Matter in Our Surroundings

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Q1. The property to flow is unique to fluids. Which one of the following statements is
correct about fluids?
(a) Only gases behave like fluids (b) Gases and solids behave like fluids
(c) Gases and liquids behave like fluids (d) Only liquids are fluids
Q2. During summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the

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phenomenon of
(a) diffusion (b) transpiration (c) osmosis (d) evaporation
Q3. A few substances are arranged in the increasing order of 'forces of attraction',
between their particles. Which one of the following represents a correct arrangement?
(a) Water < air < wind (b) Air < sugar < oil
(c) Oxygen < water < sugar (d) Salt < juice < air
Q4. 𝐂𝐎𝟐 can be easily liquified and even solidified because:
(a) It has weak forces of attraction.
(b) It has comparatively more force of attraction than other gases.

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(c) It has more intermolecular space.
(d) It is present in atmosphere.
Q5. Which of the following has highest kinetic energy?
(a) Particles of ice at 𝟎∘ 𝐂 (b) Particles of water at 𝟎∘ 𝐂
(c) Particles of water at 𝟏𝟎𝟎∘ 𝐂 (d) Particles of steam at 𝟏𝟎𝟎∘ 𝐂
Q6. The kinetic energy of particles is directly related to which of the following factors?
(a) Temperature (b) Pressure
(c) Both temperature and pressure (d) Atmospheric pressure
Q7. Under which of the following conditions we can boil water at room temperature?
(a) At low pressure (b) At high pressure
(c) At very high pressure (d) At atmospheric pressure
Q8. Which of the following is not an endothermic process ?
(a) Fusion (b) Vaporization (c) Evaporation (d) None of these
Q9. Which of the following does not affect the rate of evaporation ?
(a) Wind speed (b) Surface area (c) Temperature (d) Insoluble heavy impurities

Q10. Give two characteristics of solids.

Q11. Why do the gases exert more pressure on the walls of the container than the
solids?
Q12. Why the smell of food being cooked in the kitchen does reach us even from a
considerable distance?
Q13. Convert the temperature of 𝟐𝟓∘ 𝐂 to the Kelvin scale.
Q14. Why do naphthalene balls vanish over time without leaving any solid residue?
Q15. Give an example of diffusion of solid into liquids.
Q16. Give an example of diffusion of gases into liquids.
Q17. Why the particles of gases move around freely.
Q18. Give three points of differences between solid, liquid and gas.
Q19. Name any two factors which affect the rate of evaporation.

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Q20. Give an example of diffusion of liquid into liquid.
Q21. What is latent heat of vaporisation?
Q22. What happens when the temperature of the gases is decreased ?
Q23. What is dry ice?
Q24. Convert the temperature 𝟒𝟎∘ 𝐂 to the Kelvin scale.
Directions: Questions 25 and 30 are Assertion and Reason type Questions:

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(a) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong, but reason is correct statement.
Q25. Assertion : Solids do not flow.
Reason : They have fixed shape and volume.
Q26. Assertion : The movement of solute particles from lower concentration to higher
concentration is called osmosis.

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Reason : During summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the
phenomenon of osmosis.
Q27 Assertion : The solid particles are unable to move freely.
Reason : Solid particles are comparatively bigger in size.
Q28. Assertion : Solids cannot maintain their shape when subjected to force.
Reason : Solids are incompressible.
Q29. Assertion : By applying force, particles of the matter can be brought closer.
Reason : The particles of the matter have spaces between them.
Q30. Assertion : It is easier to cook food at sea level as compared to higher altitudes.
Reason : The boiling point of water increases at high altitudes.

Q31. Complete the following flowchart :

[Link] (i) to (iv) are based on the Table A and Table B. Study
these tables related to boiling points of different substances
and humidity and answer the following questions.
Table A : Boiling points of different substances
Substance Boiling point ( ∘ 𝐂)
Methanol 64.7
Ethanol 78.4
 Nitric Acid 83

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Water 100
Iodine 184.3

Table B : Humidity percentage in three situations

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Situation Humidity (%)
Situation A > 𝟕𝟓
Situation B 𝟓𝟎 − 𝟕𝟓
Situation C < 𝟓𝟎
(i) Refer Table B and find out in which situation, water from the bowl will evaporate
away the fastest?
(a) Situation 𝐀 (b) Situation B (c) Situation C (d) Situation 𝑨 and 𝑪

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(ii) If a bowl of water and a bowl of ethanol are placed inside a room. Which bowl will
get empty first?
(a) Bowl of water (b) Bowl of ethanol
(c) Both the bowls will get empty altogether (d) None of these

(iii) Impure salt is purified by the technique called :

(a) Crystallization (b) Sublimation (c) Filtration (d) Evaporation

(iv) Refer Table A and Table B and find in which situation out of the following, the
substance will evaporate the fastest :
(a) Methanol in situation 𝐂 (b) Iodine in situation A
(c) Nitric acid in situation 𝐀 (d) Iodine in situation 𝐂

(v) The evaporation depends upon

(a) wind speed (b) humidity percentage (c) surface area (d) All of these

Q33. Complete the following table :

Characteristics States of
Nature
matter
Volume Fixed
Shape Liquid
Tendency to flow Flow easily

