POLITY 29TH DEC.

1. With reference to the Government of India 3. Consider the following statements

Act, 1858, consider the following statements: regarding the exchange of territories under
the Constitution of India:
1. The Act vested all civil, military, and
revenue powers in the office of the 1. Article 368 allows for constitutional
Secretary of State for India. amendments that alter the boundaries
of India’s territory.
2. It abolished all legislative councils in
India, consolidating legislative powers 2. Article 3 empowers Parliament to alter
in the hands of the British Parliament. the boundaries of any state without
requiring a constitutional amendment.
3. It provided for a Council of India to
assist the Secretary of State in Indian 3. The 100th Constitutional Amendment
affairs. was necessary because it involved
ceding Indian territory to a foreign
Which of the statements given above is/are
nation, which Article 3 does not cover.
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 and 3 only correct?
(c) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. Consider the following statements
(d) 1, 2, and 3
regarding Fundamental Duties:
4. Consider the following statements about
1. The Fundamental Duties can serve as a
the citizenship framework in India and the
benchmark for the conduct of citizens
USA:
and as a basis for the enactment of
legislation. 1. India follows a single citizenship
model, whereas the USA allows dual
2. The Fundamental Duties include
citizenship at the federal and state
respecting the composite culture of
levels.
India and promoting harmony among
diverse groups. 2. Dual citizenship in the USA enables
states to frame their own citizenship
3. The Constitution allows Parliament to
laws independent of federal law.
enforce Fundamental Duties through
appropriate legislation. 3. The concept of citizenship in India is
influenced by the unitary nature of the
Which of the statements given above is/are
Indian federation.
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 and 3 only correct?
(c) 1, 2, and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) None of the above (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
 7. Consider the following provisions of the
Constitution of India:
5. In the context of representative
democracies, gerrymandering is often 1. Article 43B
associated with:
2. Article 19(1)(c)
1. Skewing electoral outcomes by
3. Article 51A(c)
manipulating district boundaries.
4. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Enhancing proportional representation
in electoral systems. How many of the above explicitly promote the
development or functioning of Co-operative
3. Diluting the voting power of specific
Societies?
demographic groups.
(a) Only one
4. Ensuring equal representation for (b) Only two
marginalized communities. (c) Only three
(d) All four
Select the correct answer using the code
below: 8. Which of the following countries operate
(a) 1 and 3 only under a framework that includes a written
(b) 2 and 4 only constitution?
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
1. Japan
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only
2. Canada
6. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Constitution of India 3. Israel
empowers the High Courts to issue writs for
4. India
the enforcement of fundamental rights only.
Statement-II: Article 226 of the Constitution Select the correct answer using the code
gives High Courts the power to issue writs for given below:
the enforcement of not only fundamental (a) 1 and 4 only
rights but also for other purposes. (b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Which one of the following is correct in
(d) 2 and 4 only
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 9. Which of the following statements
correct and Statement-II is the correct regarding the procedure for amending the
explanation for Statement-I Constitution of India is correct?
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
1. A Constitution Amendment Bill can be
correct and Statement-II is not the correct
introduced in either House of
explanation for Statement-I
Parliament.
(c) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct 2. A private member can introduce a
(d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Constitution Amendment Bill.
incorrect
 3. The President’s prior approval is 3. The writ can be issued to challenge the
mandatory before introducing a action of any public officer or
Constitution Amendment Bill. authority.
4. There is no provision for a joint sitting Which of the statements is/are correct?
of both Houses for the passage of a (a) 1 only
Constitution Amendment Bill. (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2, and 3
given below:
(a) 1, 2, and 4 only 12. Which of the following is true regarding the
(b) 1 and 4 only acquisition of citizenship by descent?
(c) 1, 2, 3, and 4
1. A person born outside India to Indian
(d) 2 and 3 only
parents is automatically a citizen of
10. Which of the following Directive Principles India.
of State Policy (DPSPs) in the Indian
2. A person born outside India can only
Constitution are directly inspired by Gandhian
claim citizenship by descent if their
principles?
father is an Indian citizen at the time
1. Organisation of village panchayats of the birth.

2. Promotion of cottage industries Which of the statements is/are correct?

3. Protection and improvement of the (a) Only one

environment (b) Only two
(c) Both one and two
4. Promotion of the educational and
(d) Neither one nor two
economic interests of Scheduled
Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other 13. Consider the following statements:
weaker sections
Statement-I: The Indian Councils Act of 1861
Select the correct answer using the code introduced a provision for the first time for
given below: Indians to be nominated to the executive
(a) 1 and 2 only councils of the Viceroy and Governors.
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
Statement-II: The Indian Councils Act of 1861
(c) 2 and 3 only
was the first constitutional reform after the
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only
Revolt of 1857 and marked the beginning of a
11. Consider the following statements formal system of legislative councils in British
regarding the writ of 'Quo-Warranto': India.

