NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

8. Which are the various stages of sexual reproduction?
Botany - Section A [Link], Development, Differentiation
1. In which of the following groups, all three are examples [Link] fertilization, Fertilization, Post fertilization
of polysaccharides? [Link], Post Fertilization, Pre Fertilization
1. Starch, glycogen, cellulose [Link], Gamete transfer, Gamete Fertilization
2. Sucrose, maltose, glucose
3. Glucose, fructose, lactose 9. Which of the following is not indicated by BOD test?
4. Galactose, starch, sucrose 1. Rate of uptake of oxygen by microorganisms in a
sample of water
2. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have 2. A measure of organic matter present in the water
(1) thin walls, many intercellular space and no chloroplast 3. Polluting potential
(2) thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of 4. Amount of Flocs
chloroplasts
(3) thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several 10. Liquid endosperm in coconut results due to :-
chloroplasts 1. Karyokinesis followed by cytokinesis
(4) thick walls, many intercellular space and few 2. Failure of karyokinessis followed by cytokinesis
chloroplasts 3. Karyokinesis twice followed by single cytokinesis
4. Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis
3. The most important cause driving animals and plants to
extinction in the Evil Quartet is 11. In the dicot root, the vascular cambium originates from
(1) Habitat loss and Fragmentation :
(2) Over-Exploitation 1. Tissue located below the phloem bundles, a portion of
(3) Alien Species Invasions pericycle tissue, above the protoxylem.
(4) Co-extinctions 2. Cortical region
3. Parenchyma between endodermis and pericycle
4. Manganese is required in 4. Intrafascicular and interfascicular tissue in a ring
1. Nucleic acid synthesis
2. Plant cell wall formation 12. Which of the following shows whorled phyllotaxy ?
3. Photolysis of water during photosynthesis 1. Mustard
4. Chlorophyll synthesis 2. China rose
3. Alstonia
5. Which of the following is true? 4. Calotropis
[Link] the elements present in a sample of earth’s crust are
also present in a sample of living tissue 13. Where is the respiratory electron transport system
[Link] and Hydrogen are present in more amount in (ETS) located in plants?
any living organism than earth’s crust. 1. Mitochondrial matrix
[Link] and Hydrogen are present in more in living 2. Outer mitochondrial membrane
organisms than in non living matter. 3. Inner mitochondrial membrane
[Link] of the above 4. Intermembrane space

6. Nomenclature is 14. Match the placental types (column-I) with their

1. assigning a single name to an organism valid all over examples (column-II)
the world.
2. Defining properties of an organism Column I Column II
3. Localizing the area of abundance for that organism (a) Basal (i) Mustard
4. Assigning three sets of name applicable at different (b) Axile (ii) China rose
levels of classification. (c) Parietal (iii) Dianthus
(d) Free central (iv) Sunflower
7. Which of the following statements do not justify the
Choose the correct answer from the following options:
importance of photosynthesis?
1. it is the primary source of all food on earth. 1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii),(c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2. it is responsible for the release of oxygen into the 2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
atmosphere. 3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
3. it is responsible for the water balance on earth. 4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. use of energy from sunlight by plants doing
photosynthesis is the basis of life on earth.

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 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
15. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules 23. What is the direction of movement of sugars in
can be achieved by treatment with: phloem?
1. Chilled chloroform 1. Bi-directional
2. isopropanal 2. Non-multidirectional
3. Chilled ethanol 3. Upward
4. Methanol at room temperature 4. Downward

16. Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol 24. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine
agent in the treatment of plant disease? and caffeine are produced by plants for their:
1. Lactobacillus 1. Growth response
2. Trichoderma 2. Defence action
3. Chlorella 3. Effect on reproduction
4. Anabaena 4. Nutritive value

17. Xylem translocates: 25. Which of the following statements is incorrect about
1. Water, minerals salts, some organic nitrogen and gymnosperms?
hormones (1) They are heterosporous
2. Water only (2) Male and female gametophytes are free-living
3. Water and mineral salts only (3) Most of them have narrow leaves with thick cuticle
4. Water, mineral and some organic nitrogen only (4) Their seeds are not covered

18. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the 26. Match the following events that occur in their
first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is catalyzed by: respective phases of cell cycle and select the correct
1. Phosphofructokinase option :
2. Aldolase
3. Hexokinase (a) G 1 phase (i) Cell grows and organelle
4. Enolase duplication
(b) S phase (ii) DNA replication and
19. What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the chromosome duplication
synergid? (c) G 2 phase (iii) Cytoplasmic growth
1. One fuses with the egg and the other fuses with central (d) Metaphase in M-phase (iv) Alignment of
cell nuclei chromosomes
2. One fuses with the egg and other(s) degenerate(s) in the
synergid (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. All fuse with the egg (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. One fuses with the egg and other(s) fuse(s) with (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
synergid nucleus (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

20. Which one of the following statements regarding post-

fertilization development in flowering plants is incorrect?
1. Ovules develop into embryo sac 27. In some plants, the thalamus contributes to fruit
2. Ovary develops into fruit formation. Such fruits are termed as
3. Zygote develops into embryo 1. False fruits
4. Central cell develops into endosperm 2. Aggregate fruits
3. True fruits
21. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to: 4. Parthenocarpic fruit
1. Novel DNA sequence
2. Genes expressed as RNA 28. Inhibitory substances in dormant seeds cannot be
3. Polypeptide expression removed by subjecting seeds to:
4. DNA polymorphism (1) Gibberellic acid
(2) Nitrate
22. Concanavalin A is: (3) Ascorbic acid
1. a pigment (4) Chilling conditions
2. an alkaloid
3. an essential oil
4. a lectin

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 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
29. Which of the following is incorrect about 34. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows
Cyanobacteria? terminalisation of chiasmata as its distincitve feature?
(1) They are photoautotrophs 1. Diakinesis
(2) They lack heterocysts 2. Pachytene
(3) They often form blooms in polluted water bodies 3. Leptotene
(4) They have chlorophyll A similar to green plants 4. Zygotene

