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Yr 12 Paper 1

The document outlines the instructions and structure for the Cambridge International AS & A Level Biology Paper 1 Multiple Choice exam for Year 12, including details on answering questions, materials needed, and scoring. It contains a series of multiple-choice questions covering various biological concepts and processes. The exam duration is 1 hour and 15 minutes, and students are required to answer all 40 questions on a provided answer sheet.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
60 views17 pages

Yr 12 Paper 1

The document outlines the instructions and structure for the Cambridge International AS & A Level Biology Paper 1 Multiple Choice exam for Year 12, including details on answering questions, materials needed, and scoring. It contains a series of multiple-choice questions covering various biological concepts and processes. The exam duration is 1 hour and 15 minutes, and students are required to answer all 40 questions on a provided answer sheet.

Uploaded by

femasinnovations
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Cambridge International AS & A Level

Year 12 EOT, Term 2 2025

Hillside high school

BIOLOGY 9700/1

Paper 1 Multiple Choice

1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS

• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.


• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one
you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice
answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice
answer sheet in the spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION

• The total mark for this paper is 40.


• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
2

1 The electron micrograph shows onion root cells prepared using a freeze-fracture technique. The
cells were quickly frozen and then physically broken apart. Freeze fracture breaks apart cells
along weak areas, such as membranes and the surfaces of organelles.

structure X

×20 000

Which statement best explains the appearance of the electron micrograph?

A The cells were broken apart at the endoplasmic reticulum; structure X is a ribosome.
B The cells were broken apart at the nuclear envelope; structure X is a nuclear pore.
C The cells were broken apart at the nuclear envelope; structure X is a ribosome.
D The cells were broken apart at the tonoplast; structure X is a plasmodesma.

2 Which cell structures can form vesicles?

cell surface endoplasmic


Golgi body
membrane reticulum

A    key
B    = can form vesicles
C    = cannot form vesicles
D   

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/M/J/23


3

3 Four students were asked to match the function with the appearance of some cell structures in an
animal cell.

The functions were listed by number.

1 synthesis of polypeptides
2 synthesis of lipids
3 packaging of hydrolytic enzymes that will remain in the cell

The appearances were listed by letter.

V membranes which surround an enclosed inner cavity


W non-membrane-bound, spherical structures
X a double membrane interspersed with pores
Y non-membrane-bound, cylindrical structures
Z membrane-bound sacs, arranged as a flattened stack

Which student correctly matched the numbered function with the appearance of the cell
structure?

1 2 3

A W V Z
B W Z Y
C Z W Z
D Z V W

4 Which cells contain a tonoplast?

sieve tube
root hair companion endodermis
element

A     key
B     = contain tonoplast
C     = do not contain tonoplast
D    

5 Which organelles found in animal or plant cells are surrounded by double membranes?

A chloroplasts, mitochondria, vacuoles


B chloroplasts, mitochondria, nuclei
C chloroplasts, nuclei, vacuoles
D mitochondria, nuclei, vacuoles

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4

6 Some scientists think that mitochondria evolved from bacteria that entered the cytoplasm of a
different cell and were able to survive there.

Which structural features of mitochondria support this hypothesis?

folded internal
circular DNA 70S ribosomes
membrane

A    key
B    = supports
C    = does not support
D   

7 What is present in all viruses, all prokaryotes and all eukaryotes?

A ribose
B deoxyribose
C cytosine
D thymine

8 The table shows some steps that can be made in carrying out the Benedict’s test.

Which combination of steps is required to carry out a semi-quantitative test on a reducing sugar
solution?

standardise boiling
standardise volume boil with time with Benedict’s
of Benedict’s hydrochloric acid solution and
solution and volume and then neutralise compare final colour
of test solution with alkali with numbered
colour standards

A    key
B    = step made
C    = step not made
D   

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/M/J/23


5

9 The diagrams show three examples of different bonds.

bond 1 bond 2 bond 3


O

NH O C C N CH2 S S CH2

Which bonds hold the secondary structure of proteins together?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

10 Insulin is a globular protein involved in cell signalling. It is transported in the blood plasma from
the cells that synthesise it to its target cells. A molecule of insulin contains six sulfur-containing
amino acids and has two polypeptide chains.

Which statements about insulin are correct?