1. It can be issued to enquire into the Which one of the following is correct in
legality of a person’s claim to a public respect of the above statements?
office.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. The writ cannot be issued against correct, and Statement-II is the correct
private individuals holding public explanation for Statement-I
office. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, and Statement-II is not the correct Select the correct answer using the code
explanation for Statement-I below.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(a) 1 only
incorrect
(b) 2 only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(c) 1 and 2 only
correct
(d) 1 and 3 only
14. The doctrine of the Sovereignty of
17. Consider the following statements about
Parliament in the context of India is often
the Beaufort Sea:
seen as a central tenet. Which of the following
legal principles is not directly aligned with this 1. The Beaufort Sea is located entirely
doctrine? within the Arctic Ocean and is
bordered by the coasts of Canada and
(a) The Parliament's power to make and
Alaska.
amend laws
(b) Judicial review of Parliament's actions 2. It is known for its rich biodiversity,
(c) The limitation on the scope of Parliament’s including polar bears and seals.
authority through the Constitution
3. The Beaufort Sea experiences seasonal
(d) The Parliament’s absolute power over
sea ice cover, which significantly
money bills
affects marine navigation.
15. Which of the following actions are
How many of the above statements is/are
generally considered duties of citizenship in
correct?
the context of democratic governance?
(a) Only one
1. Voting in elections
(b) Only two
2. Obeying the law (c) All three
(d) None
3. Participating in national development
18. Consider the following statements about
Select the correct answer using the code
Cryonics:
below.
1. Cryonics involves the preservation of
(a) 1 only
human bodies at low temperatures to
(b) 1 and 2 only
prevent cellular decay after death.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The practice is legally recognized in
most countries and is regulated by
16. Project 39A is a strategic initiative that
health authorities.
focuses on:
3. Cryonics guarantees a successful
1. Developing a roadmap for indigenous
revival of individuals in the future,
nuclear-powered submarines
provided medical technology advances
2. Strengthening criminal justice reforms sufficiently.
and human rights
How many of the above statements is/are
3. Enhancing India’s nuclear energy correct?
generation capacity
(a) Only one incorrect
(b) Only two (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(c) Only three correct
(d) None of the above
21. Which of the following statements is true
regarding the participation of women leaders
in the Constituent Assembly of India?
19. Consider the following statements
regarding contempt of court in India: (a) Sucheta Kriplani and Annie Mascarene
were the only women members.
1. Contempt of court law is designed
solely to protect the dignity of the (b) Only Sucheta Kriplani and Usha Mehta
judiciary. were members of the Constituent Assembly.
2. A person who is found guilty of (c) Sucheta Kriplani, Captain Lakshmi Sahgal,
contempt of court can be sentenced to and Begum Aizaz Rasul were part of the
imprisonment or fined. Constituent Assembly.
3. The Supreme Court is the only (d) None of the above statements are correct.
authority that can punish for contempt
of court.
22. Consider the following statements
How many of the above statements are
regarding Fundamental Rights:
correct?
1. Fundamental Rights are absolute and
(a) Only one
can never be curtailed or suspended.
(b) Only two
(c) All three 2. Fundamental Rights, even when
(d) None violated by private individuals, are
enforceable by the Supreme Court
20. Consider the following statements:
under Article 32.
Statement-I: The Constitution of India
Which of the statements given above is/are
provides for the establishment of a Finance
correct?
Commission to recommend the distribution of
finances between the Union and the States. (a) 1 only
Statement-II: The Finance Commission is (b) 2 only
constituted by the President every five years. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements? 23. Consider the following statements
regarding the amendment of the Constitution
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
of India:
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I 1. The Indian Constitution can be
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are amended by Parliament alone,
correct, and Statement-II is not the correct through a special majority, in most
explanation for Statement-I cases.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
 2. Certain provisions in the Constitution, 26. Consider the following statements:
such as the distribution of legislative
1. The concept of "Judicial Review" is
powers between the Centre and the
explicitly mentioned in the
States, can only be amended with the
Constitution of India.
consent of the States.
2. The "Right to Property" was initially a
Which of the statements given above is/are
Fundamental Right, but it was later
correct?
moved to a legal right by the 44th
(a) 1 only Amendment.
(b) 2 only
3. The term "Republic" in the preamble
(c) Both 1 and 2
refers to a form of government where
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the head of state is elected.
24. Consider the following pairs regarding
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Constitutional Amendments:
(a) Only 1
1. 1st Amendment Act, 1951: Made the
(b) Only 2
right to property a legal right from a
(c) 2 and 3
fundamental right.
(d) All of the above
2. 52nd Amendment Act, 1985: A
27. In the context of different forms of
member disqualified for defection
government, consider the following
cannot be a minister.
statements:
3. 77th Amendment Act, 1995: Provided
1. Oligarchy involves a government run
reservation in promotions to SCs and
by a small elite, typically based on
STs.
wealth or power.