30. A. Histones are organised to form a unit of eight 35. Which of the following is a ribozyme in bacteria for
molecules called _______. the formation of peptide bond?
B. _______ constitute the repeating unit of a structure in 1. 28 S rRNA
nucleus called chromatin. 2. 5.8 S rRNA
C. The chromatin that is more densely packed and stains 3. 23 S rRNA
dark is called ________. 4. 16 S rRNA
Fill-up the blanks with correct answers
A B C
1. Nucleosome Chromosome Euchromatin Botany - Section B
2. Histone octamer Nucleosome 36. In order to obtain virus-free plants through tissue
Heterochromatin culture the best method is:
3. Histone octamer Nucleoid Euchromatin 1. protoplast culture
4. Nucleosome Nucleoid 2. embryo culture
eterochromatin 3. anther culture
4. meristem culture
31. During the process of ecological succession, the
changes that take place in communities are 37. Which of the following helps in termination of
(a) orderly and sequential transcription?
(b) random (1) Sigma factor
(b) very quick (2) Translocase
(d) not influenced by the physical environment (3) Ubiquitin
(4) Rho factor
32. A species that was introduced for ornamentation but
has become a troublesome weed in India : 38. The initiation of condensation of chromosomal
1. Parthenium hysterophorus material marks the beginning of
2. Eichhornia crassipes 1. S phase
3. Prosopis juliflora 2. Prophase
4. Trapa Spinosa 3. G1
4. G2
33. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II 39. Which of the following is a mustard family?
(a) Protein I. C-C double bonds (1) Brassicaceae
(b) Unsaturated fatty acid II. Phosphodiester bonds (2) Solanaceae
(c) Nucleic acid III. Glycosidic bonds (3) Liliaceae
(d)Polysaccharides IV. Peptide bonds (4) Fabaceae

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 40. Which of the following Algae shows anisogamy.
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1. Volvox.
1. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 2. Eudorina.
2. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 3. Spirogyra.
3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 4. Ulothrix.
4. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

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 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
41. Match the following and choose correct option 48. Which of the following pair of gases is mainly
Group A Group B responsible for greenhouse effect?
A. Aleurone layer i. without fertilization 1. Carbon dioxide and methane
B. Parthenocarpic fruit ii. Nutrition fruit 2. Ozone and Ammonia
C. Ovule iii. Double fertilization 3. Oxygen and Nitrogen
D. Endosperm iv. Seed 4. Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide
1. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
2. A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii 49. Which of the following ecological pyramids is
3. A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii generally inverted?
4. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii 1. Pyramid of biomass in a sea
2. Pyramid of numbers in grassland
42. When protoxylem lies towards the centre (pith) and 3. Pyramid of energy
the metaxylem lies towards the periphery of the organ, the 4. Pyramid of biomass in a forest
primary xylem is called
1. Endarch; present in stem 50. The organelles that are included in the endomembrane
2. Endarch; present in roots system are:
3. Exarch; present in stem 1. Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and
4. Exarch; present in roots Lysosomes
2. Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulus, Mitochondria
43. Which of the following statements is correct? and Lysosomes
1. Lichens do not grow in polluted areas. 3. Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and
2. Algal component of lichens is called mycobiont Lysosomes
3. Fungal component of lichens is called phycobiont 4. Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and
4. Lichens are not good pollution indicators. Vacuoles

44. Western Ghats have a large number of plant and

animal species that are not found anywhere else. Which of Zoology - Section A
the following terms will you use to notify such species ?
51. In a marriage between male with blood group A and
1. Endemic female with blood group B, the progeny had either blood
2. Vulnerable group AB or B. What could be the possible genotype of
3. Threatened parents?
4. Keystone 1. IA i (Male) ; IB IB (Female)
A A B B
45. Between which among the following, the relationship 2. I I (Male) ; I I (Female)
is not an example of commensalism? 3. IA IA (Male) ; IB i (Female)
1. Orchid and the tree on which it grows 4. IA i (Male) ; IB i(Female)
2. Cattle Egret and grazing cattle
3. Sea Anemone and Clown fish 52. Match the following joints with the bones involved:
4. Female wasp and fig species
Column-I Column-II
46. In RNAi, the genes are silenced using :
Gliding Between carpal and metacarpal of
1. dsRNA (a) (i)
joint thumb
2. ssDNA
3. ssRNA (b) Hinge joint (ii) Between Atlas and Axis
4. dsDNA (c) Pivot joint (iii) Between the Carpals
Saddle
47. The frequency of recombination between gene pairs (d) iv Between Humerus and Ulna
joint
on the same chromosome as a measure of the distance
between genes was explained by: Select the correct option from the following:
1. Sutton Boveri 1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
2. T.H. Morgan 2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
3. Gregor J. Mendel 3. (a)-(iv), (b(-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
4. Alfred Sturtevant 4. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

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 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
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53. Select the correct statement. 59. The illustration below shows the skull of two different
1. Expiration occurs due to external intercostal muscles. mammals. Use the illustration to answer the question that
2. Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than the atmospheric follows
pressure during inspiration.
3. Inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is less
than intrapulmonary pressure.
4. Expiration is initiated due to contraction of diaphragm.