1 An insulin molecule has a quaternary structure.


2 Insulin polypeptides are held together by six disulfide bonds.
3 Amino acids with hydrophobic R groups would be found in the centre of an insulin
molecule.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

11 Which statement correctly explains why blood plasma can be maintained at a stable
temperature?

A It has a low specific heat capacity.


B It has a high specific heat capacity.
C It has a low latent heat of vaporisation.
D It has a high latent heat of vaporisation.

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/M/J/23 [Turn over


6

12 Which region on the graph shows the activation energy of an enzyme-catalysed reaction?

A
C
B
energy of
molecules
in a reaction
without D
with enzyme enzyme

time

13 The graph shows the effect of an increasing substrate concentration on the rate of an
enzyme-catalysed reaction.

maximum rate of reaction

rate of
reaction P
Q

substrate concentration

Line P represents the result when the enzyme is used at its optimum pH and optimum
temperature and without an inhibitor.

Line Q represents the result when the reaction conditions are changed.

Which descriptions of changes to the reaction conditions could result in line Q if all other
conditions were kept the same?

1 Add an inhibitor that attaches to a site other than the active site.
2 Add an inhibitor that has a similar shape to the substrate.
3 Add an inhibitor that blocks the active site of the enzyme.
4 Carry out the reaction at a higher temperature.

A 1, 3 and 4 B 1 and 4 only C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/M/J/23


7

14 Which statement about cell signalling is correct?

A One type of receptor molecule will recognise all ligands in the body.
B The binding of a ligand may cause a change to the shape of the receptor.
C The receptors for ligands are always found on the inside of cells.
D The same ligand is made by all of the cells in the body.

15 Four students, A, B, C and D, observed plant epidermal cells that had been placed in a
concentrated sucrose solution for 30 minutes. They were asked to identify the partially permeable
layer and to explain the appearance of the cells in terms of water potential and movement of
water.

Which student is correct?

partially water potential movement of water


permeable layer at start of experiment during experiment

A cell surface cell contents have a lower water moved out of the cell
membrane water potential than the and no water moved in
sucrose solution

B cell surface cell contents have a higher more water moved out
membrane water potential than the of the cell than moved in
sucrose solution

C cell wall cell contents have a lower more water moved out
water potential than the of the cell than moved in
sucrose solution

D cell wall cell contents have a higher water moved out of the cell
water potential than the and no water moved in
sucrose solution

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/M/J/23 [Turn over


8

16 The table compares the surface area to volume ratios of five agar blocks that differ in dimensions
but which all have the same volume.

The agar blocks can be used to measure the efficiency of diffusion, where efficiency is measured
as the time taken for a dye to reach all parts of the block.

length width height surface volume surface area :


/ mm / mm / mm area / mm2 / mm3 volume ratio

1 8 8 8 384 512 0.75


2 16 16 2 640 512 1.3
3 32 4 4 544 512 1.1
4 32 32 0.5 2112 512 4.1
5 64 4 2 784 512 1.5

Which prediction can be made about the way in which size and dimensions of these blocks affect
the efficiency of diffusion?

A The efficiency of diffusion will decrease as the width of a block increases.


B The efficiency of diffusion will increase as the height of a block increases.
C The efficiency of diffusion will increase as a block of fixed volume is flattened.
D The efficiency of diffusion will decrease as a block of fixed volume is elongated.

17 The cell cycle includes mitosis.

What are features of this type of nuclear division?

1 forms cells of equal size to the parent cell


2 forms genetically identical nuclei
3 semi-conservative replication of DNA

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/M/J/23


9

18 A student observed the cells in the growing region (meristem) of an onion root and obtained the
data shown.

number
stage
of cells

interphase 886
prophase 73
metaphase 16
anaphase 14
telophase 11

Which percentage of cells contains chromosomes that appear as two chromatids?

A 7.3% B 8.9% C 95.9% D 97.5%

19 Which statement about messenger RNA is correct?

A In eukaryotic cells, mRNA is made by removing exons from the primary RNA transcript.
B mRNA is a single-stranded polynucleotide containing a different purine base than DNA.
C mRNA molecules contain ribose sugars joined to phosphate groups by phosphodiester
bonds.
D The monomers of mRNA contain a phosphate group, deoxyribose sugar and a nitrogenous
base.

