PHYSICAL SCIENCE STUDY MATERIAL

CLASS: X
ENGLISH MEDIUM

“All of us do not have equal talent. But, all of us have an equal

opportunity to develop our talents."
--------A P J ABDUL KALAM

Prepared by

SAYYED SAMAD S A ( [Link] )

ZPHS KISTARAM

SATHUPALLY MANDAL

KHAMMAM DIST.
9505281568
 10th Class

English Medium

Name of the Student: ---------------------------------------------------------------------------

Roll No: ------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Prepared by

ZPSS Kistaram
Sathupally(M), Khammam Dist
 01. Reflection of light at curved surfaces
01. State the differences between concave and convex mirrors.
Concave Mirror Convex Mirror
1) A concave mirror is a spherical A spherical mirror whose reflecting
mirror whose reflecting surface is surface is curved outwards and polished
curved inwards and polished on the on the inner spherical surface is a convex
outer spherical surface. mirror.

2) A concave mirror is known as a A convex mirror is known as a diverging

converging mirror because the light mirror because the light rays diverge
rays converge at a focal point after after reflection.
reflection.
3) It can form different types of It always forms a virtual, erect, and
images, depending on the object's diminished image.
position.
02. Distinguish between real and virtual images?
Real Image Virtual Image
01) Real image is obtained when the rays Virtual images form when rays of light do
of light after reflection actually not actually meet but appear to meet when
converge at a point. viewed from the back.

02) It can be obtained on the screen and It can’t be obtained on the screen.
can be seen with eye.
03) It is always inverted It is always erect.
03. The magnification product by a mirror is +[Link] does it mean?
ℎ𝑖
01) Magnification 𝑚 = ℎ𝑜 = 1; 𝑖. 𝑒. ℎ𝑖 = ℎ𝑜 ; means the height of image is equal to height of the
object.
02) + Sign indicates that the image is erect.
03) Therefore, the image is erect and size of image is equal to size of object and the mirror is plane
mirror.
04. Why do prefer a convex mirror as a rear view mirror in the vehicles?
We use convex mirror as a rear view mirror in vehicles because:
 Convex mirror always forms virtual, erect and diminished image irrespective of distance of the
object.

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  A convex mirror enables a driver to view large area of the traffic behind him.
 Convex mirror forms very small image than the object.
05. List two properties of the images formed by convex mirrors? Draw ray diagram in
support of your answer.
 Ans: It forms a virtual and erect image.
 It forms image smaller than the object.
 Magnification is always positive.

 The image is forms inside the mirror between P and F.

06. State two positions in which a concave mirror produces a magnified image if a
given object. List two differences between the two images.
Ans: 01) When the object is placed in front of the mirror:
a) Between its pole and focus( b/w P and F)
b) Between the focus and centre of curvature (b/w F and C)
02) In case (a), the image is virtual and erect. In case (b), the image is real and inverted.
07. The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -3. What do you understand
by this?
ℎ𝑖
 Ans: Magnification 𝑚 = ℎ =-3 : hi= -3 × ho : means height of the image is 3times than the
0

height of the object.

 – sign indicates it’s a inverted image. The mirror is concave mirror.

08. Name the type of mirror used in the following situations.
i) Head lights of a car ii) Rear view mirror of vehicles iii) Solar furnace.
Support your answers with reasons.
i) Head light of car: concave mirror
Concave mirror is used because light from the bulb placed at the focus of it gets reflected
and produces a powerful beam of light to illuminate the road.
ii) Rear view mirror of vehicles: convex mirror.
Convex mirror is used because it always produces a virtual and erect image whose size is
smaller than the object. Therefore it enables the driver to see wider field of view and traffic
behind the vehicles in small mirror.
iii) Solar furnace: concave mirror.
Concave mirror has the property to concentrate the sunlight coming from Sun along with
heat radiation at its focus.

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 As a results temperature at its focus increases and the substance placed at the focal point
gets heated to a high temperature.
09. Write the uses of concave and convex mirrors in our daily life.
Uses of concave mirrors:
a) Concave mirrors are used as a shaving mirror and make-up mirrors.
b) These mirrors are used by dentists.
c) These mirrors are used in car (vehicles) headlights.
d) Concave mirrors are used in solar cookers.
Uses of convex mirrors:
a) Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles.
b) Big convex mirrors are used in shopping malls for security purposes
10. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 60cm in front
of a mirror by keeping the flame at a distance of 15cm from its pole.
i) Write the type of mirror he should use
ii) Find the linear magnification of the image produced.
iii) What is the distance between the object and its image?
iv) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Ans: i) He should use a concave mirror as it forms a real image on the same side of the mirror.
ii) Object distance u=-15cm; Image distance v= -60cm
Magnification m=-v/u=-60/15=-4cm
The “-“ sign in magnification shows that the image formed is real and inverted.
iii) The image is formed at a distance of 45cm from the object.( v-u=60-15=45)
iv) In this case the image is formed beyond the “C” This image is real inverted and enlarged.
11. Write the rules for sign convention.
Sign convention for the parameters related to the mirror Equation:
1. All distances should be measured from the poll.
2. The distances measured in the direction of incident light,
to be taken positive and those measured in the direction
opposite to incident light to be taken negative.
3. Height of object (ℎ𝑜 ) and height of image (ℎ𝑖 ) are
positive if measured upwards from the axis and negative
if measured downwards.

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12. How do you find the focal length of a concave mirror?
Aim: To find the focal length of a concave mirror.
Apparatus required: Concave mirror, a sheet of paper and
meter scale.
Procedure:
i. Hold a concave mirror perpendicular to the direction of
sunlight. Take a small paper and slowly move it in front
of the mirror and find out the point where you get
smallest and brightest spot.
ii. This is the image of the sun.
iii. The rays coming from sun parallel to the concave mirror are converging at a point.
iv. This point is called focus or focal point of the concave mirror.
v. Measure the distance of this spot from the pole of the mirror.
vi. This distance is the focal length of the given concave mirror.
13. Write an experimental method in measuring the distances of object and image using
concave mirror. And write the table for observations.
Aim: Observing the types of images and measuring the object distance and image distance from
the mirror.
Materials required: A candle, paper, Concave mirror, V-stand, measuring tape or meter scale,
screen, etc.
Procedure:
1) Place the concave mirror on V-stand, a candle, and a meter scale as shown in the figure.
2) Keep the candle at different lengths from the mirror and by moving the paper along the axis,
find the position where we get a sharp image on the screen.
3) Note down the observations in Table – 1
4) Since we know the focal point and centre of curvature, we can re–classify the above
observations as shown in the table-1.
Table – 1
Sl Distance of candle Distance of screen Enlarged/ Inverted/
no from mirror(u) from mirror(v) Diminished Erect
01 60 cm 60 cm Same size Inverted
02 50 cm 70 cm Enlarged Inverted
03 40 cm 80 cm Enlarged Inverted

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 04 30 cm Infinity Very big Inverted
05 20 cm 25 cm( In the mirror) Enlarged Erect
06 10 cm 15 cm ( in the mirror) Enlarged Erect
07 > 60 cm 50 cm Diminished Inverted

5) Then note down the observations in table – 2

Table – 2
Position of the Position of the Enlarged/ Inverted/ Real/Virtu
candle(Object) Image Diminished Erect al
Between the mirror and F Behind the mirror Enlarged Erect Virtual

At the focal point At infinity - - -

Between F and C Beyond C Enlarged Inverted Real

At the centre of curvature At C Same size Inverted Real

Beyond C Between F and C Diminished Inverted Real

14. State the rules for drawing ray diagrams for spherical mirrors? Support them with ray
diagrams.
01) An incident ray parallel to the principal axis :
1. In the case of a concave mirror, an incident ray
parallel to the principal axis passes through its focus
after reflection.
2. In the case of a convex mirror, the incident ray after
reflection appears to come from the focus of the
mirror.
02) An incident ray passing through the focus :
1. In a concave mirror, an incident ray passing through the focus is reflected parallel to the
principal axis.

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 2. In the case of a convex mirror, the incident ray,
which appears to move in the direction of the
focus of the mirror, is reflected parallel to the
principal axis.

03) An incident ray passing through the centre of curvature :

1. An incident ray passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror reflects back
along the same path, without any deviation.
2. In the case of a convex mirror, an incident ray
that appears to move towards the direction of
centre of curvature is reflected back along the
same path without any deviation.
15. Explain the nature of the image formed with the help of ray diagram, when an object
is placed at different points before a concave mirror.
1. When object is at infinity: When object is at infinity, the
image is formed at focal point of the mirror.
Characteristics of the Image: 1) Real image
2) Point sized image
3) Inverted Image
2. When object is beyond the C : When the object is
beyond the C, the image is formed between F and C.
Characteristics of the Image: 1) Real image
2) Smaller image
3) Inverted Image
3. When the object is at C: When the object is at C, the image is also formed at C.
Characteristics of the Image: 1) Real image
2) Same sized image
3) Inverted Image

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 4. When the object is between C and F: When the object is between C and F, the image is
formed beyond the C.
Characteristics of the Image: 1) Real image
2) Enlarged image
3) Inverted Image

5. When the object is at F: When the object is at F, the image is formed at infinity.
Characteristics of the Image: 1) Real image
2) Very large sized image
3) Inverted Image

6. When the object is between F and Pole: When the object is between F and P, the image
forms behind the mirror.
Characteristics of the Image: 1) Virtual image
2) Enlarged image
3) Erect Image

16. An object 4cm in size, is placed at 25cm infront of a concave mirror of focal length
15cm. At what distance from the mirror would a screen be placed to obtain a sharp
image? Find the nature and the size of the image.
Solution: According to sign convention: focal length (f) = –15cm
Object distance (u) = –25cm
Object height (ho) = +4cm
Image distance (v) =? Image height (hi ) =?
1 1 1
Substitute the above values in the equation =𝑢+𝑣
𝑓

1 1 1 1 1 1
= + 𝑇ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑒; = −
−15 −25 𝑣 𝑣 25 15
1 2
= − 𝑜𝑟 𝑣 = −37.5 𝑐𝑚
𝑣 75
So the screen should be placed at 37.5cm from the pole of the mirror. The image is real

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 ℎ𝑖 𝑣 ℎ𝑖 37.5
Magnification 𝑚 = =− by substituting the above values 𝑚 = =−
ℎ𝑜 𝑢 4 15
ℎ𝑖 = −6𝑐𝑚

So, the image is inverted and enlarged

Some important information:
 Focal length (f) : The distance between pole and focus point is called focal length. Focal length
= R/2
Concave mirror Convex mirror
Focal length Negative Positive
Radius of curvature Negative Positive
 Magnification is positive for erect and virtual image and negative for inverted and
real image.
 If m > 1 the image is magnified.
 If m < 1 the image is diminished.
 If m = 1 the image and object are in equal size.
 Fermat principle: Light chooses the path which takes the least time to travel.
1 1 1
 Mirror formula: 𝑓
=𝑣+𝑢
 For the different positions of objects, the image formation by a concave mirror:

Slno Position of Object Position of Image Nature of image

1 At infinity At focus Real, inverted, highly
diminished.
2 Between pole and focus Behind the mirror Virtual, erect and magnified
3 Between focus and centre Beyond centre of Real, inverted and magnified.
of curvature curvature
4 At centre of curvature At centre of curvature Real, inverted. Same size
5 Beyond C Between F and C Real, inverted, diminished
6 At focus At infinity Real, inverted, highly
magnified.

 Image formation by convex mirror:

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 Sl Position of object Position of image Nature of image
1 At infinity At focus behind the Virtual , erect, highly
mirror diminished
2 Any where between pole Between P and F Virtual, erect, and
and infinity behind the mirror diminished.

Answer the following questions:

01) What do you know about the terms given below related to spherical mirrors?
a) Pole b) centre of curvature c) Focus d) Radius of curvature
e) Focal length f) Principal axis g) Object distance h) Image distance i)Magnification
02) Write the rules for sign convention.
03) If the spherical mirrors were not known to human beings, guess the consequences.
04) By observing steel vessels and different images in them, a boy asked her sister some
questions. What may be those questions?
05) To form the image on the object itself, how should we place the object in front of a
concave mirror? Explain with a ray diagram?
06) An object is placed at a distance of 20cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15cm.
Find the position and nature of the image.
07)The radius of curvature of concave mirror is 50cm. where should an object be placed from the
mirror so as to form its image at infinity? Justify your answer.
08) A spherical mirror produces an image of magnification -1 on a screen placed at a
distance of 50cm from the mirror.
i) Write the type if mirror.
ii) Find the distance of the image from the object.
iii) What is the focal length of the mirror?
iv) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
09) i) A concave mirror produces three times enlarged image of an object placed at 10cm in
front of it. Calculate the focal length of the mirror.
ii) Show the information of the image with the help of a ray diagram when object is placed 6cm
away from the pole of a convex mirror.

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 10) A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 48cm in front of a mirror by
keeping the flame at a distance of 12cm from its pole.
i) Suggest the type of mirror he should use.
ii) Find the linear magnification of the image produced.
iii) How far is the image from its object?
iv) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
11) How do you find the focal length of the concave mirror, explain with an activity.
12) Draw the ray diagrams for concave mirrors, for different positions of the object.
Multiple Choose Questions:
1. If an object is placed at C on the principal axis in front of a concave mirror, the position of the
image is
A) at infinity B) between F and C C) at C D) beyond C
2. We get a diminished image with a concave mirror when the object is placed [ ]
A) at F B) between the pole and F C) at C D) beyond C
3. We get a virtual image in a concave mirror when the object is placed [ ]
A) at F B) between the pole and F C) at C D) beyond C
4. Concave mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in cars because
(i) they have a wide field of view (ii) the image is always virtual
(iii) the image is always diminished (iv) the image is always erect;
Which of these reasons is/are correct? [ ]
A. (ii) and (iv) B. (ii) and (iii) C. (i) and (ii) D. (i) and (iv)
5. Ray which seems to be traveling through the focus of a convex mirror, path of the reflected ray
of an incident
A) parallel to the axis B) along the same path in opposite direction C) through F D)
through C
6. Size of the image formed by a convex mirror is always [ ]
A) Enlarged B) Diminished C) Equal to the size of object D) None
7. An object is placed at a certain distance on the principal axis of a concave mirror. The image is
formed at a distance of 30 cm from the mirror. Find the object distance if the radius of curvature R =
15 cm [ ]
A) 15 cm B) 10 cm C) 30 cm D) 7.5 cm
8. All the distances related to spherical mirrors will be measured from [ ]
A) object to image B) focus of the mirror C) pole of the mirror D) image to
object

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 9. The minimum distance from real object to a real image in a concave mirror is [ ]
A) 2f B) f C) 0 D) f/2
10. Which one of the following statements regarding a convex mirror is incorrect?
A. It always gives a real image B. It gives a wide field of view
C. It always gives an erect image D. It always gives a diminished image
11. When a small object is placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror between the focus and
the mirror, the image formed is
A. inverted, diminished and virtual B. erect, diminished and real
C. erect, magnified and virtual D. inverted, magnified and real
12. When an object is held very close to a concave mirror the image is
A. the same size and upright B. smaller and upright C. larger and inverted D. larger
and upright
13. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. The image formed by a concave mirror can be virtual erect and diminished.

B. A convex mirror always forms a virtual image of a real object.

C. A concave mirror forms an image the same size as the object if the object is placed at the
centre of curvature.

D. The image formed by a convex mirror is always erect and diminished.

14. An object is placed at a distance of 2f from a concave mirror of focal length f. The magnification
of the image is
A.2 B.1 C.1½ D.½
Bits:
1. The size of the image formed by a convex mirror is always --------
Ans. Smaller than the object
2. In spherical mirrors ratio between the radius of curvature and focal length is -------- Ans. 2 : 1
3. Rearview mirrors in vehicles are ---------. Ans. Convex mirrors
4. The radius of curvature R =------------------ Ans. 2f
5. The Shape of TV antenna is ----------- Ans. Concave
6. The image which is obtained on the screen is called --------- Ans. Real image
7. All the distances related to spherical mirrors will be measured from --------- Ans. Pole of the
mirror
8. The distance between the pole and the focal point is --------Ans. Radius
9. The minimum distance from a real object to a real image in a concave mirror is------ Ans. 0

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 10. Magnification m = ------- Ans. m=hi/ho = -v/u
11. If an object is placed at C on the principal axis in front of a concave mirror, the position of the
image is -------------- Ans. At C
12. We get a diminished image with a concave mirror when the object is placed ---------
Ans. between the pole and the focal
point
13. The mirror used by the Dentist-------- Ans. Concave mirror

02. Chemical Equations

01. What information do you get from a balanced chemical equation?
Ans. A balanced chemical equation can provide the following information:
1) The reactants and products through their symbols and formulae.
2) The ratio of molecules of reactants and products.
3) As molecular masses are expressed in unified mass (u), the relative masses of reactants and
products are known from the equation.
4) If the masses are expressed in grams then the equation also gives the molar ratios of reactants
and products.
02. What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should we balance a chemical
equation?
Ans. A chemical equation in which the number of atoms of different elements on the reactant side
(left side) are same as those on product side (right side) is called a balanced chemical equation.
We should balance the equation because:
1) According to the law of conservation of mass, the total mass of the products formed in chemical
reaction must be equal to the mass of reactants consumed.
2) The number of atoms of each element before and after reaction must be same.
3) Atoms are neither created nor destroyed in chemical reactions.
4) So we should balance a chemical equation.
03 .Balance the following chemical equations.
)1𝑵𝒂𝑶𝑯 + 𝑯𝟐 𝑺𝑶𝟒 ⟶ 𝑵𝒂𝟐 𝑺𝑶𝟒 + 𝑯𝟐 𝑶 2) 𝑯𝒈(𝑵𝑶𝟑 )𝟐 + 𝑲𝑰 ⟶ 𝑯𝒈𝑰𝟐 + 𝑲𝑵𝑶𝟑 3)
𝑲𝑪𝒍𝑶𝟑 ⟶ 𝑲𝑪𝒍 + 𝑶𝟐
Ans. )12𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 ⟶ 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4 + 2𝐻2 𝑂
2) 𝐻𝑔(𝑁𝑂3 )2 + 2𝐾𝐼 ⟶ 𝐻𝑔𝐼2 + 2𝐾𝑁𝑂3
3) 2𝐾𝐶𝑙𝑂3 ⟶ 2𝐾𝐶𝑙 + 3𝑂2

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04. Mention the physical states of the reactants and products of the following chemical
reactions, and balance the equations
1) 𝑪𝟔 𝑯𝟏𝟐 𝑶𝟔 ⟶ 𝑪𝟐 𝑯𝟓 𝑶𝑯 + 𝑪𝑶𝟐 02) 𝑵𝑯𝟑 + 𝑪𝒍𝟐 ⟶ 𝑵𝟐 𝑯𝟒 + 𝑵𝑯𝟒 𝑪𝒍 03) 𝑵𝒂 + 𝑯𝟐 𝑶 ⟶
𝑵𝒂𝑶𝑯 + 𝑯𝟐
Ans. 1) 𝐶6 𝐻12 𝑂6 (s) ⟶ 2𝐶2 𝐻5 𝑂𝐻(𝑙) + 2𝐶𝑂2 (𝑔)↑

02) 4𝑁𝐻3 (𝑔) + 𝐶𝑙2 (𝑔) ⟶ 𝑁2 𝐻4 (𝑙) + 2𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙(𝑠)

03) 2𝑁𝑎(𝑠) + 2𝐻2 𝑂(𝑙) ⟶ 2𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻(𝑙) + 𝐻2 (𝑔) ↑

05. Balance the following chemical equation after writing the symbolic
representation.
1) Calcium Hydroxide + Nitric acid ⟶ Water + Calcium Nitrate
2) Magnesium + Iodine ⟶ Magnesium Iodide

3) Zinc + Calcium Chloride ⟶ Zinc Chloride + Calcium

Ans. 1) Calcium Hydroxide + Nitric acid ⟶ Water + Calcium Nitrate
𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 + 2𝐻𝑁𝑂3 ⟶ 𝐶𝑎(𝑁𝑂3 )2 + 2𝐻2 𝑂
2) Magnesium + Iodine ⟶ Magnesium Iodide
𝑀𝑔 + 𝐼2 ⟶ 𝑀𝑔𝐼2
3) Zinc + Calcium Chloride ⟶ Zinc Chloride + Calcium
𝑍𝑛 + 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2 ⟶ 𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑙2 + 𝐶𝑎

06. Write the following chemical reactions including the physical states of the
substances and balance chemical equations.
(a) Sodium Hydroxide reacts with Hydrochloric acid to form Sodium Chloride and
Water.
(b) Barium Chloride reacts with liquid Sodium Sulphate to leave Barium Sulphate as a
precipitate and also form liquid Sodium Chloride.
Ans. a )Sodium Hydroxide reacts with Hydrochloric acid to form Sodium Chloride and Water.
𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻(aq) + 𝐻𝐶𝑙(aq) ⟶ 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙(aq) + 𝐻2 𝑂(aq)
b )Barium Chloride reacts with liquid Sodium Sulphate to leave Barium Sulphate as a precipitate
and also form liquid Sodium Chloride.
𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 (aq) + 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4 (aq) ⟶ 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4 (𝑠) + 2 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 (aq)
07. How can you demonstrate action of quick lime with water? What is the nature of the
product?
 Take about 1 g of quick lime (calcium oxide) in a beaker.
 Add 10 ml of water to this. Touch the beaker with your finger.

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  You notice that the beaker is hot.
 The reason is that the calcium oxide (quick lime) reacts with water with the liberation of heat
energy.
 Calcium oxide reacts with water and releases heat energy.
 𝐶𝑎𝑂 + 𝐻2 𝑂 ⟶ 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 + Heat
 White calcium oxide dissolves in water producing colourless solution.
 Dip the red litmus paper in it, Red litmus changes into blue colour.
 We conclude that the solution obtained is a basic solution.
08. Explain the reaction between Sodium sulphate and Barium chloride.
a) Take about 100ml of water in a beaker.
b) Dissolve a small quantity of sodium sulphate in it.
c) Take about 100 ml of water in another beaker.
d) Dissolve a small quantity of Barium chloride in it.
e) Add the two solutions.
f) We will get a white precipitate of Barium sulphate.
g) 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4 + 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 ⟶ 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4 ↓ +2 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙

09. What happens if dilute HCl is added to zinc granules? Explain the process with an
experiment.

i. Take few zinc granules in a conical flask.

ii. Add about 5ml of dilute hydrochloric acid to the conical flask.
iii. Immediately one gas is released.
iv. Keep a burning match stick near the mouth of conical flask.
v. The light of burning match stick put off with ‘pop’ sound.
vi. Thus indicates the H2 gas has released in this reaction.
vii. 𝑍𝑛 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 ⟶ 𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑙2 + 𝐻2
viii. When we touch the bottom of the conical flask with our finger, we feel hot.
ix. So, this reaction produces heat, It is a Exothermic reaction.
10. You have brushed the wall with an aqueous suspension of 𝑪𝒂(𝑶𝑯)𝟐 . After two days the wall
turned to white colour. What are the steps involved in white washing of the walls?

Ans. A solution of slaked lime is prepared by adding water to quick lime. When 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 is applied to the wall it
reacts with carbon dioxide in air to form a thin layer of calcium carbonate giving a shiny finish to the walls.

𝐶𝑎𝑂 + 𝐻2 𝑂 ⟶ 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 + 𝑄(𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦)

𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 + 𝐶𝑂2 ⟶ 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 𝐻2 𝑂

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11. Balance the following chemical equation and follow the steps involved in balancing a
chemical equation. 𝑪𝒖𝟐 𝑺 + 𝑶𝟐 ⟶ 𝑪𝒖𝑶𝟐 + 𝑺𝑶𝟐
Ans. Step - 1: Write the unbalanced equation using correct chemical formula for all substances.
𝐶𝑢2 𝑆 + 𝑂2 ⟶ 𝐶𝑢𝑂2 + 𝑆𝑂2
Step – 2: Compare no of atoms of each element on both sides. Balancing Cu, S, O atoms on both
sides.
2𝐶𝑢2 𝑆 + 3𝑂2 ⟶ 2𝐶𝑢𝑂2 + 2𝑆𝑂2
Step – 3: Write the co–efficient of smallest ratio.
2𝐶𝑢2 𝑆 + 3𝑂2 ⟶ 2𝐶𝑢𝑂2 + 2𝑆𝑂2
Step – 4: Verified above equation for balancing of atoms of each element on both sides.
2𝐶𝑢2 𝑆 + 3𝑂2 ⟶ 2𝐶𝑢𝑂2 + 2𝑆𝑂2
12. What is a skeleton equation?
Ans. An unbalanced chemical equation containing molecular formulae of the substances is known as a
skeleton equation.
.11What are “exothermic and endothermic” reactions?
Ans. The reaction that releases heat energy to the outside surroundings is called exothermic reaction.
Ex: 1. 𝐶 + 𝑂2 → 𝐶𝑂2 + 𝑄(𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡)
2. 𝐶𝑎𝑂 + 𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 + 𝑄(𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡)
And the reaction in which heat energy is absorbed into the reaction is known as an endothermic
reaction.
Ex: 1. 2𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3 + 𝑄(𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡) → 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3 + 𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝐶𝑂2 2. 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 𝑄(𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡) → 𝐶𝑎𝑂 + 𝐶𝑂2
Solve the following problems.

01) 2 moles of Zinc reacts with a cupric choloride solution containing 6.023x1022
formula units of CuCl2. Calculate the moles of copper obtained
Sol. Zn + C𝑢Cl2 ⟶ 𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑙2 + 𝐶𝑢
65 U + 134.5 U ⟶ 136 U + 63.5 U …………….(1)
1mole Zn + 1 mole C𝑢Cl2 ⟶ 1𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑙2 + 1𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝐶𝑢 (6.023 × 1022 = 0.1 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒)
1mole Zn + 1 mole C𝑢Cl2 ⟶ 1𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝐶𝑢
2 mole Zn + 0.1 mole C𝑢Cl2 ⟶ ?
2 × 65 + 0.1 × 134.5 ⟶ 𝑋 𝑔𝑟𝑚 𝐶𝑢
130 g Zn + 3.45 g C𝑢Cl2 ⟶ 𝑋 𝑔 𝐶𝑢
From the equation (1) ,134.5 U C𝑢Cl2 ⟶ 63.5 U 𝐶𝑢 then
3.45 g C𝑢Cl2 ⟶ ?

13.45×63.5
X= = 6.35 g = 0.1 mole
134.5

= 0.1 mole Cu is obtained in the reaction.

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02) 1 mole of propane (𝑪𝟑 𝑯𝟖 ) on combustion at STP gives ‘A’ kilo joules of heat energy.
Caliculate the heat libarated when 2.4 ltrs of propane on combustion at STP.

Sol. The balanced chemical reaction of combustion of propane is

𝐶3 𝐻8 + 5𝑂2 → 3𝐶𝑂2 + 4𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡 [C = 12, H = 1, O = 16]

 From the equation we came to know that 1 mole of propane react with 5 moles of oxygen to
produce 3 moles of 𝐻2 𝑂 and 4 moles of water and Heat.
 At STP 1 mole of propane occupies 22.4 litres.
 So combustion of 22.4 litres of propane produces “x” kilo joules of heat.
𝒙
 Amount of heat energy liberated on combustion of 2.4 litres of propane = × 𝟐. 𝟒
𝟐𝟐.𝟒
= 0.1 × 𝑥 𝑘𝑖𝑙𝑜 joules of heat energy.

03) Calculate the mass and volume of oxygen required at STP to convert 2.4 kg of
graphite into carbon dioxide.
Sol. The balanced equation is 𝐶 + 𝑂2 → 𝐶𝑂2
 1 mole of graphite react with 1 mole of oxygen to form 1mole to form 1mole of carbon dioxide.
 12 g of graphite react with 32 g of oxygen to produce 44g of carbon dioxide.
32
 The amount of oxygen required to convert 2.4 kg of graphite into carbon dioxide = 12 × 2400
= 6400 g = 6.4 kgs
Some important questions.

01) Calculate the volume of O2 at STP required to completely burn 100 al of acetylene (C2H2)

02) Sita took a small amount of powder in a test tube, heated it with a spirit lamp, and filled the
resulting gas into the solution in the second test tube. In the second test tube the solution
turned milky white. then;
a) What will be the substance heated?
b) What will be the gas evolved?
c) What is the solution taken in the second test tube?