Q34. Answer question numbers 12(i)-12(v) on the basis of your understanding of the
following paragraph and the related studied concepts.
(i) By which method impure salt is obtained from sea water?
(a) Crystallization (b) Humidification (c) Evaporation (d) Condensation
(ii) Impure salt is purified by the technique called:

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(a) Crystallization (b) Sublimation (c) Filtration (d) Evaporation

(iii) Which of the following phenomena always results in the cooling effect?
(a) Condensation (b) Evaporation (c) Sublimation (d) None of these

(iv) Which condition out of the following will increase the evaporation of water?
(a) Increase in temperature of water (b) Decrease in temperature of water

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(c) Less exposed surface area of water (d) Adding common salt to water

(v) Evaporation of material takes place:

(a) above its boiling point (b) above its melting point
(c) below its boiling point (d) below its melting point

Q35. Arrange the following in increasing order of forces of attraction between the
particles and correct the box that contains the incorrect order:
Water < Oxygen = Sugar

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Q36. Every substance around us is considered as matter. Matters are grouped on the
basis of their properties and characteristics like shape and appearance. There are three
different forms of matter. These forms are solid, liquid and gas.
Solid has a definite shape and volume. This means that the particles that form solid are
closely packed. Liquid takes the shape of the container in which it is filled. This means
that the particles that form liquid slide over each other but liquids do have definite
volume. Gas is usually invisible form of matter. Gases do not have any fixed shape
and volume. This means that the particles that form gas are floating in the space
between them. The temperature effect on heating a solid varies depending on the
nature of the solid and the conditions required in bringing the change. On increasing
the temperature of solids, the kinetic energy of the particles increases which
overcomes the forces of attraction between the particles thereby solid melts and is
converted to a liquid.
The temperature at which a solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric
pressure is called its melting point. The melting point of ice is 𝟐𝟕𝟑. 𝟏𝟔 𝐊. The process
of melting, that is, change of solid state into liquid state is also known as fusion.
Increasing or decreasing the pressure can change the state of matter. Applying
pressure and reducing temperature can liquefy gases.
(i) What are the factors responsible for the' change of the states of matter?

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(a) Temperature (b) Pressure (c) Volume (d) All of these

(ii) What happens to a gas when its pressure is reduced and temperature is increased?
(a) Condensation of gas (b) Liquefaction of gas
(c) Vaporization of gas (d) Expansion of gas

(iii) Why do solid has a definite shape and volume?

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(a) Particles of solid are closely packed
(b) Force of attraction between particles is strong
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) None of the above

(iv) What happens to the particles? When the temperature of solids increases?
(a) Kinetic energy of particles is increased (b) Particles start melting
(c) Force of attraction between particles decreases (d) All of these

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(v) Gases are liquefied under :
(a) high pressure, high temperature (b) high pressure, low temperature
(c) low pressure, high temperature (d) low pressure, low temperature
 Biology
The Fundamental Unit of life

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Q1. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Anthocyanins are found dissolved in cell sap.
(b) Nucleus regulates cell cycle.
(c) The two sister chromatids are held at centrosome.
(d) Cytosol is the ground substance of the cytoplasm.

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Q2. ___________process plays an important role in gaseous exchange
between cells as well as the cell and its external environment.
(a) Reverse Osmosis (b) Diffusion (c) Transportation (d)
Circulation

Q3. Which of the following is concerned with storage of materials like

starch, oils, proteins?
(a) Chromoplasts (b) Leucoplasts (c) Chloroplasts (d)
Lysosomes

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Q4. An unripe green fruit changes color when it ripens. The reason
being:
(a) Chromoplasts change to chlorophyll (b) Chromoplasts change to
chromosomes
(c) Chromosomes change to chromoplasts (d) Chloroplast changes to
chromoplasts.

Q5. Why glycerine is used while preparing temporary mount of human

cheek cells ?
(a) To stain the cells
(b) To remove extra stain
(c) To prevent the tissues/cells from getting dried
(d) To make the cells appear more distinct.

Q6. In which of the following forms glucose is stored in an animal cell?

(a) Starch (b) Peptides (c) Glycogen (d) Amino acids

Q7. Which pigments are found dissolved in cell sap?

(a) Carotene (b) Xanthophyll (c) Chlorophyll (d) Anthocyanins

Q8. Coverslip is put on the mounted material on a slide very gently to:
(a) avoid the crushing of mounted material
(b) avoid the entry of air bubble
(c) avoid oozing of stain
(d) avoid oozing of glycerine

Q9. The cellular component not seen in the temporary mount of onion
peel under the compound microscope is :
(a) Cell wall (b) Nucleus (c) Cytoplasm (d) Chromosomes
Q10. A single membrane bound organelle is :
(a) Ribosome (b) Lysosome (c) Plastis (d) Endoplasmic reticulum

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Q11. Which of the following organelles is not visible in the slide of onion
peel even under high power microscopy ?
(a) Nucleus (b) Cell wall (c) Cytoplasm (d) Mitochondria

Q12. Cheek epithelial cells are examples of:

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(a) Squamous epithelial cells (b) Columnar epithelial cells
(c) Cuboidal epithelial cells (d) Ciliated epithelial cells
Q13. Which of the following cell organelles is found both in prokaryotes
and eukaryotes?
(a) Mitochondria (b) Lysosomes (c) Plastids (d) Ribosomes

