weakest force


(b) 1357329 among all other forces.
Statement II: Gravitational force between the two
(c) 9134640 masses is independent of the medium in between.
(d) 1143549
Statement I and Statement II are true and the
44. If 1 + r + r2 + . . . + rn = (1 + r)(1 + r2 )(1 + r4 )(1 + r8 ), (a) Statement II is the correct explanation of
then the value of n is equal to Statement I.

(a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 Statement I and Statement II are true but the
(b) Statement II is not the correct explanation of
45. If (1 + tan 1∘ ) ⋅ (1 + tan 2∘ ) ⋅ (1 + tan 3∘ ). . . . . (1 + tan 45∘ ) = 2n , Statement I.
then ′ n ′ is equal to : (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(a) 16 (d) Statement I and Statement II are false.

(b) 23
(c) 30
(d) None of these

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Major Test - 2 (JEE)

52. The slope of the graph as shown in the figure at points 1,


(b) tan −1 (
2Q − 2P
2 and 3 is m1, m2 and m3 respectively, then:
)
2Q + 2P

(c) tan −1 (
P
)
Q

(d) tan −1 (
2Q
)
P

57. A circular arc is of length π cm. Find angle subtended by


it at the centre in degree.

(a) m1 > m2 > m3


(b) m1 < m2 < m3
(c) m 1 = m 2 = m 3
(d) m1 = m3 > m2
53. Which of the following statements are true based on
graph of y-versus x as shown below?

(a) 60°
(b) 30°
(c) 90°
(d) 15°
58. Which of the following is a quadratic equation?

(a) x + 1 = 0
(a) Slope at x0 is positive and non-zero in graph
(b) x2 (2x + 3) = 0
(b) Slope is constant in graph
(c) Slope at x0 is negative in graph (c) x (x2 + 1) + 2

(d) None (d) (x – 2)2 + 1 = 0

54.
2
59. Correct FBD of the block B (mass m) is
∫ 2t dt is equal to
0

(a) 0
(b) 4
(c) 2

(d)
1
2
55. Given s = t 2 + 5t + 3, find
ds
.
dt

(a) 2t + 5
t3
(b) + 5t 2 + 3t
(a)
3
(c) t + 5
(d) None

56.
The angle between vector Q and the resultant of

(2Q + 2P) and (2Q − 2P) is:


→ → → →

(a) 0 ∘

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Major Test - 2 (JEE)

63. Consider the parabola y = x 2 . The shaded area is

(b)

(c)

(a) 1

(d) (b)
1
3

(c)
1
2

(d)
2
60. Which of the following statements is not correct for the
following straight line graphs?
3
64. Which of the following statements is true regarding the
vector product of two vectors?

The vector product of two vectors changes sign


(a)
under reflection
(b) Vector product is commutative
Vector product of two parallel vectors is a null
(c)
vector.
(d) Vector product of two vectors is a scalar.
65. "The uniform motion is possible when no frictional
(a) Line (2) has negative y intercept forces oppose" is the concept of
(b) Line (1) has positive y intercept
(a) The Greek thinker Aristotle
(c) Line (2) has positive slope
(b) The Scientist Newton
(d) Line (1) has negative slope
(c) The Scientist Copernicus
61. The magnitude of the external force acting on moving
bodies can be known directly by (d) The Scientist Galileo
66. Statement I: A vector cannot be divided by another
(a) Law of conservation of angular momentum vector.
(b) Newton's first law of motion. Statement II: A vector can be divided by a scalar.

(c) Newton's second law of motion.


Statement I and Statement II are true and
(d) Law of conservation of energy. (a) Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I.
62. The velocity of a body depends on time according to the
equation v = 20 + 0.1t. The body has: Statement I and Statement II are true but
(b) Statement II is not the correct explanation of
(a) uniform acceleration Statement I

(b) uniform velocity (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(c) non-uniform acceleration (d) Statement I and Statement II are false

(d) zero acceleration 67. The distance travelled by an object in time t is given by
s = (2.5)t 2 m. The instantaneous speed of the object at
t = 5 s will be:

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74.
(a) 12.5 ms-1 If P = 3ˆi + √3ˆj + 2ˆ
k and Q = 4ˆi + √3ˆj + 2.5ˆ
k, the unit
→ →

vector in the direction of P × Q is (√3ˆi + ˆj − 2√3ˆ


→ → 1
(b) 62.5 ms-1 x
k).
The value of x is
(c) 5 ms-1
75.
Three vectors OR, OP and OQ each of magnitude A are


− → → →
(d) 25 ms-1
acting as shown in the figure. The resultant of the three
68. Find derivative of y = 8, w.r.t x vectors is A√x. The value of x is .......... .

(a) 8x
(b) 0
(c) can't find
(d) None

69. The velocity of a particle having magnitude of 10 ms −1


in the direction of 60 ∘ with positive X-axis is

(a) 5ˆi − 5√3ˆj

(b) 5√3ˆi − 5ˆj

(c) 5√3ˆi + 5ˆj

(d) 5ˆi + 5√3ˆj


70. Statement I: For a moving particle, distance can never
be negative or zero.
Statement II: Distance is a scalar quantity and never
decreases with time for a moving object.

Statement I and Statement II are true and the


(a) Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I.
Statement I and Statement II are true but the
(b) Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I and Statement II are false

Section - II: Integer


This section contains a total of 5 questions.
All questions in this section are mandatory.
For every correct response you shall be awarded 4 marks.
For every incorrect response -1 marks shall be deducted.

71. If a vector makes angles


π π
, and
π
with theX-axis,
3 3 n
the Y-axis and theZ-axis respectively, then find the value
of n.
72. A boy pushes a box of mass 2 kg with a force

F = (20ˆi + 10ˆj) N on a frictionless XY surface. If the box


was initially at rest, then ______ m is displacement along


the X-axis after 10 s.
73. A particle is moving in one dimension (along x-axis)
under the action of a variable force. Its initial position
was 16 m right of origin. The variation of its position (x)
with time (t) is given as x = −3t 3 + 18t 2 + 16t, where x
is in m and t is in s. The velocity of the particle when its
acceleration becomes zero is _______ m/s.

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