20 Which structures are involved in transcription only?

DNA template RNA


anticodons
strand polymerase

A    key
B    = involved
C    = not involved
D   

21 One gene provides the code for the production of which type of molecule?

A amino acid
B DNA
C nucleotide
D polypeptide

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/M/J/23 [Turn over


10

22 The table shows some mRNA codons that code for certain amino acids.

mRNA codon amino acid

GCG, GCA, GCC, GCU alanine


ACG, ACA, ACC, ACU threonine
UGC, UGU cysteine
UAC, UAU tyrosine
CAG, CAA glutamine
CGG, CGA, CGC, CGU arginine

A DNA template strand has the base sequence shown.

ACAGTATTATTTGCAACG

What would the change in the amino acid be if the first base in the fifth DNA triplet was
substituted for an A base?

A alanine to cysteine
B alanine to threonine
C arginine to cysteine
D arginine to threonine

23 Which structures contain cytoplasm with mitochondria and a nucleus?

xylem vessel element

companion phloem
cell A D C sieve tube
element

24 What is the correct term to describe intermolecular hydrogen bonding between water molecules?

A adhesion
B cohesion
C osmosis
D diffusion

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/M/J/23


8

14 Pyrophosphatase enzymes catalyse a hydrolysis reaction.

pyrophosphatase
pyrophosphate ions phosphate ions
substrate product

In experiment 1, a scientist studied the rate of this reaction, using a colorimeter.

The absorbance of the solution was measured at regular intervals until all of the pyrophosphate
ions had been converted into phosphate ions.

In experiment 2, the scientist repeated the procedure with a higher concentration of


pyrophosphatase. All other variables were standardised.

Which graph shows the effect of increasing the concentration of pyrophosphatase?

A B

absorbance absorbance

time time

C D

absorbance absorbance

time time

key
= experiment 1
= experiment 2

© UCLES 2024 9700/11/O/N/24


10

17 The diagram shows the mean dimensions of an epithelial cell in micrometres (m).

width
2 μm
height
3 μm

length 8 μm

Which row shows the surface area to volume ratio of the epithelial cell and how the surface area
to volume ratio of the cell would change if the cell width doubled?

how surface area : volume


surface area : volume changes if the cell width
doubled

A 12 : 23 decreases
B 12 : 23 increases
C 23 : 12 decreases
D 23 : 12 increases

18 Which diagram shows the correct direction of net water movement between the four cells due to
osmosis?

key
 = water potential

A B

Ψ = – 40 kPa Ψ = –22 kPa Ψ = –22 kPa Ψ = –32 kPa

Ψ = –36 kPa Ψ = –33 kPa Ψ = –16 kPa Ψ = –38 kPa

C D

Ψ = –33 kPa Ψ = –25 kPa Ψ = – 42 kPa Ψ = –33 kPa

Ψ = –33 kPa Ψ = – 42 kPa Ψ = –24 kPa Ψ = –27 kPa

© UCLES 2024 9700/11/O/N/24


11

19 An investigation was carried out into the effect of four different treatments on the permeability of
the cell surface membranes and tonoplasts of beetroot cells. Beetroot cell vacuoles contain a red
pigment. This pigment cannot diffuse through the tonoplasts or cell surface membranes.

1 cm3 cubes were cut from beetroot tissue and washed in running water for 20 minutes to remove
any pigment released from damaged cells.

Two cubes were then placed in each of the four test-tubes containing different contents and
observed for five minutes.

Which row shows a correct explanation for the observation recorded for one of the treatments?

treatment observation explanation


A dilute contents of membrane proteins
hydrochloric acid test-tube stay clear have been denatured
B ethanol contents of lipids, including membrane
test-tube turn red phospholipids, have dissolved
C water at 20 C contents of membrane proteins
test-tube stay clear have been denatured
D water at 80 C contents of lipids, including membrane
test-tube turn red phospholipids, have dissolved

20 The photomicrograph shows a stage of mitosis.

What would be correct for the next stage in mitosis?