Q14. Swollen feet and ankles can be naturally cured by dipping them in
salt water. Name the mechanism involved in this process.
(a) Diffusion (b) Osmosis (c) Active transport (d) Plasmolysis

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Q15. Which one of the following cell organelles is found in both mango
plant cell and monkey cell ?
(a) Centrioles (b) Cell wall (c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast

Q16. Name the following:

(a) Plastid involved in the conversion of green color of tomato to red
color.
(b) The undefined nuclear region of prokaryotic cell.
Q17. What do you mean by plasmodesmata?
Q18. Why do the animal cells not have cell wall?
Q19. Give one point of difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic
cells.
Q20. What would happen to the cell if there is no Golgi apparatus?
Q21. Explain why :
(a) Lysosomes are known as suicidal bags.
(b) Mitochondria are known as power house of the cell.
Q22. Pick the odd one out from the following organelles :
Golgi apparatus, cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum, lysosomes. Give
reason for your answer.
Q23. Discuss the role of :
(a) Cellulose in cell wall
(b) Presence of deeply folded membrane in mitochondria
(c) Digestive enzymes in lysosomes
Q24. Name the following:
(a) The scientist who is credited with discovery of cells.
(b) The scientist who observed the living cells for the first time.
(c) The smallest and the largest cell in the world.
(d) The longest cell in the human body.
Q25. Write the main postulates of the cell theory ? Who proposed the cell
theory?

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Q26. Give three main points of differences between rough and smooth
endoplasmic reticulum.
Q27. What will happen if:
(a) Excess amount of fertilizers is added to green grass lawn.
(b) Salt is added to cut pieces of mango.
Q28. What is plasmolysis ? What happens to a plasmolysed cell when it

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is placed in water ?
Q29. A student put some dried apricots in two beakers A and B. Beaker A
contained 100ml of distilled water and beaker B had 100ml of saturated
sugar solution. What changes would he observe and why?
Q30. Answer the following briefly:
(a) Which is known as selectively permeable membrane and why?
(b) If the organization of a cell is destroyed due to some physical and
chemical influence, what will happen?
(c) How do substances like carbon dioxide and water move in and out of
the cell?

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Q31. If the cells of onion peel and RBCs are separately kept in hypotonic
solutions, what will happen to them? Give reason in support of your
answer.
Q.32. Label and name the cell organelles present in a cell based on the
analogy written below :
(a) Transporting channels of the cell
(b) Packaging and dispatching unit of the cell
(c) Storage sacs of the cell
(d) Control room of the cell
(e) Kitchen of the cell
(f) Digestive bag of the cell
Q33. What are the consequences of the following conditions:
(a) A cell having higher water concentration than the surrounding
medium.
(b) A cell having lower water concentration than the surrounding
medium.
(c) A cell having equal water concentration to its surrounding medium.
Q34. Why is endocytosis found in animals only?
Q35. Name a cell organelle without any membrane and state one of its
important functions.
Q36. What are two important factors that determine the shape of a cell?
Provide examples to support your answer.
Q37. Why does a leaf appear green, mango yellow and tomato red?
Explain in detail.
Q38. (a) What happens when an egg is first put in hydrochloric acid for
some time and then placed in a concentrated salt solution?
What mechanisms are involved in absorption of digested food and
water?
Q39. Study the figure given below.
Potato cups A, B and C are made from unboiled potatoes, whereas 𝑫 is
boiled potato cup. Potato cup 𝑨 is empty whereas 𝑩 and 𝑪 have sugar and

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salt solution in them respectively. Boiled potato cup 𝑫 has sugar solution
in it. Each potato cup is placed in trough containing water.
The apparatus is kept undisturbed for few hours.

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(a) In which potato cup will you observe increase in water level and why?
(b) What is the purpose of potato cup 𝐀 in this experiment?
(c) In which potato cup would you observe no increase/decrease of
water level and why?
(d) Which process does this experiment demonstrate?
Q40. Draw the human cheek cell with correct labelling.
Q41. Mention two precautions while preparing the mount of a human
cheek cells.

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Q42. Draw a well labelled diagram of an animal cell and label the main
organelles, also write the functions of each organelle labelled by you in
the figure.

Q43. Identify the cell and answer the given below :

Name the parts labelled in the above diagram.

(b) Which organelles are present only in plant cells?
(c) What is the importance of organelle ' 𝒈 '?
(d) What is the specific name of organelle ' 𝒉 ' in plant cell?
(e) Parts ' 𝐚 ' and ' 𝐛 ' are present both in plant and animal cell. State true
or false.
Q44. Study the diagram below and answer the following questions.
(a) Identify the structure and state its main role.
(b) Label the parts 1-5.

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(c) What is the functions of parts labelled 1 and 5 ?
(d) Is this structure present in all cells ? If not, name the cell in which it
is absent.
Q45. Draw a labelled diagram of the observations of the temporary
mount of an onion peel.

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Directions : Questions is Assertion and Reason type Question:
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong, but reason is correct statement.

Q46. Assertion: Rough endoplasmic reticulum is concerned with protein

synthesis.