54. Consider the statements given below regarding

contraception and answer as directed thereafter
(i) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first
trimester is generally safe
(ii) Generally, chances of conception are nil until mother
breast-feeds the infants up to two year
(iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective Which of the following accurately describes the
contraceptives differences between these skulls?
(iv) Contraception pills may be taken up to one week after 1. Skull A has more teeth than skull B
coitus to prevent conception 2. Skull A has more brain capacity than skull B
Which two of the above statements are correct? 3. Skull A is of a primate and skull B is not of a primate
1. ii, iii 4. Skull A is the skull of an ape and skull B is the skull of
2. iii, iv human
3. i, iii
4. i, ii 60. When compared to cones of the retina, the rods
1. Are more sensitive to low intensity of light
55. Which of the following is not the product of exocrine 2. Are most concentrated in the fovea
gland? 3. Are primarily involved in colour vision
(1) Earwax 4. Have higher visual acuity
(2) Oil
(3) Mucus 61. Which of the following is an example of Mendelian
(4) Hormone disorder :
1. Klinefelter's syndrome
56. Which of the following is true 2. Down's syndrome
(1)Gills are used by most of the aquatic animals 3. Turner's syndrome
(2)lungs are used by most of the terrestrial animals 4. Thalassemia
(3)Mammals have a well developed respiratory system
(4)All of the above 62. Kwashiorkor disease is due to
1. simultaneous deficiency of proteins and fats
57. Which of the following is not true about testosterone 2. simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories
1. stimulates spermatogenesis 3. deficiency of carbohydrates
2. influence libido 4. protein deficiency not accompanied by calorie
3. Catabolic effects on protein metabolism deficiency
4. responsible for aggressiveness in male
63. Carnivorous animals - lions and leopards, occupy the
58. Which of the following is true about nucleolus? same niche but lions predate mostly larger animals and
1. membrane-less structure leopards take smaller ones. This mechanism of
2. active site for rRNA synthesis competition is referred to as -
3. numerous in cells which are involved in protein 1. Character displacement
synthesis 2. Altruism
4. All of the above 3. Resource partitioning
4. Competitive exclusion

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 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
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64. Match the items in Column - I with those in Column - 69. Which of the following contraceptive methods do
II : involve a role of hormone?
1. Pills, Emergency contraceptives, barrier methods
Column - I Column - II 2. Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency
(a) Podocytes (i) Crystallised oxalate contraceptives
(b) Protonephridia (ii) Annelids 3. Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, pills
(c) Nephridia (iii) Amphioxus 4. CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
(d) Renal calculi (iv) Filtration slits
70. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume of an
Select the correct option from the following: athlete are 500 mL and 1000 mL respectively. What will
1. (a)-(iii), (b )-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) be his Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) mL?
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) 1. 2700 mL
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) 2. 1500 mL
3. 1700 mL
65. A selectable marker is used to : 4. 2200 mL
1. help in eliminating the non-transformants so that the
transformants can be regenerated 71. Consider the following features:
2. identify the gene for the desired trait in an alien (a) Organ system level of organization
organism (b) Bilateral symmetry
3. select a suitable vector for transformation in a specific (c) True coelomates with the segmentation of the body
crop Select the correct option of animal groups that possess all
4. mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation using the above characteristics.
restriction enzyme 1. Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
2. Annelida, Arthropoda, and Chordata
66. Given below are four statements pertaining to the 3. Annelida, Arthropoda, and Mollusca
separation of DNA fragments using Gel electrophoresis. 4. Arthropoda, Mollusca, and Chordata
Identify the incorrect statements.
(a) DNA is a negatively charged molecule and so it is 72. Match the following hormones with the respective
loaded on gel towards the Anode terminal. disease:
(b) DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel (a) Insulin (i) Addison's disease
whose concentration does not affect the movement of (b) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus
DNA. (c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly
(c) Smaller the size of the DNA fragment, the larger is the (d) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre
distance it travels through it. (v) Diabetes mellitus
(d) Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing to Select the correct option.
UV radiation. (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (a), (c) and (d) 1. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
2. (a), (b) and (c) 2. (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
3. (b), (c) and (d) 3. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
4. (a), (b) and (d) 4. (v) (iv) (i) (iii)

67. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases 73. Drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by:
is not completely curable? 1. nitration of morphine
1. Chlamydiosis 2. methylation of morphine
2. Gonorrhoea 3. acetylation of morphine
3. Genital warts 4. glycosylation of morphine
4. Genital herpes
74. Which of the following equipments is essentially
68. Extrusion of the second polar body from egg nucleus required for growing microbes on a large scale for
occurs: industrial production of enzymes?
1. simultaneously with first cleavage 1. Bioreactor
2. after entry of sperm but before fertilization 2. BOD incubator
3. after fertilization 3. Sludge digester
4. before entry of sperm into ovum 4. Industrial oven

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 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
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75. Which part of the brain is responsible for 79. Match the following diseases with the causative
thermoregulation? organism and select the correct option.
1. Medulla oblongata Column I Column II
2. Cerebrum (a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest (i) Asterias
3. Hypothalamus (b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva
4. Corpus callosum (ii) Scorpion
with bilateral symmetry
(iii)
76. Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells
(c) Book lungs Ctenoplana
in male reproductive system.
1. Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas
deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal canal (d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
→ Urethra → Urethral meatus

2. Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis (a) (b) (c) (d)
→ Inguinal canal → Urethra 1. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
3. Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vesa efferentia 2. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
→ Epididymus → Vas deferens → 3. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus 4. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
4. Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia →
Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra

77. Identify the cells whose secretion protects the lining of

80. Match the following columns and select the correct
gastro-intestinal tract from various enzymes option.
1. Duodenal cells Column - I Column - II
2. Chief cells a. 6 - 15 pairs of gill slits (i) Trygon
3. Goblet cells b. Heterocercal caudal fin (ii) Cyclostomes
4. Oxyntic cells c. Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
d. Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
78. Match the following columns and select the correct (a) (b) (c) (d)
option. 1. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
2. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Column-I Column-II 3. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(1) Eosinophils (i) lmmune response

(2) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis 81. The yellowish fluid "colostrum" secreted by mammary
glands of the mother during the initial days of lactation
(3) Neutrophils (iii) has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant. This
Release histaminase, destructive enzymes type of immunity is called as :
(1) Passive immunity
(4) Lymphocytes (iv) Release (2) Active immunity
granules containing histamine (3) Acquired immunity
(4) Autoimmunity
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
82. In cockroach, identify the parts of the foregut in
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) correct sequence:-
(1) Mouth → Oesophagus → Pharynx → Crop →
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) Gizzard
(2) Mouth → Crop → Pharynx → Oesophagus →
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Gizzard
(3) Mouth → Gizzard → Crop → Pharynx →
Oesophagus
(4) Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop →
Gizzard