03) Balance the following equations.

a) 𝐴𝑙(𝑂𝐻)3 ⟶ 𝐴𝑙2 𝑂3 + 𝐻2 𝑂
b) 𝑁𝐻3 + 𝐶𝑢𝑂 ⟶ 𝐶𝑢 + 𝑁2 + 𝐻2 𝑂
c) 𝐴𝑙2 (𝑆𝑂4 )3 + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 ⟶ 𝐴𝑙(𝑂𝐻)3 + 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4
d) 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 + 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 ⟶ 𝐶𝑎(𝑁𝑂3 )2 + 𝐻2 𝑂
e) 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 ⟶ 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4 + 𝐻2 𝑂
f) 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 ⟶ 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙

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 04) Balance the following equations.
i. 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4 + 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 ⟶ 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4 + 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙
ii. 𝐴𝑙4 𝐶3 + 𝐻2 𝑂 ⟶ 𝐶𝐻4 + 𝐴𝑙(𝑂𝐻)3
iii. 𝑃𝑏(𝑁𝑂3 )2 ⟶ 𝑃𝑏𝑂 + 𝑁𝑂2 + 𝑂2
iv. 𝐹𝑒2 𝑂3 + 𝐴𝑙 ⟶ 𝐴𝑙2 𝑂3 + 𝐹𝑒
05) Balance the following equations.
1. 𝑍𝑛 + 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 → 𝑍𝑛 (𝑁𝑂3 ) + 𝐴𝑔
2. 𝐹𝑒2 𝑂3 + 𝐶 → 𝐹𝑒 + 𝐶𝑂2
3. 𝐴𝑔 + 𝐻2 𝑆 + 𝑂2 → 𝐴𝑔2 𝑆 + 𝐻2 𝑂
4. 𝐶𝑢 + 𝑂2 → 𝐶𝑢𝑂
5. 𝑁𝑎 + 𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻2
6. 𝐾2 𝐶𝑂3 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 𝐾𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝐶𝑂2
 Choose the correct answer

01) Standard Temperature and Pressure means……………… ( )

a) 273 C , 1 bar b) 273 k, 1 bar c) 0 C, 1 atma d) 0 K, 1 atma
02) Every gas at STP occupies ------- litres of volume
a) 22.4 b) 24.2 c) 224 d) 230
03) Avogadro’s Number is ……………… ( )
a) 6.0 × 1022 b) 6023 × 1022 c) 6.023 × 1022 d) 2.023 × 1022
04) Colour of Silver Bromide is ………….. ( )
a) Red b) green c) blue d) pale yellow
05) In Chemical reaction precipitate is indicates with…………… ( )
a) ⟶ b) ↓ c) ↑ d) ←
06) The chemical reaction in which energy is absorbed to form a new compound is called -- ( )
a) Exothermic b) Endothermic c) Thermal d) Photochemical
07) A chemical equation should be balanced because the law ----- should be verified ( )
a) Constant proportions b) Conservation of mass c) Law of equality d) Law of balance
08) Burning of liquid petroleum gas (LPG) is a ------- change ( )
a) Physical b) Chemical c) Both a and b d) None
09) Atomic mass of Oxygen is -------
a) 8U b) 23U c) 27U d) 16U
10) Number of moles of Oxygen needed to produce 4 moles of water on reacting with 4 moles of
Hydrogen gas is ------
a) 1 mole b) 2 moles c) 3 moles d) 4 moles
Bits:

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 1. Standard Temperature and Pressure means……………… (273 K, 1 bar)
2. Every gas at STP occupies ------- litres of volume (22.4)
3. A chemical equation should be balanced because the law ----- should be verified
(Conservation of mass)
4. The reaction that release heat energy to the outside surroundings is called -----
(exothermic reaction)
5. The reaction in which heat energy is absorbed into the reaction is known as ------
(endothermic reaction)
6. Colour of Silver Bromide is………….. (pale yellow)
7. Avogadro’s Number is ……………… (6.023 × 1022 )
8. In Chemical reaction precipitate is indicates with…………… ( )

03. ACIDS BASES AND SALTS

1. Complete the following table.
SL Phenolphthalei Methyl orange
Sample Red litmus Blue Litmus
No n solution solution
Solution paper paper
1 𝐻𝐶𝐿 No change Red litmus No change Red colour
2 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4
3 𝐻𝑁𝑂3
4 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻
5 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 Blue litmus No change Pink colour Yellow colour
6 𝐾𝑂𝐻
7 𝑀𝑔(𝑂𝐻)2
8 𝑁𝐻4 𝑂𝐻
2. What are Olfactory Indicators? Give two examples.
Ans. An Olfactory indicator is defined as a substance whose smell varies when it is mixed with an
acidic or basic solution. Such substances can be used in the laboratory to test whether a solution is a
base or an acid, and this process is called olfactory titration.
Onion, clove oil and vanilla extract are examples.
3. What type of reaction takes place in the stomach when an antacid tablet is
consumed?
 Ans. A neutralization reaction takes place in the stomach while an antacid tablet is
consumed.

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  Antacids function by neutralising (counteracting) the acid in the stomach.
 Antacids contain substances that are bases (alkalis), which are the polar opposite of acids.
 A reaction between an acid and a base is called neutralisation. The stomach contents become
less caustic as a result of this neutralisation.
4. Why pickles and sour substances are not stored in brass and copper vessels?
Ans. Pickles and other sour substances contain acids.
Therefore, when they are kept in brass and copper vessels, the metal reacts with the acid to
liberate hydrogen gas and other harmful products, thereby spoiling the food.
5. Write an activity to show the reaction of acids with metals.
Aim: To show the reaction of acids with metals.
Required Materials: Test tube, Delivery tube, Glass trough, Candle, Soap water, Dil HCl, Zinc
granules etc,..
Procedure:
1) Set the apparatus as shown in figure.
2) Take about 10ml of dil HCl in a test
tube and add a few Zinc granules to it.
3) We will observe the formation of gas
bubbles in the surface of Zinc
granules.
4) Pass the gas being evolved through
the soap water.
5) Gas filled bubbles are formed in the
soap solution which rise into the air.
6) Bring a burning candle near the gas filled bubbles.
7) The gas present in a soap bubble burns with a ‘pop’ sound.
Observations:
[Link] addition of HCl to the Zinc granules a hissing gas is evolved immediately.
2. Burning candle is put off with pop sound.
Result: Only Hydrogen gas burns making a ‘pop’ sound. So we will notice that Hydrogen gas is
evolved in this experiment.

2𝐻𝐶𝑙 + 𝑍𝑛 → 𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑙2 + 𝐻2
𝐴𝑐𝑖𝑑 + 𝑀𝑒𝑡𝑎𝑙 → 𝑆𝑎𝑙𝑡 + 𝐻𝑦𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑔𝑒𝑛
Conclusion: From the above experiment we can conclude that when acid reacts with metal, 𝐻2 gas is
evolved.

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6. Write an activity to show the reaction of acids with carbonates.
Aim: To show the reaction of acids with carbonates.
Required Materials: Two test tubes, Sodium carbonate, Two holes rubber cork, Thistle funnel,
Stand, Dilute hydrochloric acid, Delivery tube, Calcium carbonate etc,.
Procedure:
1) Take a test with 0.5 gm of sodium carbonate,
2) Close the test tube with two holed rubber cork.
3) Insert a thistle funnel through one hole and insert a
delivery tube through the other hole.
4) Pour 2ml of dilute HCl to the test tube. Immediately a
gas is released from the test tube.
5) Pass the gas produced through lime water (calcium
hydroxide solution) as shown in Fig.
Observations:
a. After adding 𝐻𝐶𝑙 to 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3 a gas is released.
b. And this gas change the lime water to milky white. Hence the gas is 𝐶𝑂2
Chemical reaction: 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3 + 2𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 2𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐶𝑂2 + 𝐻2 𝑂
𝑀𝑒𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑡𝑒 + 𝐴𝑐𝑖𝑑 → 𝑆𝑎𝑙𝑡 + 𝐶𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑛 𝑑𝑖𝑜𝑥𝑖𝑑𝑒 + 𝑊𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟
Result: can conclude that the reaction of metal carbonates with acids give a corresponding salt,
carbon dioxide and water.
7. What is a neutralization reaction? Give two examples.
Ans: The reaction of an acid with a base to give a salt and water is known as a neutralization
reaction. In general, a neutralization reaction can be written as: 𝐵𝑎𝑠𝑒 + 𝐴𝑐𝑖𝑑 → 𝑆𝑎𝑙𝑡 +
𝑊𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟
Examples: 1. 𝐻𝐶𝑙 + 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 → 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2 𝑂
2. 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 → 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝑁𝑎 + 𝐻2 𝑂
8. Explain the following
I. Reaction of Acid with metal oxide
II. Reaction of base with non-metal oxide
Reaction of Acid with metal Oxide: Metal oxide reacts with acid to give salt and water. Generally
Metal oxides are basic in nature.
𝑀𝑒𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑜𝑥𝑖𝑑𝑒 + 𝐴𝑐𝑖𝑑 → 𝑆𝑎𝑙𝑡 + 𝑊𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟
Reaction of base with non-metal oxide: Non-metal oxide reacts with acid to give salt and water.
Generally Non-metallic acids are acidic in nature.
𝑁𝑜𝑛 − 𝑀𝑒𝑡𝑎𝑙𝑖𝑐 𝑜𝑥𝑖𝑑𝑒 + 𝐴𝑐𝑖𝑑 → 𝑆𝑎𝑙𝑡 + 𝑊𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟

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9. Compounds such as alcohols and glucose contain hydrogen but are not categorized
as acids. Describe an activity to prove it.
Aim: Compounds such as alcohols and glucose contain hydrogen but are not categorized as acids.
Material Required: Glucose, Alcohol, Dil. HCl,Dil-H2SO4,Beaker,Connecting wires,230 voltage AC
supply, Bulb, Graphite rods etc,.
Procedure:
1. Prepare glucose, alcohol, hydrochloric acid and sulphuric
acid solutions.
2. Connect two different coloured electrical wires to graphite
rods separately as shown in figure.
3. Connect free ends of the wire to 230 volts AC plug.
4. Complete the circuit as shown in the figure by connecting a
bulb to one of the wires.
5. Now pour some dilute HCl in the beaker and switch on the
current.
Observation: The bulb starts glowing.
Repetition: Repeat activity with dilute sulphuric acid, glucose and alcohol solutions separately.
Observation:
1. We will notice that the bulb glows only in acid solutions.
2. But the bulb does not glow in glucose and alcohol solutions.
Result:
1. Glowing of bulb indicates that there is flow of electric current through the solution.
2. Acid solutions have ions and the movement of these ions in solution helps for flow of electric
current through the solution.
Conclusion:
1. The positive ion (cation) present in HCl solution is H+.
2. This suggests that acids produce hydrogen ions H+ in solution, which are, responsible for their
acidic properties.
3. In glucose and alcohol solution the bulb did not glow indicating the absence of H+ ions in these
solutions.
10. Acids produce ions only in aqueous solution. Justify your answer with an activity.
Activity:
 Take about 1.0g of solid NaCl in a clean and dry test tube.
 Add some concentrated sulphuric acid to the test tube.

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 Immediately HCl gas is released from the test
tube.
 2𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 → 2𝐻𝐶𝑙 + 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4
 Test the gas evolved successively with dry and
wet blue litmus paper.
 There is no change in colour of dry litmus, but
wet blue litmus paper changed its colour to red.
 Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not change the
colour of the dry litmus paper because it does not contain hydrogen ( 𝐻 + ) ions or Hydronium (
𝐻3 𝑂+ ) ions.
 Aqueous Hydrogen chloride gas change the colour of the litmus paper because it contains
hydrogen ( 𝐻 + ) ions or Hydronium ( 𝐻3 𝑂+ ) ions.
Conclusion:
We can conclude that dry 𝐻𝐶𝑙 gas (Hydrogen chloride) is not an acid, but 𝐻𝐶𝑙 aqueous solution
is an acid.
11. What happens when a base is dissolved in water?
 Ans. On dissolving bases in water produces hydroxide (OH- ) ions.
 Bases which are soluble in water are called alkalis.
 All bases do not dissolve in water.
 𝐵𝑒(𝑂𝐻)2 is slightly soluble in water.
 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝑁𝑎+ + 𝑂𝐻 − ; 𝐾𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝐾 + + 𝑂𝐻 −
12. Why does distilled water not conduct electricity, whereas rain water does?
Ans: 1) Distilled water is a pure form of water and is devoid of any ionic species. Therefore it does
not conduct electricity.
2) Rainwater, being an impure form of water, contains many ionic species such as acid and
therefore, it conducts electricity.
13. While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to
water and not water to the acid?
 Ans. The process of dissolving an acid or a base in water is an exothermic process.
 Care must be taken while mixing concentrated nitric acid or sulphuric acid with water.
 The acid must always be added slowly to water with constant stirring.
 If water is added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash
out and cause burns.

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  The glass container may also break due to excessive local heating.
 Hence it is recommended that the acid should be added to water but not water to the acid,
while diluting the acid.
14. What is meant by dilution of acid/base?
Ans. Mixing an acid or base with water results in decrease in the concentration of ions (𝐻3 𝑂+ /𝑂𝐻 − )
per unit volume. Such a process is called dilution and the acid or the base is said to be diluted.
15. Write an activity to know whether the acid is strong or weak.
Activity:
1. Take dilute 𝐻𝐶𝑙 in a beaker.
2. Close it with cardboard and introduce two different coloured electrical wires through the holes
made on it.
3. Connect a bulb and make the connection as shown in the figure.
4. Do the same replacing dilute 𝐻𝐶𝑙 with dilute 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻
Observation:
The bulb glows brightly in 𝐻𝐶𝑙 solution, while the bulb’s intensity is low in acetic acid solution.
Result:
More ions are present in 𝐻𝐶𝑙 solution which is a strong acid than in 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 solution which is a
weak acid.
16. Explain pH scale.
pH scale:
 A scale for measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a solution is called pH scale.
 pH value of a solution is simply a number which indicates the acidic or basic nature of a
solution.
 The pH of neutral solutions is 7. Values less than 7 on the pH scale represent an acidic solution.
 pH value of a solution above ‘7’ represents a basic solution.
 The strength of acid or base depends on the concentration of 𝐻3 𝑂+ ions or 𝑂𝐻 − produced in
solution.

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17. Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH as 4,
1, 11, 7, and 9, respectively, classify the solutions as give below.
a) Neutral b) Strongly alkaline c) strongly acidic d) weakly acidic e) weakly
alkaline
Ans.
Solution A B C D E
pH value 4 1 11 7 9
a) Neutral -- D (𝑃𝐻 = 7)
b) Strongly alkaline – C (𝑝𝐻 = 11)
c) Strongly acidic -- B (𝑝𝐻 = 1)
d) Weak acid -- A (𝑝𝐻 = 4)
e) Weak alkaline -- E (𝑝𝐻 = 9)
18. Why the flow of acid rain into a river make the survival of aquatic life in a river
difficult?
Ans. 01) When pH value of rain water is less than 5.6 it is called acid rain.
02) When acid rain flows into the rivers it lower the pH of the river water.
03) Living organisms can survive only on a narrow range of PH change.
04) So flow of acid rain water into rivers is dangerous to the survival of aquatic life.
19. Why tooth decay start when the pH of mouth is lower than 5.5?
 Ans. Tooth enamel is the hardest substance in the body.
 It does not dissolve in water but is corroded when the pH in the mouth is below 5.5.
 It happens due to the bacteria which produce acids by degradation of sugar and food particles
remaining in the mouth.
 The best way to prevent this is to clean the mouth after eating food.
 Using toothpastes, which are generally basic neutralize the excess acid and prevent tooth
decay.
20. What will happen if the pH value of chemicals in our body increases?
Ans. When pH value of chemicals in our body increases then the body will effect by some problems.
They are
1) Digestion problems raise in the stomach.
2) pH changes as the cause of tooth decay.
21. Why do living organism have narrow pH range?
Answer: Because increasing acidity is thought to have a range of possibly harmful consequences

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 such as depressing metabolic rate and immune response in some organisms and causing coral
bleaching
22. Explain Chloro - Alkali process.
 Ans. When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride (called brine),
it decomposes to form sodium hydroxide.
 The process is called the chloro-alkali process – because of the products formed chloro for
chlorine and alkali for sodium
hydroxide.
 2 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 ( 𝑎𝑞) + 2𝐻2 𝑂 (𝑙) →
2 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝐶𝑙2 (𝑔) + 𝐻2 (𝑔)
 Chlorine gas is given off at the
anode and hydrogen gas at the
cathode, sodium hydroxide solution
is formed near the cathode the three
products produced in this process.
23. Write the preparation and uses of
Bleaching powder.
Ans. Bleaching powder is produced by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime [𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 ].
𝐶𝑎 (𝑂𝐻)2 + 𝐶𝑙2 → 𝐶𝑎𝑂𝐶𝑙2 + 𝐻2 𝑂

Uses of Bleaching Powder:

1. It is used for bleaching cotton and linen in the textile industry for bleaching wood pulp in
paper industry and for bleaching washed clothes in laundry.
2. Used as an oxidizing agent in many chemical industries.
3. Used for disinfecting drinking water to make it free of germs.
4. Used as a reagent in the preparation of chloroform.
24. Write the uses of Baking soda.
Ans. Uses of Baking soda:
 Baking soda is used for faster cooking. It acts as mild antiseptic.
 In preparation of baking powder. In making cold drinks.
 As a laboratory reagent.
 It is also used as soda acid in fire extinguishers.
 As an antacid to decrease the acidity of stomach. Due to its basic alkaline nature it neutralizes
the extra acid present in the stomach.

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25. What is baking powder? How does it make the cake soft and spongy?

 Ans: Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda and mild edible acid such as tartaric acid.

 When baking powder is heated or mixed in water the following reaction takes places.
 𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3 + 𝐻 + ⟶ 𝐶𝑂2 + 𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝑁𝑎− (Sodium salt of acid)
 𝐶𝑂2 produced during the reaction causes bread or cake to rise making them soft and spongy.

26. Give important uses of washing soda.

Ans. Uses of washing soda:
a) Washing soda is used in glass, soap and paper industries.
b) It is used for removing permanent hardness of water.
c) It is used in the manufacture of borax.
d) Sodium carbonate can be used as a cleaning agent for domestic purposes.
27. How is Plaster of paris prepared? Write its uses.
Ans. On careful heating of gypsum (𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑂4 2 𝐻2 𝑂) at 373 K it loses water molecules partially to become
Calcium sulphate hemihydrate (𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑂4 · ½ 𝐻2 𝑂). This is called plaster of paris.
1 1
𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑂4 2 𝐻2 𝑂 ⟶ 𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑂4 𝐻2 𝑂 + 1 𝐻2 𝑂
2 2
Uses of Plaster of paris:
 Doctors use as plaster for supporting fractured bones in the right position.
 Plaster of paris is used for making toys, materials for decoration and for making surfaces
smooth, cheap ornaments, cosmetics, blackboard, chalk, and casts for statues.
 Used for protection as fire-proofing material.
 Used in sealing air gaps in apparatus in labs.
28. Plaster of Paris should be stored in moisture – proof container. Explain why?
Ans: Plaster of paris is a white powder. It is easily absorbs water and forms hard gypsum. So it should
be stored in a moisture proof container.
29. What is meant by “water of crystallization” of a substance? Describe an activity to
show the water of crystallization.
Ans. Water of Crystallization: Water of crystallization is the fixed number of water molecules
present in one formula unit of a salt in its crystalline form. Ex: CuSO4 • 5H2O.
It means that five water molecules are present in one formula unit of copper sulphate.
Activity to show the water of crystallization:
1. Take a few crystals of copper sulphate in a dry test tube and heat the test tube.
2. We observe water droplets on the walls of the test tube and salt turns white.

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 3. Add 2 – 3 drops of water on the sample of copper sulphate obtained
after heating.
4. We observe, the blue colour of copper sulphate crystals is restored.
Reason:
1. In the above activity copper sulphate crystals which seem to be dry
contain the water of crystallization, when these crystals are heated,
water present in crystals is evaporated and the salt turns white.
2. When the crystals are moistened with water, the blue colour
reappears.
30. A milk man adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?
Ans. a) The milkman shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline because in alkaline
condition, milk does not set as curd easily.
b) Since this milk is slightly basic than usual milk, acids produced to set the curd are neutralized
by the base. Therefore, it takes a longer time for the curd to set.
31. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in the test tubes A and B.
Hydrochloric acid is added to test tube A, while acetic acid is added to test tube B. In
which test tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and why?
1. The fizzing will occur strongly on the test tube A, in which Hydrochloric acid is added.
2. This is because 𝐻𝐶𝑙 is a stronger acid then 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 and therefore produces hydrogen gas at a
faster speed due to which fizzing occurs.
32. Account for the following:
a) State the relation between hydrogen ion concentration of an aqueous solution
and its pH.
b) An aqueous solution has a pH value of 7.0 Is this solution acidic basic or neutral?
c) Which has a higher pH value, 1M HCl or 1M NaOH solution?
d) Tooth enamel is one of the hardest substances in our body. How does it undergo
damage due to eating chocolates and sweets? What should we do to prevent it?
e) How do H+ ions exist in water?
Ans: a) If H+ ion concentration is more pH will be less and vice versa or pH of a solution is inversely
proportional to H+ ion concentration.
b) This solution is neutral. c) 1M NaOH solution

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 d) When the 𝑝𝐻 in the mouth is below 5.5 bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by
degradation of sugar and corrode the tooth enamel. It can be prevented by using tooth pastes which
are generally basic.
e) As hydronium ion (𝐻3 𝑂+ )
Some important information

 Acid: The substance which turns blue litmus to red and sour to taste is called acid.
 Base: The substance which turns red litmus to blue and soapy to touch is called Base.

Indicator Acid Base

Blue litmus Red litmus No change
Red litmus No change Blue
Phenolphthalein solution No change Pink
Methyl orange solution Red Yellow

 pH scale: The negative logarithm of H+ ion concentration is called pH.

 For Acids: pH is 0 to 7 and For Bases 7 to 14 and 7 is for neutral solutions
 The colours produced on the pH paper at different values are listed below.
 pH  Colour  pH  colour
 0  Dark red  8  Greenish blue
 1  Red  9  Blue
 2  Red  10  Navy Blue
 3  Orange red  11  Purple
 4  Orange  12  Dark purple
 5  Orange yellow  13  Violet
 6 Greenish yellow  14  Deep violet
 7  Green  
Answer the following questions:
01) Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper
vessels?
02) You have been provide with three test tubes one of them contains distilled
water and the other two contains an acidic solution and a basic solution,

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 respectively. If you are given only red litmus paper, how will you identify the
contents of each tube?
03) Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? Illustrate
with an example. How will you test for the presence of this gas?
04) Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not
categorized as acids. Describe an activity to prove it.
05) A sanitary worker uses a white chemical having strong smell of chloride gas
to disinfect the water tank.
i) Identify the chemical compound write its chemical formula.
ii) Give its two uses other than disinfection.
06) What is meant by water of crystallization ? How many molecules of water
are present in hydrated copper sulphate ? Write its formula. What colour change
do you observe when it is heated?
07) Tooth enamel is the hardest substance in our body. Name the compound of
which it is made up of. At what pH of the mouth it gets corroded? State the role of
bacteria present in the mouth. Suggest a method to prevent tooth decay.
08) Write an activity to show that all metal carbonates and hydrogen
carbonates react with acids to give a corresponding salt.
09) Blue and red litmus papers are placed simultaneously in a colourless
aqueous solution. It is found that the colour of both litmus papers is red. What is
the nature of the solution and why?
10) For making cake, baking powder is taken. If at home your mother uses
baking soda instead of baking powder in cake,
a) How will it affect the taste of the cake and why?
b) How can baking soda be converted into baking powder?

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The colour of methyl orange indicator in acidic medium is

A) yellow B) green C) orange D) red Answer: D) red

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 2. The colour of phenolphthalein indicator in basic solution is
A) yellow B) green C) pink D) orange Answer: C) pink
3. Colour of methyl orange in alkali conditions
A) orange B) yellow C) red D) blue Answer: B) yellow
4. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be
A) 1 B) 4 C) 5 D) 10
5. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water
milky, the solution contains ……
A) NaCl B) HCl C) LiCl D) KCl Answer: B) HCl
6. If a base dissolves in water, by what name is it better known?
A) neutralization B) basic C) acid D) alkali Answer: D) alkali
7. Which of the following substances when mixed together will produce table salt?
A) Sodium thiosulphate and sulphur dioxide B) Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide
C) Chlorine and oxygen D) Nitric acid and sodium hydrogen carbonate
Answer: B) Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide
8. What colour would hydrochloric acid (pH = 1) turn the universal indicator?
A) Orange B) Purple C) Yellow D) Red Answer: D) Red
9. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?
A) antibiotic B) analgesic C) antacid D) antiseptic Answer: C)
antacid
10. What gas is produced when magnesium is made to react with hydrochloric acid?
A) hydrogen B) oxygen C) carbon dioxide D) no gas is produced Answer: A) hydrogen
11. Which of the following is the most accurate way of showing neutralization?
A) Acid + base → acid-base solution B) Acid + base → salt + water
C) Acid + base → sodium chloride + hydrogen D) Acid + base → neutral solution
Answer: B) Acid + base → salt + water
12. Which one of the given is incorrect?
A. Acids turn blue litmus paper red B. Aqueous solutions of acids conduct electricity
C. Acids react with certain metals to form hydrogen gas D. None of these

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 13. Most of the oxides of metals when react with acid, form____
A. A base B. An acid C. A salt D. Either (1) or (2)
14. Generally, when certain metals react with an acid they release _______ gas.
A. Nitrogen B. Oxygen C. Hydrogen D. Argon
15. Which one of the given is formed when sodium hydrogen carbonate reacts with
hydrochloric acid?
A. Sodium chloride B. Carbon dioxide C. Water D. All of these

16.A strong acid:

A. Completely gets ionized in water B. Partially gets ionized in water
C. Do not get ionized in water D. All of these
17. Which of the given is a strong base?
A. Calcium hydroxide B. Magnesium hydroxide
C. Ammonium hydroxide D. Potassium hydroxide
18. Which of the given is used as an antacid?
A. Sodium hydrocarbonate B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Magnesium hydroxide D. All of these
19. Which one of the given is the pH value of pure water?
A. 0 B. 7 C. 8 D. 1
20. Which one of the given is true, if a substance has a pH value of 4?
A. The substance is a base B. The substance is an acid
C. The substance is a neutral substance D. Either (1) or (2)
21. Which one of the given is true, if a substance has a pH value of 7?
A. The substance is a base B. The substance is a acid
C. The substance is a neutral substance D. Either (1) or (2)
22. Which of the following phenomena occurs when acid is mixed with water
(a) Neutralization (b) Dilution (c) Ionization
A. Only (B) is correct B. (A) & (B) are correct
C. (B) & (C) are correct D. Only (C) is correct
23. Which one among the given is a weak base?
A. Sodium hydroxide B. Potassium hydroxide C. Ammonium hydroxide D. All of these

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 24. Which acid is used in cola to give it a biting sharp taste
A. Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄) B. Tartaric acid C. Phosphoric acid D. Citric acid
Bits:
1. The colour of the methyl orange indicator in an acidic medium is ---------- (red)
2. The colour of the phenolphthalein indicator in the basic solution is---------(pink)
3. Colour of methyl orange in alkali conditions------------ (yellow)
4. If a base dissolves in water, by what name is it better known?----(alkali)
5. What gas is produced when magnesium is made to react with hydrochloric acid?-----(
Hydrogen )
6. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion? (antacid)
7. No of water molecules in Washing soda is --------------- (10)
8. When the pH in the mouth is below -------- then tooth decay starts. (5.5)
9. If pH value is 0, then the solution is -------- (acidic nature)
10. Doctors use ------------- for supporting fractured bones in the right position.(plaster of Paris)

04. REFRACTION OF LIGHT AT CURVED

SURFACES
1. What is the Refraction of Light? Explain.
Ans. The bending of a light wave when it passes from one medium to another due to the change
in the speed of the light travelling the two different media is called the Refraction of light.
• Refraction from denser to rarer medium – When light rays pass through rarer to a denser
medium, the light rays bend towards the normal. Due to this the angle of refraction is smaller
than the angle of incidence. e.g. In the case when light rays pass from air to water or from air to
glass, it bends towards normal. It is because of the reason that the speed of light rays reduces
while passing from air to glass or water.

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 Refraction from rarer to denser medium – When light rays pass from denser to rarer
medium, the light rays bend away from the normal. Due to this the angle of refraction becomes
more than the angle of incidence. e.g. In case when light rays pass from water to air or glass to
air, light rays bend away from the normal. The speed of light rays becomes greater while passing
from glass or water to air.