4. 91st Amendment Act, 2003: Stipulated
2. Totalitarianism seeks to control every
the upper limit for the number of
aspect of public and private life, often
Council of Ministers at both central
led by a single leader.
and state levels.
3. Anarchy is a condition where no form
How many pairs given above are correctly
of governance exists, and individuals
matched?
are free from all state control.
(a) Only one
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(b) Only two
(c) Only three (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) All four (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All of the above
25. The concept of "limited government
(d) 1 only
intervention" is most closely associated with
which of the following ideologies? 28. Consider the following statements
(a) Socialism regarding the All India Services:
(b) Communism
Statement-I: A constitutional amendment is
(c) Libertarianism
required for the creation of All India Services,
(d) Conservatism
and the amendment must be ratified by a representation system allocates seats to
majority of state legislatures. parties or candidates in a legislative election?
Statement-II: All India Services help maintain (a) By a fixed number of seats for each district
uniformity in administration and ensure (b) Based on the proportion of votes each
cooperation between the Centre and the party receives across the entire electoral area
States in governance. (c) Using a complex formula of electoral
college votes
Which of the following options is correct?
(d) According to the number of constituencies
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are won by each candidate
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
31. Under the framework of Article 20(3),
explanation for Statement-I
consider the following actions involving the
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
accused:
correct, but Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I 1. Forcing the accused to undergo
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is polygraph tests without consent.
incorrect
2. Requiring the accused to provide
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
access to digital devices such as
correct
mobile phones or laptops.
29. Which of the following statements about
3. Compelling the accused to reveal
the Preamble to the Constitution of India is
passwords for digital wallets linked to
correct based on judicial pronouncements?
financial crimes.
1. It is a non-justiciable part of the
4. Using physical evidence such as DNA
Constitution, though it is indicative of
obtained from the accused’s discarded
the Constitution's basic philosophy.
belongings.
2. It was held to be an integral part of the
Which of the above actions constitute a
Constitution in the Keshavananda
violation of the right against self-
Bharati case, 1973.
incrimination?
3. The Berubari Union case, 1960, (a) 1 and 2 only
referred to the Preamble as a guiding (b) 1, 2, and 3 only
light for interpreting constitutional (c) 3 and 4 only
provisions. (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Select the correct answer using the code 32. Under the UAPA, which of the following
given below. is/are correct regarding the procedure for
prosecution?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 1. The central government’s prior
(c) 1 only sanction is mandatory for prosecuting
(d) 2 only offenses under the Act.
30. Which of the following best describes the 2. Any offense punishable under UAPA
method by which a proportional requires a minimum imprisonment
term of three years.
 3. A person can be detained under UAPA 3. Article 358 protects both executive
for a maximum of 90 days without and legislative actions, while Article
filing a charge sheet, extendable up to 359 protects only legislative actions.
180 days with the court's approval.
How many of the above differences are
Select the correct answer using the code correct?
given below: (a) Only one
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) Only two
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) All three
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) None
(d) 1, 2, and 3
35. With reference to the provisions related to
33. With reference to the legislative India’s financial structure, consider the
procedure in states with a bicameral following actions:
legislature, consider the following statements:
1. Transfer of tax revenues to the states
1. The State Legislative Assembly has as per the recommendations of the
overriding powers over the Legislative Finance Commission.
Council in the case of an ordinary bill.
2. Payment of salaries to the judges of
2. A money bill cannot be introduced in the Supreme Court of India.
the Legislative Council and must be
3. Granting loans to the states for
introduced in the Legislative Assembly
developmental projects.
first.
Which of the above activities are charged to
3. The Legislative Council must return a
the Consolidated Fund of India?
money bill to the Assembly within 14
(a) 1 and 2 only
days, failing which the bill is deemed
(b) 2 and 3 only
to have been passed by both Houses.
(c) 1 and 3 only
How many of the above statements are (d) 1, 2, and 3
correct?
36. With reference to the allocation of seats in
(a) Only one
the Lok Sabha, consider the following
(b) Only two
statements:
(c) All three
(d) None 1. The allocation of seats to states in the
Lok Sabha is based on the population
34. Consider the following statements:
data of the 1971 Census.
1. Article 358 applies exclusively to
2. The total number of seats in the Lok
Article 19, whereas Article 359 applies
Sabha is fixed at 552 under Article 81
to all Fundamental Rights except
of the Constitution of India.
Articles 20 and 21.
3. Delimitation of constituencies for Lok
2. The suspension under Article 358 is
Sabha elections is carried out by the
automatic, while Article 359 requires a
Election Commission of India.
Presidential Order.
How many of the above statements are 39. Which of the following statements
correct? regarding the 44th Constitutional Amendment
(a) Only one Act, 1978 is/are correct?
(b) Only two
1. It replaced the term 'internal
(c) All three
disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' in
(d) None
Article 352 of the Indian Constitution.