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Reason : In rough endoplasmic reticulum ribosomes are attached to its
outer surface which take an important part in protein synthesis.
Q47. Assertion : Lysosomes are known as suicidal bags.
Reason : It contains hydrolytic enzymes that destroy worn out cells.
Q48. Assertion : Mitochondria have large surface area for cellular
respiration.
Reason : The outer membrane is thrown into folds called cristae which
increases the surface area.
Q49. Assertion : Vacuoles are osmoregulatory organs in protozoans.
Reason : They maintain the water balance.
Q50. Assertion : Granum is the site for dark reaction of photosynthesis.
Reason : It contains various enzymes required for light reaction.

Q51. Answer question numbers (a) - (d) on the basis of your

understanding of the following paragraph and the related concepts.
Ravi was going to his school to give his final 𝟗th class exams. Today it

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was the science exam and he was nervous. The teacher had told that
there will be a surprise element in the exam that he didn't know of.
When he reached the school, he found out that there will be a vivavoce
exam for each of the students. When his turn came, he was given a very
small task. First he was shown the above two images.
(a) Help Ravi to correlate between these two images.
(b) What is the reason behind that correlation?

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(c) Mark the solution to the above two questions in the given image.
(d) Name two other cell organelles in a plant cell.
Q52. Questions (a) to (d) are based on the Table A and B. Study this table
and answer the following questions
Table A : 6 persons and their serum osmolality levels
PERSON SERUM OSMOLALITY
(mmol/kg)
A 260
B 243

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C 220
D 280
E 276
F 315
G 342
Table B : Range for normal and dangerous levels of serum osmolality of
a person’s blood
Situation Serum
osmolality
(mmol/kg)
Should visit the doctor <275
Normal range 275-295
Should visit the doctor >295
G 342

Osmolality can be used to measure the amount of solute dissolved in a

solution. If the level of solute of a solution is higher than the
concentration of solute inside of the cell, water will flow out of the cell
by osmosis. If the level of solute outside the cell is lower than the level of
solute inside of the cell, water will flow into the cell.
(a) If we place a red blood cell ( 𝐨𝐬𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐚𝐥𝐢𝐭𝐲 is 𝟐𝟖𝟎 𝐦 𝐦𝐨𝐥/𝐤𝐠 ) in the serum
of person 𝐅, will the plasma flow into the cell or out of the cell?
(b) Which person (refer A and B) should visit the doctor ?
(c) Define osmosis.
(d) What is the difference between diffusion and osmosis?
Q53. Read the following passage and answer any four questions from 20
(i) to 20 (v). A cell is capable of independent existence and can carry out
all the functions which are necessary for a living being. A cell carries out
nutrition, respiration, excretion, transportation and reproduction; the
way an individual organism does. Unicellular organisms are capable of

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independent existence which shows a cell's capability to exist
independently. Due to this, a cell is called the fundamental and
structural unit of life. All living beings are composed of the basic unit of
life, i.e., cell.
(i) Cells were first discovered by:
(a) Leeuwenhoek (b) Purkinje

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(c) Robert Brown (d) Robert Hooke
(ii) The following is a picture of the compound microscope, which of the
following options correctly represents its parts?

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(a) A-eyepiece, B - condenser, C-objective lens
(b) A- condenser, B - objective piece, C - eyepiece
(c) A- condenser, B-eye, C-lens
(d) A-condenser, B - eyepiece, C - objective lens

(iii) Select the odd one out.

(a) Chlamydomonas (b) Hydra (c) Plasmodium (d) Amoeba
(iv) 1μm is:
(a) 𝟏𝟎−𝟔 m (b) 𝟏𝟎−𝟗 m (c) 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟎 m (d) 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 m

(v) According to cell theory,

(a) all the plants and animals are composed of cells.
(b) the cell is the basic unit of life.
(c) all cells arise from pre-existing cells.
(d) certain cells arise from pre-existing cells.

Q54. Answer question numbers (a) - (d) on the basis of your

understanding of the following paragraph and the related studied
concepts.
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In plants and some algae, organelles known as chloroplasts serve as the
site of photosynthesis. Chloroplasts contain a pigment known as
chlorophyll, which captures the energy from sunlight to transform water

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and carbon dioxide into glucose for food. Chloroplasts allow autotrophic
organisms to meet their energy needs without consuming other
organisms.
(a) What are organelles, and why are they important for the cells?
(b) Is chloroplast an organelle? In what types of cell is a chloroplast
found?
(c) State the most vital function that is performed by the chloroplast?
(d) Are chloroplasts found in the animal cell? State the reason for your
answer?
Q55. Read the following passage and answer any four questions from 19
(i) to 19 (v). Each living cell has the capacity to perform certain basic
functions that are characteristics of all living forms. There is a division
of labour in multicellular organisms such as human beings. This means
that different parts of the human body perform different functions. The
human body has a heart to pump blood, a stomach to digest food and so
on. Similarly, division of labour is also seen within a single cell in many
cases. In fact, each such cell has got certain specific components within
it known as cell organelles. Each kind of cell organelle performs a
special function, such as making new material in the cell, clearing up the
waste material from the cell and so on. A cell is able to live and perform
all its functions because of these organelles. These organelles together
constitute the basic unit called the cell.
(i) Which of the following is not a constituent in cell wall of plants?
(a) Pectin (b) Hemicellulose (c) Chitin (d) Cellulose
(ii) Which of the following is correctly matched with respect to the
plant cell?
(a) 4-Suicidal Bags of the cell (b) 2-production of Ribosomes
(c) 7 - powerhouse of the cell (d) 5 -Storage sacs of the cell
(iii) Who coined the term protoplast?
(a) Virchow (b) Leeuwenhoek (c) Robert Hooke (d) Purkinje

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(iv) Examples of double-membraned organelles are:
(a) Nucleus (b) Mitochondria (c) Plastid (d) All of these
(v) Which of the following options are the functions of ribosomes?
(i) It helps in manufacture of protein molecules.
(ii) It helps in manufacture of enzymes.
(iii) It helps in manufacture of hormones.