2. Write an activity to observe the light refraction at curved surface.

Activity:
 Draw an arrow of length 4 cm using a black sketch pen on a thick sheet of paper.
 Take an empty cylindrical-shaped transparent vessel. Keep it on the table.
 Ask your friend to bring the sheet of paper on which arrow was drawn behind the vessel while
you look at it from the other side.
 We will see a diminished image of the arrow.
 Ask your friend to fill vessel with water.
 Look at the arrow from the same position as before.
 We can observe an inverted image.
Explanation:
 In the first case, when the vessel is empty, light from the arrow refracts at the curved interface,
moves through the glass, enters in to air then it again undergoes refraction on the opposite
curved surface of vessel and comes out into the air.
 In this way light travels through two media, comes out of the vessel and forms a diminished
image.
 In the second case, light enters the curved surface, moves through water, comes out of the glass
and forms an inverted image.

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3. What is a lens? How many types of lenses are there?
Ans. A transparent material bound by two surfaces, of which one or both surfaces are spherical is
called the lens.
There are two types of lenses:
i. Convex (Converging) lens- Convex lenses are thick in the middle and thinner at the edges. A convex
lens is also known as the converging lens because it converges parallel light rays inwards to a point
known as the focal point.
ii. Concave (Diverging) lens- Concave lenses are flat in the middle and thicker at the edges. The
concave lens is also known as a diverging lens because it diverges the parallel light rays outward from
a point known as the focal point.
Lenses come in various shapes including
biconvex, biconcave, plano-convex, plano-
concave, positive meniscus and negative
meniscus.

4. Write the differences between convex and concave lens.

Convex Lens Concave lens
 Convex lenses are thicker at the center  A concave lens has an inward curve in
and taper at their edges the center which makes the edges look
thicker.
 They are also called converging lenses,  Also called diverging lenses, as they
as they converge the parallel beam of diverge the incident parallel beam of
light that passes through them. light.
 It has a real focus  It has a virtual focus.
 It has a positive focal length.  It has a negative focal length.

5. Explain the following; a) Focal point of a lens b) Focal length of a lens.

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 Ans. a) Focal point of a lens: A parallel beam of light incident on a lens converges to a point as
shown in fig.- 8(c) or seems to emanate from a point on the principal axis as shown in fig.- 8(d).
The point of convergence (or) the point from

which rays seem to emanate is called focal point or focus (F). Every lens has two focal points.
b) Focal length of a lens: The distance between the focal point and optic centre is called the focal
length of lens denoted by ‘ f ‘
6. Explain the behavior of light rays when they are incident on a lens.

Situation I: Ray passing along the principal axis: Any ray passing along the principal axis is un
deviated.

Situation II: Ray passing through the optic centre. Any ray passing through the optic centre is also
un deviated.

Situation III: Rays

travelling parallel to the principal axis:
The rays passing parallel to the principal axis converge at the focus or appear to diverge from the
focus.

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 Situation IV: Ray passing through focus:
The ray passing through the focus will take a path parallel to principal axis after refraction.

Situation V: When parallel rays, making an angle with principal axis:

When parallel rays, making an angle with principal axis, fall on a lens, as shown in figures the rays
converge at a point or appear to diverge from a point lying on the focal plane.

 Rules to draw ray diagrams for image

formation by lenses:
-Select a point on the object placed at a point on the principal axis.
- Draw two rays that were chosen by you from rays mentioned in situations I to IV.
- Extend both rays to intersect at a point. This point gives position of the image.
- Draw a normal from point of intersection to the principal axis.
- Length of this normal represents the size of the image.

7. Explain the image formation by a convex lens for various positions of the object.
And also draw the ray diagrams.
Ans. 1. Object at infinity: When object is at infinity, Image is formed at focal point.

Characteristics of the Image:

1. Real image
2. Inverted image
3. Point size image.

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2. Object placed beyond the centre of curvature on the principal axis( Object is placed
beyond the C2 ): When Object is placed beyond the C2, the image is formed between C1 and F1.
Characteristics of the Image:
1. Real image
2. Inverted image
3. Small size image.

3. Object placed at the centre of curvature: When Object is placed at C2, the image is formed at
C1.
Characteristics of the Image:
1. Real image.
2. Inverted image.
3. Same size image.

4. Object placed between the centre of curvature and focal point ( Object placed
between C2 and F2): When Object is placed between C2 and F2, the image is formed beyond the C1.

Characteristics of the Image:

1. Real image.
2. Inverted image.
3. Magnified image.

5. Object located at the focal point: When Object is placed on F1, the image is formed at Infinity.
When the image is formed at an infinite distance away we can not discuss the size and nature of the
image.

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6. Object placed between focal point and optic centre: When the Object is placed between F2
and O, the image is formed on the same side of the lens
where the object is placed.

Characteristics of the Image:

1. Virtual image.
2. Erect image.
3. Magnified image.

8. If the image formed by a lens for all positions of the object placed in front of it is
always virtual, erect and diminished, state the type if the lens. Draw a ray diagram in
support of your answer.
Ans. Irrespective of the position of object, on the
principal axis, you will get an erect, virtual image,
diminished in size in between the focal point and optic
centre for concave lens.

9. Write the Lens formula and Lens maker’s formula and explain the terms.
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
Ans: i) Lens formula : 𝒇 = 𝒗 – 𝒖 f = focal length of the lens
v= Image distance.
u= Object distance.
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
ii) Lens maker’s formula: 𝒇 = ( 𝒏 − 𝟏) (𝑹𝟏 − 𝑹𝟐) f = focal length of the lens
n = refractive index
R1 and R2 are radii of curvature.
10. How do you verify experimentally that the focal length of a
convex lens is increased when it is kept in water?
Aim: To prove that the focal length of a convex lens is increased when it is
kept in water.
Apparatus: Convex lens of known focal length, Circular lens holder, tall
cylindrical glass tumbler, Black stone and Water.
Procedure:

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 1. Take a cylindrical glass tumbler whose height is much greater than the focal length of
the lens and fill it with water.
2. Keep a black stone at the bottom of the vessel.
3. Now dip the lens into water using circular lens holder such that it is at a distance which
is less than or equal to focal length of the lens in air.
4. Now see through the lens to have a view of the black stone.
5. Now increase the height of the lens till you are not able to see the stone’s image.
6. When the lens is dipped to a height which is greater than the focal length of lens in air,
we are able to see the image. Showing that focal length of the lens has increased water.
Conclusion: From this we conclude that the focal length of a convex lens is increased when it is kept
in water.
11. How do you find the focal length of a lens experimentally?
Aim: To find focal length of given lens.
Apparatus: Convex lens, meter scales, v stand, screen, candle and etc,.
Procedure:
1. Place the convex lens on a v stand.
2. Light a candle and take it far away from the lens along the principal axis.
3. Adjust the screen in the other side of the lens to get a clear image on it.
4. Measure the distance between the v stand and the screen and note in a table.
5. Now place the candle at a distance of 60cm from the lens, such that the flame of the
candle lies along the principal axis of the lens.
6. Adjust the screen to get a clear image and measure the values of object distance ‘u’ and
image distance ‘v’ and note them in a table.
7. Repeat the above step for various distances like 50cm,40cm, 30cm, etc, note the
corresponding ‘v’ values and note them in the table.
𝒖𝒗
Sl Object Image distance (v) Focal length 𝒇 = 𝒖+𝒗
no distance(u)
1 60cm
2 50cm
3 40cm
4 30cm
5 20cm
6 10cm

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 8. Calculate the focal length for each case f = --------- cm we find that the focal length
remains constant for a given lens.
Result: focal length of the given lens = x cm (constant).
12. A convex lens is made up of three different materials as shown in the figure. How
many of images does it form?
 Ans. A given convex lens is made up of three different materials.
 The three different materials have three different refractive indices.
 So the given lens have three different focal lengths. Hence it forms three images.
13. Suppose you are inside the water in a swimming pool near an edge. A friend is
standing on the edge. Do you find your friend taller or shorter than his usual height?
Why?
Ans. When I saw my friend through water, he seems to be taller than his actual height. This is due
to the light rays bends away from the normal as they enters rarer medium ( air) from denser
medium (water)
14. Draw ray diagrams of convex lens for various positions of the object.

Ans.

15. A man wants to get a picture of a zebra. He photographed a white donkey after
fitting a glass with black strips on to the lens of his camera. What photo will he get?
Explain.
I. Ans. The photographer will not get the photograph of zebra.
II. Instead of that, he will obtain a photograph of the white donkey with reduces brightness.

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 III. This happens because the black stripes in the glass , block the light from the object reducing
intensity of the image.
16. Draw the ray diagram for the formation of image by a concave lens when the
object is placed in between infinity and optical centre of the lens. State the nature of
the image formed.

Nature of the image: Virtual, erect and smaller than Object.

17. Write the uses of Convex lens and Concave lens.

Uses of Convex lens:
 Convex lens is used in microscopes and magnifying glasses to subject all the light to a specific
point.
 Convex lens is used as a camera lens in cameras as they focus light for a clean picture.
 Convex lens is used in the correction of hypermetropia.
Uses of Concave lens:
 They're used in binoculars and telescopes.
 They are used as peepholes in doors.
 They're found in flashlights, cameras, and other electronic devices.
 They are used in the correction od Myopia
18. Two converging lenses are to be placed in the path of parallel rays so that the rays
remain parallel after passing through both lenses. How should the lenses be
arranged? Explain with a neat ray diagram.
 Ans.
 Two lenses are placed in the path of parallel rays as
shown in figure.
 The first lens is placed in the direction of parallel
lines, which converges at focus.

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  The second lens is arranged so that it is the focus of 2nd then emerging rays will be parallel.
19. Explain magnification of the lens.
Ans. Magnification is defined as the ratio of the height of the image (hi) to the height of the object
(ho).
Magnification = Height of image / Height of object
𝒉𝒊 𝒗
∴ 𝑴𝒂𝒈𝒏𝒊𝒇𝒊𝒄𝒂𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏 𝒎 = =
𝒉𝒐 𝒖
SOME IMPORTANT INFORMATION:
 Any ray passing along the principal axis is un deviated
 A ray passing through optical centre proceeds un deviated through the lens.
 A ray passing parallel to the principal axis converges at the focus or appears to diverge from
the focus.
Sign conventions:
 All distances are measured from the pole.
 Distances measured in the direction of incident rays are taken as positive while in the
direction opposite of incident rays are taken negative.
 Distances above the principal axis are taken positive and below the principal axis are
taken negative.
𝟏 𝟏𝟎𝟎
 Power of a lens: Power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length . i.e 𝑷 = 𝒇 = 𝒄𝒎
𝒇

 Image formation by convex lens for different positions:

Sl Position of object Position of image Nature of image
no
01 At infinity At focus Real, inverted, highly
diminished.
02 At focus At infinity Real. Inverted, highly magnified
03 Beyond centre of Between focus and centre if Real, inverted, diminished
curvature curvature
04 At centre of At centre of curvature(C1) Real, inverted. And same in size
curvature(C2)
05 Between centre of Beyond C1 Real, inverted and magnified.
curvature and focus
06 Between optic centre Formed on the same side as Virtual, erect, magnified
and focus the object

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  Image formation by concave lens:
Sl Position of object Position of image Nature of image
no
01 Infinity Focus Virtual, erect, highly
diminished.
02 Anywhere between Between optic centre Virtual, erect, diminished
optic centre and and focus
infinity
Answer the following questions:
01) If the image formed by a lens for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always virtual,
erect and diminished, state the type if the lens. Draw a ray diagram in support of your answer,
if the numerical value of focal length of such a lens is 20cm find its power in new Cartesian sign
conventions.
02) The image of an object formed by a lens is of magnification -1 If the distance between
the object and its image is 60m, what is the focal length of the lens? If the object is moved
20cm towards the lens, where would the image be formed? State reason and also draw a ray
diagram in support of your answer.
03) “A convex lens can form a magnified erect as well magnified inverted imaged of an
object placed in front of it”. Draw ray diagram to justify this by statement stating the position
of the object with respect to the lens in each case.
04) The image formed by a spherical mirror is real inverted and is of magnification -2. If the
image is at distance of 30cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Find the focal length
of the mirror. List two characteristics of the image formed if the object is moved 10cm towards
the mirror.
05) A concave lens of focal length 15cm forms an image 10cm from the lens. How far is the
object placed from the lens?
06) The focal length of a converging lens is 20cm. An object of 2cm height is at a distance of
60cm from the lens. Where will the image be formed and what kind of image is it? And also
find the height of the image.
07)A double convex lens has two surfaces of equal radii ‘R’ and refractive index n = 1.5, find the
focal length ‘f’.

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 08) Find the refractive index of the glass which is a symmetrical convergent lens if its focal
length is equal to the radius of curvature of its surface.
09) Air bubble in water behaves like a concave lens. Why?
10) A student focused the image of a candle flame on a white screen by placing the flame at various
distances from the convex lens. He noted his observations.
Sl no Object distance (u) cm Image distance (v) cm
1 60 20
2 40 24
3 30 30
4 24 40
5 15 70
a) From the above table find the focal length of lens.

b) Which set of observations is incorrect and why?

c) In which case the size of object and image will be same? Give reason for your answer.
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which one of the following materials cannot be used to make a lens?
A) water B) glass C) plastic D) clay Answer: D) clay
2. Which of the following is true?
A) The distance of virtual image is always greater than the object distance for convex lens.
B) The distance of virtual image is not greater than the object distance for convex lens.
C) Convex lens always forms a real image. D) Convex lens always forms a virtual image.
Answer: B) The distance of virtual image is not greater than the object distance for convex lens.
3. The value of the focal length of the lens is equal to the value of the image distance when the rays are
A) passing through the optic centre B) parallel to the principal axis
C) passing through the focus D) in all the cases
Answer: D) in all the cases
4. A person is standing on the bank of a river. A fish inside water will see the person to be
A) taller B) shorter C) original height D) depends on fish Answer: A) taller
5. The radius of curvature of a plano convex lens is doubled without changing the material of medium,
its focal length will be
A) double B) halved C) remains same D) none Answer: A) double
6. The optical phenomena, twinkling of stars, is due to
A. Atmospheric reflection B. Total reflection

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 C. Atmospheric refraction D. Total refraction
7. Convex lens focus a real, point sized image at focus, the object is placed
A. At focus B. Between F and 2F C. At infinity D. At 2F
8. The unit of power of lens is
A. Metre B. Centimeter C. Diopter D. M -1
9. Two convex lenses having f focal lengths are kept in contact and then resultant focal length is 4.5
cm them f =
A) 2.25 cm B) 13.5 cm C) 4.5 cm D) 9 cm Answer: D
10. Focal length of convex lens is 20 cm, at what position of object, virtual, erect image is formed?
A) 40 cm B) 30 cm C) 10 cm D) 20 cm Answer: C

Fill in the Blanks

1. The rays from the distant object, falling on the convex lens pass through ……………….. .
2. The ray passing through the ……………….. of the lens is not deviated.
3. Lens formula is given by ……………….. .
4. The focal length of the plano-convex lens is 2R where R is the radius of curvature of the surface.
Then the refractive index of the material of the lens is ……………….. .
5. The lens which can form real and virtual images is ……………….. .
Answers:
1 1 1
1. focus 2. optical centre 3. 𝑓 = 𝑣 − 𝑢 4. 1.5 5. convex lens
Bits:
1. Focal length of a lens depends on ----------( Surrounding medium)
2. The image formed by a concave lens is always ----------- ( smaller than the object, erect, virtual
image)
3. The unit of power of the lens is------------ (Di opter)
4. Lens formula ------------( 1/f=1/v-1/u)
5. The lens which can form real and virtual images is ……………….. (Convex lens).
6. The ray passing through the ……………….. of the lens is not deviated. (optic centre)
7. The rays from the distant object, falling on the convex lens pass through ……………….. (focal
point)
8. The focal length of a convex lens is 20 cm, at what position of an object, a virtual, erect image is
formed? ( less than 20 cm)
9. A person is standing on the bank of a river. A fish inside water will see the person to be--------
1 1 1
10. Lens maker’s formula--------------- = ( 𝑛 − 1) (𝑅1 − 𝑅2)
𝑓

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 5. Human Eye and Colourful World
1. Explain the following. i) Least distance of distinct vision ii) Angle of
vision
i) Least distance of distinct vision: The least distance up to which we can see the
objects clearly without any strain is called the least distance of distinct vision. The least
distance of distinct vision for a normal human being is 25cm. For young people, the least
distance of distant vision will be within 25cm which however varies with age. For infants,
the least distance of distinct vision is about 5 to 8 cm.
ii) The angle of vision: The maximum angle, at which we can see the whole object is
called the angle of vision. The angle of vision for a healthy human being is about 600. It
varies from person to person with age.
2. Explain the Structure of the human eye with the help of a diagram.
Ans.
 The human eye is one of the most important sense organs.
 The eyeball is nearly spherical.
 The front portion is more sharply curved and is covered by a
transparent protective membrane called the ‘cornea’. It is this
portion which is visible from the outside.
 Behind the cornea, there is a place filled with a liquid called
aqueous humour and behind this a crystalline lens which is responsible for the image
formation.
 Between the aqueous humour and the lens, we have a muscular diaphragm called the ‘iris’
which has a small hole in it called pupil.
 Iris is the coloured part that we see in an eye.
 The pupil appears black because any light falling on it goes into the eye and there is almost no
chance of light coming back to the outside.
 The lens is hard in the middle and gradually becomes soft towards the outer edge.
 The light that enters the eye forms an image on the retina.
 The distance between the lens and retina is about 2.5 cm.
3. State the function of iris and pupil in human eye.

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Pupil: Pupil is the round black spot in front of the eye. It regulates the amount of light entering the
eyes. Pupil works like the aperture of a camera. In the case of dim light, the pupil dilates to allow more
light to enter the eyes. In case of strong light, the pupil constricts allowing less light to enter.

Iris: Iris controls the amount of light entering the eye by changing the size of the pupil. Iris is made
of muscles. They control the size of the opening of the pupil.

4. State the function of Ciliary muscles in human eye.

The function of Ciliary Muscles are:
 Ciliary muscles are helpful in changing focal length of eye lens.
 When the eye is focused on a distant object, these are relaxed. So the focal length of eye lens
increases to its maximum value.
 The parallel rays coming into the eye are focused on the retina then we can see the object
clearly.
 When the eye is focused on a nearer object the muscles are strained so the focal length of eye-
lens decreases.
 The ciliary muscles adjust the focal length and the image is formed on retina then we can see
the object.
 Their process of adjusting focal length of eve lens is called accomodation.
5. How does eye lens change its focal length?
Ans. When the eye is focused on a distant object the ciliary muscles are relaxed. So the focal length
of eye lens has its maximum value which is equal to its distance from the retina. The parallel rays
coming into the eye are then focused on to the retina and we see the object clearly.
6. Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 52cm?
Ans. A normal eye is unable to clearly see the objects placed closer than 25 cm because the ciliary
muscles of eyes are unable to contract beyond a certain limit.
7. How does the image formed on retina help us to perceive the object without change
in its shape, size and colour?
 The eye lens forms a real and inverted image of an object on the retina.
 This retina is a delicate membrane, which contains large number of receptors (125 million)
called ‘rods’ and ‘cones’.
 They receive the light signals and identify the colour, and the intensity of light.
 These signals are transmitted to the brain through optic-nerve fibres.

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  The brain interprets these signals and finally processes the information so that we perceive
the object in terms of its shape, size and colour.

8. What are the maximum and minimum focal lengths of the eye lens? How can we
find them?
 When the object is at infinity, the parallel rays from the object falling on the eye lens are
refracted and they form a point sized image on retina.
 In this situation, eye-lens has a maximum focal length.
 When the object is at infinity, u= - ∞; v = 2.5 cm
1 1 1
 Using the formula = −
𝑓 𝑣 𝑢

1 1 1
= +
𝑓𝑚𝑎𝑥 2.5 𝛼
1 1
𝑓𝑚𝑎𝑥
= 2.5 + 0 𝑓𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 2.5 𝑐𝑚

 Consider that an object is placed at distance of 25 cm from our eye.

 In this situation eye has minimum focal length.
 Here u = - 25 cm; v = 2.5 cm
1 1 1
 Using the formula =𝑣−𝑢
𝑓
1 1 1
= +
𝑓𝑚𝑖𝑛 2.5 25

1 11 25
= 𝑓𝑚𝑖𝑛 = = 2.27 𝑐𝑚
𝑓𝑚𝑖𝑛 25 11

𝑓 𝑚𝑖𝑛 = 2.27 𝑐𝑚

9. What is myopia? How can it be corrected?

 Ans. Some people cannot see objects at long distances but can see nearby objects clearly. This
type of defect in vision is called ‘Myopia’. It is also called ‘near sightedness’.
 For these people the maximum focal length is
less than 2.5 cm.
 In such cases the rays coming from distant
objects, after refraction through the eye lens,
form an image before the retina.

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  The point of maximum distance at which the eye lens can form an image on the retina is
called ‘far point’ (M).
 The person who is suffering from myopia, can’t see the objects which are beyond the far
point (M), but able to see the objects between M and L.
Correction of Myopia: The concave lens is used to correct myopia. The concave lens which is
curved inwards, is placed in front of the myopic eye. The concave lens helps in moving the image back
to the retina and thus helping the person to get a clearer vision.

10. How can you decide the focal length of the lens to be used to correct myopia?
 Ans. To correct one’s Myopia, we need to select a lens which forms an image at the far point of
an object at infinity.
 We need to select a bi-concave lens to achieve this.
 This image acts like an object for the eye lens. Hence the final image is formed on the retina.
Let us find the focal length of this bi-concave lens.
 Here object distance (u) is infinity and image distance (v) is equal to distance of far point.
 u = - ∞ ; v = distance of far point = -D
 let ‘f’ be the focal length of the bi-concave lens.
1 1 1 𝟏 𝟏
 Using lens formula, 𝑓 = 𝑣 − 𝑢 = 𝒇 = 𝑫 ⇒ 𝑓 = – 𝐷
 Here ‘f’ is negative showing that it is a concave lens.

11. What is Hypermetropia? How it is corrected?

 Hypermetropia: Hypermetropia is also known as “far sightedness”.
 A person with hypermetropia can see distant objects clearly but cannot see objects at near
distances, because the minimum focal length of eye lens for the person of hypermetropia is
greater than 2.27 cm.
 In such cases, the rays coming from a nearby object, after refraction at eye lens, forms an
image beyond the retina.
 The point of minimum distance at which the eye
lens can form an image on the retina is called
near point (H)

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  The people with defect of hypermetropia cannot see objects placed between near point (H) and
point of least distance of distinct vision (L).

Correction of Hepermetropia: To correct the defect of hypermetropia, we need to use a

double convex lens which forms an image of an
object beyond near point, when the object is
between near point (H) and least distance of
distinct vision(L). This image acts like an object for
the eye lens. Hence final image due to eye is formed at retina.

12. How can you decide the focal length of the convex lens to be used to correct
Herpermetropia?
 Ans. To find the focal length of lens, let us consider that the object is at point of least distance
of distinct vision (L). Then the defect of vision, hypermetropia, is corrected when the image of
the object at L is formed at the near point (H) by using a bi-convex lens.
 This image acts like an object for the eye lens. Hence final image due to eye is formed at retina.

Here object distance (u) = -25 cm Image distance (v) = distance of near point = -d
Let ‘f’ be the focal length of bi-convex lens.

𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
Using lens formula, = 𝒗−𝒖
𝒇

1 1 1
= −
𝑓 −𝑑 −25

1 1 1
= +
𝑓 −𝑑 25

1 (𝑑 − 25) 25𝑑
= 𝑓=
𝑓 25𝑑 𝑑 − 25

We know that if d > 25cm, then ‘f’ becomes +ve i.e., we need to use biconvex lens to correct defect of
hypermetropia
13. What is presbyopia? State its cause. How is its corrected?
 Ans. Presbyopia is a common defect of vision, which generally occurs at old age.
 A person suffering from this type of defect of vision cannot see nearby objects clearly and
distinctively.

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  A presbyopic eye has its near point greater than 25 cm and it gradually increases as the eye
becomes older.
Presbyopia is caused by the: 1. Weakening of the ciliary muscles 2. Reduction in the flexibility of
the eye lens
 A person with presbyopia cannot read letters without spectacles.
 It may also happen that a person suffers from both myopia and hypermetropia.
 This type of defect can be corrected by using bi-focal lenses.
 A bifocal lens consists of both convex lens (to correct hypermetropia) and concave lens (to
correct myopia).
14. What do you mean by power of lens? Doctor advised to use 2D lens. What is its focal
length?
 Power of lens: The degree of convergence or divergence of light rays that can be achieved by
a lens is expressed in terms of its power.
 The reciprocal of focal length is called power of lens.
1 100
 Power of lens 𝑃 = 𝑓 (in m); 𝑃 = (in cm)
𝑓
 The unit of power is dioptre. It is denoted by the letter ‘D’.
 Doctor advised to use 2D lens. What is its focal length?
 Solution: Given that power of lens P = 2D
100 100 100
 Using, 𝑃 = (in cm); 2 = Therefore, 𝑓 = = 50 cm.
𝑓 𝑓 2
 The lens has focal length, f = 50 cm
15. How do you find experimentally the refractive index of material of a prism?
Aim: To find the refractive index of a prism.
Materials required: Glass prism, white chart of size 20 x 20 cm, pencil, pins, scale and protractor.
Procedure:
1. Keep a prism on white chart.
2. Draw the triangular base of the prism with pencil.
3. Remove the prism.
4. The shape of the outline drawn prism is triangle and name its
vertices as P, Q and R.
5. PQ and PR be the refracting surfaces.
6. Find the angle between PQ and PR. This is the angle of the
prism (A) (or) Refracting angle.
7. Mark M on PQ and draw a perpendicular line to PQ at M.

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8. Place the centre of the protractor at M, along thenormal and mark an angle of 30° and then draw a
line up to M. This line denotes incident ray. This angle is called angle of incidence.
9. Place the prism in its position (triangle) again.
10. Now fix two pins vertically on the line at points A and B .
11. See the images of pins through the 2nd refracting side (PR).
12. Fix another two pins at points C and D such that all the four pins appear to lie along the same line.
13. Remove the pins and prism, join the pin-holes. Draw the incident and emergent rays.
14. The angle between the normal and the emergent ray at N is the angle of emergence.
15. The line passing through the points A, B, M, N, C and D represents the path of light when it suffers
refraction through prism.
The angle of deviation:
 Extend incident and emergent rays are intercept at a point ‘O’.
 The angle between these two rays is the angle of deviation (d).
 Note the emergent deviation angles for different values of i, in the given table
Angle of Incidence Angle of Emergence Angle of deviation
300
400
500
600
700
Draw the graph between angle of incidence on X – axis and the angle of deviation on Y – axis.
 We notice that the angle of deviation decreases first and then increases with increase of the angle of
incidence.
 Mark points on a graph paper and join the points to obtain a graph
(smooth curve). Draw a tangent line to the curve, which parallel to X-
axis, at the lowest point of the graph.
 The point where this line cuts the Y- axis gives the angle of minimum
deviation. It is denoted by D.
 From the graph, we notice that, at angle of minimum deviation, the
angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence.
𝐴+𝐷
sin( )
 By finding A and D we can find refractive index of prism by using formula 𝑛 = 2
𝐴
sin ( )
2

16. Explain two activities for the formation of artificial rainbow.

Activity – 1:

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  Take a prism and place it on the table near a vertical white wall.
 Take a thin wooden plank. Make a small hole in it
and fix it vertically on the table.
 Place the prism between the wooden plank and wall.
 Place a white light source behind the hole of the
wooden plank. Switch on the light.
 The rays coming out of the hole of plank become a
narrow beam of light.
 Adjust the height of the prism such that the light falls on one of the lateral surfaces. Adjust the
prism by slightly rotating it till we get an image on the wall.
 We observe that white light is splitting into certain different colours.

Activity – 2:
 Take a metal tray and fill with water.
 Place a mirror in water such that it makes an angle to the water
surface.
 Now focus white light on the mirror through the water.
 Keep a white card board sheet above the water surface.
 We may observe the colours VIBGYOR on the board.
 The splitting of white light into different colours (VIBGYOR) is
called dispersion.

17. What is dispersion of light?

Ans. The splitting of white light into different colours (VIBGYOR) is called dispersion.
18. Why light splits into different colours when it passes through a prism?
 Ans. The speed of light is constant in vacuum for all colours,
it depends on the wavelength of light when it passes through
a medium.
 When white light passes through a medium, each colour
selects its least time path and we have refraction of different
colours to different extents.
 This results in separation of colours, producing a spectrum (VIBGYOR).