37. With reference to the powers of the State
2. It removed the President's
Election Commission (SEC) in municipal
discretionary power to issue a
elections, consider the following statements:
proclamation of emergency without
1. The SEC conducts elections for both prior approval from the Union Cabinet.
urban local bodies and panchayati raj
3. It made the Fundamental Rights under
institutions in the state.
Article 20 and Article 21 immune from
2. The SEC’s decisions are subject to suspension during a national
judicial review by the High Court. emergency.
3. The SEC is appointed by the Governor, Select the correct answer using the code
but its powers and functions are given below:
determined by the Parliament. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
Which of the statements given above are
(c) All three
correct?
(d) None
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 40. With reference to the 'Phenome India'
(c) 1 and 3 only project, consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2, and 3
1. The project aims to identify the
38. Consider the following statements relationship between genetic
regarding the Economic Advisory Council to variations and the susceptibility to
the Prime Minister (EAC-PM): diseases in the Indian population.
1. It is a non-constitutional, non- 2. The project is an initiative of the
statutory body that is constituted from Ministry of Science and Technology to
time to time. support India's efforts in the global
biotechnology market.
2. It is responsible for preparing the
Economic Survey of India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
3. It is chaired by the Finance Minister of (a) Only one
India. (b) Only two
(c) Both one and two
How many of the statements given above are
(d) Neither one nor two
correct?
(a) Only one 41. Consider the following statements:
(b) Only two
1. Nitrous oxide is a major greenhouse
(c) All three
gas.
(d) None
 2. Nitrous oxide contributes to the 3. The exemption was granted because
depletion of the ozone layer. Arunachal Pradesh does not have any
Scheduled Castes within its
3. Nitrous oxide is produced by bacteria
population.
in soils and oceans through natural
processes. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one (c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None
(c) All three
44. Consider the following statements about
(d) None of the above
Question Hour in the Indian Parliament:
42. Consider the following statements about
1. Question Hour is an Indian innovation
direct seeding of rice:
and is explicitly mentioned in the
1. It requires less labor than traditional Constitution of India.
transplanting, as there is no need to
2. The allocation of time for Question
prepare seedlings.
Hour is regulated by the Rules of
2. Direct seeding can lead to increased Procedure of both Houses of
water consumption due to the Parliament.
necessity of maintaining flooded
3. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the
conditions.
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha has full
Which of the above statements is/are correct? discretion to suspend Question Hour.

(a) Only 1 Which of the statements given above are

(b) Only 2 correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
43. Consider the following statements about
45. In the context of the Tenth Schedule,
the 83rd Constitutional Amendment Act of
consider the following statements regarding
2000:
nominated members:
1. It amended Article 243-M to exclude
1. A nominated member of a House is
Arunachal Pradesh from the
disqualified if they join any political
requirement to provide reservation for
party immediately after being
Scheduled Castes in Panchayats.
nominated.
2. It provided that Panchayat
2. A nominated member is permitted to
reservations for SCs and STs are
join a political party within six months
mandatory in all states and Union
from the date of their nomination.
Territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only 1. Promulgating an ordinance.
(b) 2 only
2. Summoning Parliament for an
(c) Both 1 and 2
emergency session.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Dissolving the Lok Sabha.
46. Consider the following bodies:
Select the correct answer using the codes
1. National Integration Council
given below:
2. National Development Council (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
3. Inter-State Council
(c) 2 and 3 only
4. Finance Commission (d) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the above are chaired by the Prime 50. Consider the following statements
Minister of India? regarding the discretionary powers of the
(a) 1 and 2 only President:
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. The President can return a bill for
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
reconsideration to Parliament once,
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
except for a Money Bill.
47. Which one of the following cases is most
2. The President has no discretionary
closely associated with the interpretation of
power in appointing the Chief Justice
the Doctrine of Territorial Nexus in Indian
of India.
constitutional law?
(a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala 3. The President can withhold assent to a
(b) State of Bombay v. R.M.D. Constitutional Amendment Bill.
Chamarbaugwala
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Berubari Union Case
correct?
(d) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
48. Which of the following is NOT a condition
(d) 1 and 3 only
for the application of the Doctrine of
Promissory Estoppel? 51. The term ‘Base Erosion and Profit Shifting’
(a) The promise must have been made (BEPS) is primarily concerned with:
voluntarily and not under duress.
(a) Ensuring that multinational corporations
(b) The promisee must have acted upon the
pay taxes in countries where their products
promise and suffered a loss or detriment.
are sold and services are rendered.
(c) The promise must be enforceable even if it
(b) Protecting the intellectual property rights
contradicts statutory provisions.
of multinational corporations operating in
(d) There must be a clear and unambiguous
multiple jurisdictions.
promise by the promisor.