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 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
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83. Which of the following is associated with a decrease 90. The base of canal is swollen and is called ampulla
in cardiac output? which contains a ……….. called ……..ampullaris which
(1) Sympathetic nerves has …..
(2) Parasympathetic neural signals (1) Projecting ridge, Crista, Hair cells
(3) Pneumotaxic center (2) Projecting Furrows, macula, nerves
(4) Adrenal medullary hormones (3) Projecting fissures, Crista, hair cell
(4) Convolution, Crista, nerves
84. Select the correct statement :
(1) Atrial Natriuretic Factor increases the blood pressure. 91. The detailed structure of the cell membrane was
(2) Angiotensin II is a powerful vasodilator. studied only after the advent of the
(3) Counter current pattern of blood flow is not observed 1. compound microscope
in vasa recta. 2. cryo-electron microscopy
(4) Reduction in Glomerular Filtration Rate activates JG 3. X-ray crystallography
cells to release renin. 4. electron microscope

85. Choose the correct option wherein, the correct stages 92. Which organism has more base pairs ?
of the development of human embryo takes place. 1. [Link]
Ovary Fallopian Tube Uterus 2. Bacteriophage
3. human
1. Morula Fertilized egg Blastocyst
4. Yeast
2. Unfertilized egg Fertilized egg Morula
3. Unfertilized egg Fertilized egg Blastocyst 93. Diagrams (A, B, C and D) of four different animals are
4. Fertilized egg Morula Blastocyst given below. Which one of the following option identifies
the animal, its phylum and one of its character correctly ?

Zoology - Section B
86. The neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular
junction is:
1. Adrenaline
2. Nor-adrenaline
3. Dopamine
4. Acetylcholine

87. A human female with turner's syndrome

(1) has 45 chromosomes with XO
(2) has one additional X-chromosome
(3) exhibits male characters
(4) is able to produce children with normal husband
Animal Phylum Character
88. Atherosclerosis affects B Rana Amphibia 3 – chambered heart
(1) the vessel which supply blood to kidney
C Asterias Echinodermata Water canal system
(2) the vessel which supply blood to brain
(3) the vessel which supply blood to heart muscle A Aurelia Coelenterata Cnidoblast cells
(4) the vessel which supply blood to lungs D Naja Chordata Non-poisonous snake

89. Sertoli cells are found in

(1) ovaries and secrete progesterone 1. B
(2) adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline 2. C
(3) seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ 3. A
cells 4. D
(4) pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin

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94. Which of the following hormones is responsible for 99. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo
both the milk ejection reflex and the foetal ejection reflex? de Vries, are:
1. Estrogen 1. small and directionless
2. Prolactin 2. random and directional
3. Oxytocin 3. random and directionless
4. Relaxin 4. small and directional

95. Match the following enzymes with their functions: 100. Match List-I with List-II
Column-I Column-II List-I List-II
Restriction (i) Selection of resistant varieties due
(a) (i) joins the DNA fragments (a) Adaptive
endonuclease to excessive use of herbicides and
radiation
extends primers on genomic pesticides
(b) Exonuclease (ii) (b) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs in Man and
DNA template
(c) DNA ligase (iii) cuts DNA at specific position evolution Whale
(c) Divergent
removes nucleotides from the (iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird
(d) Tag polymerase (iv) evolution
ends of DNA
(d) Evolution by
anthropogenic (iv) Darwin Finches
Select the correct option from the following:
action
1. (a) - (iii), (b)- (i), (c)- (iv), (d)-(ii)
2. (a) - (iii), (b)- (iv), (c)- (i), (d)-(ii)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
3. (a) - (iv), (b)- (iii), (c)- (i), (d)-(ii)
4. (a) - (ii), (b)- (iv), (c)- (i), (d)-(iii)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
96. Match the following parts of a nephron with their 1. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
function: 2. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(a) Descending limb of Henle's loop (i) 3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Reabsorption of salts 4. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(b) Proximal convoluted tubule (ii)
Reabsorption of water
(c) Ascending limb of Henle's loop (iii)
Conditional reabsorption of sodium ions and water Chemistry - Section A
101. Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4, the covalent
(d) Distal convoluted tubule (iv)
Reabsorption of ions, water and organic nutrients bond character varies as
1. LiCl < BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4
Select the correct option from the following: 2. LiCl > BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4
1. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) 3. LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) 4. LiCl > BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i),(c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
102. The IUPAC name of the given compound is-
97. "Ramachandran plot" is used to confirm the structure
of
1. RNA
2. Proteins
3. Triacylglycerides
4. DNA
1. 4-Butylpenta-2,4-dienal
98. Identify the correct pair representing the causative 2. 5-Vinyloct-3-en-1-al
agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for 3. 5-Vinyloct-5-en-8-al
typhoid. 4. 3-Butyl-1,4-hexadien-6-al
1. Salmonella typhi/Widal test
2. Plasmodium vivax/UTI test
3. Streptococcus pneumoniae/Widal test
4. Salmonella typhi/Anthrone test