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19. When a single color ray has been sent through a prism, does it split into more
colors?
Ans. We know that the frequency of light is the property of the source and it is equal to number of
waves leaving the source per second. This cannot be changed by any medium. Hence frequency
doesn’t change due to refraction. Thus coloured light passing through any transparent medium
retains its colour.
20. Explain the formation of rainbow.
Ans.
 A rainbow is a natural spectrum of sunlight in the form of bows
appearing in the sky when the sun shines on rain drops.
 It is combined result of reflection, refraction and dispersion of
sunlight from water droplets, in atmosphere.
 It always forms in the direction opposite to the sun.
 To see a rainbow, the sun be must behind us and the water
droplets falls in front of us.
 When a sunlight enters a spherical raindrop, it is refracted and
dispersed. The different colours of light are bent in different angles.
 When different colours of light falls on the back inner surface of drop, it (Water drop) reflects
(different colours of light) internally (total internal reflection).
 The water drops again refract the different colours, when it comes out from the raindrop.
 After leaving this different colours from the raindrop as rainbow, reach our eye. Thus, we see a
rainbow.
21. Explain scattering of light.
 Atoms or molecules which are exposed to light absorb light
energy and emit some part of the light energy in different
directions.
 This is the basic process happens in scattering of light. The
effect of light on a molecule or an atom depends on the size of
atom or molecule.
 Light of certain frequency falls on that atom or molecule. This
atom or molecule responds to the light whenever the size of the atom or molecule is
comparable to the wave length of light.

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  If this condition is satisfied, the atom absorbs light and vibrates. Due to these vibrations, the
atom re-emits a certain fraction of absorbed energy in all directions with different intensities.
 The re-emitted light is called scattered light and the process of re-emission of light in all
directions with different intensity is called scattering of light.

22. Why does the sky appear blue from the earth's surface?
 Ans. We know that our atmosphere contains different types of
molecules and atoms.
 The reason for blue sky is due to the molecules N2 and O2.
 The sizes of these molecules are comparable to the wavelength
of blue light.
 These molecules act as scattering centres for scattering of blue
[Link] the sky is appear blue from the earth’s surface.
23. Why does the sky sometimes appear white?
 Ans. Our atmosphere contains atoms and molecules of different sizes.
 According to their sizes, they are able to scatter different wavelengths of light.
 For example, the size of the water molecule is greater than the size of the N2 or O2.
 It acts as a scattering centre for light other frequencies which are lower than the frequency of
blue light.
 On a hot day due to rise in the temperature, water vapour enters atmosphere which leads to
abundant presence of water molecules in atmosphere.
 These water molecules scatter the colours of other frequencies (other than blue).
 All such colours of other frequencies reach our eye and white colour is appeared to us.
24. Write the reasons for appearance the red colour of sun during sunrise and at
sunset?
 Ans. The light rays from the sun travel more distance in atmosphere to reach our eye in
morning and evening times.
 During sunrise and sunset except red light all colours scatter more and vanish before they
reach us.
 Since scattering of red light is very less, it reaches us.
As a result sun appears red in colour during sunrise
and sunset.

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25. Can you guess the reason why sun does not appear red during noon hours?
Answer: During noon hours, the distance to be travelled by the sun rays in atmosphere is less than
when compared to morning and evening hours. Therefore all colours reach our eye without scattering.
Hence the sunlight appears white in noon hours.
26. Describe an experiment for scattering of light.
 Take the solution of sodium-thio-Sulphate (hypo) with sulphuric acid in a glass beaker.
 Place the beaker in which reaction is taking place in an open place where abundant sunlight is
available.
 Watch the formation of grains of sulphur and observe changes in beaker.
 You will notice that sulphur precipitates as the reaction is in progress.
 At the beginning, the grains of sulphur are smaller in size as the reaction progresses, their size
increases due to precipitation.
 Sulphur grains appear blue in colour at beginning and slowly their colour becomes white as their
size increases.
 The reason for this is scattering of light.
 At the beginning, the size of grains is small and almost comparable to the wavelength of blue light.
 Hence they appear blue in the beginning.
 As the size of grains increases, their size becomes comparable to the wavelengths of other colours.
 As a result of this, they act as scattering centres for other colours.
 The combination of all these colours appears as white.
 Some important questions:
01) A person is looking at a distant object. If a converging lens is placed in front of his eye, will the
object appear larger? Give the reason.
02) An old person is unable to see near objects and distant objects properly.

a. He is suffering from which eye defect?

b. Which lens should be used for correction?
03) Ravi kept a book at a distance of 10 cm from the eyes of his friend Hari. Hari is not able to read
anything written on the book. Explain why?
04) A student cannot see the words written on the blackboard placed at a distance of approximately
4 m from him. Name the defect of vision the boy is suffering from. Explain the method of
correcting this defect. Draw a ray diagram for the defect of vision and also for its correction.

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 05) A person cannot read newspaper placed nearer than 50 cm from his eyes. Name the defect of
vision he is suffering from. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate the defect. Draw a ray diagram to
show how this defect may be corrected using a lens of appropriate focal length.
06) Define dispersion of light. How is scattering of light different from dispersion? Give one example

of natural phenomenon based on each of these.

07) Why is a concave lens used to correct myopia?
08) “Either a concave lens or a convex lens can be used to correct farsightedness,” says Roja. Do you
support Roja? Why?
09) Write reasons i) A hepermetropic person prefers to remove his spectacles, while driving.

ii) Myopic person prefer to remove his spectacles while reading a book.
10) The focal length of a lens suggested to a person with Hypermetropia is 100 cm. Find the distance
of near point and power of the lens.
11) Why do the values of least distance of distinct vision and angle of vision change with person and
age?
12) How can we get same image distance for various positions of objects?
13) How does the image formed on retina help us to perceive the object without change in its shape,
size and colour?

Choose the correct Answer:

1. The muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil is
(a) cornea (b) ciliary muscles (c) iris (d) retina
2. The black opening between the aqueous humour and the lens is called
(a) retina (b) iris (c) cornea (d) pupil
3. The near and far points of a young person normal eye respectively are
(a) 0 and infinity (b) 0 and 25 cm (c) 25 cm and infinity (d) 25 cm and 150 cm.
4. The defect of vision in which the person can see distant objects distinctly but cannot see nearby
objects clearly is called
(a) Long-sightedness (b) Far-sightedness (c) Hypermetropia (d) All above
5. The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length to form a sharp image of the object at
varying distances on the retina is called
(a) Power of observation of the eye (b) Power of adjustment of the eye
(c) Power of accommodation of the eye (d) Power of enabling of the eye
6. Myopia and hypermetropia can be corrected by

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 (a) Concave and plano-convex lens (b) Concave and convex lens
(c) Convex and concave lens (d) Plano-concave lens for both defects.
7. Bi-focal lens are required to correct
(a) astigmatism (b) coma (c) myopia (d) presbyopia
8. The image formed on the retina of the human eye is
(a) virtual and inverted (b) real and inverted (c) real and erect (d) virtual and erect
9. When white light enters a prism, it gets split into its constituent colours. This is due to
(a) different refractive index for different wavelength of each colour
(b) each colours has same velocity in the prism.
(c) prism material have high density. (d) Scattering of light
10. The deflection of light by minute particles and molecules of the atmosphere in all direction is
called __ of light.
(a) dispersion (b) scattering (c) interference (d) tyndell effect
11. One cannot see through the fog, because
(a) Refractive index of the fog is very high (b) light suffers total reflection at droplets
(c) Fog absorbs light (d) light is scattered by the droplets
12. A person cannot see distinct objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a
lens of power
(a) + 0.5 D (b) – 0.5 D (c) + 0.2 D (d) – 0.2 D
13. At noon the sun appears white as
(a) Light is least scattered (b) all the colours of the white light are scattered away
(c) Blue colour is scattered the most (d) red colour is scattered the most
14. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric
(a) Dispersion of light by water droplets
(b) Refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
(c) Scattering of light by dust particles (d) internal reflection of light by clouds.
15. When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the
(a) crystalline lens (b) outer surface of the cornea (c) iris (d) pupil
16. The focal length of the eye lens increases when eye muscles
(a) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner (b) contract and lens becomes thicker
(c) are relaxed and lens becomes thicker (d) contract and lens becomes thinner
17. The least distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is

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 (a) infinity (b) 25 cm (c) 2.5 cm (d) 25 m
18. The defect of vision in which a person cannot see the distant objects clearly but can see nearby
objects clearly is called
(a) myopia (b) hypermetropia (c) presbyopia (d) bifocal eye
19. The splitting of white light into different colours on passing through a prism is called
(a) reflection (b) refraction (c) dispersion (d) deviation
20. When white light enters a glass prism from air, the angle of deviation is maximum for
(a) blue light (b) yellow light (c) red light (d) violet light
21. The amount of light entering the eye can be controlled by the
(a) iris (b) pupil (c) cornea (d) ciliary muscles
22. The medical condition in which the lens of the eye of a person becomes progressively cloudy
resulting in blurred vision is called
(a) myopia (b) hypermetropia (c) presbyopia (d) cataract

Bits:
1. The least distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is----------(25 cm)
2. The distance between the retina and the eye lens is ………….. (2.5 cm)
3. The maximum value of the focal length of an eye lens is …………… (2.5 cm)
4. -----------are helpful in changing the focal length of the eye lens.( Ciliary muscles)
5. If the power of the lens is 1D then its focal length is …………….. (100 cm.)
6. Myopia and can be corrected by-------------- (Concave lens)
7. Hypermetropia can be corrected by--------------- (Convex lens)
8. Bi-focal lenses are required to correct--------- (Presbyopia)
9. The splitting of white light into different colours on passing through a prism is called
………………… (Dispersion of light)
10. The image formed on the retina of the human eye is ---------- (Inverted and real)

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1. What is the electromagnetic spectrum?
Ans. The electromagnetic spectrum is the range of frequencies of electromagnetic radiation which
include radio waves, microwaves, infrared rays, visible rays, ultraviolet rays, X-rays and gamma rays.
2. What is the visible spectrum?
Ans. The visible light spectrum is the segment of the electromagnetic spectrum that the human eye
can view. More simply, this range of wavelengths is called visible light. Typically, the human eye can
detect wavelengths from 380 to 700 nanometers.
3. What happens when you heat an iron rod on a flame? Do you find any change in
colour while heating an iron rod?
 Ans. When we heat an iron rod, some amount of heat energy that was absorbed by the iron rod
is emitted as light.
 First iron turns into red (lower energy corresponding to higher wavelength) and as the
temperature rises it glows and turns into orange, yellow, blue or even white respectively
(higher energy and lower wavelength).
 If we go on heating the rod, it turns into white light which includes all visible wavelengths.
4. Explain Max Planck’s theory.
Planck’s quantum theory states the following postulates:
1. The energy is not radiated or emitted continuously. It is emitted in small proportions in the form of
energy packets called quanta.
2. Radiation when in the form of light, each particle is known as a photon. Photons are energy
particles of small proportion in the case of light.
3. The energy of a photon or one quantum of energy is directly proportional to the frequency of the
radiation.
𝐸 𝛼 𝒱 or E = hν where h is Planck’s constant and ν is the frequency of radiation.
4. The total energy of radiation is represented as a whole number multiple of energy of a quantum as
hν, 2hν, 3hν and so on.
5. Write the Postulates of Bohr Atomic Model
Postulates of Bohr Atomic Model:
 Electrons revolve around the nucleus in a fixed circular path termed “orbits” or “shells” or “energy
level.”
 The orbits are termed as “stationary orbit.”

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 Every circular orbit will have a certain amount of fixed energy and these circular orbits were termed
orbital shells. The electrons will not radiate energy as long as they continue to revolve around the
nucleus in the fixed orbital shells.
 The different energy levels are denoted by integers such as n = 1 or n = 2 or n = 3 and so on.
 These are called quantum numbers. The range of quantum numbers may vary and begin from the
lowest energy level (nucleus side n=1) to the highest energy level. Learn the concept of an Atomic
number here.
 The different energy levels or orbits are represented in two ways such as 1, 2, 3, 4… or K, L, M, N…..
shells.
 The change in energy occurs when the electrons jump from one energy level to other. In an atom,
the electrons move from a lower to a higher energy level by acquiring the required energy. However,
when an electron loses energy it moves from a higher to a lower energy level.
6. Write the limitations of Bohr’s atomic model.
Limitations of Bohr’s Model:
i. Bohr’s model could not explain the atomic spectra of elements having more than one electron.
ii. It could not explain the Zeeman effect, when the spectral lines are split into closely spaced lines
under the influence of a magnetic field.
iii. Bohr’s atomic model failed to explain the Stark effect when the spectral lines get split into fine
lines under the influence of an electric field.
iv. Bohr’s Atomic Model does not obey Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
v. Bohr’s model could not explain the shapes and geometry of molecules.
7. What is Zeeman effect?
Ans. The splitting of spectral lines in the presence of an external magnetic field is called Zeeman
effect.
8. Explain Bohr-Sommerfeld model of an atom. What is the merit of this model? What
are its limitations?
1. In an attempt to account for the structure of line spectra, Sommerfeld modified Bohr’s atomic
model by adding elliptical orbits.
2. While retaining the first of Bohr’s circular orbit as such, he added one elliptical orbit to Bohr’s
second orbit, two elliptical orbits to Bohr’s third orbit, etc.
3. Nucleus of the atom is one of the principal foci of these elliptical orbits because periodic
motion under the influence of a central force will lead to elliptical orbits with the force situated at one
of the foci.

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Merit: Bohr-Sommerfeld model is successful in accounting for the fine line structure of hydrogen
atomic spectra.
Limitations:
1. This model failed to account for the atomic spectra of atoms of more than one electron.
2. It did not explain Zeeman and Stark effects
9. What is an orbital?
Ans. The region of space around the nucleus where the probability of finding electron is maximum is
called orbital.
10. Write the differences between orbit and orbital.
Orbit Orbital
1. An orbit is a fixed path on which electrons An orbital is the probable area of finding the
revolve around the nucleus. maximum density of electrons in an atom.
2. An orbit is a planar representation, i.e., a An orbital is a three-dimensional representation.
two-dimensional representation.
3. An orbit is non-directional in nature, While an orbital can describe the shape of an
which means the shape of an atom cannot atom, thus is directional in nature.
be described by an orbit.
4. An orbit can accommodate 2n2 electrons An orbital can accommodate a maximum of two
where n represents the number of the electrons only in its sub-levels. The s orbital has
orbit or the shell. For example, K shell only one sub-level, so it can contain only 2
represents the 1st orbit, L shell represents electrons. But the p orbital has 3 sub-levels and
the 2nd one. thus it can contain up to 6 electrons.
5. It does not satisfy Heisenberg’s It satisfies Heisenberg’s principle of uncertainty.
uncertainty principle.
10. How are quantum numbers helpful to understand the atomic structure?
The set of numbers used to describe the position and energy of the electron in an atom are called
quantum numbers.

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There are four quantum numbers, namely, principal, azimuthal, magnetic and spin quantum
numbers.
1. Principal Quantum Number:
 Principal quantum number is introduced by Niels Bohr and denoted by the symbol ‘n’.
 The principal quantum number is related to the size and energy of the main shell.
 ‘𝑛’ has positive integer values of 1, 2, 3,… As ‘𝑛’ increases, the shells become larger and
the electrons in those shells are farther from the nucleus
 For each ‘𝑛’ value there is one main shell.
Shell K L M N
𝑛 1 2 3 4
2. The angular - momentum quantum number (𝒍)
 Arnold Sommerfeld proposed the angular - momentum quantum number, and denoted
with 𝒍 .
 ‘𝑙’ has integer values from 0 𝑡𝑜 (𝑛 − 1) for each value of ‘𝑛’.
 Each ‘𝑙’ value represents one sub-shell.
 Each value of ‘𝑙’ is related to the shape of a particular sub-shell in the space around the
nucleus.
 The value of ‘𝑙’ for a particular sub-shell is generally designated by the letters s, p, d . . .
as follows:
𝑙 0 1 2 3
Name of the sub-shell s p d f
3. The magnetic quantum number (𝒎𝒍 ):
 The total number of orbitals in a subshell and the orientation of these orbitals are determined
by the magnetic quantum number.
 It is proposed by Lande and denoted by the symbol ‘𝑚𝑙 ’.
 The value of the magnetic quantum number is dependent on the value of the angular
momentum quantum number( 𝑙 ).
 For a given value of 𝑙, the value of 𝑚𝑙 ranges between the interval −𝑙 𝑡𝑜 + 𝑙.
 For example, if n = 4 and l = 3 in an atom, the possible values of the magnetic quantum
number are -3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, and +3.
 The total number of orbitals in a given subshell is given by the formula (2l + 1). For example, if
𝑙 = 2 the ‘3d’ subshell contains 5 orbitals( m values are, -2,-1,0,1,2; total=5)
4. Spin Quantum Number (𝒎𝒔 ):

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  The electron spin quantum number is independent of the values of n, l, and ml.
 The value of this number gives insight into the direction in which the electron is spinning, and
is denoted by the symbol 𝑚𝑠 .
 This quantum number refers to the two possible orientations of the spin of an electron, one
clockwise and the other anticlockwise spin. These are represented by + ½ and -½.
 The positive value of 𝑚𝑠 implies an upward spin on the electron which is also called ‘spin up’
and is denoted by the symbol ↑.
 If ms has a negative value, the electron in question is said to have a downward spin, or a ‘spin
down’, which is given by the symbol ↓.
11. What is electronic configuration?
Ans. The distribution of electrons in shells, sub-shells and orbital in an atom is known as electronic
configuration.
12. Draw the shapes of s, p and d Orbitals.

Shapes of s, p and d orbitals

13. What is 𝒏𝒍𝒙 method? How is it useful?

Ans. The shorthand notation consists of the principal energy level n value, the letter representing sub
– level 𝑙 value, and the number of electrons x in the sub-shell is written as superscript 𝑛𝑙 𝑥 .

It is useful in writing electron configuration of elements. For example, in Hydrogen (H), the set of
quantum numbers is n = 1, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = ½ or – ½. The electronic configuration is

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14. How many principles are there to describe the electronic configuration for more
than one electron in the atom?
Ans. There are three principles to describe the electronic configuration for more than one electron in
the atom, they are 1. Pauli Exclusion Principle, [Link] principle and [Link]’s Rule
15. Explain Pauli’s exclusion principle with one example.

 Pauli Exclusion Principle: According to Pauli Exclusion Principle no two electrons of

the same atom can have all four quantum numbers the same. This means, an orbital can
hold only two electrons and they must have opposite spins.
 Electronic configuration of Helium is 𝐻𝑒 ∶ 1𝑠 2
 If 𝒏, 𝒍, 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝒎𝒍 are same for two electrons then 𝒎𝒔 must be different. In the helium atom the
spins must be paired.
Quantum number 𝒏 𝒍 𝒎 𝒔
1st electron 1 0 0 1
+
2
2nd electron 1 0 0 1
−
2

16. Explain Aufbau principle with one example.

Aufbau principle: The lowest-energy orbitals are filled first.
In terms of quantum numbers:
1. Electrons are assigned to orbitals in order of increasing value of (𝑛 + 𝑙).
2. For sub-shells with the same value of(𝑛 + 𝑙), electrons are assigned first to the sub-shell
with lower ‘n’.
Example:

 In hydrogen the first electron enters the lowest energy orbital. 𝐻 = 1𝑠1
 In potassium the last electron enters into 4𝑠 instead of 3𝑑. Because (𝑛 + 𝑙) value of 4𝑠
is less than (𝑛 + 𝑙) value of 3d. 𝐾 = 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝6 4𝑠1

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  In scandium the last electron enters into 3𝑑 instead of 4𝑝. The reason for this is that
although the (𝑛 + 𝑙) values of 4𝑝 and 3𝑑 are equal, the value of 𝑛 is minimum for the
3𝑑 orbital, so the electron enters into the 3d orbital. 𝑆𝑐 = 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝6 4𝑠 2 3𝑑1
Orbital 𝒏 𝒍 (𝑛 + 𝑙)
4𝑝 4 1 4+1=5
3𝑑 3 2 3+2=5
17. Explain Hund’s Rule with one example.
Hund’s rule: The orbitals of equal energy (degenerate) are occupied with one electron each
before pairing of electrons starts.
Example:
The configuration of Carbon (C) atom (Z=6) is 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝2 . The first four electrons go into the
1s and 2s orbitals. The next two electrons go into separate 2p orbitals, with both electrons
having the same spin.

The unpaired electrons in the 2p orbitals are shown with parallel spins.

18. a) How many maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a principal energy
shell?
Answer: The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a principal energy shell
is 2n². Here n is principal quantum number.
b) How many maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a sub-shell?
Answer: The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a sub-shell is 2(2l +1)
(where l is orbital quantum number).
c) How many maximum number of electrons can that be accommodated in an orbital?
Answer: The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in an orbital is 2.
d) How many sub-shells are present in a principal energy shell?
Answer: The number of sub-shells in a principal energy shell is n (n is principal quantum number).
e) How many spin orientations are possible for an electron in an orbital?
Answer: The spin orientations possible for an electron in an orbital are 2.

19. Following orbital diagram shows the electron configuration of nitrogen atom. Which rule does not
support this? N (Z = 7)

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  This electron configuration does not support Hund’s rule.
 According to Hund’s rule, the orbitals of equal energy are occupied with one electron each
before pairing of electrons starts.
 Here, pairing of electrons in 2px orbital was taken place without filling of an electron in
2pz orbital.
 Hence the correct electron configuration is as follows.1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝2 (𝑜𝑟) 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝𝑥1 2𝑝𝑦1 2𝑝𝑧1

20. Which rule is violated in the electronic configuration 1s0 2s² 2p4?
 Aufbau principle is violated in this electronic configuration because according to Aufbau
principle, electron enters orbital of lowest energy.
 Among 1s, 2s and 2p, 1s has least energy.
 So 1s orbital must be filled before the electron should enter 2s.
 Correct electronic configuration is 𝟏𝒔𝟐 𝟐𝒔𝟐 𝟐𝒑𝟐
21. Write the four quantum numbers for the differentiating electron of sodium (Na)
atom.
Ans. The electronic configuration of sodium (Na) is 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s¹. So the differentiating electron
enters 3s. Therefore the four quantum numbers are
Quantum number 𝑛 𝑙 𝑚𝑙 𝑚𝑠
Value 3 0 0 +1/2
22. An electron in an atom has the following set of four quantum numbers to which orbital it belong
to
Quantum number 𝑛 𝑙 𝑚𝑙 𝑚𝑠
Value 2 0 0 +1/2
Ans. This electron belongs to 2s orbital. Spin is in clockwise direction. ⇒ 2s¹
23. In an atom the number of electrons in M-shell is equal to the number of electrons in the K and L-
shell. Answer the following questions.
a) Which is the outermost shell?
Answer: The outermost shell is N shell.
b) How many electrons are there in its outermost shell?
Answer: Two electrons are there in outermost shell.

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c) What is the atomic number of element?
Answer: The atomic number of element is 22.
d) Write the electronic configuration of the element.
Answer: The element is Ti (Titanium). Its electronic configuration is 1s²2s²2p63s²3p64s²3d².
Reason :
 Electrons enter M shell after completion of K and L.
 So the number of electrons in M shell is 10.
 But after completion of 3p orbital electron enters 4s before entering to 3d.
 So outermost orbit or shell is N shell.
 So the atomic number of element is 22.
 Its electron configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p6 4s² 3d².
Electronic configurations of the first 20 elements.

Atomic number Element Symbol Electronic configuration

1 Hydrogen H 1𝑠1
2 Helium He 1𝑠 2
3 Lithium Li 1𝑠 2 2𝑠1
4 Beryllium Be 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2
5 Barium B 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝1
6 Carbon C 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝2
7 Nitrogen N 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝3
8 Oxygen O 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝4
9 Florin F 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝5
10 Neon Ne 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6
11 Sodium Na 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠1 (𝑜𝑟) [𝑁𝑒]3𝑠1
12 Magnesium Mg 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 (𝑜𝑟) [𝑁𝑒]3𝑠 2
13 Aluminum Al 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝1 (𝑜𝑟) [𝑁𝑒] 3𝑠 2 3𝑝1
14 Silicon Si 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝2 (𝑜𝑟) [𝑁𝑒] 3𝑠 2 3𝑝2
15 Phosphorus P 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝3 (𝑜𝑟) [𝑁𝑒] 3𝑠 2 3𝑝3
16 Sulphur S 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝4 (𝑜𝑟) [𝑁𝑒] 3𝑠 2 3𝑝4
17 Chlorine Cl 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝5 (𝑜𝑟) [𝑁𝑒] 3𝑠 2 3𝑝5
18 Argon Ar 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝6 (𝑜𝑟) [𝑁𝑒] 3𝑠 2 3𝑝6
19 Potassium K 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝6 4𝑠1 (𝑜𝑟) [𝐴𝑟]4𝑠1
20 Calcium Ca 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝6 4𝑠 2 (𝑜𝑟) [𝐴𝑟]4𝑠 2

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  Some Important Questions:
1) Do you observe yellow light in street lamps? Which will produce yellow light?
2) How do various colours come from fireworks?
3) Why do different elements emit different flame colours when heated by the same non-
luminous flame?
4) What information do the quantum numbers provide?
5) Rainbow is an example for continuous spectrum – explain.
6) Which electronic shell is a higher energy level K or L?
7) Electronic configurations of A and B are A = 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝1 B = 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝4 then,
a) Which atom forms an anion?
b) Which atom forms a cation?
c) What is the valency of atom A?
d) What is the atomic formula of the compound formed by A and B?
8) The electronic configuration of an element is 1s 2 2s2 2p2 then
1. Which element does it represent?
2. In which orbital is the last electron located?
3. In excited state How many lone electrons are likely to be present?
 Multiple choice questions:

1. An emission spectrum consists of bright spectral lines on a dark back ground. Which one of the
following does not correspond to the bright spectral lines?
A) Frequency of emitted radiation B) Wavelength of emitted radiation
C) Energy of emitted radiations D) Velocity of light
Answer: D) Velocity of light
2. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the L-shell of an atom is
A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16 Answer: C) 8
3. If l = 1 for an atom, then the number of orbitals in its sub-shell is
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 0 Answer: C) 3
4. The quantum number which explains about size and energy of the orbit or shell is
A) n B) l C) ml D) ms Answer: A) n
Fill In The Blanks

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1. If n = 1, then angular momention quantum number (l) = …………………
2. If a sub-shell is denoted as 2p, then its magnetic quantum number values are …………………,
3. Maximum number of electrons that an M-shell contain is / are …………………
4. For ‘n’, the minimum value is ………………… and the maximum value is …………………
5. For?, the minimum value is ………………… and the maximum value is …………………
6. For ’m/ the minimum value is ………………… and the maximum value is …………………
7. The value of ‘ms’ for an electron spinning in clockwise direction is ………………… and for anti-
clockwise direction is …………………
Answer: 1) 0 2) – 1, 0, + 1 3) 18 4) 1, – ∞ 5) 0, (n – 1) 6) – l, + l 7) + ½, – ½

1. Explain Dobereiner’s law of the Triads.

Ans. Döbereiner stated that when elements with similar properties are taken three at a time and
arranged in the ascending order of their atomic weights, the atomic weight of the middle element is
the average of the atomic weights of the first and third elements. This statement is called the
Dobereiner’s law of triads
Examples:
.1 Lithium (Li), Sodium (Na), Potassium (K) [ 𝐿𝑖 (7), 𝑁𝑎 (23), 𝐾 (39) ]
2. Calcium (Ca), Strontium (Sr), Barium (Ba) [ 𝐶𝑎 (40), 𝑆𝑟 (87.5), 𝐵𝑎 (137) ]
3. Chlorine (Cl), Bromine (Br), Iodine (I) [ 𝐶𝑙 (35.5), 𝐵𝑟 (80), 𝐼 (127) ]
4. Sulphur (S), Selenium (Se), Tellurium (Te) [ 𝑆 (32), 𝑆𝑒 (78), 𝑇𝑒 (125) ]
2. Write the limitations of Dobereiner’s law of Triads.
Limitations:

i. All the known elements at that time could not be arranged in the form of triads.
ii. The law failed for very low mass or for very high mass elements.
In case of F, Cl, Br, the atomic weight of Cl is not an arithmetic mean of the atomic weights of
F and Br.
iii. As the techniques improved for measuring atomic masses accurately, the law was unable to
remain strictly valid.
3. State Newlands’ Law of Octaves
Ans. The law of octaves states that when elements are arranged in the ascending order of their atomic
weights they fall into a pattern in which their properties repeat at regular intervals. Every eighth
element starting from a given element resembles in its properties to that of the given element.