(c) Developing policies for environmental
49. Which of the following powers are sustainability in the global supply chains of
exercisable by the President of India during multinational corporations.
the recess of Parliament? (d) Preventing multinational corporations
from exploiting natural resources in (a) 1 only
developing countries without compensation. (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
52. Consider the following statements about
(d) None of the above
the Global Plastics Treaty:
54. With reference to the "First Past the Post"
1. The treaty focuses on both the
(FPTP) electoral system, consider the
prevention of plastic pollution and the
following statements:
promotion of sustainable alternatives
to plastics. 1. FPTP often leads to the formation of a
single-party majority government,
2. The treaty was negotiated under the
even when the majority of voters
United Nations Framework Convention
prefer multiple parties.
on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
2. FPTP encourages strategic voting and
3. The treaty has received universal
tactical alliances between parties to
adoption from all UN member states
prevent the emergence of a minority
as of 2024.
government.
Which of the statements given above
3. FPTP guarantees that the elected
is/are correct?
government will always have the
(a) 1 only support of more than 50% of the
(b) 2 only electorate.
(c) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) None of the above
correct?
53. With reference to the Doctrine of Merger
(a) 1 only
and the Rule of Stare Decisis, consider the
(b) 2 and 3 only
following statements:
(c) 1 and 2 only
1. Under the Doctrine of Merger, when a (d) None of the above
higher court pronounces its judgment,
55. Consider the following statements about
the earlier decision of the lower court
Constitutional Morality:
ceases to exist in its original form.
1. Constitutional morality involves not
2. The Rule of Stare Decisis mandates
just a commitment to the written
that courts must strictly follow the
Constitution but also an adherence to
precedents set by higher courts within
its spirit and broader democratic
the same jurisdiction, without
ideals.
exception.
2. It allows elected representatives to
3. The Rule of Stare Decisis is a principle
override constitutional provisions if
that ensures judicial stability, allowing
they claim it is in the public’s best
courts to create new laws by
interest.
disregarding past decisions.
3. Constitutional morality requires that
Which of the statements given above is/are
all actions by the government be
correct?
transparent, accountable, and just, in
 accordance with the Constitution’s (d) The transactions of the Contingency Fund
ethos. of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 58. With reference to the appointment of the
Solicitor General of India, which of the
(a) 1 and 2 only
following statements is/are correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. The SGI is appointed by the President
(d) All of the above of India.
56. Consider the following statements about 2. The SGI is not a constitutional post but
Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana: is governed by statutory provisions.
1. The scheme is fully funded by the 3. The SGI holds office during the
central government with the aim to pleasure of the President.
provide senior citizens with the
Select the correct answer using the code
required assistive devices.
given below:
2. Senior citizens above the age of 60 are (a) 1 only
eligible for the benefits under the (b) 2 and 3 only
scheme, which include a range of aids (c) 1 and 3 only
like hearing aids, walking aids, and (d) 1, 2, and 3
spectacles.
59. The concept of ‘Justice’ in the Preamble of
3. The scheme aims to address the the Indian Constitution has been derived
healthcare needs of senior citizens from:
belonging to both BPL and APL
1. The principles enshrined in the
categories.
American Declaration of
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Independence.
(a) Only one 2. The idea of distributive justice
(b) Only two embedded in Marxist ideology.
(c) Only three
3. The socio-economic objectives
(d) All of the above
outlined in the Objectives Resolution
of 1946.
57. In which of the following cases does the Which of the statements given above is/are
CAG NOT have jurisdiction to conduct audits? correct?
(a) The accounts of a private company (a) 1 only
receiving indirect grants from the (b) 2 and 3 only
government. (c) 3 only
(b) The accounts of any authority substantially (d) 1, 2, and 3
funded by the Consolidated Fund of India.
60. With reference to the High Court of India,
(c) The accounts of government companies
consider the following provisions:
where the government owns at least 51% of
the equity. 1. The President can transfer a High
Court Judge from one High Court to
 another after consulting the Chief 2. The data collected for the NPR is used
Justice of India. exclusively for issuing Aadhaar cards.
2. The Constitution specifies a fixed 3. It is a statutory requirement for every
retirement age for High Court Judges. resident of India to be included in the
NPR.
3. Only the President can initiate the
process of removing a High Court Which of the statements given above is/are
Judge through a motion in the correct?
Parliament. (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 2 and 3 only
correct?
(d) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 63. Consider the following statements
(c) 2 and 3 only regarding the Assam Accord and its
(d) 1, 2, and 3 provisions:
61. Consider the following provisions about 1. It states that individuals who entered
the High Court of India: Assam between 1966 and 1971 will be
allowed to stay but will be
1. The salaries, allowances, and pensions
disenfranchised for ten years.
of High Court Judges are charged on
the Consolidated Fund of the 2. The Assam Accord was signed
respective state. between the Government of India and
the leaders of the Assam Movement in
2. High Court Judges cannot practice law
1985.
in any court or before any authority in
India after their retirement. 3. The Accord also led to the
establishment of a procedure for
3. The Constitution empowers the
identifying and deporting illegal
Parliament to establish a common
immigrants.