Page: 9
 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
103. The vapour pressure of a dilute aqueous solution of 110. The IUPAC symbol for the element with atomic
glucose is 750 mm of mercury at 373 K. The mole number 119 would be -
fraction of solute in the solution is- 1. Uue
1. 1/10 2. Une
2. 1/76 3. Uun
3. 1/7.6 4. Unh
4. 1/35
111. The synonym for water gas, when used in the
104. A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping production of methanol, is :
platinum wire in a solution of HCI of pH = 10 and by 1. Fuel gas
passing hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at 1 atm 2. Laughing gas
pressure. The oxidation potential of electrode would be 3. Syn gas
1. 0.059 V 4. Natural gas
2. 0.59 V
3. 00.118 V 112. The correct statements among the following are
4. 1.18 V (I) Valence bond theory cannot explain the color exhibited
by transition metal complexes.
105. If 'a' is the initial concentration of a substance that (II) Valence bond theory can predict quantitatively the
reacts according to zero-order kinetics and k is the rate magnetic properties of transition metal complexes.
constant, the time for the reaction to go to completion is: (III) Valence bond theory cannot distinguish ligands as
1. a/k weak and strong field ones.
2. 2/ka 1. (I), (II), and (III)
3. k/a 2. (II) and (III) only
4. 2k/a 3. (I) and (II) only
4. (I) and (III) only
106. In a chemical change from PCl −−−→ PCl , the
3 5

hybrid state of P changes from: 113. The graph between |ψ| and r (radial distance) is
2

2
1. sp to sp 3 shown below. This represents :
2. sp3 to sp2
3. sp3 to sp3d
4. sp3 to dsp2

107. What will be the molar conductance at infinite

dilution for NH4OH. If at infinite dilution the molar
conductances of Ba(OH)2, BaCl2 and NH4Cl are 523.28,
280.0 and 129.8 ohm-1 cm-1 mol-1 respectively. 1. 3s orbital
1. 502.88 2. 2s orbital
2. 373.68 3. 2p orbital
3. 251.44 4. 1s orbital
3. 226.96

108. Which is the correct statement among the following?

1. Starch is a polymer of α-glucose 114. 5 moles of AB weight 125 × 10
−3
kg and 10
2
2. Amylose is a component of cellulose moles of A2B2 weight of 300 × 10 kg. The molar
−3

3. Proteins are composed of only one type of amino acid

mass of A (MA) and molar mass of B (MB) in kg mol are:
4. In the cyclic structure of fructose, there are four
carbons and one oxygen atom 1. M A
= 10 × 10
−3
and MB = 5 × 10
−3

2. M A
= 25 × 10
−3
and MB = 50 × 10
−3

109. The catalytic activity of transition metals is due to : 3. M = 5 × 10

−3
and MB = 10 × 10
−3

1. High enthalpy of atomization A

2. Paramagnetic behaviour 4. M A = 50 × 10
−3
and MB = 25 × 10
−3

3. Colour of hydrated ions

4. Variable oxidation states

Page: 10
 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
115. Assertion (A): [SiF ]2– is known whereas [SiCl ]2– 118. 'A' and 'B' in the following reactions are :
6 6
is not.
Reason (R): Cl atom causes higher steric hindrance.
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A.
2. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct
explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

116. Consider the reaction sequence given below :

1.

2.

⊝
rate = k[t − BuBr][OH ]

Correct statement among the following is - 3.

1. Changing the concentration of base will have no effect
on reaction (1)
2. Changing the concentration of base will have no effect
on reaction (2)
3. Changing the base from -OH to -OR will have no effect 4.
on reaction (2)
4. Doubling the concentration of base will double the rate
of both the reactions.

117. An organic compound 'A' (C9H10O) when treated

with conc. HI undergoes cleavage to yield compounds 'B'
and 'C'. 'B' gives a yellow precipitate with AgNO3
whereas 'C' tautomerizes to 'D'. 'D' gives a positive
iodoform test. 'A' could be-

1.

2.

3.

4.

Page: 11
 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
119. What is the final product (major) 'A' in the given 121. Consider the following reactions :
reaction ?

1.

The structure of A is-

2.
1.

2.
3.

3.

4.
4.
120. The correct order of the following compounds
showing increasing tendency towards nucleophilic 122. Statement I: An allotrope of oxygen is an important
substitution reaction is- intermediate in the formation of reducing smog.
Statement II: Gases such as oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
present in the troposphere contribute to the formation of
photochemical smog.
1. Both statement I and Statement II are false
2. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

1. (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i) 123. 5.6 g of an organic compound on burning with excess
2. (iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii) of oxygen gave 17.6 g of 𝐶𝑂2 and 7.2 g of 𝐻2𝑂. The
3. (iv) < (i) < (iii) < (ii) organic compound is-
4. (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) 1. C6H6
2. C4H8
3. C3H8
4. C2H2

Page: 12
 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
124. Among the following acids which has the lowest pKa 130. Statement 1: Pressure, molar heat capacity, density,
value? mole fraction, specific heat, temperature, and molarity are
1. CH3CH2COOH intensive properties.
Statement 2: Mass, internal energy, and heat capacity are
2. (CH3)2 CH—COOH
extensive properties.
3. HCOOH 1. Both statements I and II are true.
4. CH3COOH 2. Statement I is true and statement II is false.
3. Both statements I and II are false.
125. Based on the kinetic theory of gases following laws 4. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
can be proved :
1. Boyle's law 131. The ionization constant of some weak bases at a
2. Charles' law particular temperature is given below
3. Avogadro's law Base Dimethylamine Urea Pyridine
4. All of the above
−14
Kb −4 1.3×10 −9
5.4×10 1.77×10

Ammonia
−5

126. The ionization constant of ammonia is 1.77 × 10–5. 1.77×10

The decreasing order of the bases on the extent of their

The pH of a 0.05M of ammonia solution is 11. The ionization at equilibrium is-
ionization constant of the conjugate acid of ammonia is- 1. Urea > Ammonia > Dimethylamine > Pyridine
1. 2.44 × 10–9 2. Ammonia > Dimethylamine > Pyridine > Urea
2. 6.14 × 10–12 3. Pyridine > Urea > Dimethylamine > Ammonia
3. 1.24 × 10–14 4. Dimethylamine > Ammonia > Pyridine > Urea
4. 5.64 × 10–10 132. Match the compounds in column I with the oxidation
state of Cl in column II.
127. The incorrect statement about H2SO4 is-
Column I Column II
1. It is used in fertilizer industry.
a. Cl2O7 i. +4
2. It is used in the manufacture of pigments, paints, and
detergents. b. NaClO3 ii. +1
3. It is used in the manufacture of storage batteries.
c. Cl2O iii. +5
4. It is a weak dehydrating agent.
d. ClO2 iv. +7
128. Consider the following reaction,
XeF6 + 2H2O → X + 4HF
a b c d
The product X is-
1. XeO2F2 1. iii iv ii i
2. XeO3 2. ii iii iv i
3. XeOF4 3. iv iii ii i
4. None of the above 4. iv i iii ii