two sister
nuclear
chromatids remain
membrane
attached

A no not present
B no re-forming
C yes not present
D yes breaking down

© UCLES 2024 9700/11/O/N/24 [Turn over


12

21 What are the correct roles of mitosis?

replacing lost
stem cell growth
skin cells

A   key
B    = correct
C    = not correct
D  

22 Which row about the stages of the mitotic cell cycle is correct?

RNA polymerase
DNA ligase used
used in the
in the nucleus
nucleus

A G1 phase S phase
B G2 phase mitosis
C mitosis G2 phase
D S phase G1 phase

23 Which statements describe how a gene mutation can lead to the production of a non-functional
protein?

1 During transcription, an incorrect nucleotide is added to a DNA molecule.


2 The mutated gene results in a new codon being transcribed.
3 The order of the bases in an anticodon on tRNA is altered during translation.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

24 There are 64 chromosomes in the muscle cells of a particular mammal.

How many DNA molecules are present in a cell during early prophase and telophase of mitosis?

early
telophase
prophase

A 64 32
B 64 64
C 128 128
D 128 64

© UCLES 2024 9700/11/O/N/24


13

25 The diagram shows the nucleotide sequence of a small section of the transcribed strand of a
gene.

GCG CGC GGC GCG

The table shows the amino acids coded for by 10 mRNA codons.

mRNA codon amino acid

AAG Lys
ACG Thr
CGG CGC CGU Arg
CCG Pro
GCC GCG Ala
GGC Gly
UGC Cys

What is the sequence of the four amino acids in the polypeptide translated from this small
section of a gene?

A Ala-Ala-Cys-Ala
B Ala-Arg-Gly-Ala
C Arg-Ala-Pro-Arg
D Arg-Arg-Thr-Arg

26 How many hydrogen bonds form when adenine and cytosine each bind to their complementary
bases?

adenine cytosine

A 2 2
B 2 3
C 3 2
D 3 3

27 Which statement correctly identifies the movement of sucrose and amino acids in plant vascular
tissue?

A They are carried from source to sink by mass flow in upward and downward directions.
B They are carried from sink to source by cohesion-tension in upward and downward
directions.
C They are carried from sink to source by mass flow in one direction.
D They are carried from source to sink by cohesion-tension in one direction.

© UCLES 2024 9700/11/O/N/24 [Turn over


13

22 Which statements correctly describe features of stem cells that are essential for their role in cell
replacement and tissue repair?

1 After mitosis of stem cells, the daughter cells can either remain as stem cells or follow
a developmental pathway that leads to the formation of specialised cells.
2 Stem cells are different to all other body cells because they retain all of the genetic
information in their DNA throughout the life of the organism.
3 A small population of stem cells is retained in the body of adults throughout their life
time.
4 Stem cells have more telomeres than other body cells and this allows them to undergo
an unlimited number of mitotic divisions.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only

23 Which statements are correct for all nucleotides?

1 The nitrogen-containing base is always attached to carbon atom 1 of the pentose.


2 The phosphate group is always attached to carbon atom 5 of the pentose.
3 A condensation reaction occurs to join the nitrogen-containing base to the pentose.
4 Nucleotides are linked together by condensation reactions between phosphate groups.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

24 How many phosphodiester bonds are present in a circular DNA molecule of 2700 base pairs?

A 2699 B 2700 C 5398 D 5400

25 Which statements about complementary base pairing are correct?

1 Purines and pyrimidines are different sizes.


2 Complementary base pairing occurs during translation.
3 The base pairs are of different lengths.
4 Uracil forms two hydrogen bonds with adenine.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

© UCLES 2024 03_9700_12_2024_1.12 [Turn over


14

26 During the mitotic cell cycle, the chromosomal DNA is replicated. The specific points in DNA
molecules where replication is occurring are known as replication forks.

A typical human chromosome has about 150 million base pairs of DNA. It takes about 1 hour to
replicate the DNA of a typical human chromosome.

The rate of replication using a single replication fork is approximately 50 base pairs per second.

Approximately how many replication forks must occur in a typical human chromosome during DNA
replication?

A 835 B 41 700 C 50 000 D 3 000 000

27 Which molecule has its synthesis directly controlled by DNA?

A amylase
B cholesterol
C glycogen
D phospholipid

28 Which statement correctly describes the association between a companion cell and its sieve tube
cell?

A The companion cell provides all of the ATP used for energy-requiring processes in both
types of cell.
B The companion cell controls the active transport of molecules through the sieve plates.
C The companion cell prevents side-to-side movement of assimilates between sieve tube
cells.
D The companion cell provides a nucleus that controls cellular activities in both types of cell.

© UCLES 2024 03_9700_12_2024_1.12

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