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 In Newlands’ table of elements, if we start with hydrogen and move down to oxygen and then
start at the top the eighth element from hydrogen is fluorine and the next eighth element is chlorine,
and so on. The properties of hydrogen, fluorine, and chlorine are similar.
4. Write the limitations of Newlands’ law of Octaves
Ans. Limitations of Newland’s law of Octaves:
 There are instances of two elements fitted into the same slot, e.g. cobalt and nickel.
 Certain elements, totally dissimilar in their properties, were fitted into the same group.
 Newlands periodic table was restricted to only 56 elements and did not leave any room for new
elements.
5. Write Mendeleeff’s periodic law
Ans. Mendeleeff’s periodic law: “The law states that the physical and chemical properties of the
elements are periodic functions of their atomic weights.
6. Write the Salient features and achievements of the Mendeleeff’s periodic table.
Salient features and achievements of the Mendeleeff’s periodic table:
1. Groups and sub-groups: There are eight vertical columns in Mendeleeff’s periodic table called
groups. They are represented by Roman numerals I to VIII. Elements present in a given vertical
column (group) have similar properties. Each group is divided into two subgroups ‘A’ and ‘B’. The
elements within any sub-group resemble one another to a greater extent
2. Periods: The horizontal rows in Mendeleeff’s periodic table are called periods. There are seven
periods in the table, which are denoted by Arabic numerals 1 to 7. Elements in a period differ in their
properties from one another.
3. Predicting the properties of missing elements: Mendeleeff believed that some new elements
would be discovered definitely. He predicted the properties of these new additional elements in
advance entirely depending on his table. His predicted properties were almost the same as the
observed properties of those elements after their discovery.
The predicted properties of elements namely eka-boron, eka-aluminium and eka-silicon were almost
same as those of scandium, gallium and germanium respectively which were discovered later.
4. Correction of atomic weights: The placement of elements in Mendeleeff’s periodic table helped
in correcting the atomic masses of some elements like, beryllium, indium and gold.
5. Anomalous series: Some anomalous series of elements like ‘Te’ and ‘I’ were observed in the
table. The anomalous series contained elements with more atomic weights like ‘Te’ (127.6 U) placed
before the elements with less atomic weights like ‘I’ (126.9 U).
7. What are the limitations of Mendeleeff’s periodic table? How could the modern
periodic table overcome the limitations of Mendeleeff’s table?

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Limitations of Mendeleeffs periodic table:
1) Anomalous pair of elements: Certain elements of highest atomic weights precede those with
lower atomic weights. Eg: Tellurium (atomic weight 127.6) precedes iodine (atomic weight 126.9).
2) Dissimilar elements placed together: a) Elements with dissimilar properties were placed in same
group as sub-group A and sub-group B Eg: Alkali metals like 𝐿𝑖, 𝑁𝑎, 𝐾, etc. of IA group have little
resemblance with coinage metals like 𝐶𝑢, 𝐴𝑔, 𝐴𝑢 of IB group.
b) 𝐶𝑙 of VII A group is a non-metal and 𝑀𝑛 of VII B group is a metal.
Method of overcoming the limitations of Mendeleeffs periodic table by modern periodic table:
1. In modern periodic table, elements are arranged in the ascending order of their atomic numbers. So
this arrangement eliminated the problem of anomalous series.
Eg : Though Tellurium (𝑇𝑒) has more atomic weight than Iodine (𝐼), its atomic number is one unit
less compared to Iodine.
2. The elements with similar outer shell (valence shell) electronic configurations in their atoms are in
the same column called group in modern periodic table. So the elements have similar properties
overcoming the Mendeleeffs second limitation.
8. Define the modern periodic law.
Modern periodic law: “The physical and chemical properties of elements are the periodic function of
the electronic configurations of their atoms”.
9. Define the modern periodic law. Discuss the construction of the long form of the
periodic table.
Modern periodic law: ”The physical and chemical properties of elements are the periodic functions of
the electronic configurations of their atoms.”
The salient features of the Modern periodic table from left to right are given below:
1. The periodic table has 18 vertical columns which are called groups. and seven horizontal rows
which are called periods.
2. The elements of group 1,2, 13, 14, 15, 16 and 17 are known as the main group or representative
elements.
3. The elements of group 3,4,5,6,7,8,9, 10 ,11 and 12 are known as transition elements
4. Element 18 are called noble gases or inert gases.
5. The first period contains only 2 elements and is the shortest period.
6. The second (Lithium to Neon) and third period (Sodium to Argon) contain 8 elements –
Hydrogen and Helium and are called short periods.
7. The fourth (Potassium to Krypton) and fifth period (Rubidium to Xenon) contains 18 elements.
These are long periods.

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 8. The sixth period (Cesium to Radon) contains 32 elements and it is the longest period.
9. The seventh period is an incomplete period.
10. In group 3 of the sixth period there is a set of elements with atomic number 57 to 71. They are
known as lanthanides.
11. In group 3 of seventh period the elements with atomic number 89 – 103 are known as
actinides.
12. In the periodic table Lanthanides and Actinides are shown in the bottom of the periodic table.
10. Explain how the elements are classified into s, p, d and f-block elements in the
periodic table and give the advantage of this kind of classification.
Ans. Depending on the type of orbital in which the differentiating electron enters, the elements are
classified into s, p, d, and f - block elements.
s - block elements :
i. The elements of group IA and IIA belongs to s-block.
ii. Their differentiating electron enters into s-orbital.
iii. Except hydrogen, all the s-block elements are metals.
iv. Their general electronic configuration is 𝑛𝑠1 𝑡𝑜 𝑛𝑠 2
p- block elements :
i. The elements of group IIIA to VIIIA belongs to p-block.
ii. This differentiating electron enters into p-orbital.
iii. Their general electronic configuration is 𝑛𝑠 2 𝑛𝑝1 𝑡𝑜 𝑛𝑠 2 𝑛𝑝6 .
iv. The only p-block element in which the differentiating electron does not enter into p-orbital is
He.
v. p-block contains metals, non-metals and metalloids.
d- block elements :
i. The elements of group IB to VIIIB belongs to d-orbital.
ii. Their differentiating electron enters into (n – 1) d orbital.
iii. All the d-block elements are metals.
iv. Their general electronic configuration is (𝑛 – 1)𝑑1−10 𝑛𝑠1 𝑜𝑟 2 ) The d-block elements are placed
in between the s and p-block elements.
f- block elements :
i. The Lanthanides and Actinides which are placed below the periodic table are known as f-block
elements.
ii. Their differentiating electron enters into the (n – 2) f orbital.
Advantages of this kind of classification:

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 i. By knowing the block of the element, it is very easy to study the general behaviour and
important properties of the elements.
Ex : If the element belongs to s-block, it means it must have 1 or 2 electrons in outer-most
shell.
Hence it must have low value of IE, strongly metallic and electropositive character and form
cations easily.
ii. It is easy to recognise the valence subshell of the atom.
11. Elements in a group generally possess similar properties, but elements along a
period have different properties. How do you explain this statement?
 Physical and chemical properties of elements are related to their electronic configurations,
particularly the outer shell configurations.
 Therefore, all the elements in a group should have similar chemical properties.
 Similarly, across the table from left to right in any period, elements get an increase in the
atomic number by one unit between any two successive elements.
 Therefore, the electronic configuration of valence shell of any two elements in a period is not
same. Due to this reason, elements along a period possess different chemical properties.
12. Which elements are called representative elements? Why?
 Ans. s, p – block elements are called representative elements because these are the
elements which take part in chemical reactions because of incompletely filled outermost
shell.
 These elements undergo chemical reactions to acquire the nearest noble gas configuration
by losing or gaining or sharing of electrons.
 So they are called representative elements.
13. Why are Lanthanoids and Actinoids placed separately at the bottom of the
periodic table?
Ans. The properties of these elements do not coincide with other elements because the valence
electron enters 4f and 5f orbitals respectively. So they are placed separately at the bottom of the
periodic table.
14. What is a periodic property? How do the following properties change in a group
and period? Explain.
a) Atomic radius b) Ionization energy c) Electron affinity d) Electronegativity
Ans. Periodic property: The property in which there shall be a regular gradation is called periodic
property.

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a) Atomic radius:
In Period: Atomic radius of elements decreases across a period from left to right because the
nuclear charge increases due to increase in atomic number.
In Group: Atomic radius increases from top to bottom in a group due to addition of new shell.
b) Ionization energy:
In Period: When we move from left to right it does not follow a regular trend but generally
increases due to increase in atomic number.
In Group: In a group from top to bottom, the ionization energy decreases due to increase in atomic
size.
c) Electron affinity:
In Period: Electron affinity values increase from left to right in a period.
In Group: Electron affinity values decrease from top to bottom in a group.
d) Electronegativity:
In Period: Electronegativity increases from left to right in a period.
In Group: Electronegativity decreases from top to bottom in a group.
15. What is ionization potential? Explain the factors which affect ionization
potential.
Ionization Energy: The energy required to remove an electron from the outer most orbit or shell of
a neutral gaseous atom is called ionization energy.
Ionization energy of an element depends on its:
1. Atomic radii: With increase in the atomic radius, the attraction between the nucleus and the
outermost electron decreases. Due to this, less energy is required to remove the electron.
Hence, with increase in the atomic radii, the ionization potential decreases.
2. Nuclear charge: With increase in the nuclear charge, the attraction between the nucleus and
the outermost electron increases. Due to this, more energy is required to remove the electron.
Hence, with increase in the effective nuclear charge, the ionization potential increases.
3. Shielding effect: With increase in the shielding effect, the attraction between the nucleus
and the outermost electron decreases. Due to this, less energy is required to remove the
electron. Hence, with increase in the atomic radii, the ionization potential decreases.
4. Penetrating effect: Penetrating effect represents the ability with which the orbital attracts
an electron. With increase in the penetrating effect, the ionization energy increases.
5. Stability of half-filled and completely filled orbitals: Half-filled and completely filled
orbitals have extra stability. This extra stability increases the ionization energy.

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 16. What is Electron affinity?
Ans. The electron affinity of an element is defined as the energy liberated when an electron is added to
its neutral gaseous atom. The electron affinity of an element is also called the electron gain enthalpy
of that element.
[Link] is electronegativity?
Ans. The electronegativity of an element is defined as the relative tendency of its atom to attract
electrons towards it self when it is bonded to the atom of another element.
18. Write down the characteristics of the elements having atomic number 17.
1) Electronic configuration ___________ 2) Period number _____________
3) Group number _____________ 4) Element family ____________
5) No. of valence electrons ___________ 6) Valency _____________
7) Metal or non-metal ____________
Ans. 1) Electronic configuration: 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p5 2) Period number: 3
3) Group number: VII A or 17 4) Element family: Halogen family
5) No. of valence electrons: 7 6) Valency: 1
7) Metal or non-metal: Non-metal
19. Given below is the electronic configuration of elements A, B, C, D.
𝑨 = 𝟏𝒔𝟐 𝟐𝒔𝟐 ; 𝑩 = 𝟏𝒔𝟐 𝟐𝒔𝟐 𝟐𝒑𝟔 𝟑𝒔𝟐 ; 𝑪 = 𝟏𝒔𝟐 𝟐𝒔𝟐 𝟐𝒑𝟔 𝟑𝒔𝟐 𝟑𝒑𝟑 ; 𝑫 = 𝟏𝒔𝟐 𝟐𝒔𝟐 𝟐𝒑𝟔
1. Which are the elements coming within the same period?

2. Which are the ones coming within the same group?

3. Which are the noble gas elements?

4. To which group and period does the element ‘C ‘belong?

Ans. Explanation:
𝐴 = 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 ; 𝑛 = 2; Hence, Period = 2nd; Valence electrons are2 , hence Group = II A
𝐵 = 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 ; 𝑛 = 3; Hence, Period = 3rd; Valence electrons are2 , hence Group = IIA
𝐶 = 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝3 ; 𝑛 = 3; Hence, Period = 3rd; Valence electrons are 5, hence Group =VA (8
- 5 = 3)
𝐷 = 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 ; 𝑛 = 2; Hence, Period = 2nd; Valence electrons are 8, hence Group = VIIIA (8-8 = 0)
i) Elements in same period are - A and D (2ND Period); B and C ( 3rd Period)
ii) Elements in same period are - A and B ( ll A )
iii) Noble gas element is D (VIII A group element)
iv) Element C belongs to 3rd period and VA group.

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20. State the number of valence electrons, the group number, and the period number
of each element given in the following table.

Element Electronic No of valency Group Period

configuration electrons
S Sulphur)11( 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝4 6 VI A 3
O Oxygen)8( 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝4 6 VI A 2
Mg Magnesium )15( 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 2 II A 3
H Hydrogen)1( 1𝑠1 1 IA 1
F Fluorine)9( 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝5 7 VII A 2
Al Aluminum )11( 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝1 3 III A 3
21. The electronic configuration of the elements X, Y, and Z are given below.
a) X = 2 b) Y = 2, 6 c) Z = 2, 8, 2
1. Which element belongs to second period?
Ans. Y belongs to second period. (Y is Oxygen)
2. Which element belongs to second group?
Ans. Z belongs to second group. (Z is Magnesium)
3. Which element belongs to 18th group?
Ans. X belongs to 18th group. (X is nothing but Helium)
22. On the basis of atomic numbers predict to which block the elements with atomic
number 9, 37, 46 and 64 belong to?
1. The element with atomic number 9 belongs to the p-block.
2. The element with atomic number 37 belongs to the s-block.
3. The element with atomic number 46 belongs to the d-block.
4. The element with atomic number 64 belongs to the f-block.
23. Element X belongs to third period, second group, then
a) How many valence electrons are there? b) What is the valency? c) Metal ? or Non
metal ?
Ans .Magnesium (Mg) is a 3rd-period 2nd group element.
a) Valence electrons are 2 b) Valency is 2 c) Metal
24. An element has atomic number 19. Where would you expect this element in the
periodic table and why?
Ans. The element with atomic number 19 is in 4th period and first group of the periodic table.
Reason :

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 1. Electronic configuration : 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p6 4s or [Ar]4s¹
2. The differentiating electron enters into 4th shell. Hence it belongs to 4th period.
3. The differentiating electron is in ‘s’ orbital. So it belongs to ‘s’ block.
4. The outermost orbital has only one electron. Hence it belongs to first group.
25. In period 2, element X is to the right of element Y. Then, find which of the
elements have these properties:
i) Low nuclear charge
Answer: Y has low nuclear charge.
ii) Low atomic size
Answer: X has lower atomic size,
iii) High ionization energy
Answer: X has higher ionization energy.
iv) High electronegativity
Answer: X has high electronegativity.
v) More metallic, character:
Answer: Y has more metallic character.
26. How does metallic character change when we move
i) Down a group? ii) Across a period?
Ans. i) Down a group :
When we move from top to bottom in a group, the metallic character increases.
ii) Across a period:
When we move left to right in a period, the metallic character decreases.
27. Second ionization energy of an element is higher than its first ionization energy.
Why?
Answer:
 The energy required to remove an electron from uni positive ion is called second ionisation
energy.
 It is difficult to remove an electron from uni positive ion when compared with neutral atom
due to an increase in nuclear attraction.
 So always second ionisation energy is higher than first ionisation energy.
Some Important Questions:

01) X, Y, Z are elements in Dobereiner’s triad, atomic weights of X and Z are 7 and 39 respectively
than, What is the atomic weight of Y?

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02) Why did Mendeleev leave some gaps in his periodic table?
03) What are metalloids? Name any four metalloids?
04) Harika said, "Helium has an electron configuration of 1𝑠 2 hence it should be placed in the II A
group." Do you support Harika? Why?
05) Is it correct to add hydrogen to alkali metals? How do you support the position of hydrogen in
group I A?
06)

Group→ 1 5 11 11 12 11 11 18
Period↓
1 X B C D E
1 Y
2 Z
Using the given part of the periodic table, answer the following questions.
a) Name the element having smallest atomic size.
b) Write electronic configuration of element E.
c) Identify the elements which have similar physical and chemical properties as the
element Y.
d) Write all elements in their increasing order Electronegativity.
07) The electron configuration element A is 5,8,1
a) What is the atomic number of “A”
b) Is atomic size of A greater than atomic size of element with atomic number 14? Why?
c) Among the elements C()6,N()7,Ar()11, element A is chemically similar to which
element? Why?
08) Which element?
a) Two shells, both of which are completely filled with electrons?
b) The electronic configuration, 2,1,2
c) A total of three shells, with four electrons in its valence shell?
d) A total of two shells, with three electrons in its valence shell?
e) Twice as many electrons in its second shell as in its first shell?
09) The position of three elements X,Y and Z in the periodic table are shown below:
Group 1 Group 2
- -

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 X -
- -
Y Z
a) Which type of ion, cation or anion, will be formed by element X?
b) The reactivity of which element is more Z or X? Why?
c) Which element, Y or Z has the atom of comparatively larger size?
10) Which one in each of the following pairs is larger in size? Why?
a) Na, Al b) Na, Mg+2 c) S2-, Cl– d) Fe2+, Fe3+ e) C4-, F–.
11) How do the positions of elements in the periodic table help you to predict its
chemical properties? Explain with an example.
12) Comment on the position of hydrogen in periodic table.
13)

Periodic property groups (From top to periods (From left to

bottom) right)
Atomic radius Increasing Decreasing
Ionisation energy Decreasing Generally Increasing
Electron affinity Decreasing Increasing
Electronegativity Decreasing Increasing
Electropositivity Increasing Decreasing
Metallic nature Increasing Decreasing
Non-Metallic nature Decreasing Increasing
14.

Eka-Boron Eka-Aluminium Eka-Silicon

Scandium Gallium Germanium
15. The atomic number of a few elements are given below
10, 20, 7, 14
(a) Identify the elements
(b) Identify the Group number of these elements in the Periodic Table
(c) Identify the Periods of these elements in the Periodic Table
(d) What would be the electronic configuration for each of these elements?
(e) Determine the valency of these elements

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16. The atomic numbers of three elements A, B and C are 12, 18 and 20 respectively. State giving
reason, which two elements will show similar properties.
17. The position of three elements A, B and C in the modern periodic table is as follows :

(a) Write formula of compound formed between:

(i) B and A (ii) B and C
(b) Is any of the three elements a metal? Give reason to justify your
answer.

18. On the basis of electronic configuration, how will you identify the first and the last element
of a period?

Multiple choice questions

01) Number of elements present in period – 2 of the long form of periodic table …………
A) 2 B) 8 C) 18 D) 32 Answer: B) 8
02) Nitrogen (Z = 7) is the element of group V of the periodic table. Which of the following is the
atomic number of the next element in the group?
A) 9 B) 14 C) 15 D) 17 Answer: C) 15
03) Electronic configuration of an atom is 2, 8, 7. To which of the following elements would it be
chemically similar?
A) Nitrogen (Z = 7) B) Fluorine (Z = 9) C) Phosphorous (Z – 15) D) Argon (Z = 18)
Answer: B) Fluorine (Z = 9)
04) Which of the following is the most active metal?
A) lithium B) sodium C) potassium D) rubidium Answer: D) rubidium
05) Lanthanides are belonging -------- period ) (
A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7
06) Valency of Noble gases) ( -----------
A) 1 B) 3 C) 0 D) 2
07) Modern periodic law was proposed by ----- ) (
A) Dobereiner B) Mendeleev C) Mosley D) Newlands
08) Eka- Aluminum in the following is ) ( -----------------

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 A) Gallium B) Scandium C) Boron D) Silicon
09) All the elements of ------ block are metal? ) (
A) s B) p C) d D) f
10) Highest electronegativity element is ) ( ------------
A) F B) Cl C) Br D) Cs

Fill In The Blanks:

1. Lithium, ……………… and potassium constitute a Dobereiner’s triad.
2. ……………… was the basis of the classifications proposed by Dobereiner, Newlands, and Mendeleeff.
3. Noble gases belong to ……………… group of periodic table.
4. The incomplete period of the modern periodic table is
5. The element at the bottom of a group would be expected to show …………….. metallic character than
the element at the top
Answer: 1. Sodium [Link] weight [Link] or 18 group 4.7 [Link]
Bits:
01. No of elements in 2nd period in Modern periodic table --------------(2)
02. Lithium, ……………… and potassium constitute a Dobereiner’s triad. (Sodium)
03. Lanthanides are belonging -------- period. (6th)
04. Valency of Inert gas elements ----------- (0)
05. Modern periodic law was proposed by ----- (Mosley)
06. Eka Aluminum is ----------------- (Gallium)
07. All the elements of ------ block are metals (d – block)
08. Highest electronegativity element is ------------ ( Fluorine)
09. Units of atomic radius is -------------(pico meters)
10. Which group elements are called halogens --------( 17 group (or) VII A group)

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 8. Chemical Bonding
01. What is Lewis Dot Structure? Write the Lewis structures for the following elements.
Ans. The valence electrons in the atom of an element is depicted in a short form by the Lewis symbol or
electron dot structure. We represent the nucleus and inner shell electrons of the atom by the symbol of
the element and electrons in the outer shell by dots ).( or cross )*( marks.

02. How does Lewis dot structure help in understanding bond formation between atoms?

1. Only the outermost electrons of an atom take part in chemical bonding.

2. They are known as valence electrons.
3. The valence electrons in an atom are represented by putting dots (•) on the symbol of the
element, one dot for each valence electron.
4. For example, sodium atom has 1 valence electron in its outermost shell, so we put 1 dot with
the symbol of sodium and write Na• for it.
5. Sodium atom loses this 1 electron to form sodium ion.
6. By knowing the valence electrons of two different atoms by Lewis dot structure, we can
understand which type of bond is going to establish between them and forms corresponding
molecule.
03. Draw simple diagrams to show how electrons are arranged in the following covalent
molecule:
a) Calcium Oxide(CaO) b)Water(H2O) c) Chlorine (Cl2)

04. Why do atoms of elements try to combine and form molecules?

Ans. Noble gases of VIII A possess eight electrons in the valence shells of their atoms. Helium is an
exception. Its atom has only two electrons, but its only shell is completely filled. Noble gases with

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eight electrons in the valence shell in their atoms are highly stable and rarely participate in chemical
changes. Therefore it is concluded that any species (atom or ion) with eight electrons in the valence
shell is stable.
05. Explain Octet rule.
Octet rule: The atoms of elements tend to undergo chemical changes that help to leave their atoms
with eight outer-shell electrons.
06. What is Chemical bond?
Ans. The force of attraction between any two atoms or a group of atoms that results a stable entity is
called a ‘chemical bond’
07. Explain Ionic bond with an example.
Ans. A Chemical bond formed between two oppositely charged ions (cation and anion) is called an
Ionic bond. Eg: Formation of Sodium chloride (NaCl): Sodium chloride is formed from the elements
sodium and chlorine.
It can be explained as follows:
2𝑁𝑎 + 𝐶𝑙2 → 2𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙
Cation formation: When sodium (Na) atom loses one electron to get octet electron configuration it
forms a cation (𝑁𝑎+ ).
𝑁𝑎 → 𝑁𝑎 + + 𝑒 −
2,8,1 2,8
Anion formation: Chlorine has shortage of one electron to get octet in its valence shell. So it gains
the electron from Na atom to form anion (𝐶𝑙 − )
𝐶𝑙 + 𝑒 − → 𝐶𝑙 −
2,8, 7 2,8,8
Formation of the compound NaCl from its ions:
Transfer of electrons between ‘Na’ and ‘Cl’ atoms, results in the formation of ‘Na+’ and ‘Cl – ’
ions. These oppositely charged ions get attracted towards each other due to electrostatic forces and
form the compound sodium chloride (NaCl).
𝑁𝑎+ + 𝐶𝑙 − → 𝑁𝑎+ 𝐶𝑙 − → 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙

08. What is the coordination number of an ion?

Ans. The number of ions of opposite charge that surround a given ion of given charge is known as the
coordination number of that given ion.
For example, in sodium chloride crystal, the coordination number of Na+ is 6 and that of Cl - is also 6.

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09. Explain Which Factors affect the formation of cation and anion.
The tendency of losing electrons to form cations (or) gaining electron to form anions depends on
the following factors:
i. Atomic size ii. Ionization potential iii. Electron affinity iv. Electronegativity
The atoms of elements with low ionization energy, low electron affinity high atomic size and low
electronegativity form cations.
The atoms of elements with high ionization potential, high electron affinity, small atomic size and
high electronegativity form anions.
10. A chemical compound has the following Lewis notation:
a) How many valence electrons does element Y have?
b) What is the valency of element Y?
c) What is the valency of element X?
d) How many covalent bonds are there in the molecule?
e) Suggest a name for the elements X and Y.
Answer:
a) 6 b) 2 c) 1 d) two
e) X – is hydrogen and Y – is oxygen. The formed molecule is H2O.
11. What is a covalent bond? Explain the formation of a covalent bond with an example
according to the “Electronic theory of valence”
The chemical bond formed between two atoms by mutual sharing of a pair of valence shell
electrons so that both of them can attain octet or duplet in their valence shell is called the covalent
bond
Formation of 𝐹2 molecule: 𝐹 + 𝐹 → 𝐹2
 For example, take two fluorine atoms which form a stable molecule.
 Each fluorine atom contributes one electron for bonding and the electron pair that is formed in
this way is mutually shared by both the fluorine atoms.
 Each atom in the F2 molecule has an octet of valence electrons.

12. According to Electronic theory of valence Explain the formation of i) Oxygen

molecule ii) Nitrogen molecule

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 1) Formation of O2 molecule:
 The electronic configuration of 8 O is 2, 6.
 Oxygen atom has six electrons in its valence shell.
 It requires two more electrons to get octet in its
valence shell.
 Therefore oxygen atoms come close and each oxygen atom contributes two electrons for bonding.
 Thus, there exist two covalent bonds between two oxygen atoms in O2 molecule as there are two
pairs of electrons shared between them.
 We can say that a double bond is formed between two oxygen atoms in O2 molecule. Both the
oxygen atoms have octet in the valence shell.
2) Formation of Nitrogen (N2 ) molecule:
 The electronic configuration of ‘N’ atom is 2,5 and to have octet in the valence shell it requires
three more electrons.
 When two nitrogen atoms approach each other,
each atom contributes 3 electrons for bonding.
 There are six electrons shared between two
nitrogen atoms in the form of three pairs.
 Therefore, there is a triple bond between two nitrogen atoms in N2 molecule.
13. Write the drawbacks of the Electronic theory of valence.
Draw backs of electronic theory of valence:
1( When a covalent bond is formed between any two atoms, irrespective of the nature of the atoms,
the bond lengths and bond energies are expected to be the same. This is because any covalent bond
between any two atoms is a result of mere sharing of two identical electrons. But, practically it was
observed that bond lengths and bond energies are not same when the atoms that form the bond are
different.
2( This theory fails to explain the shapes of the molecules.
14. Write the main points of VSEPRT theory.
Main postulates of VSEPR theory:
1. VSEPRT considers electrons in the valence shells which are in covalent bonds and in lone pairs as
charge clouds that repel one another and stay as far apart as possible. This is the reason why molecules
get specific shapes
2. If we know the total number of electron pairs in the valence shell as covalent bonds and lone pairs in
the central atom, it will help us to predict the arrangement of those pairs around the nucleus of the
central atom and from that the shape of the molecule.

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 3. Lone pairs occupy more space around the central atom than bond pairs
4. a) If two bond pairs are present in two covalent bonds around the nucleus of the central atom without
any lone pairs in the valence shell, they must be separated by 1800 to have minimum repulsion between
them. Thus, the molecule would be linear.
b) If three bond pairs are there in three covalent bonds around the nucleus of the central atom, without
any lone pairs they get separated by 1200 along three corners of a triangle. Therefore, the shape of the
molecule is trigonal -planar
c) If there are four bond pairs in the valence shell of the central atom, the four bond pairs will orient
along the four corners of a tetrahedron (three dimensional arrangement) and the bond angle expected
is 1090 281
d) Electron pair’s repulsive interactions decrease in the following order:
Lone pair (Lp) – Lone pair (Lp) > Lone pair (Lp) – Bond pair (Bp) > Bond pair (Bp) – Bond pair (Bp)
15. What is the bond angle in a molecule?
Ans. It is the angle subtended by two imaginary lines that pass from the nuclei of two atoms which form the
covalent bonds with the central atom through the nucleus of the central atom at the central atom.
16. Write the postulates of Valence Bond Theory.
Ans. Postulates Valence bond theory
1. A covalent bond between two atoms is formed when the two atoms approach each other closely
and one atom overlaps its valence orbital containing unpaired electron, the valence orbital of
the other atom that contains the unpaired electron of opposite spin. The so formed paired
electrons in the overlapping orbitals are attracted to the nuclei of both the atoms. This bonds
the two atoms together.
2. The greater the overlapping of the orbitals that form the bond, the stronger will be the bond.
This gives a directional character to the bond when other than ‘s’ orbitals are involved.
3. Each bonded atom maintains its own atomic orbitals but the electron pair in the overlapping
orbitals is shared by both the atoms involved in the overlapping.
4. If two atoms form multiple bonds between them the first bond is due to the overlap of orbitals
along the inter-nuclear axis giving a stronger sigma(σ) bond. After formation of (σ) bond the
other bonds are formed due to the overlap of orbitals side wise or laterally giving weaker π
bonds.
17. According to VBT Explain the formation 𝑯𝟐 of molecule
Ans. In the formation of 𝐻2 molecule, the 1s orbital of one ‘H’ atom containing an unpaired electron
overlaps the ‘1s’ orbital of the other ‘H’ atom containing unpaired electron of opposite spin giving H-H
bond and 𝐻2 molecule.