129. Statement I: [Fe(H O) ]3+ is strongly paramagnetic

2 6
whereas [Fe(CN)6]3− is weakly paramagnetic.
Statement II: [Fe(H2O)6]3+ has 4 unpaired electron while
[Fe(CN)6]3− has 5 unpaired electron.
1. Both Statement I and II are true.
2. Statement I is true and statement II is false.
3. Both Statement I and II are false.
4. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.

Page: 13
 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
133. One mole of an ideal gas at 900 K, undergoes two 135. Among the following, the conformation that
reversible processes, I followed by II, as shown below. If corresponds to the most stable conformation of meso-
the work done by the gas in the two processes are same, butane-2,3-diol is
V3
the value of ln V2
is -

1.

2.

3.

(U: internal energy, S: entropy, p: pressure, V: volume, R:

gas constant)
(Given : molar heat capacity at constant volume, C of v,m
4.
the gas is 5

2
R )
1. 5
2. 10 Chemistry - Section B
3. 0.1 136. Consider the following compounds
4. 0.5

134. Tin is obtained from cassiterite by reduction with

coke. Use the data given below to determine the minimum
temperature (in K) at which the reduction of cassiterite by
coke would take place at -
−1
∘
298 K : Δf H [SnO2 (s)] = −581.0kJ mol
∘ −1
Hyperconjugation occurs in
Δf H [(CO2 ) (g)] = −394.0kJ mol 1. I only
∘ −1
−1 2. II only
S [SnO2 (s)] = 56.0J K mol
3. III only
−1 −1
∘
S [Sn(s)] = 52.0 J K mol 4. I and III
−1 −1
∘
S [C(s)] = 6.0JK mol
137. Number of isomers of [P t (N H ) ] [CuCl ] 3
4
4
−1 −1
∘
S [CO (g)] = 210.0 J K
2 mol complex are :
(Assume that the enthalpies and the entropies are 1. 2
temperature independent) 2. 3
1. 298 K 3. 4
2. 450 K 4. 5
3. 935K
4. 900 K 138. For a first-order reaction A → B the reaction rate at a
reactant concentration of 0.01M is found to be
−1
2.0 × 10
−5
mole L −1
s . The half-life period of the
reaction is:-
1. 300s
2. 30s
3. 220s
4. 347s
Page: 14
 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
139. Compound that has planar structure : 144. The major product of the following chemical reaction
1. XeF4 is:
2. XeOF2
3. XeO2F2
4. XeO4

140. Incorrect statement among the following options is :

1. La(OH ) is less basic than Lu(OH )
3 3

2. In Lanthanide series ionic radius of Ln ions

+3

decreases.
3. La is actually an element of transition series rather 1.
Lanthanide.
4. Atomic radius of Zr and Hf are same because of
Lanthanide contraction.
2.
141. In a set of the given reactions, acetic acid yielded a
product C.
C6 H6 C2 H5 MgBr

CH3 COOH + PCl5 → A −−−−−−→ B−−−−−−→ 'C',

Anh. AlCl3 ether

Product C would be 3.
1. CH3CH(OH)C2H5 4.
2. CH3COC6H5
3. CH3CH(OH)C6H5

4.

142. The ionization constant of CH COOH is 1.7 ×

3
145. Which one of the following methods can be used to
10
−5
and the concentration of H ions is 3.4 × 10 .
+ −4
obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room
Then find out the initial concentration of CH COOH 3
temperature?
molecules- 1. Distillation
1. 3.4 × 10−4 2. Zone refining
3. Electrolysis
2. 3.4× 10 −3

4. Chromatography
3. 6.8 × 10−4

4. 6.8 × 10−3
146. Statement I: Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the
class of narcotic analgesics.
143. Which one of the following polymers are prepared by Statement II: Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic
addition polymerization? analgesics.
1. Novolac 1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
2. Dacron 2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
3. Teflon 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
4. Nylon-66 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

147. Percentages of free space in cubic close-packed

structure and in body-centered packed structure are
respectively-
1. 48% and 26%
2. 30% and 26%
3. 26% and 32%
4. 32% and 48%

Page: 15
 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
148. In a mixture of A and B, components show negative 154. The variation of potential with distance R from a
deviations when: fixed point is shown in the figure. The electric field at R =
1. A-B interaction is stronger than A-A and B-B 5 m is:
interaction (Given, the potential, V in volts and distance, R in
2. A-B interaction is weaker than A-A and B-B meters.)
interaction
3. ΔVmix > 0, ΔSmix > 0
4. ΔVmix = 0, ΔSmix > 0

149. The pair of species has identical shapes among the

following is :
1. CF4 , SF4
2. XeF2 , CO2
3. BF3 , PCl3
4. PF5 , IF5
1. 2.5 V m −1

150. Among the following, the incorrect characteristics for 2. −2.5 V m −1

physical adsorption is- 2

3. V m −1

1. Adsorption on solids is reversible 5

2
2. Adsorption increase with increase in temperature 4. − V m5
−1

3. Adsorption is spontaneous
4. Both enthalpy and entropy of adsorption are negative

Physics - Section A 155. A small spherical ball cannot hold one coulomb of
151. In which of the following cases, do we get very charge in air because at this stage:
strong reflected rays and very weak refracted rays? 1. voltage of the ball becomes high enough to destroy the
1. light passing from water to air insulating property of air.
2. light passing from glass to diamond 2. capacity of the ball is too high to hold the charge.
3. light passing from water to glass 3. nuclear forces wipe off the charge of the ball.
4. light passing from air to glass 4. electromagnetic forces reduce the charge of the ball.