High Court for two or more states.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
64. Consider the following statements
62. Consider the following statements
regarding direct democracy:
regarding the National Population Register
(NPR): 1. Direct democracy allows citizens to
vote on laws and policies directly
1. The NPR is a register of all residents in
rather than through elected
India, including both citizens and non-
representatives.
citizens.
 2. It is most commonly used in federal (c) 3-1-2
systems where power is concentrated (d) 3-2-1
at the central government level.
67. Which of the following historical
3. Switzerland is one of the countries agreements or treaties is at the center of the
where direct democracy is practiced dispute over Kalapani, Limpiyadhura, and
extensively, especially through Lipulekh?
referendums and initiatives.
(a) The Treaty of Tordesillas
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) The Sugauli Treaty
correct? (c) The Treaty of Versailles
(a) 1 only (d) The Simla Agreement
(b) 1 and 3 only
68. Consider the following statements about
(c) 2 and 3 only
Salmonella:
(d) 1, 2, and 3
1. It is a virus.
65. Which of the following groups of people
can utilize the Electronically Transmitted 2. It is typically transmitted through
Postal Ballot System (ETPBS) in India? contaminated food or water.
1. Indian citizens residing abroad. 3. It can cause food poisoning.
2. Armed forces personnel deployed in How many of the above statements are
border areas. correct?
3. Overseas voters residing in a foreign (a) Only one
country for employment purposes. (b) Only two
(c) All three
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) None
below:
69. Which of the following spacecraft
(a) 1 and 2 only
provided data leading to the discovery of K2-
(b) 2 and 3 only
18b?
(c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) 1 only (a) Hubble Space Telescope
(b) James Webb Space Telescope
66. Consider the following pairs of locations
(c) Kepler Space Telescope
and their respective latitudes:
(d) Spitzer Space Telescope
1. Paracel Islands - 16° N
70. Which of the following key principles is
2. Spratly Islands - 10° N emphasized in the Bletchley Declaration?
3. Natuna Islands - 4° N (a) The right to develop AI without
government intervention
Arrange the locations from north to south
(b) Ensuring that AI technologies are safe,
based on their latitudes:
ethical, and transparent
(a) 1-2-3 (c) Prioritizing the economic benefits of AI
(b) 2-1-3 over ethical considerations
(d) Unregulated global collaboration on AI 3. The Court has ruled that the State
development must demonstrate the backwardness
of SCs and STs for promoting them
71. Which of the following statements
under reservation.
accurately describes AlphaFold 3, frequently
mentioned in recent news? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) A software tool that predicts protein
(a) 1 only
structures with unmatched accuracy
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) A robotic device designed for protein
(c) 2 and 3 only
crystallization
(d) 1, 2, and 3
(c) A gene-editing technology used to modify
DNA sequences 74. Consider the following statements
(d) A vaccine developed for combating COVID- regarding the status and functions of the
19 PMO:
72. Consider the following statements about 1. The PMO enjoys a constitutional status
the Global Alliance of National Human Rights equivalent to that of the Council of
Institutions (GANHRI): Ministers.
1. GANHRI operates under the United 2. The National Authority Chemical
Nations to support the enforcement of Weapons Convention functions under
global human rights standards. the PMO.
2. GANHRI provides accreditation to 3. The PMO is responsible for advising
National Human Rights Institutions the Prime Minister on appointments
(NHRIs) based on their compliance of Governors and Chief Justices of High
with the Paris Principles. Courts.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2, and 3
73. Consider the following statements with
75. With reference to the dismissal of the
respect to reservation in promotion under
Council of Ministers by the Governor, consider
Article 16 of the Indian Constitution:
the following statements:
1. Article 16(4A) empowers the State to
1. The Governor may dismiss the Council
provide reservation in promotions for
of Ministers only when the Chief
Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled
Minister fails to prove a majority on
Tribes (ST).
the floor of the Assembly.
2. The Constitution mandates reservation
2. The dismissal of the Council of
in promotions for backward classes,
Ministers is subject to judicial review if
including SCs and STs, in all cases
it is deemed arbitrary.
without exception.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, and 3
76. Consider the following statements 78. Consider the following statements
regarding the origin and functions of the regarding the Inter-State Council:
Committee on Public Undertakings (CoPU):
1. The Inter-State Council was
1. The Committee on Public established by a constitutional
Undertakings was established in 1964 amendment.
based on the recommendations of the
2. The Prime Minister acts as the
Krishnamachari Committee.
Chairman of the Inter-State Council.
2. The CoPU examines whether the
3. The recommendations of the Inter-
affairs of public undertakings are being
State Council are binding on the Union
managed efficiently and in accordance
and the States.
with sound business principles.
How many of the above statements are
3. The recommendations made by the
correct?
CoPU are binding on the government.
(a) Only one
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) Only two
correct? (c) All three
(a) 1 only (d) None
(b) 1 and 2 only
79. Consider the following statements
(c) 2 only
regarding the Sevottam framework:
(d) 2 and 3 only
1. The Sevottam framework aims to
77. With reference to the Rules of Procedure
improve the quality of public service
and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha,
delivery by introducing citizen-centric
consider the following statements:
standards.