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18. Explain the formation of Sigma Bond and Pi Bond.
1) Sigma Bond (σ) :
a) Sigma bonds are a result of the head-to-head overlapping of atomic orbitals.
b) This type of covalent bond is formed by head-on positive (same phase) overlap of atomic orbitals along
the internuclear axis.
c) Sigma bonds are the strongest covalent bonds, owing to the direct overlapping of the participating
orbitals. Generally, all single bonds are sigma bonds.
2) Pi Bond (π) :
a) pi bonds are formed by the lateral overlap of two atomic orbitals.
b) Pi Bonds are generally weaker than sigma bonds, owing to the significantly lower degree of
overlapping.
c) Generally, double bonds consist of one sigma and one pi bond, whereas a typical triple bond is
made up of two π bonds and one σ bond. It is important to note that a combination of sigma and
pi bonds is always stronger than a single sigma bond. They cannot form independently.
19. Explain the formation of Double Bond with an example according to VBT (or)
Explain the formation of Oxygen molecule according to VBT

Double Bond: A double bond is a type of chemical bond that occurs when two atoms share two pairs
of electrons.
Formation of Oxygen molecule: Electronic configuration of Oxygen atom: 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝𝑥2 2𝑝𝑦1 2𝑝𝑧1

01) 2𝑝𝑧 + 2𝑝𝑧 → 𝜎 (2𝑝𝑧 − 2𝑝𝑧 )

02) 2𝑝𝑦 + 2𝑝𝑦 → 𝜋 ( 2𝑝𝑦 − 2𝑝𝑦 )

 If the ‘2𝑝𝑧 ‘orbital of one ‘Oxygen’ atom overlaps the ‘2𝑝𝑧 ’ orbital of other ‘Oxygen’ atom
along the internuclear axis, a sigma 2𝑝𝑧 - 2𝑝𝑧 bond (σ𝑝𝑧 - 𝑝𝑧 ) is formed.
 2𝑝𝑦 orbital of one ‘Oxygen atom overlaps the 2𝑝𝑦 orbital of other ‘Oxygen atom laterally,
perpendicular to the inter-nuclear axis giving a π 𝑝𝑦 - 𝑝𝑦 bond.
 O2 molecule has a double bond between two oxygen atoms.

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20. Explain the formation of Triple bond according to VBT (or) Explain the formation of
Nitrogen molecule.

జ. Formation of Nitrogen molecule: Electronic configuration of Nitrogen atom: 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝𝑥1 2𝑝𝑦1 2𝑝𝑧1

01. 𝟐𝒑𝒛 + 𝟐𝒑𝒛 → 𝝈 ( 𝟐𝒑𝒛 − 𝟐𝒑𝒛 )

02. 𝟐𝒑𝒚 + 𝟐𝒑𝒚 → 𝝅 (𝟐𝒑𝒚 − 𝟐𝒑𝒚 )

03. 𝟐𝒑𝒛 + 𝟐𝒑𝒛 → 𝝅 (𝟐𝒑𝒛 − 𝟐𝒑𝒛 )

 The 2𝑝𝑧 orbital of one ‘N’ atom overlaps the ‘2𝑝𝑧 ’ orbital of the other ‘N’ atom giving σ
𝑝𝑧 - 𝑝𝑧 bond along the inter-nuclear axis.
 The 2𝑝𝑦 and 2𝑝𝑥 orbitals of one ‘N’ atom overlap the 2𝑝𝑦 and 2𝑝𝑥 orbital of other ‘N’
atom laterally, respectively -perpendicular to inter-nuclear axis giving π 𝑝𝑦 -𝑝𝑦 and π
𝑝𝑥 − 𝑝𝑥 bonds.
 Therefore, N2 molecule has a triple bond between two nitrogen atoms.

21. What is Hybridisation? Explain the formation of the following molecules according
to hybridization. a) 𝑩𝒆𝑪𝒍𝟐 b) 𝑩𝑭𝟑

Hybridisation: Hybridisation is a phenomenon of intermixing of atomic orbitals of almost equal

energy which are present in the outer shells of the atom and their reshuffling or redistribution into the
same number of orbitals but with equal properties like energy and shape.
Formation of Beryllium Chloride molecule (𝑩𝒆𝑪𝒍𝟐 ):

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  BeCl2 molecule has one Be atom and two Chlorine atoms.
 Electronic configuration of Be is 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝0
 Electronic configuration of beryllium in exited state: 1𝑠 2 2𝑠1 2𝑝1
 The 2s and 2pz orbitals undergo sp hybridization to form two sp hybrid orbitals oriented at
180° with each other.
 2p orbitals of two chlorine atoms overlap with
the sp hybrid orbitals to form two sp-p σ bonds.
 Cl – Be – Cl bond angle is 180°.
 The geometry of the molecule is linear.

Formation of BF3 molecule:

 5B has electronic configuration: 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝𝑥1
 Boron (B) first undergoes excitation to get electronic configuration: 1𝑠 2 2𝑠1 2𝑝𝑥1 2𝑝𝑦1
 As it forms three identical B-F bonds in BF3, it is suggested that excited ‘B’ atom
undergoes hybridisation.
 There is an intermixing of 2s, 2px, 2py orbitals and their redistribution into three
identical orbitals called sp2 hybrid orbitals.
 For three sp2 orbitals to get separated to have
minimum repulsion the angle between any two
orbitals is 1200 at the central atom and each sp2
orbital gets one electron.
 Now three Fluorine atoms overlap their 2pz orbitals
containing unpaired electrons the three sp2 orbitals
of ‘B’ that contain unpaired electrons to form three
σ(sp2 –p) bonds.
22. Explain the formation of Ammonia molecule )or(

In Ammonia molecule Nitrogen undergoes 𝒔𝒑𝟑 hybridization, hence bond angle should
be 𝟏𝟎𝟗°. 𝟐𝟖´. But bond angle is 𝟏𝟎𝟕°. 𝟒𝟖´ How do you explain this?

 Electronic configuration of Nitrogen: 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝𝑥1 2𝑝𝑦1 2𝑝𝑧1 Nitrogen atom undergoes

hybridization
 In this process ‘2s’ and 2px, 2py, 2pz orbitals of Nitrogen intermix and redistribute into four
identical sp3 orbitals.

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  One of the four sp3 orbitals get a pair of electrons and the other three sp3 orbitals get one
electron each.
 Now Hydrogen atoms overlap their 1s orbitals containing unpaired electrons the sp3 orbitals of
‘N’ atom containing unpaired electrons to give three σs-sp3 bonds.
 Angle HNH should be 1090 281 for sp3 hybridisation.
 As there is a lone pair in one of the sp3 orbitals, there is a greater Lone pair – Bond pair
repulsion which decreases the bond angle H-N-H to 1070 481.

23. Explain the formation of Water molecule.

 The electronic configuration of O is 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝𝑥2 2𝑝𝑦1 2𝑝𝑧1 and H is
1s1
 One s-orbital (2s) and three ‘p’ orbitals (2px , 2py , 2pz )
intermix and redistribute into four identical sp3 orbitals.
 As there are six electrons and two sp3 orbitals get pairs and two
sp3 orbitals get one electron each.
 Now, the two sp3 orbitals of ‘O’ atom overlap the ‘s’ orbitals of
two hydrogen atoms to give σ(sp3 –s)bonds.
 Due to the lone pair – lone pair repulsions and lone pair – bond pair repulsions angle HOH
decreases from 1090 281 (expected for sp3 – tetrahedral hybridisation) to 1040 311.
24. Salt dissolves in water but not in kerosene. Why?
“LIKE DISSOLVES IN LIKE “
 Polar substances, dissolve in polar solvents.
 Water is a polar solvent and Salt is also a polar substance, hence salt dissolves in water.
 Kerosene is a nonpolar substance, and salt is polar hence salt doesn’t dissolve in kerosene.
25. Why do only valence electrons involve in bond formation? Why not electron of inner
shells? Explain.
Ans. The core electrons are those present closer to the nucleus. Their attractive interactions with the
nucleus are stronger; therefore, they are bound tightly to the nucleus. This lowers their energy and
contributes to stability, making them indifferent to bonding reactions.

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Some Important Questions:

01) Explain the difference between the valence electrons and the co-valency of an element
02) How bond energies and bond lengths of molecule help us in predicting their chemical properties?
Explain with examples
03) Represent each of the following atoms using Lewis notation:
(a) Beryllium (b) Calcium (c) Lithium d) Bromine (Br2 ) (e) Calcium Chloride (CaCl 2 ) (f)
Carbon dioxide (CO2 )
04) A, B, and C are three elements with atomic numbers 6, 11 and 17 respectively.
i. Which of these cannot form ionic bond? Why?
ii. Which of these cannot form covalent bond? Why?
iii. Which of these can form ionic as well as covalent bonds?
05) How does Lewis dot structure helps in understanding bond formation between atoms?
06) Two chemical reactions are described below.
• Nitrogen and hydrogen react to form ammonia (NH3 )
• Carbon and hydrogen bond together to form a molecule of methane (CH4 ).
For each reaction, give:
(a) The valence of each of the atoms involved in the reaction.
(b) The Lewis structure of the product that is formed.
07) Draw the electron dot structures of Sodium, Oxygen and Magnesium.
08) A chemical compound has the formula AB3 Identify the molecule.
a) Without any lone pair’s
b) With one lone pair.
c) Mention the shape of any one of the above molecules.
Bits:
1. Which one of the following four elements is more electronegative? [ ]
a) Sodium b) Oxygen c) Magnesium d) Calcium
2. An element 11 𝑋 23 forms an ionic compound with another element ‘Y’. Then the charge on the ion
formed by X is
a) +1 b) +2 c) -1 d) -2
3. An element ‘A’ forms a chloride ACl 4 . The number electrons in the valence shell of ‘A’ is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
4. The inert gas element which does not have octet electronic configuration in its outermost orbit is
a) Helium b) Argon c) Krepton d) Radon

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5. Number of covalent bonds in Methane molecule [ ]
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
6. The concept hybridisation of orbitals of an atoms was introduced by [ ]
a) Lives pouling b) Mosley c) Lewis d) Kossel
7. The value of bond angle in Berileum chloride molecule is [ ]
a) 1800 b) 1200 c) 1100 d) 1040 .311
8. Coordination number in NaCl crystal ----------- ) (
a( 4 b( 3 c( 6 d( 1
9. -------------molecule have a tetrahedral structure. ) (
a(Ammonia b( Methane c( Ethylene d( Acetylene
10. ---------------Hybridization occurs in Boron when the 𝐵𝐹3 atom is formed ------------ ) (
a( 𝑆𝑃3 b( 𝑆𝑃 c( 𝑆 2 𝑃 d( 𝑆𝑃2
11. When chemical bond is formed then the energy is ----------------- ) (
a( Decreases b( Increases c( Not changed d( None
12. Bond angle in Water molecule is --------------- ( )
a( 90° b( 109°. 28´ c( 104°. 31´ d( 107°. 28´
13. Ionic bond is formed between atoms of elements with electronegativity differences -----
a( > 1.7 b( > 1.9 c( < 1.7 d( < 1.9
Fill up the blanks:
1. Electrons in the outermost orbit are called …………………… . (valence electrons)
2. Except …………………… gas all other noble gases have octet in their valence shell.(Helium)
3. The covalency of elements explains about no. of …………………… formed by the atom.(covalent
bonds)
4. Valence bond theory was proposed by ……………………. (Linus Pauling)
5. In …………………… bonding the valence electrons are shared among all the atoms of the metallic
elements.(covalent)
6. When a chemical bond is formed ----------------- (energy decreases)
7. The coordination number of NaCl is----------- (6)
8. By transfer of electron ------- bond is formed (Ionic bond)
9. Bond angles are explained by-------- theory (VSEPRT)
10. Bond angle in Ammonia ----------(1070.481 )

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Prepared by Sayyed Samad S A([Link]), ZPHS Kistaram, Sathupally (M), Khammam Dist: Mobile: 9505281568 94
 1. Explain the following: a) Electric current b) Potential Difference
Ans. a) Electric Current: The amount of charge crossing any cross-section of the conductor in one
second is known as Electric Current.
 Electric Current = Electric charge/time interval
𝑄
𝐼= Q = charge t = time
𝑡
 The SI unit of electric current is Ampere
 Electric current is measured with an Ammeter.
b) Potential Difference: In an electric circuit the work done to move a unit positive charge from
one point to another is called Potential Difference between two points. The potential difference is also
called voltage.
 Potential Difference = Work done by Electric force/charge
𝑊
 Potential Difference 𝑉 = 𝑞
W= Work done by Electric force q = charge
 The SI unit of potential difference is Volt and it is demoted by V
 The potential difference is measured with Voltmeter.
2. How does a battery work? Explain.
Working of Battery:

 Ans. A battery consists of two electrodes and an

electrolyte
 This electrolyte consists of positive and negative ions
which move in opposite directions.
 This electrolyte exerts a force called chemical force(𝐹𝑐 ) to make the ions move in a specified
direction.
 Positive ions move towards one plate and accumulate on
that. As a result, this plate becomes positively charged
(Anode).
 Negative ions move to another plate and accumulate on that. As a result of this, the plate
becomes negatively charged (Cathode).
 This accumulation continues till both plates are sufficiently charged.
 But the ions experience another force called electric force when a sufficient number of charges
accumulate on the plates.

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  The direction of 𝐹𝑒 𝑖𝑠 𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑡𝑜 𝐹𝑐 and magnitude depends on the amount of charge
accumulated on the plates.
 The accumulation of charges on plates is continuous till 𝐹𝑒 becomes equal to 𝐹𝑐 . Now there will
not be any motion due to the balance of 𝐹𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐹𝑐
 The new battery that we buy from the shop is under the influence of balanced forces. This is the
reason for the constant potential difference between the terminals of a battery.
 When a conducting wire is connected to the terminals of the battery a potential difference is
created between the ends of the conductor which sets up an electric field throughout the
conductor.
 The large number of electrons in the conductor, near the positive terminal of the battery are
attached by to and start to move towards the positive terminal. As a result, the amount of
positive charge on the plate decreases. So 𝐹𝑒 becomes weaker than 𝐹𝑐 and 𝐹𝑒 pulls negative ions
from anode towards cathode.
 The negative terminal pushes one electron into the conductor because of stronger repulsion
between negative terminal and negative ion.
 Hence, the total number of electrons in the conductor remains constant during the current
flow. The above said process continues till 𝐹𝑒 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑜 𝐹𝑐 .
3. Write the differences between potential difference and emf.
Potential difference Emf
1. Work done by the electric force on unit [Link] is defined as work done by the
positive charge to move it through a chemical force to move unit positive charge
distance 𝑙 from A to B is called potential from negative terminal to positive terminal
difference between those points of the battery.
𝑊 𝑊
2. Potential difference 𝑉 = 𝑞
[Link] = ε= 𝑞
3. The S I unit of potential difference is Volt. [Link] S I unit of emf is Volt.
4. State Ohm’s Law. Suggest an experiment to verify it and explain the procedure.
Ans. Ohm’s Law: Ohm’s law states that the potential difference between the ends of a conductor is
directly proportional to the electric current passing through it at a constant temperature.
𝑉
Aim: To show that the ratio is a constant for a conductor.
𝐼
Materials required: 5 dry cells of 1.5V each, conducting wires, an ammeter, a volt meter, thin iron
spoke of length 10cm,etc..

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Procedure:
 Connect a circuit as shown in the figure.
 Solder the conducting wires to the ends of the iron spoke.
 Close the key. Note the readings of current (I) from
ammeter and potential difference (V) from volt meter in
table.
 Now connect two cells in series instead of one cell in the
circuit.
 Note the respective readings of the ammeter and volt meter and record the values in table.
 Repeat the same for three cells, four cells and five cells respectively.
 Record the valves of potential difference (V) and current (I) corresponding to each case in the
table.
Sl Potential Current (I) 𝑽/𝑰
no difference(V)
1
2
3
4
5

𝑉
 Find for each set of values. Draw a graph between V and I taking the current (I) along Y –
𝐼
axis and potential difference (V) along X-axis with appropriate scale.
Observations:
𝑉
 We observe that the ratio is a constant.
𝐼
 We will get a straight line graph passing through the origin.
Result:
 VαI
 The potential difference between the ends of a conductor is directly
proportional to the electric current passing through it at constant
temperature.
5. Based on Ohm’s law, materials are classified into how many categories? Explain.
Ans. Based on Ohm’s law, materials are classified into two categories. They are: a) Ohmic materials.
b) Non Ohmic materials.

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 a) Ohmic Materials: Those which obey Ohm’s law are called ohmic materials.
Example: All metallic conductors.
b) Non Ohmic Materials: Those which do not obey Ohm’s law are called non ohmic materials.
Examples: Semiconductors, Electrolytes, LEDs etc,.
6. What do you mean by electric shock? Explain. Describe the effects of electric
current on human body.
 Ans. The electric shock is a combined effect of potential difference, electric current and
resistance of the human body.
 0.0024A of current flows through the body the functioning of organs inside the body gets
disturbed. This disturbance inside the body is felt as electric shock.
 If the current flow continues further, it damages the tissues of the body.
 When this current flows for a longer time, damage to the tissues increases and thereby the
resistance of human body decreases further.
 Hence, the current through the human body will increase.
 If this current reaches 0.07A, it effects the functioning of the heart and if this much current
passes through the heart for more than one second it could be fatal.
 If this current flows for a longer time, the person in electric shock is being killed.
 Effects on electric current on human body :
Current in Ampere Effect
0.001 Can be felt
0.005 Is painful
0.010 Causes involuntary muscle contractions
0.015 Causes loss of muscle control
0.070 If through the heart, causes serious disruption; probably
fatal if current lasts for more than 1 sec.
7. What is Resistance? Which factors affecting the resistance? Explain.
Ans. Resistance: The resistance of a conductor is defined as the obstruction to the motion of the
electrons in a conductor.
Factors affecting the resistance are:
1. Temperature 2. Nature of material 3. Length of the conductor 4. Cross-section area of the
conductor.
1. Temperature and Resistance: The value of resistance of a conductor increases with
temperature, for constant potential difference between the ends of the conductor.

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2. Nature of material and resistance: The resistance of a conductor depends on the material of
the conductor. Some metals have less resistance whereas some have more.
For example, The resistance of Copper and Silver is less than the resistance of Silicon and
Nichrome
3. Length of the conductor: The resistance of the conductor is directly proportional to its length
for a constant potential difference. 𝑅 ∝𝑙
4. Cross-section area of the conductor: The resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional
1
to its cross section area. 𝑅 ∝
𝐴
8. What is called Specific resistance? Explain.
 Ans. The Specific resistance or Resistivity of a material is the resistance per unit length of a
unit cross section of the material.
 The values of resistivity of material determine their conductivity.
 Metals with low resistivity behave as good conductors.
𝑅𝐴
The S I unit of resistivity is ohm-meter.( Ω-m). 𝑆𝑝𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑓𝑖𝑐 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝜌 =
𝑙
9. Write differences between resistance and specific resistance.
Resistance Specific resistance
1) The resistance of a conductor is defined 1)The Specific resistance or Resistivity of a
as the obstruction to the motion of the material is the resistance per unit length of a
electrons in a conductor. unit cross section of the material
2) Resistance depends on four factors: 2)Specific resistance depends on only two
[Link]. 2. Nature of the material 3. factors : [Link] [Link] of the
Length of the conductor 4. Cross section of the material
conductor.
3) S I units of resistance : ohms ( Ω ) 3)S I units on Specific resistance: Ω-m

10. Resistivity of various materials

Material Silicon Copper Nichrom Gold Tungste Iron
e n
ρ at 20°C (Ω- 6.40 × 10−8 1.68 × 10−8 1.10 × 10−6 2.44× 5.60× 1.00×
m) 10−8 10−8 10−7
a. In above material which is the good conductor? Why?
b. Which of the above material used as heating elements ?
c. For making ICs Which material is used?

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 d. The filament of an electric bulb is made by which material? Why?
Ans. a) Copper is a good conductor, because the resistivity of copper is very less.
b) Nichrome is used as heating element, because it is larger resistivity value than metals.
c) Silicon
d) The filament of an electric bulb is usually made of tungsten, because of its higher resistivity
values and melting point (3422°C).
11. What so you mean by equivalent resistance?
i. When resistors are connected in series what is the equivalent resistance?
ii. When resistors are connected in parallel what is the equivalent resistance?
Ans. Equivalent resistance: If the current drawn by a resistor is equal to the current drawn by
the combination of resistors then the resistor is called as equivalent resistor.
When resistors are connected in series the Equivalent resistance: 𝑅𝑒𝑞 = 𝑅1 + 𝑅2 + 𝑅3
1 1 1 1
When resistors are connected in parallel the Equivalent resistance: 𝑅 =𝑅 +𝑅 +𝑅
𝑒𝑞 1 2 3
12. If three resistors 10Ω,20Ω,30Ω are connected in a) Series b) Parallel. Find the
resultant resistains in the circuit.
Solution: Resultant resistance in Series connection: 𝑅 = 𝑅1 + 𝑅2 + 𝑅3
R = 10 + 20 + 30 = 60 Ω
1 1 1 1
Resultant resistance in parallel connection: 𝑅 =𝑅 +𝑅 +𝑅
𝑒𝑞 1 2 3
1 1 1 1 11
𝑅
= 10 + 20 + 30 = 60 = 5.5 Ω
13. Explain Kirchhoff”s laws.
Kirchhoff”s laws: Two simple rules called Kirchhoff”s rules are applicable to any DC circuit
containing batteries and resistors connected in any way.
 Junction Law: At any junction point in a circuit where the current can
divide, the sum of the currents into the junction must equal the sum of the
currents leaving the junction.
 This means that there is no accumulation of electric charges at any junction
in a circuit. 𝐼1 + 𝐼4 + 𝐼6 = 𝐼5 + 𝐼2 + 𝐼3
 This law is based on the conservation of charge.
 Loop law: The algebraic sum of the increases and decreases in potential difference across
various components of the circuit in a closed circuit loop must be zero.
 This law is based on the conservation of energy.
For the loop ACDBA, 𝑉1 − 𝐼1 𝑅1 − 𝑉2 + 𝐼2 𝑅2 = 0

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For the loop EFDCE, 𝑉2 − 𝐼2 𝑅2 − (𝐼1 + 𝐼2 )𝑅3 = 0

14. Will current flow more easily through a thick wire or a thin wire of the same
material, when connected to the same source? Why?
𝑙
 Ans. Resistance of a wire is given by the relation 𝑅 = 𝜌
𝐴
 Where ρ = resistivity of the material of the wire,𝑙= length of the wire, A= Area of the cross
section of the wire
 From above equation we can see that resistance is inversely proportional to the area of cross-
section of the wire.
 Thick wire means more area of cross-section and lower the resistance of wire. Similarly thin
wire means less area of cross-section and wire would have higher resistance.
 Therefore, current can flow more easily through thick wire than a thin wire.
15. Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a
pure metal?
Ans. Coils of electric toasters and electric iron are made of an alloy rather then a pure metal because,
(a) Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher then that of constituent metals.
(b) Alloys have high melting point.
(c) Alloys do not oxidize.
16. Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of three cells of 2 V
each, a 5Ω resistor, an 8Ω resistor, and a 12Ω resistor, and a plug key, all
connected in series.
Ans. Three cells of potential 2 V, each one of these cells are
connected in series therefore the potential difference of the
combined battery will be 2 V + 2 V + 2 V = 6V.
The following circuit diagram shows three resistors of resistances 5Ω, 8Ω and 12Ω
respectively connected in series and a battery of potential 6 V and a plug key which is closed
means the current is flowing in the circuit.
17. What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with the
battery instead of connecting them in series?
Advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel are:-

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 a. There is no division of voltage among the appliances when connected in parallel. The potential
difference across each appliance is equal to the supplied voltage.
b. The total effective resistance of the circuit can be reduced by connecting electrical appliances in
parallel.
c. If one appliance fail to work, other will continue to work properly if they are connected in
parallel combination.
[Link] can three resistors of resistances 2Ω , 3Ω and 6Ω be connected to give a total
resistance of (a) 4Ω (b) 1Ω?
Ans. There are three resistors of resistances 2Ω , 3Ω , and 6Ω respectively.
(a) In order to get 4Ω , resistance 2Ω resistance should be
connected in series with the parallel combination of 3Ω and 6Ω
resistances as shown below in the figure.
1 1 1 3 1
𝑅𝐶𝐷
=3+6=6=2 Ω
𝑅𝐶𝐷 = 2Ω and RAB=2Ω
This gives RAD=RAB+RCD=2+2=4Ω
(b) In order to get 1Ω all three resistors should be connected in
parallel combination as shown in this figure
Equivalent resistance would be
1 1 1 1 6
= + + = = 1Ω; 𝑇ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑒 𝑅 = 1Ω
𝑅 2 3 6 6
19. Two lamps, one rated 100 W at 220 V, and the other 60 W at 220 V, are connected
in parallel to electric mains supply. What current is drawn from the line if the
supply voltage is 220 V?
 Answer. It is given in the question that both the bulbs are connected in parallel
combination.
 Therefore, potential difference across each of them will be 220 V, This happens because
no division of voltage takes place in a parallel circuit.
 Current drawn by the bulb of rating 100 W is given by,
 Power = Voltage x Current
 current=power/voltage=100/220
 current=power/voltage=60/220
100 60
Hence, current drawn from the line would be,𝐼 = 220 + 220 = 0.727𝐴

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 20. Silver is better conductor of electricity than copper. Why do we use copper
wire for conduction of electricity?
 Ans. Copper have low resistivity. When electricity is passed through copper wires, the power
loses in the form of heat are very small.
 Cost of copper versus that of silver metal, copper is less expensive.
 Copper has flexibility and resistance to breakage.
 Copper is cheaply available than silver.
21. Explain overloading of house hold circuit.
 Ans. Generally observe the values noted on digital meters fixed at our home.
 We will notice the following values on the meter, Potential difference = 240 V Current = 5
to 20 A.
 This means the line wires that are entering the meter have potential difference
of 240 V.
 The minimum and maximum limit of current that can be drawn from the main
is 5A to 20A.
 When the current drawn from the mains is more than 20 A overheating occurs
and may cause a fire. This is called overloading.
 For example: If we switch on devices, such as heater shown in the figure, the
current drawn from the main exceeds the maximum limit 20A.
22. Why do we use fuses in household circuits?
 Ans. To prevent damages due to overload we connect an electric fuse to the household circuits.
 Fuse is a thin wire of low melting point.
 When the current in the fuse exceeds, the fuse wire heats up and melt.
 The circuit become open and prevent the flow of current into the household circuit.
 Hence all the electric devices are saved from damage that could be caused by overload.
23. Why should we connect the electrical appliances in parallel to the
household circuit? What happens when they are connected in a series?
Ans. We should connect the electrical appliances in parallel to household circuit
because,
a. Each appliance gets the full voltage.
b. The parallel circuit divides the current through the appliance.
c. Each appliance gets proper current depending on its resistance.
d. If one appliance is switched on/off others are not affected.
If appliances are connected in series the following disadvantages arise:

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 i) Same current will flow through all the appliances, which is not desired.
ii) Total resistance becomes large and the current gets reduced.
iii) We cannot use independent on/off switches with individual appliances.
iv) All appliances have to be used simultaneously even if we don’t need them.
24. Explain Electric power.
 Ans. Rate of electrical work done is called electric power.
 Electric Power = Voltage × Current
𝑉2
 𝑃 = 𝑉 × 𝐼 (or) 𝑃 = 𝐼 2 𝑅 (or) 𝑃 =
𝑅
 Unit of power: watts
25. Explain the following.
(a) Why is the tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps?
(b) Why are the conductors of electric heating devices, such as bread-toasters and electric irons,
made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
(c) Why is the series arrangement not used for domestic circuits?
(d) How does the resistance of a wire vary with its area of cross-section?
(e) Why are Copper and Aluminum wires usually employed for electricity transmission?
Ans. Here note that resistivity and melting point are two important factors here.
(a) The melting point and resistivity of tungsten are very high. It does not burn readily at a high
temperature. The electric lamps glow at very high temperature. This is the reason behind using
tungsten as heating element of electric bulbs.
(b) The conductors of electric heating devices such as bread toasters and electric irons are made of
alloys because resistivity of alloys are more then that of metals. It produces large amount of heat.
(c) In series arrangement of resistances if the circuit breaks at one point then the flow of current
would stop in whole circuit. This is the reason why we do not use series circuit in domestic circuits.
(d) Resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to its area of cross-section, that is when area of
cross-section of wire increases , the resistance of the wire decreases and vice-versa.
(e) Copper and aluminum wires have low resistivity. They are good conductors of electricity. Hence
they are used for electricity transmission.
Some Important Questions:
01. Give reasons for using” lead” in making fuses.
02. What happens to resistance when the length of the conductor is doubled without affecting the
thickness of the conductor?
03. What is the lowest resistance that can be obtained by combining four coils of resistors of 4 Ω, 8
Ω, 12 Ω and 24 Ω?