152. For the myopic eye, the defect is cured by: 156. How will you get the largest amount of energy from a
1. convex lens resistance wire of length 0.5 m connected with a battery of
2. concave lens negligible internal resistance?
3. cylindrical lens 1. by joining the wire directly to the battery.
4. toric lens 2. by cutting the wire into two equal parts and then joining
all of them in parallel to the battery.
153. An object placed in front of a concave mirror of a 3. by cutting the wire into four equal pieces and then
focal length 15 cm produces a virtual image, which is connecting all of them in parallel to the battery.
twice the size of the object. The position of the object is: 4. by joining only half wire.
1. -5.5 cm
2. -6.5 cm
3. -7.5 cm
4. 8.5 cm

Page: 16
 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
157. Seven resistors, each of value 5Ω, are connected as 160. PQ and RS are long parallel conductors separated by
shown in the figure. The equivalent resistance between a certain distance. M is the mid-point between them (see
points A and B is: the figure). The net magnetic field at M is B. Now, the
current 2 A is switched off. The field at M now becomes:

1. 2B
1. 5Ω
2. B
2. 7Ω
3. B/2
3. 14Ω
4. 3B
4. 35Ω
161. Radius of the helical path for a proton moving with a
158. Figure shows a circuit with two cells in opposition to
each other. One cell has an emf of 6 V and internal velocity 3 × 10 m/s, which enters in a magnetic field of
5

resistance of 2Ω and the other cell has an emf of 4 V and 0.3 tesla at an angle θ with the field, is 0.5 cm. The value
internal resistance of 8Ω. The potential difference across of θ is:
the terminals X and Y is: (e/m for proton = 108 coulomb/kg)
1. 30o
2. 45o
3. 60o
4. 90o

162. A photon of wavelength 6630A ˚

is incident on a
totally reflecting surface. The momentum delivered by the
photon is equal to:
1. 5.4 V 1. 6.63 × 10 −27
kg−m/s

2. 5.6 V 2. 2 × 10 −27
kg−m/s

3. 5.8 V 3. 10−27
kg−m/s
5. 6.0 V 4. none of these

163. Maximum velocity of the photoelectrons emitted by a

159. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a direct current,
metal surface is 1.2 × 10 ms . Assuming the specific
6 −1

the magnetic field associated with the current will be:

1. only inside the pipe charge of the electron is 1.8 × 10 C kg , the value
11 −1

2. only outside the pipe of the stopping potential (in volt) will be:
3. both inside and outside the pipe 1. 2
4. neither inside nor outside the pipe 2. 3
3. 4
4. 6

164. A radioactive element A with a half-value period of 2

hours decays giving a stable element Y. After a time t the
ratio of X to Y atoms is 1:7. Then, t is:
1. 6 hours
2. 4 hours
3. between 4 and 6 hours
4. 14 hours

Page: 17
 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
165. A radioactive decay chain starts from Np237 and 169. An arrow shot is shot into the air. Its range is 200
93
229 metres and its time of flight is 5 sec. If the value of g is
produces 90Th by successive emissions. The emitted
assumed to be 10 m/sec2, then the horizontal component
particles can be: of the velocity of the arrow is:
+
1. three β -particles 1. 25 m/s
2. one α-particle and two β -particles
+
2. 40 m/s
3. one α-particle and two β -particles
− 3. 31.25 m/s
4. 12.5 m/s
4. two α-particles and one β -particle
−

170. With what minimum acceleration can a fireman slide

166. The forbidden energy band gaps in conductors,
down a rope whose breaking strength is th of his
2

semiconductors and insulators are EG , EG and EG

1 2 3 5

respectively. The relation among them is: weight?

1. EG = EG = EG
1 2 3
1. 1 g
2. EG < EG < EG
1 2 3
2. 0.4 g
3. EG > EG > EG
1 2 3
3. 0.6 g
4. EG < EG > EG
1 2 3
4. 0.8 g

171. A raindrop of mass 0.2 g is falling with a uniform

velocity of 25 cm s-1. Its weight will be: (g = 10 ms-2)
167. An ideal p-n junction diode is connected in circuit. 1. zero
Which of the following is correct? 2. 0.02 N
3. 0.002 N
4. 0.2 N

172. If we shift a body in equilibrium from A to C in a

gravitational field via path AC or ABC. Then work done
→
by the force F is :

1. in forward biasing, the diode resistance is R.

2. in reverse biasing, the diode resistance is R.
3. in forward biasing, the diode resistance is zero.
4. in reverse biasing, the diode resistance is zero.

168. A n-p-n transistor circuit is arranged as shown in the

figure. It is:

1. same for both the paths

2. WAC > WABC
3. WAC < WABC
4. none of the above

173. A simple pendulum is vibrating in an evacuated

chamber. It will oscillate with:
1. a common-base amplifier circuit. 1. constant amplitude
2. a common-emitter amplifier circuit. 2. decreasing amplitude
3. a common-collector amplifier circuit. 3. increasing amplitude
4. none of the above. 4 none of these

Page: 18
 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
174. Four identical spheres each of radius 10 cm and mass 180. When heat is added to a system, which of the
1 kg are placed on a horizontal surface touching one following is not possible?
another so that their centres are located at the corners of 1. internal energy of the system increases.
the square of side 20 cm. What is the distance of their 2. work is done by the system.
centre of mass from centre of either sphere? 3. neither internal energy increases nor work is done by
1. 5 cm the system.
2. 10 cm 4. internal energy increases and also work is done by the
3. 20 cm system.
4. none of these
181. The heat energy absorbed by a system in going
175. The diameter of a flywheel increases by 1%. What through a cyclic process shown in the figure is:
will be the percentage increase in the moment of inertia
about the axis of symmetry?
1. 2%
2. 4%
3. 1%
4. 0.5%