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Q56. Read the following passage and answer any four questions from 20
(i) to (v).
An organism may be a single cell, such as the organisms seen in water.
Others, like the plants and animals with which you are most familiar,
are multicellular, or made up of many cells. The cell is the basic unit of
structure and organisation of organisms. Although organisms such as
humans, dogs, and trees can become very large and complex, the cell
remains the simplest, most basic component of any organism. Study the
given figure carefully and answer the following questions.

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(i) 'All cells arise from the pre-existing cells' is proposed by:
(a) Rudolf Virchow (b) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
(c) Matthias Schleiden (d) Theodor Schwann

(ii) Which of the following scientists made improved microscope to

discover free living cells in the pond water for the first time?
(a) Theodor Schwann
(c) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
(b) Robert Hooke
(d) Rudolf Virchow

(iii) Dead cork cells are seen in the microscope as given in the figure.
Who discovered it for the first time?
(a) Theodor Schwann (b) Robert Hooke

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(c) Anton von Leeuwenhoek (d) Rudolf Virchow

(iv) The cell theory is made up of three main ideas:

(1) All organisms are composed of one or more cells.
(2) The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of organisms.
(3) All cells come from pre-existing cells.

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(4) Cell divide to form two identical cells.

(v) Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of
these

(v) Which of the following is correctly matched?

Column A Column B
Smallest cells Mycoplasma (PPLO)
Longest cells White blood cells

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Largest cell c. Nerve cells
Cell which shows amoeba like c. Ostrich egg
movement

Q57. Answer question numbers (a) - (d) on the basis of your

understanding of the following paragraph and the related studied
concepts.

Prokaryotes are simple, small cells, whereas eukaryotic cells are

complex, large structured and are present in trillions which can be
single-celled or multicellular. Prokaryotic cells do not have a well-
defined nucleus, but DNA molecule is located in the cell, termed as
nucleoid, whereas eukaryotic cells have a well-defined nucleus, where
genetic material is stored. Based on the structure and functions, cells
are broadly classified as prokaryotic cell and eukaryotic cell.
(a) A scientist is working on a cell. He observed the cell under a
microscope and found that the cell has a well-defined nucleus. State
whether the cell belongs to the prokaryotic organism or eukaryotic
organism. Also, tell the reason for your answer.
(b) Give two examples of the prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms.
(c) The eukaryotic cells have been categorized into two major types.

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What are these two types?
(d) Define the term "nucleoid".

Questions (a) to (c) are based on the Table A and B. Study this table and
answer the following questions.
Table A : Osmolality of water in large intestine

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Person Water
osmolality
(mmol/kg)
A 150
B 200
C 175
D 195
E 225
Table B : Range for normal and dangerous levels of water in large

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intestine of a person
Situation Water
osmolality
(mmol/kg)
Should visit the <175
doctor
Normal range 175-195
Should visit the >195
doctor

(a) Who all (Table A) are in the dangerous level of water in their small
intestine?
(b) Define osmosis.
(c) What is the difference between diffusion and osmosis ?

Q58. Read the passage and answer the following questions.

Benu was helping his mother in laying the table when they had some
guest for dinner. Benu was about to sprinkle salt on salad for dressing.
His mother stopped him from doing so and told him that it is too early to
sprinkle salt on the salad, he should do so only when they are seated for
having the dinner.
(a) What would happen if salt is sprinkled on the salad?
(b) Which property of cells is seen in adding salt to it?
(c) What value of Benu is seen?
Q8. Jute and coir are obtained from :

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(a) Parenchyma (b) Sclerenchyma (c) Collenchyma (d) Meristematic tissue

Q9. A slide shows many cells which have thickened corners. The slide is of :
(a) Parenchyma (b) Sclerenchyma (c) Collenchyma (d) Cardiac muscle

Q10. The movement of food along the alimentary canal is caused by :

(a) Smooth muscle (b) Striated muscle (c) Nervous tissue (d) Cardiac muscle

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Q11. Which of the following neurons carry impulses towards the brain?
(a) Sensory neuron (b) Association neuron (c) Relay neuron (d) Motor neuron

Q12. Which type of WBCs are abundant in lymph?

(a) Monocytes (b) Basophils (c) Neutrophils (d) Lymphocytes

Q13. In which type of tissue cell wall is thickened at the corners ?

(a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchyma (c) Sclerenchyma (d) Aerenchyma

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Q14. Sieve tubes and companion cells are present in:
(a) xylem (b) phloem (c) cork (d) cambium

Q15. Which of the following options correctly describes the mechanism of organ
movement during work and running?
(a) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones.
(b) Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons to move the bones.
(c) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendons to move the bones.
(d) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligaments to move the bones.