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 04. A thick wire and a thin wire the same material are successively connected to the same circuit to
find their respective resistance. Which one will have lower resistance? Give reason.
05. Copper and Aluminum wires are usually employed for electricity transmission Why?
06. Why is Tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps?
07. What happens to the resistance of the conductor? 1. When temperature is increased
2. When the length is doubled
3. When area of cross – section is increased.
[Link] table given below shows the resistivity of three Material X, Y and Z?
Samples X Y Z
Resistivity 3 × 10−9 11.1 × 10−6 18 × 10−17
01. a. Arrange the samples in increasing order of conductivity
b. Which of these is best conductor?
c. Which are these is best insulator?
09. What is (a) the highest, (b) the lowest total resistance that can be secured by combinations of
four coils of resistances 4 Ω, 8 Ω, 12 Ω, 24 Ω?
10. An electric motor takes 5 A from a 220 V line. Determine the power of the motor and the
energy consumed in 2 h.
11. An electric lamp is marked 220 V, 100W. It is used for 5 hours daily. Calculate:
(a) Its resistance while glowing. (b) Energy consumed in kW h/day.
12. What is electrical resistivity? In a series circuit comprising of a resistor having a metallic wire,
the ammeter reads 5 A. The reading of the ammeter decrease to half when the length of the
wire is doubled. Why?
13. What is meant by resistance of a conductor? Name and define its SI unit. List the factors on
which the resistance of a conductor depends. How is the resistance of a wire affected if:
(i) its length is doubled
(ii) its radius is doubled?
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS.
1.) A uniform wire of resistance 50 Ω is cut into five equal parts. These parts are now connected in
parallel. Then the equivalent resistance of the combination is
a) 2 Ω b) 10 Ω c) 250 Ω d) 6250 Ω Ans:
– option (a)
2.) A charge is moved from a point A to a point B. The work done to move unit charge during this
process is called.

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 a) potential at A b) potential at B c) potential difference between A and B d) current from A
to B. Ans. – option (c).
3.) Joule/ coulomb is the same as
a) 1 watt b) 1 volt c) 1 ampere d) 1 ohm. Ans: – option (a).
4.) The resistors of values 2 Ω, 4 Ω, 6 Ω are connected in series. The equivalent resistance in the circuit
is
a) 2 Ω b) 4 Ω c) 12 Ω d) 6 Ω. Ans: – option (c).
5.) The resistors of values 3 Ω, 6 Ω, 18 Ω are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance in the
circuit is
a) 12 Ω b) 36 Ω c) 18 Ω d) 1.8 Ω. Ans: – option (d)
6.) The resistors of values 6 Ω, 6 Ω are connected in series and 12 Ω are connected in parallelthe
equivalent resistance of the circuit is
a) 24 Ω b) 6 Ω c) 18 Ω d) 2.4 Ω. Ans: – option(b).
7.) The current in the wire depends
a) only on the potential difference applied b) only on the resistance of the wire
c) on both of them d) none of them. Ans: – option (c).
8) The heating element of an electric iron is made up of:
(a) Copper (b) Nichrome (c) Aluminium (d) Iron
9) The electrical resistance of insulators is
(a) high (b) low (c) zero (d) infinitely high
10) Electrical resistivity of any given metallic wire depends upon
(a) its thickness (b) its shape (c) nature of the material (d) its length
11) What is the commercial unit of electrical energy?
(a) Joules (b) Kilojoules (c) Kilowatt-hour (d) Watt-hour
12) An electric bulb is connected to a 220V generator. The current is 0.50 A. What is the power of the
bulb?
(a) 440 W (b) 110 W (c) 55 W (d) 0.0023 W
Bits:
1. The kilowatt hour is the unit of ………………….. (electrical energy)
2. A thick wire has ………………….. resistance than a thin wire.(less)
3. An unknown circuit draws a current of 2 A from a 12 V battery. Its equivalent resistance is
………………….. (6 Ω)
4. The SI unit of potential difference is ………………….. (volt)
5. The SI unit of current is ………………….. (ampere)

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6. Three resistors of values 2Ω, 4Ω, 6Ω are connected in series. The equivalent resistance of
combination of resistors is …………………… (12 Ω)
7. Three resistors of values 2Ω, 4Ω, 6Ω are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of
combination of resistors is ……………………( 11/12 Ω)
8. The power delivered by a battery of emf, 10 V is 10 W. Then the current delivered by the battery is--
----- (1 ampere)
9. A uniform wire of resistance 50 Ω. is cut into five equal parts. These parts are now connected in
parallel. Then the equivalent resistance of the combination is------- (2Ω)
10. The device which is used to measure resistance, voltage and current is ------------ (Multi meter)

01. Explain with the help of an activity, that a current-carrying wire produces a
magnetic field.
Oersted experiment
 Take a thermo Cole sheet and fix two thin wooden sticks of height 1cm which have small slit at
the top of their ends.
 Arrange a copper wire of 24 gauge so that it passes through these slits and make a circuit.
 The circuit consists of a 3 (or 9) volt battery, key and
copper wire which are connected in series.
 Now, keep a magnetic compass below the wire.
 If you press the tap key, current flows in the copper
wire.
 Immediately, the magnetic needle gets deflected.
 This indicates that the magnetic field increases when
current flows through the conductor.
02. Explain the following: a) Magnetic flux b) Magnetic flux density
Magnetic flux:
The number of lines passing through the plane of area A perpendicular to the field is called
magnetic flux. It is denoted by 𝝓 Unit of magnetic flux is Weber.
Magnetic flux density:
Magnetic flux density is defined as the magnetic flux passing through a unit area taken
perpendicular to the field. It is also known as magnetic field induction and denoted with B. Units of
magnetic flux density is Weber/(meter)2 It is also called Tesla. 𝑩 = 𝝓/ 𝑨

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 03. ‘Magnetic field lines are closed lines.’ Prove with an activity.
 Ans. Take a wooden plank and make a hole.
 Place this plank on the table. Now place a retort stand on the
plank as shown in figure.
 Pass 24 gauge copper wire through hole of the plank and
rubber knob of the retort stand in such a way that the wire be
arranged in a vertical position and not touch the stand.
 Connect the two ends of the wire to a battery via switch.
 Place 6 to 10 compass needles in a circular path around the
hole so that its centre coincides with the hole.
 Use 3 volt battery in the circuit. Switch on.
 Current flows through the wire.
 The directions of the compasses are directed as tangents to the
circle. The shape of the magnetic field line around wire is a circular line. So we conclude that
magnetic field lines are closed lines.
04. Explain Ampere’s Right hand Thumb Rule.
Ans. Ampere’s Right hand Thumb Rule:
 If you grab the current carrying wire with your right hand in such way that thumb is in the
direction of current, then the curled fingers show the direction of the magnetic field.
 If the current flow is vertically upwards (out of the page), the field lines are in anticlockwise
direction, as shown in figure 4(b).
 If current flows into the page, in downward direction, the field lines are in clockwise direction
as shown in figure 4(c).

05. What is solenoid? Explain formation of Magnetic field in solenoid.

 Ans. A solenoid is a long wire wound in a close packed helix.
 When an electric current flow through a solenoid, magnetic field is set up around solenoid
similar to that of a bar magnet.

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  One end of a solenoid act as a north pole and other as south pole.
 Magnetic field is represented by straight magnetic field lines parallel and very close to each
other.

06. Why does the picture appear distorted when a bar magnet is brought close to the
screen of a television? Explain
 Pictures on the Television screen is due to the motion of the electrons reaching the screen.
 Due to the fact that magnetic field exerts a force on moving charges motion of the electrons are
affected by the magnetic field due to the bar magnet.
 Therefore the picture appears distorted when a bar magnet is brought close to the screen of a
television. And when the bar magnet is moved away from the screen the picture is clear.
07. Explain what happens when force applied on a current carrying wire? Explain by
an experiment.
(Or) Explain what happens when we bring horse shoe magnet, near the current
carrying wire.
 Ans. The wire will bend away from the poles of the magnet.
 The Horseshoe magnet produce magnetic
field.
 Current carrying wire also produces the
magnetic field.
 These fields overlap and give non- uniform
field.
 The net field in upper part is strong and in lower part it is weak.
 Hence a non-uniform field is created around the wire.
 This non uniform field is shown in figure. Therefore the wire tries to move to the weaker field
region.
08. What happens when a current-carrying wire is kept in a magnetic field?
 Magnetic field applies force on current carrying wire.
 So it gets deflected and the direction of deflection is given by right hand rule.
 Or there will be no force acting on the wire when wire is in the direction of the field.

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 09. Write Lenz’s law.
Ans. Lenz’s law states that “the induced current will appear in such a direction that it opposes the
changes in the flux in the coil.”
10. Explain the working of an electric motor with a neat
diagram
Ans. In the electric motors the electrical energy is converted into the
mechanical energy.
Principle Of Electric Motor: Electric motor works on the principle that
when a rectangular coil is placed in a magnetic field and current is passed
through it. A force acts on the coil which rotates it continuously.
Working Of Electric Motor:
● Magnetic field is produced around the coil by passing the current into the rectangular coil.
● The magnetic field of the magnet interacts with the magnetic field of the coil and causes the coil to
rotate.
● When the ABCD is in the horizontal direction the current from the battery enters the coil through
brushes B1 and leaves through brushes B2.
● Therefore the direction of current is from A to B and C to D.
Force on side AB is in a downward direction and on side CD is in an upward direction. Thus the coil
rotates in an anticlockwise direction.
● The reversing of current in the coil is repeated after every half rotation due to which the coil
continues to rotate as long as current from the batter is passed through it.
11. Explain the working of AC electric generator with a neat diagram.
Electric Generator: It is a device which converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. It is
based on electromagnetic induction principle.
Working of electric Generator:
 When the coil ABCD is rotated clockwise.
 By applying Fleming’s right-hand rule, the induced currents
are set up in these arms along the directions AB and CD.
 Thus an induced current flows in the direction ABCD.
 This means that the current in the external circuit flows from
B2 to B1.
 After half a rotation, arm CD starts moving up and AB
moving down.

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  As a result, the directions of the induced currents in both the arms change, giving rise to the
net induced current in the direction DCBA.
 The current in the external circuit now flows from B1 to B2.
 Thus after every half rotation the polarity of the current in the respective arms changes.
 Such a current, which changes direction after equal intervals of time, is called an alternating
current (abbreviated as AC).
 This device is called an AC generator.
12. Explain the working of DC generator with a neat diagram.
 Ans. The principle and working of D.C generator is same as that of
AC generator except that in place of slip – rings as sliding contacts,
we have a slip-ring or a commutator.
 In a slip ring, there are two half rings.
 The ends of armature coil are connected to these rings and these
rings rotate the armature.
 By using slip-ring, the direction of induced current does not change
in the external circuit throughout the complete rotation of the
armature. In other words, the current in the external circuit always
flows in the same direction. Hence the induced current is unidirectional.
13. What experiment do you suggest to understand Faraday’s law? What items are
required?
Aim: To understand Faraday’s law of induction.
Materials required: A coil of copper wire, a bar magnet,
Galvanometer, etc
Procedure:
1. Connect the terminal of a coil to a sensitive galvanometer as
shown in the figure.
2. Normally, we would not expect any deflections of needle in
the galvanometer because there is to be no electromotive
force in this circuit.
3. Now if we push a bar magnet towards the coil, with its north pole facing the coil, we observe
the needle in the galvanometer deflects, showing that a current is set up in the coil.
4. The galvanometer does not deflect if the magnet is at rest.
5. If the magnet is moved away from the coil, the needle in the galvanometer again deflects, but in
the opposite direction, which means that a current is set up in the coil in the opposite direction.

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 6. If we use the end of south-pole of a magnet instead of north-pole in the above activity, the
deflections are exactly reversed.
7. This experiment proves “whenever there is a continuous change of magnetic flux linked with a
closed coil, a current is generated in the coil”.
Precautions:
1. The coil should be kept on an insulating surface.
2. Bar magnet should be of good magnetic moment.
3. The centre of the galvanometer scale must be zero.
4. The deflections in the galvanometer must be observed while introducing the bar magnet into
the coil and also while withdrawing it.
14. Write applications of Faraday's law of induction in daily life?
Ans. 1) Transformers are works on the principle of electromagnetic induction
2) Electrical generators works on the principle as electro-magnetic induction.
3) Security check at airports. Rail way stations.
4) Tape recorders use to record voices or listen songs works on the principle of electromagnetic
induction.
5) ATM cards and swiping machines are also the application of law of electro-magnetic induction.
15. Define alternating current and direct current.
Ans. Alternating current (A.C.): An electric current whose magnitude changes with time and
direction reverses periodically is called alternating current.
Direct current (D.C.): An electric current whose magnitude is either constant or variable but the
direction of flow in a conductor remains the same is called direct current.
A.C. can be transmitted to distant places without much loss of electric power than D.C. That is why
A.C. is preferred over D.C. for transmission of current over a long distances.
Some Important Questions:
01. State the principle of an electric generator.
02. What is the function of a split ring in an electric motor?
03. Draw a labelled diagram of an electric motor.
04. List in tabular form two major differences between electric motor and electric generator.
05. Explain briefly two different ways to induce current in a coil. State the rule which determines
direction of induced current.
06. What kind of magnetic field is produced by a current carrying solenoid?
07. Why does a current carrying conductor experience a force when it is placed in a magnetic field?
[Link] two electrical appliances of daily use in which electric motor is used.

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 09. How will the magnetic field produced in a current carrying circular coil change if we
(i) Increase the value of current.
(ii) Increase the distance from the coil.
(iii) Increase the number of turns of the coil?
Fill in The Blanks:
1. The SI unit of magnetic field induction is ………………….
2. Magnetic flux is the product of magnetic field induction and …………………
3. The charge is moving along the direction of magnetic field. Then force acting on it is ………………..
4. A current carrying wire of length L is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B. Then the
force acting on the wire with current I is ……………..
5. Faraday’s law of induction is the consequence of …………………
Answer: [Link]/m² (or) Tesla [Link] [Link] [Link] [Link] of conservation of energy
Multiple choose Questions:
1. Which of the following converts electrical energy into mechanical energy [ ]
a) Motor b) battery c) generator d) switch
2. Which of the foll0wing converts mechanical energy into electrical energy [ ]
a) Motor b) battery c) generator d) switch
3. The magnetic force on a current carrying wire placed in uniform magnetic field if the wire is
oriented perpendicular to magnetic field is [ ]
a) 0 b) ILB c) 2ILB d) ILB/2
4. One Tesla = ------------------
a) Newton/Coloumb b) Newton / ampere - meter c) Ampere / meter d) Newton / ampere
second
5. Magnetic flux------------------
a) dyne b) Oersterd c) Guass d) Weber
6. No force works on the conductor carrying electric current when kept [ ]
a) parallel to magnetic field b) perpendicular to magnetic field
c) in the magnetic field d) away from magnetic field
7. The most suitable material for making the core of an electromagnet is:
a) Steel b) Iron c) Soft iron d) Aluminium Answer:
Option (c)
8. Which of the following is not attracted by a magnet?

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 (a) Steel (b) Cobalt (c) Brass (d) Nickel Answer:
Option (c)
9. When a straight conductor is carrying current:
a) There are circular magnetic field lines around it
b) There are magnetic field lines parallel to the conductor
c) There are no magnetic field lines d) None of the above Answer:
Option (a)
10. A plotting compass is placed near the south pole of a bar magnet. The pointer of the plotting
compass will:
(a) Point away from the south pole (b) Point parallel to the south pole
(c) Point towards the south pole (d) Point at right angles to the south pole
Answer: Option (c)
11. Two magnetic field lines:
a) Intersect at the neutral point b) Never intersect each other
c) Intersect near north-pole or south pole d) Intersect at the midpoint of the magnet
Answer: Option (b)
12. The front face of a circular loop of a wire is the North Pole, the direction of current in this face of
the loop will be:
a) Clockwise b) Anticlockwise c) Towards North d) Towards South
Answer: Option (b)
13. A student inserts a bar magnet in the coil. The student observes deflection in the galvanometer
connected to the coil. What will happen if the magnet is continuously getting in and out of the coil?
(a) The current induced in the coil will increase (b) The current will change its direction
continuously
(c) The magnetic field will create a motion in the coil (d) The magnetic field of the bar magnet
would keep decreasing
Answer:
Option (b)
14. A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current-carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside a
solenoid:
a) Decrease b) Will increase c) Will become zero d) Will remain unaffected
Answer: Option (b)
15. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight wire?
a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire

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 b) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire
c) The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire
d) The field consists of concentric circles centred on the wire Answer: Option (d)
Bits:
1. The SI unit of magnetic field induction is …………………. (weber/m2 (or) Tesla)
2. Magnetic flux is the product of magnetic field induction and ………………… (area)
3. The charge is moving along the direction of magnetic field. Then force acting on it is …….
(Zero)
4. A current carrying wire of length L is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B. Then
the force acting on the wire with current I is …………….. (F = ILB)
5. Faraday’s law of induction is the consequence of …… (Law of conservation of energy)
6. -------------- converts electrical energy into mechanical energy (electric motor)
7. --------------converts mechanical energy into electrical energy (generator)
8. The most suitable material for making the core of an electromagnet is---------(soft iron)
9. Frequency of DC current -------------(0)
10. ATM Cards are working on the principle -----------(Faraday’s law of Induction)

01. Do you agree with the statement “All ores are minerals but all minerals need not be
ores? “ Why?
 Ans. Yes I agree with the statement. The elements or compounds of the metals that occur in
nature in the earth’s crust are called minerals whereas are is minerals from which the metal is
profitably extracted.
 For example, aluminium exists in two mineral forms that is clay and bauxite, But aluminium is
mainly extracted from bauxite which contains 70% aluminium oxide.
 Bauxite is an ore of aluminum whereas clay is not ore.
 Hence all ores are minerals but all minerals need not be ores.

02.

ORE FORMULA METAL

Bauxite 𝑨𝒍𝟐 𝑶𝟑 𝟐𝑯𝟐 𝑶 𝑨𝒍
Copper Iron Pyrites 𝑪𝒖𝑭𝒆𝑺𝟐 𝑪𝒖
Magnesite 𝑴𝒈𝑪𝑶𝟑 𝑴𝒈
Epsom salt 𝑴𝒈𝑺𝑶𝟒 𝟕𝑯𝟐 𝑶 𝑴𝒈

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 Harn Silver 𝑨𝒈𝑪𝒍 𝑨𝒈
Haematite 𝑭𝒆𝟐 𝑶𝟑 𝑭𝒆
Magnetite 𝑭𝒆𝟑 𝑶𝟒 𝑭𝒆
Observe the above table and Answer the following
1. What metals can we get from the ores mentioned in the above table?
2. Write the oxide ores in the above table.
3. Which metal we found in nature in free state?
4. Write most reactive metals in the above table?
Ans. 1.𝐴𝑙, 𝐶𝑢, 𝑀𝑔, 𝐴𝑔, 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐹𝑒
2. Bauxite, Magnesite, Haematite and Magnetite
3. 𝐴𝑔
4. 𝑀𝑔 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐴𝑙
03) Classify the metals based on their reactivity.
 Ans. Based on their reactivity, metals are classified as
 1. High reactive metals: Examples, K, Na, Ca, Mg, Al
 2. Moderately reactive metals : Example: Zn, Fe, Pb, Cu
 3. Low reactive metals: Example Ag, Au, Hg
04) The extraction of metal from its ore involves how many stages?
Ans. The extraction of metal from its ore involves mainly three stages:
a) Concentration or Dressing of the ore
b) Extraction of crude metal
c) Refining of the metal.
05) What is mean by Concentration of ore? List various physical methods used to
enrich the Ore.
 Ans. Ores that are mined from the earth are usually contaminated with large amount of
impurities such as soil and sand, etc.
 Concentration or dressing means, simply getting rid of as such of the unwanted rocky material
as possible from the ore.
 The impurities like sand and clay are called Gangue.
 Methods of dressing or Concentration of the ore :
1. Hand picking 2. Washing 3. Froth floatation 4. Magnetic separation
06) Explain the process of froth floatation (or) Which method is useful for
concentration of sulphide ore? Explain

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Ans. Froth floatation:
 This method is mainly useful for sulphide ores which have no
wetting property whereas the impurities get wetted.
 The ore with impurities is finely powdered and kept in water
taken in a flotation cell.
 Air under pressure is blown to produce froth in water.
 Froth so produced, takes the ore particles to the surface whereas
impurities settle at the bottom.
 Froth is separated and washed to get ore particles.
07) In which case we use magnetic separation method for concentration of an ore?
Ans. Magnetic separation :
 If the ore or impurity, one of them is magnetic substance and the
other non magnetic substance they are separated using
electromagnets.
 This method is called Magnetic separation method.
08) Which method is suitable for extraction of high reactivity metals? Explain
 Ans. The only method available is to extract high reactivity metals, by electrolysis of their fused
compounds.
 For example to extract Na from NaCl, fused NaCl is electrolysed with steel cathode and
graphite anode.
 The metal (Na) will be deposited at cathode and chloride liberated at the anode.
 𝐴𝑡 𝐶𝑎𝑡ℎ𝑜𝑑𝑒: 2𝑁𝑎+ 2𝑒 − → 2𝑁𝑎
 𝐴𝑡 𝐴𝑛𝑜𝑑𝑒 ∶ 2𝐶𝑙 − → 𝐶𝑙2 + 2𝑒 −

09) How do you extract metals in middle of activity series?

Extraction of metals in the middle of the activity series :
 The ores of these metals are generally present as sulphides or carbonates in nature.
 Therefore prior to reduction of ores of these metals, they must be converted into metal oxides.
 Generally Roasting, Calcination methods are used for convert metal ores into metal oxides.
 The metal oxides are then reduced to the corresponding metal by using suitable reducing
agent.
10) How do you extract metals at the bottom of the activity series?
 Ans. Extraction of metals in the bottom of the activity series:
 Metals at the bottom of the activity series are often found in freestate.

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  Their reactivity with other atoms is very low.
 The oxides of these metals can be reduced to metals by heat alone and sometimes by
displacement from their aqueous solutions.
 For example, When cinnabar(𝐻𝑔𝑆) which is an ore of mercury, heated in air, ot is first
converted into 𝐻𝑔𝑂 then reduced to mercury on further heating.
 2𝐻𝑔𝑠 + 3𝑂2 → 2𝐻𝑔𝑂 + 2𝑆𝑂2 → 2𝐻𝑔𝑂 → 2𝐻𝑔 + 𝑂2
11) What is Thermite process? Mention its applications in daily life.
 Ans. When highly reactive metals such as Sodium, Calcium, Aluminium etc, are used as
reducing agents they displace metals of lower reactivity from the compound.
 These are exothermic reactions.
 The amount of heat evolved is so large that the metal produced in molten state.
 The reaction of iron oxide with aluminium is used to join railing of railway tracks or cracked
machine parts. This reaction is known as the Termite reaction.
 2𝐴𝑙 + 𝐹𝑒2 𝑂3 → 𝐴𝑙2 𝑂3 + 2𝐹𝑒 + 𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡
Application of thermite reaction in daily life:
1. To join railings of railway tracks.
2. To join cracked machine parts.
12) Explain Purification of the metal. What are the various techniques used in
purification of the crude metals?
 Ans. The metal obtained by the reduction of the ore is usually contaminated with impurities
like unchanged ore, other metals present in the ore and non metals from the anions in the
ore.
 The process of obtaining the pure metal from the impure metal is called refining or
purification of the metal.
 Refining of the metal involves several types of processes.
 Some refining methods are 1. Distillation [Link] [Link] [Link]
13) Which metals are purified in Distillation method?
Ans. This method is very useful for purification of low boiling metals like Zinc and Mercury
containing high boiling metals as impurities.
The extracted metal n the molten state is distilled to obtain the pure metal as distillate.
14) Explain Polling purification method?
 Ans. The molten metal is stirred with logs of green wood.
 The impurities are removed either as gases or they get oxidized and form slag over the surface
of the molten metal.

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  Blister copper is purified by this method.
 The reducing gases, evolved from the wood, prevent the oxidation of copper.
15) How metal are purified in Electrolytic refining method? Explain.
 Ans. In this method, the impure metal is made to act as anode.
 A strip of the same metal in pure form is used as cathode.
 They are put in a suitable electrolytic bath containing soluble salt of the same metal.
 The required metal gets deposited on the cathode in the pure form.
 The metal, constituting the impurity, goes as the anode mud.
 For example, This Electrolytic method is used to refine Copper.
 For this an impure copper is taken as anode and pure copper strips are taken as cathode.
 The electrolyte is an acidified solution of copper sulphate.
 As a result of electrolysis copper in pure form is transferred from the anode to the cathode.
 𝐴𝑛𝑜𝑑𝑒: 𝐶𝑢 → 𝐶𝑢2+ + 2𝑒 −
 𝐶𝑎𝑡ℎ𝑜𝑑𝑒: 𝐶𝑢2+ → 𝐶𝑢
 The soluble impurities go into the solution, where as
insoluble impurities from the blister copper get
deposited at the bottom of anode as anode mud which
contains antimony, selenium, tellurium, silver, gold and
platinum; recovery of these elements may meet the cost
of refining.
16) Suggest an experiment to prove that the presence of air and water are essential for
corrosion. Explain the procedure.
 Aim: To prove that the presence of air and water are essential for corrosion.
 Apparatus: 3 Boiled test tubes, 3corks, boiled distilled water, anhydrous calcium chloride, clean
iron nails, etc.
 Procedure:
a) Take three test tubes and place clean iron nails in each of
them.
b) Label these test tubes A,B and C. pour some water n test
tube A and cork it.
c) Pour boiled distilled water in test tube B and add about 1
ml of oil and cork it The oil will flow on water and prevent
the air from dissolving in the water.

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 d) Put some anhydrous calcium chloride in test tube C and cork it. Anhydrous calcium
chloride will absorb the moisture from the air
e) Leave all these test tubes for a few days and then observe them.
 Observations:
a) We will observe that iron nails in test tube A get rusted, But the iron nails in test tubes B
and C are not rusted.
b) In test tube A the nails are exposed to both air and water.
c) In the test tube B the nails are exposed to only water and the nails in test tube C are
exposed to dry air only.
 Result: From this activity we conclude that both air and water are necessary for corrosion of
iron
17) What is corrosion? Give examples for corrosion.
Ans. Corrosion is the deterioration of a metal as a result of chemical reactions between it and the
surrounding environment. Metals are attacked by substances in their surroundings like moisture and
acids.
Example for corrosion: The rusting of iron ( Iron oxide),tarnishing of silver(Silver sulphide)
development of green coating on copper ( Copper carbonate) and bronze are some of the examples of
corrosion.
18) Write methods of Prevention of Corrosion?
 Ans. Prevention of corrosion is of prime importance.
 It not only saves money but also helps in preventing accidents such as a bridge collapse of
failure of a key component due to corrosion.
 One of the simplest methods of preventing corrosion is to prevent the surface of the metallic
object to come in contact with atmosphere.
 This can be done by covering the surface with paint or by some chemicals.
 Another simple method is to cover the surface by other metals( like Sn, Zn etc) that are inert or
react themselves with atmosphere to save the object.
 This is generally done by electroplating.
 An electrochemical method is to provide a sacrificial electrode of another metal (like Mg, Zn
etc) which corrodes itself but saves the object.
19) Write the reactions inside a blast furnance.
Ans. The reactions inside a blast furnance:
𝑖)2𝐶 + 𝑂2 → 2𝐶𝑂

𝑖𝑖) 𝐹𝑒2 𝑂3 + 3𝐶𝑂2 → 2𝐹𝑒 + 3𝐶𝑂2

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 𝑖𝑖𝑖) 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 → 𝐶𝑎𝑂 + 𝐶𝑂2

𝑖𝑣) 𝐶𝑎𝑂 + 𝑆𝑖𝑂2 → 𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑖𝑂3

20) Why alloying is preferred for metals? Explain with examples.

a. Ans. Alloying is a method of improving properties of a metal.
b. We can get desired properties by this method.
c. For example, iron is the most widely used metal.
d. But it is never used in its pure state.
e. This is because pure iron is very soft and stretches easily when hot.
f. But, if it is mixed with a small amount of carbon, it becomes hard and strong.
g. When iron is mixed with nickel and chromium we get stainless steel which will not rust.
21) What is the differences between roasting and calcination Give one example for
each.