176. A spherical ball rolls on a table without slipping.

Then the fraction of its total energy associated with
rotation is:
1. 2/5 1. 10 3
π J

2. 2/7 2. 10 2
π J
3. 3/5 3. 10 4
π J
4. 3/7
4. 10 7
π J

177. An inclined plane makes an angle 30o with the

182. The following graph shows two isotherms for a fixed
horizontal. A ring rolling down this inclined plane from mass of an ideal gas. The ratio of rms speed of the
rest without slipping has a linear acceleration equal to: molecules at temperatures T2 and T1 is:
1. 2g/3
2. g/2
3. g/3
4. g/4

178. Liquid drops are falling slowly one by one from a

vertical glass tube. Establish a relation between the
weight W of a drop, the surface tension T , and the radius
r of the tube: (θ=0 )
∘

1. W = πr T 2

2. W =2πrT
3. W =2πr T 2

4. W = 4/3πr T 3
1. 2√2
2. √2
179. A U-tube with limbs of diameters 5 mm and 2 mm 3. 2
contains water of surface tension 7 × 10 newton per 4. 4
−2

meter, angle of contact 0o and density 103 kg per metre3.

183. The displacement of a particle varies according to the
If g is 10 m/sec2, then the difference in levels in the two
relation:
limbs is:[Given: Initially water level in both the limbs is
x=4 (cos πt+ sin πt)
same and in metres]
1. 8.4 mm The amplitude of the particle is:
2. 8.4 cm 1. 8
3. 8.4 m 2. -4
4. 0.84 mm 3. 4
4. 4√2

Page: 19
 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
184. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with a 190. A light rod of length 200 cm is suspended from the
period of 8 s and amplitude 4 cm. Its maximum speed (in ceiling horizontally by means of two vertical wires of
cm/s) is: equal length tied to its ends. One of the wires is made of
1. π steel and is of cross-section 0.1 cm2 and the other of brass
π
2. 2 of cross-section 0.2 cm2. Along the rod at which distance
π
3. 3
a weight may be hung to produce equal stresses in both
4.
π
the wires?
4

185. The total energy of a particle executing simple 1. 4

m from steel wire
3

harmonic motion is: 4

2. m from brass wire
1. ∝ x 3

3. 1 m from steel wire

2. ∝ x 2
1

3. independent of x 4. m from brass wire

4

4. ∝ x 1/2

(where x is the displacement from the mean position)

191. For an ideal gas at constant pressure, if the volume is
increased:
Physics - Section B 1. the intermolecular force will increase.
2. the temperature will increase.
186. Given that the displacement of a particle is given by: 3. the number of collisions with the walls of the container
2 2
x = A sin kt will increase.
Where t denotes the time. The unit of k is: 4. the temperature will decrease.
1. hertz
2. metre 192. The maximum amount of heat that can be given to 1
3. radian g of water without a change of temperature is:
4. second 1. 2268 J
2. 6468 J
187. The linear speed of the seconds hand of a wall clock 3. 336 J
is 1.05 cm s-1. The length of the second's hand is nearly: 4. 4200 J
1. 1 cm
2. 5 cm 193. A wave
represented by the equation
3. 10 cm y=a cos(kx+ωt) is superimposed on another wave to
4. 60 cm form a stationary wave such that the point x = 0 is a node.
The equation for the other wave is:
188. A body is projected at an angle of 30° with the 1. a sin(kx+ωt)
horizontal and with a speed of 30 ms-1. What is the angle 2. −a cos(kx+ωt)
with the horizontal after 1.5 seconds? (Take g = 10 ms-2) 3. −a cos(kx−ωt)
1. 0° 4. −a sin(kx−ωt)
2. 30°
3. 60° 194. Two nicol prisms (polariser and analyser) have their
4. 90°
axes at an angle 60o in between. If I is the intensity of
189. If the distance between the sun and the earth is light falling on first nicol, then that of emerging light from
increased to three times the original distance, then the the second nicol is:
attraction between the two planets will: 1. 0.125 I
1. remain constant 2. 0.25 I
2. decrease by 63% 3. 0.375 I
3. increase by 63% 4. 0.50 I
4. decrease by 89%

Page: 20
 NEET Level Test (01-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
195. Two particles of masses m and 2m with charges 2q 199. The energy of gamma (γ) ray photon is E and that
γ

and 2q are placed in a uniform electric field E and allowed of an X-ray photon is E . If the visible light photon has
χ
to move for the same time. The ratio of their kinetic an energy of E , then we can say that:
energies will be: υ

1. E > E > E
1. 2:1 χ γ υ

2. 8:1 2. E > E > E

γ υ χ

3. 4:1 3. E > E > E

γ χ υ

4. 1:4 4. E > E > E

χ υ γ

196. At two different places, the angles of dip are 200. The first excitation energy of hydrogen atom is x eV.
respectively 30o and 45o. At these two places, the ratio of Then the ionisation energy of the atom would be (in eV):
the horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field is: 1.
3x

(Assume Earth's magnetic field is the same at both 4

places.) 2. 4x

3
x
1. √3 : √2 3. 4
x
2. 1 : √2 4. 3
3. 1 : 2
4. 1 : √3

197. A conductor rod AB moves parallel to x-axis in a Fill OMR Sheet*

uniform magnetic field, pointing in the positive z-
direction. The end A of the rod gets: *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there

CLICK HERE to get

FREE ACCESS for 3
days of ANY NEETprep
1. positively charged.
course
2. negatively charged.
3. neutral.
4. first positively charged and then negatively charged.

198. An alternating current is given by the equation:

I =I1 cos ωt+I2 sin ωt

The RMS current is given by:

1. (I +I ) /√2
1 2

2
2. (I 1 +I2 ) /√2
1/2
2 2
(I +I )
1 2

3.
√2

1/2

4. 1

2
2
(I1 +I2 )
2

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