1. The rules are formulated by the Rules
2. The framework consists of three main
Committee of the Lok Sabha and
modules: citizen charter, grievance
require approval by the House.
redressal mechanism, and service
2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex- delivery capability.
officio Chairman of the Rules
3. The Sevottam framework is legally
Committee.
binding on all public service
3. The rules of the Lok Sabha are subject organizations in India.
to judicial review by the Supreme
How many of the above statements are
Court and can be declared
correct?
unconstitutional if found inconsistent
(a) Only one
with the Constitution.
(b) Only two
(c) All three 3. The inclusion of new member states
(d) None into NATO requires the approval of at
least two-thirds of the current
80. With reference to the composition of
members.
DISHA, consider the following:
Select the correct answer using the code
1. The Member of Parliament (Rajya
given below:
Sabha) representing the state is
A. 1 only
designated as the Chairperson in
B. 2 only
districts without a Lok Sabha MP.
C. 1 and 3 only
2. All elected Members of the Legislative D. 2 and 3 only
Assembly (MLAs) of the district are
83. Which of the following is an example of a
permanent members of DISHA.
"technology-driven action plan" under the
3. The Chief Secretary of the state is the SAMADHAN Doctrine?
Convener of DISHA in every district.
A. Deployment of Unmanned Aerial Vehicles
Which of the statements given above is/are (UAVs) for surveillance in LWE-affected
correct? regions.
(a) 1 and 2 only B. Formation of elite commando forces like
(b) 2 and 3 only the Greyhounds for counterinsurgency
(c) 1 only operations.
(d) None C. Expansion of road networks in remote
tribal areas affected by Naxalism.
81. The E-Government Development Index
D. Conducting public awareness campaigns to
(EGDI) is released by which of the following
counter Left-Wing Extremist ideologies.
organizations?
(a) World Bank 84. Which of the following statements
(b) United Nations Department of Economic regarding The Green Credit Programme is/are
and Social Affairs (UNDESA) correct?
(c) World Economic Forum (WEF)
1. It mandates industries to reduce their
(d) Organisation for Economic Co-operation
carbon emissions below a specific
and Development (OECD)
threshold to earn Green Credits.
2. Green Credits can be traded in a
82. Which of the following statements voluntary market among stakeholders.
regarding the North Atlantic Treaty
3. The Programme applies exclusively to
Organization (NATO) is/are correct?
forest conservation initiatives.
1. Article 5 of the NATO Charter
Select the correct answer using the code
emphasizes collective defense,
given below:
invoking military action only after
A. 1 and 2 only
approval from the UN Security Council.
B. 2 only
2. NATO's decision-making is based on a C. 1 and 3 only
unanimous consensus among its D. 2 and 3 only
member states.
85. Under the CDP-Suraksha framework, 2. The Indian Patents Act allows
which of the following key sectors are patenting of biological resources,
prioritized for critical infrastructure protection traditional knowledge, and associated
against cyber threats? genetic resources without the consent
of indigenous communities.
1. Financial Services
3. Geographical Indications (GI)
2. Defence and Military Infrastructure
protection in India is governed under
3. Healthcare and Emergency Services the Geographical Indications of Goods
(Registration and Protection) Act,
4. Education and Research Institutions
1999.
Select the correct answer using the code
4. The Copyright Act, 1957 grants
given below:
automatic protection to creators of
A. 1, 2, and 3 only
literary, artistic, and musical works,
B. 2, 3, and 4 only
but does not recognize software as a
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
literary work.
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Select the correct answer using the code
86. In the context of Green Bonds, which of
given below:
the following sectors are considered eligible
A. 1 and 3 only
for financing through Green Bonds in India?
B. 1 and 2 only
1. Renewable Energy (Solar, Wind, C. 2 and 4 only
Hydro) D. 1, 3, and 4 only

2. Energy-efficient buildings and 88. Which of the following Buddhist traditions

infrastructure is most closely associated with the Tawang
Monastery, and what is its significance in
3. Electric vehicle charging infrastructure
Buddhist teachings?
4. Coal-based power generation projects
1. The monastery follows the Gelug
Select the correct answer using the code school of Tibetan Buddhism, which is
given below: also known as the Yellow Hat Sect.
A. 1, 2, and 3 only
2. It is a major center for the Vajrayana
B. 1 and 2 only
tradition, with a focus on the Tantric
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
teachings of Buddhism.
D. 2, 3, and 4 only
3. The Dalai Lama is the spiritual leader
87. Which of the following statements is/are
of the monastery, despite its location
true regarding the Intellectual Property Rights
in India.
(IPR) framework in India?
4. The monastery is known for its
1. India is a signatory to the Agreement
teachings on Madhyamaka, a school of
on Trade-Related Aspects of
Mahayana philosophy.
Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)
under the World Trade Organization Select the correct answer using the code
(WTO). given below:
A. 1 and 2 only How many of the above statements are
B. 1, 2, and 3 only correct?
C. 2 and 4 only
(a) Only one
D. 1, 3, and 4 only
(b) Only two
89. Which of the following statements about (c) All three
tardigrades is incorrect? (d) None
1. Tardigrades can survive in extreme 91. Which of the following best explains the
conditions such as high radiation, rationale behind the "Eggshell Skull" doctrine
freezing temperatures, and the in tort law?
vacuum of space.
(a) The defendant’s duty to exercise
2. Tardigrades exclusively inhabit aquatic reasonable care is diminished when the victim
environments, including freshwater has a pre-existing medical condition.
and marine habitats. (b) The defendant is responsible for all
damages that directly result from their
3. Tardigrades are primarily found in
actions, regardless of the victim’s unique
tropical rainforests and do not survive
vulnerabilities.
in arid environments.
(c) The doctrine is designed to limit the
4. Tardigrades are capable of entering a defendant’s responsibility to injuries that are
state of cryptobiosis to withstand foreseeable at the time of the incident.
extreme environmental conditions. (d) The doctrine encourages defendants to
account for the victim’s health history before
Select the correct answer using the code
committing any harmful act.
below:
A. 1 only 92. Consider the following statements:
B. 3 only
1. The Supreme Court of India has
C. 2 and 3 only
recognized the right to die with dignity
D. 1 and 4 only
as a fundamental aspect of the right to
90. Consider the following statements about life under Article 21 of the
Oleander: Constitution.

1. The ingestion of Oleander leaves, 2. Active euthanasia has been legalized

flowers, or seeds can lead to by the Supreme Court in India under
symptoms such as vomiting, any circumstances.
abdominal pain, and irregular heart
3. The right to die with dignity is
rhythms.
recognized in India, but passive
2. Oleander is classified as a non-toxic euthanasia with conditions has been
plant and is often used in landscaping allowed.
in urban areas.
Which of the above statements are correct?
3. The plant requires high water levels
(a) 1 only
and cannot survive in dry or arid
(b) 2 only
environments.
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. The United States is a member state of
(d) All three the ICC and participates in its judicial
proceedings. Which of the above
93. Consider the following statements about
statements is/are correct?
the Right to Dissent:
(a) 1 only
1. The Right to Dissent is guaranteed by
(b) 2 only
the Indian Constitution explicitly under
(c) 1 and 2 only
Article 19.
(d) 1 and 3 only
2. The right allows peaceful opposition to
96. With reference to the Trade Facilitation
government policies but does not
Agreement (TFA), consider the following
extend to acts of violence or terrorism.
statements:
3. Dissent can be suppressed by the
1. The TFA encourages the use of trade
government when it is deemed to
facilitation measures, including the
disrupt public order.
simplification of customs procedures
Which of the above statements is/are correct? and the reduction of trade barriers for
small and medium-sized enterprises
(a) 1 and 2 only
(SMEs).
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only 2. The TFA includes provisions for
(d) 1, 2, and 3 establishing a committee to monitor
the implementation of trade
94. Which of the following is the correct
facilitation measures across all WTO
constitutional provision for the empowerment
member countries.
of the President in specifying Scheduled
Tribes? Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) Article 342
(b) Article 343 (a) 1 Only
(c) Article 344 (b) 2 only
(d) Article 345 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
95. Consider the following statements about
the International Criminal Court (ICC): 97. Consider the following statements about
the Low Methane Rice Project (LMRP):
1. The ICC can prosecute individuals for
crimes that occur within the 1. The project aims to reduce methane
jurisdiction of its member states or by emissions from rice paddies through
nationals of its member states, the development of low-methane
regardless of where the crime takes emitting rice varieties and better
place. management practices.

2. The ICC has jurisdiction over crimes of 2. The project is led by the International
aggression only if they are committed Fund for Agricultural Development, in
after the 2018 amendments to the collaboration with the United Nations
Rome Statute. Environment Programme (UNEP).
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 100. Which of the following events or actions
marked a significant turning point in the
(a) Only one
formation of the QUAD?
(b) Only two
(c) Both one and two (a) The conclusion of the Indo-US nuclear deal
(d) Neither one nor two in 2008.
(b) The 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake and
98. Consider the following statements about
tsunami relief operation.
the Global Supply Chain Resilience Initiative
(c) The 2017 Doklam standoff between India
(GSCRI):
and China.
1. The GSCRI is a joint effort by the (d) The signing of the Indo-Pacific Security
United States, Japan, and Australia to Framework in 2019.
ensure supply chain resilience in
critical sectors.
2. The primary focus of the GSCRI is on
developing digital infrastructure to
streamline supply chain processes and
increase efficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
99. Consider the following statements about
the World Health Assembly (WHA):
1. It is the decision-making body of the
World Health Organization (WHO).
2. It meets twice a year to discuss global
health issues.
3. It consists of representatives from all
WHO member states.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None