Q16. Which plant tissue provide mechanical strength as well as elasticity ?

Q17. What specific functions are associated with the areas where cuboidal epithelium is
found in the body?
Q18. Name the tissue present in the husk of coconut. State three important functions of
this tissue.
Q19. Voluntary muscles are also known as skeletal muscles. Justify.
Q20. You can see some blood vessels on the outside of the hands especially in older
people. Are those veins or arteries? How can you confirm your answer?
Q21. Name the living component common to both the complex permanent tissues found
in plants.
Q22. Why do animals in colder region and cold water fishes have thick layer of
subcutaneous fat?
Q23. A specialized tissue is present in animals that smoothens the surface of a bone at a
joint.
(a) Name the tissue.
(b) Explain the structure of this tissue with a diagram.
Q24. There are different types of epithelial tissues present in human beings.
Identify the specific type of epithelial tissue based on the features given below :
(a) It helps in removing the dust and other foreign particles from respiratory tract.
 Chapter – I [Motion]

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Q1. Which of the following equation explains the relationship between position and
velocity of the object?
𝟏
(a) 𝟐𝒂𝒔 = 𝒗𝟐 − 𝒖𝟐 (b) 𝒗 = 𝒖 + 𝒂𝒕 (c) 𝒖 = 𝟐𝒂𝒔 − 𝒗𝟐 (d) 𝒔 = 𝒖𝒕 + 𝟐 𝒂𝒕𝟐

Q.2. Arun drives a bike to attain a velocity of 𝟒 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 in 𝟐𝟎 𝐬 and then applies brakes
such that the velocity of the bike comes down to 𝟐 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 in the next 𝟒 𝐬. Calculate the
acceleration of the bike in both the cases :

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(a) 𝟎. 𝟐 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 and −𝟎. 𝟓 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 (b) 𝟎. 𝟑 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 and −𝟎. 𝟐 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐
(c) 𝟎. 𝟒 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 and −𝟎. 𝟓 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 (d) 𝟎. 𝟒 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 and −𝟎. 𝟐 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐
Q.3. What does the slope of distance-time graph indicate?
(a) Speed (b) Velocity (c) Acceleration (d) Momentum
Q.4. Which type of motion is seen in a flying butterfly?
(a) Circular Motion (b) Linear Motion
(c) Random Motion (d) Translational motion

Q.5 The displacement covered by a second's hand of radius 𝒓 in a clock after one
revolution is:

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(a) Zero (b) 𝟐𝒓 (c) 𝟑𝒓 (d) 𝟑𝟔𝟎∘

Q. 6. If a motorist travels from 𝑨 to 𝑩 with speed 𝟒𝟎 𝐤𝐦/𝐡 and returns with speed
𝟔𝟎 𝐤𝐦/𝐡, what is the average speed?
(a) 𝟒𝟔 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫 (b) 𝟒𝟐 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫 (c) 𝟒𝟖 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫 (d) 𝟒𝟒 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫

Q. 7. A player moves along the boundary of a square ground of side 𝟏𝟎 𝐦 from one of
its corner in 𝟒𝟎 𝐬. The magnitude of displacement of the player at the end of 2
minutes 20 seconds from his initial position is :
(a) 𝟏𝟎 × 𝟒𝟏/𝟐 (b) 𝟏𝟎 × 𝟑𝟏/𝟐 (c) 𝟏𝟎 × 𝟐𝟏/𝟐 (d) 𝟏𝟎 × 𝟏𝟏/𝟐

Q. 8. An object travels 𝟒𝟎 𝐦 in 𝟓𝐬𝐞𝐜 and then another 𝟖𝟎 𝐦 in 𝟓𝐬𝐞𝐜. What is the average
speed of the object?
(a) 𝟏𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 (b) 𝟏𝟐 𝐦/𝐬 (c) 𝟓 𝐦/𝐬 (d) 𝟔 𝐦/𝐬

Q. 9. In travelling from Pune to Nagpur, Rahul drove his bike for 2 hours at 𝟔𝟎𝐤𝐦𝐩𝐡
and 3 hours at 𝟕𝟎𝐤𝐦𝐩𝐡. Calculate the average speed:
(a) 𝟔𝟔 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫 (b) 𝟔𝟎 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫 (b) 𝟔𝟐 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫 (d) 𝟔𝟒 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫

Q. 10. What does the slope of distance-time graph give ?

(a) Velocity (b) Speed (c) Distance (d) Displacement

Q. 11. An example of a body moving with constant speed but still accelerating is :
(a) A body moving with constant speed on a straight road.
(b) A body moving in a straight path with constant speed.
(c) A body moving with constant speed in a circular path.
(d) A body moving with constant speed on a straight railway track.