Roasting Calcination
1) Roasting is a pyro chemical process in Calcination is a pyro chemical process in
which the ore is heated in the presence which the ore is heated in the absence of
of air below its melting point. air.
2) The product is metal oxide obtained The product is metal oxide, obtained by
from sulphide ore. decomposition of ore.
3) 2 𝑍𝑛𝑠 + 3 𝑂2 → 2 𝑍𝑛𝑂 + 2 𝑆𝑂2 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 → 𝐶𝑎𝑂 + 𝐶𝑂2

22) Explain the following: a) Gangue b) Slag

a) Gangue: The impurity present n the ore is called gangue.
b) Slag: Flux is a material which combines with impurities and convert them to a feasible material
called slag.
23. What is activity series? How does it help in the extraction of metals?
Activity Series: We can arrange metals in descending order of their reactivity. This series of writing
metals is called activity series.
Uses of activity series for the extraction of metals :
 Activity series is extremely useful in the extraction of metals because we can judge the nature of
metal and how it exists.
 High-reactive metals like K, Na, Ca, Mg and Al are so reactive that they are never found in nature
in a free state.

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  Moderate reactive metals like Zn, Fe, Pb, etc. are found in the earth’s crust mainly as oxides,
sulphides and carbonates.
 The least reactive metals like Au, Ag, Pt are found even in a free state in nature.
Some Important Questions
01. List three metals that are found in nature as Oxide ores.
02. What is an Ore? On what basis a mineral is chosen as an ore?
03. Write short notes on each of the following :
i) Roasting ii) Calcination iii) Smelting iv) Flux
04. Draw a neat diagram of a) Blast furnace b) Reverberatory furnace
05. What is activity series? How it helps in extraction of metals?
06. Mention two methods which produce very pure metals from impure metals?
07. The results of reactions of metals A, B, C, D, and E with different solutions are given in the table
below. Observe the table and write answers.
Met 𝑭𝒆𝑺𝑶𝟒 𝑺𝒐𝒍𝒖𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏 𝑪𝒖𝑺𝑶𝟒 𝑺𝒐𝒍𝒖𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏 𝒁𝒏𝑺𝑶𝟒 𝑺𝒐𝒍𝒖𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏 𝑨𝒈𝑵𝑶𝟑 𝑺𝒐𝒍𝒖𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏 𝑨𝒍(𝑺𝑶𝟒 )𝑺𝒐𝒍𝒖𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏
al
A No Reaction No Reaction No Reaction A layer is formed No Reaction
B An ash coloured A light brown No Reaction A layer is formed No Reaction
substance layer is formed
settled on the on the metal
metal
C No Reaction No Reaction No Reaction No Reaction No Reaction
D No Reaction - No Reaction A layer is formed No Reaction
on the metal
E A light brown Fresh layer is Fresh layer is No Reaction
layer is formed formed formed
a) Which is the highly reactive metal? Why?
b) Which is the least reactive metal? Why?
c) Which metals form brown layer?
d) Arrange the metals A, B, C, D, E in the order of their reactivity.
08. Four metals A, B, C and D are in turn added to the following solutions one by ne.
The observations made are tabulated below.
Metal Iron Sulphate Copper sulphate Zinc sulphate Silver Nitrate
A No reaction Displacement - -

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 B Displacement - No reaction -
C No reaction No reaction No reaction Displacment
D No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction
Answer the following based on the given information.
i. Which is the most reactive metal? Why?
ii. What would be observed, if B is added to a solution of Copper Sulphate and Why?
iii. Arrange the metals A,B,C and D in order of increasing reactivity.
iv. Which one among A,B,C and D metals can be used to make containers that can be used to store
any of the above solutions safely?
09. Give an example of auto reduction of sulphide ores.
10. Why stainless steel does not get rusted easily?
 Choose the correct Answer:
01. The impurity present in the ore is called as ---------- ( )
a) Gangue b) Flux c) Slag d) Mineral
02. Which of the following is a carbonate ore ------------ ( )
a) Magnesite b) Bauxite c) Gypsum d) Galena
03. The oil used in the froth floatation process is ------------- ( )
a) Kerosene oil b) Pine oil c) Coconut oil d) Olive oil
04. Froth floatation is method used for the purification of ----------- ore ( )
a) Sulphide b) Oxide c) Carbonate d) Nitrate
05. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is ----------- ( )
a) Silver b) Aluminium c) Zinc d) Iron
06. The reducing agent in thermite process is -------------- ( )
a) 𝐴𝑙 b) 𝑀𝑔 c) 𝐹𝑒 d) 𝑆𝑖
07. The purpose of smelting an ore is to ------------- it ( )
a) Oxidise b)Reduce c) Neutralise d) None
08. Blister copper is a -------------- ( )
a) Pure form of copper b) Impure form of copper
c) Alloy of copper and Zinc d) Ore of copper
09. The metal occurs in the native form is --------------- ( )
a) Pb b) Au c) Hg d) Al
10. Galena is an ore of -------------- ( )
a) Zn b) Pb c) Hg d) Al
Bits:

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01. The impurity present in the ore is called ………………….(Gangue)
02. Formula of Gypsum-------- (Pb)
03. The oil used in the froth flotation process is----- (pine oil)
04. Froth flotation is method used for the purification of ………………. ore.(Sulphide ore)
05. The purpose of smelting an ore is to ……………….. it.(Reduce)
06. Corrosion of iron occurs in the presence of ------------ (Air and Water)
07. Galena is an ore of ……………….(Lead)
08. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is …………………(Aluminium)
09. The metal that occurs in the native form is ………………(Au)
10. The furnace used for roasting and calcination is ------ (Reverberatory furnace)

1. Why does carbon form compounds mainly by covalent bonding?

Answer: Since carbon atoms can achieve inert gas electron arrangements only by the sharing of
electrons, therefore, carbon always forms covalent bonds.
2. Explain allotropy with suitable examples.
1. The property of an element to exist in two or more physical forms having more or less similar
chemical properties but different physical properties is called allotropy.
2. The different forms of the element are called allotropes and are formed due to the difference in
the arrangement of atoms.
3. Allotropes of carbon.
Allotropes of carbon are classified into two types. They are:
1) Amorphous forms 2) Crystalline forms.
Amorphous forms of carbon:
Coal, coke, wood, charcoal, animal charcoal, lampblack, gas carbon, petroleum coke, sugar
charcoal.
Crystalline forms of carbon :
Diamond, Graphite, Buckminsterfullerene, Nanotubes and Graphene

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03) Write three differences between graphite and diamond.
Diamond Graphite

01. Diamond has a crystalline structure. Graphite has a layered structure.

02. Diamond is formed by tetrahedral units Graphite has a planar geometry in which each
in which each carbon atom carbon atom is sp2 hybridised by forming three
is sp3 hybridized. sigma and one π-bond.

03. Diamond is an insulator of electricity. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.

04. Diamond is the hardest naturally

The graphite is soft and has a greasy touch.
occurring substance.
05. Diamond is used in jewellery making,
Graphite is used in stationary and lubricants.
construction and surgery.
04. What are the uses of graphite?
Following are the uses of graphite:
1. Used in making a pencil.
2. Used as a dry lubricant.
3. For making electrodes.
4. For polishing iron articles.
5. As a moderator in the nuclear furnace.
05) How are Buckminster fullerenes formed? Write their properties and uses.
Ans. Fullerenes are formed when vaporized carbon condenses in an atmosphere of an inert gas.
Buckminsterfullerene (C60) contains nearly spherical C60 molecules with the shape of a soccer ball
Fullerene, C60 molecule contains 12 pentagonal and 20 hexagonal faces on its soccer ball shape, and
each carbon atom has sp2 hybridized orbitals.
Uses of Bucky balls:
1( Bucky balls are used as good lubricants and additives.
2( It is used as a specific antibiotic to kill highly resistant bacteria.
3( Cancer cells such as melanoma are used in the preparation of anti-aging drugs.
4( It is used as an antioxidant for skin protection.
5( It is used as a good conductor of electricity.
06) How Nanotubes are formed? Write properties and uses of Nanotubes.
Ans. Nanotubes consist of hexagonal arrays of covalently bonded carbon atoms, similar to the sheets
in graphite. Unlike the flat graphite sheets, in nanotubes the sheets are rolled into cylinders. Due to
this reason they are called nanotubes.

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Uses of Nanotubes:
 Nanotubes are used in making bullet proof jackets.
 Nanotubes are used in the manufacture of Air crafts, Space crafts bodies.
 Nanotubes like graphite, are electrical conductors and can be used as molecular wires.
 In integrated circuits nanotubes are used instead of copper to connect the components
together.
 Scientists inserted biomolecules into nanotubes to inject them into a single cell
07) Although both diamond and graphite are forms of carbon, graphite is a good
conductor of electricity whereas diamond is a poor conductor of electricity. How
do you explain it?
Electricity conductivity of graphite
• In graphite, only three carbon atoms are directly bonded to one another through covalent
bonds.
• As a result, bonding requires just three of a carbon atom's four valence electrons, while the
fourth is relatively free and can move from one carbon atom to another.
• With these free electrons, graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
Electricity conductivity of Diamond
• Diamonds have no free electrons that can move and conduct electricity because of their
tetrahedral arrangement of covalently bound carbon atoms.
• Since the existence of free electrons is required for electrical conduction.
• As a result, diamond is a poor electrical conductor.
08) Discuss the versatile nature of the Carbon
Ans. VERSATILE NATURE OF CARBON : Carbon forms a very large number of compounds. The
number of carbon compounds is more than three million. It is more than the number of compounds
formed by all other elements.
Special properties of carbon:
1. Catenation 5. Tendency to form Multiple Bonds 1. Isomerism1.
Catenation:

The property of self linking of carbon atoms through covalent

bonds in order to form long straight or branched chains and rings
of different sizes is called catenation. The property of catenation is
due to-

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i. Small size
ii. Unique electronic configuration
iii. A great strength of carbon-carbon bonds

2. Tendency to form Multiple Bonds: Due to its tetra valence, carbon

can also form single, double, and triple covalent bonds by sharing one,
two, or three pairs of electrons, respectively, between two carbon atoms
as well as with other atoms like oxygen, nitrogen, etc.

3. Isomerism: If a given molecular formula represents two or more structures having different
properties, the phenomenon is called isomerism, and the different structures are called isomers.
For example, Structures of 𝐶2 𝐻6 𝑂 :[Link] methyl ether (𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐶𝐻3 ) 2. Ethyl Alcohol (𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻)
09) What are hydrocarbons?
Ans. The compounds containing only carbon and hydrogen in their molecules are called
hydrocarbons. For example, Methane(𝐶𝐻4 ) , Ethane (𝐶2 𝐻6 ) , Ethene (𝐶2 𝐻4 ) , Ethyne (𝐶2 𝐻2 ) Etc
10) Compare Alkanes, Alkenes and Alkynes.
Alkanes Alkenes Alkynes
Hydrocarbons containing only Hydrocarbons containing Hydrocarbons containing
single bonds between carbon atleast one double bond atleast one triple bond between
atoms are called Alkanes. (C–C) between carbon atoms are carbon atoms are called
called Alkenes. (C=C) Alkynes. (C ≡ C)
All alkanes are saturated Alkenes are the examples for Alkynes are the examples for
hydrocarbons. unsaturated hydrocarbons. unsaturated hydrocarbons.
They contain (𝐶 − 𝐶) single They contain at least one They contain at least one (𝐶 ≡
bonds (𝐶 = 𝐶) double bond 𝐶) triple bond
General Formula of Alkanes General Formula of Alkenes General Formula of Alkynes
𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛+2 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛−2
Examples Examples: Examples:
Methane)𝐶𝐻4 ),Ethane (𝐶2 𝐻6 ) Ethene (𝐶2 𝐻4 ), Ethyne (𝐶2 𝐻2 ), Propyne
Propene(𝐶3 𝐻6 ) (𝐶3 𝐻4 )
11) What is Homologous Series ? Write its characteristics.
Ans. Homologous Series: A group / series of hydrocarbons having same general formula, with
two successive compounds possessing difference of - CH2 and with similar structures and similar
properties (i.e., same functional group) are called a homologous series.

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 For example, 1( 𝐶𝐻4 , 𝐶2 𝐻6 , 𝐶3 𝐻8 , … … …. 2) 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻, 𝐶2 𝐻5 𝑂𝐻, 𝐶3 𝐻7 𝑂𝐻, … … ….
Homologous series of organic compounds have following characteristic features.
1) They have one general formula. Eg: alkanes (Cn H2n+2); alkynes (Cn H2n-2); alcohols (Cn
H2n+1)OH etc.
2) Successive compounds in the series possess a difference of (-CH2) unit.
3) They possess similar chemical properties due to the same functional group Eg: alcohols,
aldehydes and carboxylic acids have functional groups C–OH, C–CHO and C-COOH respectively.
4) They show a regular gradation in their physical properties (see the table-1).
For example: we may take alkanes, alkenes, alkynes, alcohols, aldehydes, and carboxylic acids etc.
as homologous series. The individual members of a homologous series are called homologs.
12) What is mean by Functional group? Write some functional groups.
Ans. Functional group: The characteristic properties of an organic compound depend mainly on
an atom or group of atoms in its molecule known as the functional group.
Formula of the Functional Name of the Functional Example
Group Group
𝐶 − 𝑂𝐻 Alcohol Methyl Alcohol (𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻)
𝐶 − 𝐶𝐻𝑂 Aldehyde Acetaldehyde (𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻𝑂)
𝐶=𝑂 Ketone Di methyl
ketone (𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂 𝐶𝐻3 )
𝐶 − 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 Carboxylic Acid Acetic acid (𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻)
𝐶−𝑂−𝐶 Ether Di methyl
ether (𝐶𝐻3 𝑂 𝐶𝐻3 )
𝐶 − 𝑁𝐻2 Amine Methyl amine (𝐶𝐻3 𝑁𝐻2 )
𝐶 − 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝑅 Ester Di methyl
ester (𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂 𝐶𝐻3 )
Nomenclature of organic compounds:
1) Longest Chain rule : Select the longest continuous chain of Carbon atom which is known as
parent chain or principle chain. All the other Carbon atoms constitute in the chain are branched
chains or side chains.
2) Lowest Number rule : The Carbon compound which contains only one substituent number the
Carbon atom in such a way that the carbon atom carrying the substituent get the lowest number
3) Lowest Sum rule : If there are two or more substituents in the carbon compounds the parent
chain is numbered from the end which gives the lowest sum of more substituent carbon

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4) Alphabetical Order : When two or more different groups are present, such groups are arranged
in alphabetical order
5) When a compound has both a functional group and a substituent, we give least number to
fucntional group.
6) The following sequence should be followed while assigning a name to a compound.
1 2 3 4 5
Secondary Primary Word root Primary Secondary
prefix prefix suffix suffix
a) Secondary prefix: This tells about the second grade functional groups known as
substituents, which are written as halo, alkyl, alkoxy. When the same substituent, multiple
bond or functional group is repeated twice, thrice etc., are denoted by di, tri, tetra...
respectively.

𝟐, 𝟑 𝑫𝒊 𝒄𝒉𝒍𝒐𝒓𝒐 𝑩𝒖𝒕𝒂𝒏𝒆
b) Primary prefix: It is useful only for cyclic compounds (Cyclo). If the compounds are not
cyclic, this part of the name is absent

𝑪𝒚𝒄𝒍𝒐 𝑩𝒖𝒕𝒂𝒏𝒆

c) Word root: The number of carbon atoms present in the molecules or principle chain is called
word root.

d) Primary suffix: This tells about the saturation of the compound. For saturated (C-C) single
bonded compounds it is ‘ane’. For unsaturated (C=C) double bonded compounds it is ‘ene’. For
unsaturated triple bonded (C C ) compounds it is ‘yne’
𝑪𝑯𝟑 𝑪𝑯𝟐 𝑪𝑯𝟐 𝑪𝑯𝟑 𝑩𝒖𝒕𝒂𝒏𝒆
𝑪𝑯𝟑 − 𝑪𝑯𝟐 − 𝑪𝑯 = 𝑪𝑯𝟐 𝑩𝒖𝒕𝒆𝒏𝒆
𝑪𝑯𝟑 − 𝑪𝑯𝟐 − 𝑪 ≡ 𝑪𝑯 𝑩𝒖𝒕𝒚𝒏𝒆
e) Secondary suffix: This tells about the functional groups with the particular term. While
writing the names of the derivatives of hydrocarbons the last letter ‘e’ of ane, ene, yne is
dropped if the suffix starts with a vowel. ‘e’ should be maintained if the suffix including
numerical preffix with a consonant.
Alcohol −𝒐𝒍
Aldehyde −𝒂𝒍

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 Ketone −𝒐𝒏𝒆
Acid 𝒐𝒊𝒄 𝒂𝒄𝒊𝒅
If you find more than one functional group in the structure you select the principal functional
group and write it as secondary suffix. All other functional groups become substituents
-COOH > -COOR > -CHO > >C=O > R-OH > -NH2
Acid ester aldehydes ketones alcohols amines

05) Write about the combustion reactions of carbon.

Ans. The process of burning of carbon or carbon compound in excess of oxygen to give heat and light
is called the combustion reaction.
𝐶 + 𝑂2 → 𝐶𝑂2 + Energy
2𝐶2 𝐻6 + 7𝑂2 → 4𝐶𝑂2 + 6𝐻2 𝑂 + Energy
𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻 + 3𝑂2 → 2𝐶𝑂2 + 3𝐻2 𝑂 + Energy
06) Why do sometimes cooking vessels get blackened on a gas or kerosene stove?
Ans. Because of the inlets of air getting closed, the fuel gases do not completely undergo combustion.
Hence, it forms a sooty carbon form which gets coated over the vessels.
07) Write the oxidation reaction of ethyl alcohol(ethanol).
Ans. Ethyl alcohol undergoes oxidation to form the product Acetaldehyde and finally Acetic acid.

08) Write the additional reactions of un saturated hydro carbons.

 Alkynes and Alkenes which are unsaturated hydrocarbons, become saturated hydrocarbons
undergoing addition reactions.
 • Alkenes undergo addition reactions to alkanes in the presence of Ni catalyst.
𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻2 + 𝐻2 → 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻3 .
Ethene Ethane
 Alkyne undergoes an addition reaction in the presence of Ni catalyst, which first converts to
an alkene and finally to an alkyne.
𝐶𝐻 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 + 𝐻2 → 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻2 + 𝐻2 → 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻3
Ethyne Ethene Ethane

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 16) What is a catalyst?
Ans. A substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without itself undergoing any
permanent chemical change.
11( Why are we advised not to use animal fats for cooking?
 Fats are usually solids at room temperature. Animal fats contain saturated carbon
chains.
 Hence large amount of heat is required to break those chains.
 This process consumes a lot of fuel.
 Nutritionists and animal scientists warn against using animal fats as a healthy substitute
for vegetable oils.
 While the consumption of animal fat has been warned that it is dangerous to health,
experts have recognized that it can cause serious health problems, including heart
attacks.
 Therefore animal fats should not be used for cooking.
18) Which oils are good for cooking? Why?
Ans. Generally vegetable oils containing long unsaturated carbon chains are recommended for
cooking.
Reasons:
1( They do not require large amounts of heat to break the carbon chains.
2( So that we can save cooking fuel.
3( It does not contain substances harmful to health.
19) What are substitution actions? Explain.
Ans. A reaction in which an atom or a group of atoms in a given compound is replaced by other atom
or group of atoms is called a substitution reaction.
Example: For example, methane (CH4 ) reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight. Hydrogen
atoms of CH4 are replaced by chlorine atoms

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 20) Explain the differences between oils and fats.

Fats Oils
Solid at room temperature Liquid at room temperature.

Unsaturated fats like monounsaturated and

Saturated and trans are its types
polyunsaturated are its types

Mostly derived from animal Mostly derived from plants

Increases cholesterol levels. Mainly comes

Improves cholesterol levels. Mainly comes from
from animal food but also through vegetable
plants or fish.
oil by process called hydrogenation.

21) Write the preparation, properties and uses of ethanol.

Ans. Ethanol is prepared on large scale from ethene by the addition of water vapour to it in the
presence of catalysts like P2 O5 , Tungsten oxide at high pressure and temperature.

Physical Properties: Ethanol is a colourless liquid with characteristic sweet odour. Pure ethanol
boils at 78.3 o C. Pure ethanol is called absolute (100 %) alcohol.
Chemical Properties :
1) Ethnol reacts with metallic sodium to liberate hydrogen and form sodium ethoxide

2) Ethanol reacts with conc. H2 SO4 at about 170o C (443 K) to give ethene. It is a dehydration
reaction. H2 SO4 is a dehydrating agent and removes H2 O.

Uses:

 Ethanol is commonly called alcohol and is active ingredient of all alcoholic drinks.
 It is a good solvent it is also used in medicines such as tincture iodine, cough syrups and many
tonics.

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 22) Write Physical and Chemical properties of Ethanoic acid
Physical Properties:
 Ethanoic acid is commonly called as acetic acid.
 5-8% solution of acetic acid in water is called vinegar.
 Ethanoic acid is a colourless liquid with characteristic unpleasant odour.
 It is soluble in water and more acidic than H2 O or ethanol, but less acidic than mineral acids.
Chemical Properties:
1) Ethanoic acid reacts with active metals like Na to liberate hydrogen.

2) Ethanoic acid reacts with NaOH to form sodium acetate and water.

03) Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate and sodium hydrogen carbonate which are weaker
bases and liberates 𝐶𝑂2

23. What are Esters? Explain Esterification reaction.

Ans. The hydrocarbons with functional group. −𝐶𝑂𝑂𝑅 are called esters. The general formula is𝑅 −
𝐶𝑂𝑂 − 𝑅1. R and 𝑅1 are alkyl groups or phenyl groups.
Activity:
 Take 1 ml of ethanol (absolute alcohol) and 1 ml of glacial
acetic acid along with a few drops of concentrated sulphuric
acid in a test tube.
 Warm it in a water bath or a beaker containing water for at
least five minutes as shown in Fig.
 Pour the warm contents into a beaker containing 20-50 ml of
water and observe the odour of the resulting mixture
 The resulting mixture is a sweet-odoured substance.
 This substance is nothing but ethyl acetate, an ester.
 The reaction is called the esterification reaction.
 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 + 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻 ⇄ 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3 + 𝐻2 𝑂
Acetic acid Ethanol Ethyl acetate

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 24. What is soap?
Ans. Soap is a sodium or potassium salt of a higher fatty acid like palmitic acid (𝐶15 𝐻31 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻),
stearic acid (𝐶17 𝐻35 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻), oleic acid (𝐶17 𝐻33 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻) etc. The formula of a soap in general is
RCOONa or RCOOK, where 𝑅 = 𝐶15 𝐻31 ; 𝐶17 𝐻35 𝑒𝑡𝑐.
25. What is mean by saponification?
Ans. Alkaline hydrolysis of tri esters of higher fatty acids producing soaps is called saponification.
26. Distinguish between esterification and saponification reactions of organic
compounds.
Saponification Esterification
1. Saponification is a process of preparation 1. Esterification is a process of preparation of
of soap. ester from a carboxylic acid and an alcohol.

2. Saponification is somewhat different from 2. In the esterification reaction, an acid reacts

esterification since an ester responds to with alcohol in the presence of conc. H2SO4
alkali in this situation. to form an ester.
3. End products are carboxylate ions and 3. End products are ester and water.
alcohol.
4. The reaction does not require heat energy. 4. The reaction requires heat energy.
5. The catalyst involved in the reaction is the 5. The catalyst involved in the reaction is acid.
base.

51( What is micelle? Write Cleansing action of soap.

Ans. A spherical aggregate of soap molecules in water is called micelle.
Cleansing action of soap

Micelle Hydrophobic end Hydrophilic end

 When a dirty cloth is inserted in the solution then the hydrocarbon part sticks to the dirt or oil.

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  With a little agitation the dirt particles get entrapped by the soap micelles and get dispersed in
water due to which the soap water gets dirty and the cloth gets cleaned
Explanation:
 The hydrophobic end of the soap molecules move towards the dirt or
grease particle.
 The hydrophobic ends attached to the dirt particle and try to pull out.
 The molecules of soap surround the dirt particle at the centre of the
cluster and form a spherical structure called micelle.
 These micelles remain suspended in water like particles in a colloidal
solution.
 The various micelles present in water do not come together to form a
precipitate as each micelle repels the other because of the ion-ion repulsion.
 Thus, the dust particles remain trapped in micelles (which remain suspended) and are easily
rinsed away with water.
 Hence, soap micelles remove dirt by dissolving it in water.
Multiple Choice Questions.
1. Which of the four test tubes containing the following chemicals shows the brisk effervescence when
dilute acetic acid was added to them?
i) KOH ii) NaHCO3 iii) K2CO3 iv) NaCl
A) i & ii B) ii & iii C) i & iv D) ii & iv Answer: B) ii & iii
2. Which of the following solution of acetic acid in water can be used as preservative?
A) 5-10% B) 10-15% C) 15-20% D) 100% Answer: A) 5-10%
3. The suffix used for naming an aldehyde is
A) – ol B) – al C) – one D) – ene Answer: B) – al
4. Acetic acid, when dissolved in water, it dissociates into ions reversibly because it is a
A) weak acid B) strong acid C) weak base D) strong base Answer: A) weak acid
5. Which one of the following hydrocarbons can show isomerism?
A) C2H4 B) C2H6 C) C3H8 D) C4H10 Answer: D) C4H10
6. Combustion of hydrocarbon is generally accompanied by the evolution of
A) Heat B) Light C) Both heat and light D) Electric current Answer: C
7. 2 ml of ethanoic acid was taken in each of the three test tubes A, B and C and 2 ml, 4 ml and 8 ml
water was added to them respectively. A clear solution is obtained in:
A) Test tube A only B) Test tubes A & B only C) Test tubes B and C only D) All the test

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tubes
Answer: D) All the test tubes
8. If 2 ml of acetic acid was added slowly in drops to 5 ml of water then we will notice
A) The acid forms a separate layer on the top of water B) Water forms a separate layer on the top
of the acid
C) Formation of a clear and homogenous solution D) Formation of a pink and clear solution
Answer: ( C )
9. A few drops of ethanoic acid were added to solid sodium carbonate. The possible results of the
reactions are
A) A hissing sound was evolved B) Brown fumes evolved
C) Brisk effervescence occurred D) A pungent smelling gas evolved Answer: (C)
10. When acetic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol, we add cone. H2SO4, it acts as and the process is called
A) Oxidizing agent, saponification B) Dehydrating agent, esterification
C) Reducing agent, esterification D) Acid and esterification Answer: ( B)
Fill In The Blanks
[Link] compounds containing double and triple bonds are called ………………….
2. A compound which is basic constituent of many cough syrups ………………………
3. Very dilute solution of ethanoic acid is ………………..
4. A sweet odour substance formed by the reaction of an alcohol and a carboxylic acid is ………………
5. When sodium metal is dropped in ethanol …………………. gas will be released.
6. The functional group present in methanol is …………………….
7. IUPAC name of alkene containing 3 carbon atoms is ………………….
8. The first member of homologous series among alkynes is ……………………
9. The product that is formed by dehydration of ethanol in cone, sulphuric acid is ………………….
10. Number of single covalent bonds in ammonia are ………………..
11. Type of reactions shown by alkanes is ……………….
Answers: [Link] compounds [Link] [Link] [Link] 5.H2 6.– OH (Alcohol) [Link]
[Link] (C2H2)
[Link] (C2H4) 10.3 [Link]

All the best

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