Q. 12. A body moving along a straight line at 𝟐𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 undergoes an acceleration of

𝟒 𝐦/𝐬 𝟐. After 2 seconds, what will be its exact speed?
(a) 𝟐𝟓 𝐦/𝐬 (b) 𝟐𝟖 𝐦/𝐬 (c) 𝟐𝟕 𝐦/𝐬 (d) 𝟐𝟗 𝐦/𝐬

Q. 13. If an object moves some distance, can it have a zero displacement ? If yes,
support your answer with an example.
Q. 14. The distance of the gunman from a cliff is 560 metres. How much time will he

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take to hear an echo of the gunshot fired by him? (Speed of sound = 𝟑𝟒𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 )

Q. 15. A box is dropped vertically from a height of 𝟑𝟎 𝐦. Find the initial velocity of the
box, time taken by it to reach the ground and its final velocity. (𝒈 = 𝟏𝟎 𝐦/𝐬𝟐 )

Q. 16. The displacement of a moving object in a given interval of time is zero. Would
the distance travelled by the object also be zero? Justify your answer.

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Q. 17. A wave pulse on a string moves at a distance of 𝟏𝟎 𝐦 in 𝟎. 𝟔 𝐬.
(a) Find the velocity of the pulse.
(b) What would be the wavelength of the wave on the same string if its frequency is
𝟏𝟓𝟎 𝐇𝐳 ?

Q. 18. An object goes from point 𝒙 to 𝒚 and then back from 𝒚 to 𝒙. What is the
displacement and average velocity ?

Q. 19. Differentiate between speed and velocity.

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Q. 20. A car on national highways starts after a pit stop and attains a speed of
𝟒𝟎 𝐤𝐦 𝐡−𝟏 in 10 minutes. Find its rate of acceleration.

Q. 21. A car is moving with a speed of 𝟗𝟎 𝐤𝐦 𝐡−𝟏 . The driver sees a road sign stating
that there is a block on the road in 𝟏 𝐤𝐦. He applies the brake to produce a uniform
acceleration of −𝟎. 𝟓 𝐦 𝐬−𝟐 . Find how far before the block the car stops.

Q. 22. A man-made satellite is orbiting around the earth in a circular path of radius
𝟓𝟐𝟑𝟓𝟎 𝐤𝐦. Find the velocity of the satellite if it takes 𝟐𝟎𝐡𝐫𝐬. to finish one revolution
around the earth.

Q. 21. Define velocity. State its S.I. unit. State whether it is a scalar or a vector
quantity.

Q. 22. (a) What are the two ways of changing the velocity of a body?
(b) What is uniform velocity?

Q. 23. If bodies 𝑨 and 𝑩 of different masses are dropped at the same time from the
same height, which object will reach the ground first? Explain.

Q. 24. (a) What is acceleration? Write the formula for acceleration. Give an example
where it acts on a body.
(b) A car starting from rest attained a velocity of 𝟏𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 in 15 minutes. What is its
acceleration?
(c) What is the distance travelled during this time?

Q. 25. (a) What is retardation also called? Why is it called so? State whether it is a
scalar or vector quantity.
(b) The speed of a bike decreases from 𝟒𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 to 𝟑𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 in 5 seconds. Calculate the
acceleration of the bike.
(c) What is the distance travelled during this time by bike?

Q. 26. A train travels a distance of 𝟐𝟓𝟎 𝐤𝐦 from Delhi to Jaipur towards the west in 4
hours in the evening and returns to Delhi in the morning covering a distance of
𝟐𝟓𝟎 𝐤𝐦 in 4 hours. Find (a) average speed and (b) average velocity.
Q. 27. (a) A car accelerates uniformly from 𝟏𝟖 𝐤𝐦 𝐡−𝟏 to 𝟑𝟔 𝐤𝐦 𝐡−𝟏 in 𝟓 𝐬. Calculate (i)
the acceleration and (ii) the distance covered by the car in that time.

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(b) The brakes applied to a car produce an acceleration of 𝟔 𝐦 𝐬 −𝟐 in the opposite
direction to the motion. If the car takes 𝟐 𝐬 to stop after the application of brakes,
calculate the distance it travels during this time.

Q. 28. Define vector quantities. Give examples.

Q. 29. Define scalar quantities. Give examples.

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Q. 30. Discuss whether the walls of your classroom are at rest or in motion.

Q. 31. A car starts from the rest with an uniform acceleration of 𝟎. 𝟏 𝐦/𝐬 𝟐. In two
minutes, find (a) the speed it reaches, (b) the distance travelled.

Q. 32. A stone is thrown in a vertically upward direction with a velocity of 𝟓 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 . If

the acceleration of the stone during its motion is 𝟏𝟎 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 in the downward direction,
(a) how much time will stone take to reach the maximum height. (b) Also, calculate
the height attained by the stone.

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Q. 33. A car is travelling along a straight road and is decelerating.
(a) Does the car's acceleration necessarily have a negative value?
(b) If yes, then explain.

Q. 34. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of diameter 𝟐𝟎𝟎 𝐦 in 𝟒𝟎 𝐬.

(a) What will be the distance covered in 2 minutes 20 s?
(b) The displacement at the end of 2 minutes 𝟐𝟎 𝐬.

Q.35. Differentiate between distance and displacement.

Q. 36. A honey bee leaves the hive and travels 𝟐 𝐦 before returning. Is the
displacement for the trip the same as the distance travelled? If not, explain why?

Q. 37. A particle is thrown vertically upwards under gravity. What

are the signs of displacement and velocity in the given situations
(a) & (b) (P to Q)?

Q. 38. An object moving with constant acceleration can certainly

slow down. But can an object ever come to a permanent halt
(stop) if its acceleration truly remains constant ? Explain.

Q.39. What are the points that should be kept in mind while choosing the scale for
drawing graph?

Q. 40. What are the two types of motion when the object is projected vertically up ?

Q. 41. Draw the displacement-time graph and give the slope formula.

Q. 42. Define uniform circular motion.

Q. 43. A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration of 𝟎. 𝟏 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 for 2
minutes. Find :
(a) The speed acquired.
(b) The distance travelled.
Q. 44. Abdul, while driving to school, computes the average speed for his trip to be
𝟐𝟎 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫. On his return trip along the same route, there is less traffic and the

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average speed is 𝟒𝟎 𝐤𝐦/𝐡.
(a) Derive the equation for total time to calculate the average speed.
(b) What is the average speed for Abdul's trip?

Q. 45. The speed-time graph for a car is shown here.

(a) Find how far the car travels in the first 4 seconds. Shade the area on the graph
that represents the distance travelled by car during this period.

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(b) Which part of the graph represents the uniform motion of the car?

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Q. 46. A driver of a car travelling at 𝟓𝟐𝐤𝐦𝐩𝐡 applies the brakes and accelerates
uniformly in the opposite direction. The car stops in 𝟓 𝐬. Another driver going at
𝟑𝐤𝐦𝐩𝐡 in another car applies the brakes slowly and stops in 𝟏𝟎 𝐬. On the same graph
paper, plot the speed versus time graphs for the two cars.
(i) Calculate the distance travelled by car,
(ii) Which of the two cars travelled farther after the brakes were applied?

Directions : For question numbers 47 and 52 , two statements are given

one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below:
(a) Both (𝑨) and (𝑹) are true and (𝑹) is correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) Both (𝑨) and (𝑹) are true but (𝑹) is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) (𝑨) is true but (𝑹) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Q. 47. Assertion : If an object has moved through a distance then it cannot have zero
displacement. Reason : Displacement is the minimum distance between the starting
and end point.

Q. 48. Assertion : Both speed and velocity are vector quantities.

Reason : Speed has only magnitude while velocity has both magnitude and direction.
So, Speed is a scalar quantity but velocity is a vector quantity.

Q. 49. Assertion : The displacement of the car is zero but the car travelled some
distance and came back to its starting point.
Reason : The displacement is the relative position of final and initial points.

Q. 50. Assertion : A fly is moving with a uniform rate. The average velocity of the fly
is determined with its final and initial velocity.
Reason : The average speed of an object obtained by dividing total distance and time
taken to travel that distance.

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Q. 51. Assertion : A girl was running and was carrying a pot. She dropped the pot and
the pot broke.
Reason : An object experiences negative acceleration when it is travelling in the
opposite direction to its velocity.

Q. 52. Assertion : The velocity of the moon is changing constantly.

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Reason : When the object is in a circular motion, its velocity does not change
constantly.

Q. 53. Using the following information form a pathway explaining the speed with a
direction. And also include information that is not mentioned below to complete it.
Rate of motion, Velocity, Direction of motion, Average velocity
Rate of motion, Velocity, Direction of motion, Average velocity

Q. 54. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the force
experienced by the coin when it is tossed. And also include information that is not

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mentioned below to complete it.
Upward direction, motion, maximum height, flipping,
acceleration, opposite direction.

Q. 55. Using the following information form a pathway showing relative velocity
experienced by a man in the train. And also include information that is not
mentioned below to complete it.

Train, stationary, relative velocity, beside track.

Q. 56. Using the following information form a pathway showing circular motion
experienced by a satellite. And also include information that is not mentioned below
to complete it.

Earth, satellite, circular motion, change in velocity.

Q. 57. Using the following information form a pathway showing average velocity
experienced by an object moving in a straight line. And also include information that
is not mentioned below to complete it.

Straight line, variable speed, change in displacement, 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 .

Q. 58. Take a piece of thread and tie a small piece of stone at one of its ends. Move
the stone to describe a circular path with constant speed by holding the thread at the
other end. Can you tell the direction in which the stone moves after it is released?

Q. 59. Distance is the actual path covered by an object while displacement is the
shortest path covered between initial and final point.
Riya travels a distance by her car in the circular path of radius 𝟐𝟏 𝐜𝐦. Answer the
following questions based on the given data.
(a) Calculate the distance covered by Riya?
(b) How much displacement has been covered in this case?
OR
(c) What will be the ratio of displacement to distance?
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Q. 60. Study this v-t graph. A car starts it's moving after 𝟏𝐬𝐞𝐜 with uniform

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acceleration and then applies brakes for some time and again attains uniform
acceleration. Answer the following questions based on the data.

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(a) Describe the motion of the car from 𝑩 to 𝑪.
(b) Find the acceleration of the car in the last 𝟐𝐬𝐞𝐜 ?
(c) Find the distance covered in 6 seconds by the car?
OR
(d) Find the total distance covered by the body(car)?

Q. 61. A truck is moving as shown. The speed-time graph is shown in figure.

(a) What does the slope of the speed-time graph represent?

(b) Which part of the graph represents constant speed and zero acceleration?
(c) Calculate the distance travelled by the truck in the first 8 hours.
OR
(d) Which part shows varying retardation?