GENERAL AWARENESS

Practice Question Physics

1. A commercial unit of electrical energy is equal to ______ Answer: (b)
joules.
8. Unit of power is called a:
(a) 3.6 × 10⁷
(a) Pascal
(b) 3.6 × 10⁸
(b) Watt
(c) 3.6 × 10⁵
(c) Joule
(d) 3.6 × 10⁶
(d) Newton
Answer: (d)
Answer: (b)
2. The 37° C temperature is equal to nearly:
9. The formula of Power is:
(a) 99.4°F
(a) Speed/Time

BIOLOGY
(b) 98.6°F
(b) Displacement/Time
(c) 97.4°F
(c) Momentum/Time
(d) 100.4°F
(d) Work/Time
Answer: (b)
Answer: (d)
3. Which of the following is a unit of acceleration?
10. According to which law, at constant temperature, the
(a) m/s²
volume of a gas is inversely proportional to pressure?
(b) ft/s (a) Graham’s Law
(c) m/s (b) Charles’s Law
(d) sqm/s (c) Boyle’s Law
Answer: (a) (d) Gay-Lussac’s Law
4. Which of the following units is used for measuring the Answer: (c)
amount of a substance?
11. What is the equation for Newton’s second law of motion?
(a) Mole
(a) F=
(b) Tesla
(b) F= AP
(c) Joule
(c) F=ma
(d) Lux
(d) F= 1/2 mv²
Answer: (a)
Answer: (c)
5. What is the SI unit of momentum?
12. A spring balance is a device commonly used for measuring
(a) kg m
the _____ acting on an object.
(b) kg m⁻¹ s⁻¹ (a) force
(c) kg m s (b) momentum
(d) kg m s⁻¹ (c) velocity
Answer: (d) (d) mass
6. Which device is used to measure radiation? Answer: (a)
(a) Voltmeter
13. Which is the least frictional force of the following?
(b) Ammeter (a) Sliding
(c) Geiger - Muller counter (b) Fluid
(d) Spectrometer (c) Static
Answer: (c) (d) Rolling
7. One Watt = ? Answer: (d)
(a) 1 erg/Sec
14. Which one of the following is NOT a scalar quantity?
(b) 1 joule/Sec (a) Time
(c) 1 m/s (b) Speed
(d) 1 Pascal/Sec (c) Force

a
 GENERAL AWARENESS

(d) Distance (a) 15 m/s

Answer:(c) Ans. (c)
15. The SI unit of weight is a: 21. With an initial velocity of 10 m/s, an object is thrown
(a) Gram vertically upwards. The maximum height attained by the
(b) Kg object is ______. (Assume g = 10 m/s²)
(a) 20 m
(c) Newton
(a) 5 m
(d) Dyne
(a) 100 m
Answer: (c)
(a) 1 m
16. A force of 20 N displaces an object through 2 m and
Answer: (b)
does a work of 20 J. The angle between the force and
BIOLOGY

displacement is: 22. A cube-shaped metal box of 1 kg mass is kept on the

(a) 60° horizontal surface of a table. Assuming acceleration due
(b) 30° to gravity is 10 m/s², the thrust acting on the table surface
is ______.
(c) 90°
(a) 10 N
(d) 0°
(b) 100 N
Answer: (a)
(c) 1 N
17. What will be the acceleration produced when a force of 21 (d) 1000 N
N is applied on an object of mass 3 kg?
Answer: (a)
(a) 0.7 m/s²
(b) 7 m/s² 23. If a ray of light is incident passing through the centre of
curvature of a concave mirror, then the angle between the
(c) 0.007 m/s²
incident ray and the reflected ray will be equal to:
(d) 70 m/s² (a) 0°
Answer: (b) (b) 150°
18. If a force of 20N is applied on a body with a mass of 10kg, (c) 90°
what will be the acceleration produced? (d) 180°
(a) 200 m/sec²
Answer: (a)
(b) 2 m/sec²
24. The distance between the pole and the center of curvature
(c) 100 m/sec²
of a spherical mirror, in terms of its focal length, is equal
(d) 5 m/sec² to ________.
Answer: (b) (a) f
19. A wooden block of mass 1 kg accelerates at 10 m/s² when (b) 4f
a force of 5 N acts on it. Another block of mass 2 kg (c) f/2
accelerates at 20 m/s² when the same force acts on it. If (d) 2f
both the blocks are tied together and the same force acts on
Answer: (d)
their combination, the acceleration will be about:
(a) 4.67 m/s² 25. A ray of light is incident on an interface separating two
(b) 6.67 m/s² media along the normal to the interface. The angle between
the incident ray and refracted ray is equal to:
(c) 1.67 m/s²
(a) 90°
(d) 5.67 m/s²
(b) 0°
Answer: (b)
(c) 45°
20. Starting from rest, a car is moving with a uniform (d) 30°
acceleration of 0.5 m/s². The velocity of the car after 20
Answer: (b)
s is:
(a) 5 m/s 26. A boy focusses a sharp image of a distant object on a
(a) 0 m/s screen using a lens. The distance between the lens and
screen is approximately equal to:
(a) 10 m/s
b
 GENERAL AWARENESS

(a) 2f (c) violet

(b) f (d) green
(c) f/2 Answer: (c)
(d) 3f 33. A concave mirror having focal length of magnitude 20
Answer: (d) cm forms a real image at a distance of 60 cm from it. The
object distance (in cm) is
27. The magnification ‘m’ produced by a spherical mirror is
-0.5. The image formed by the mirror is: (a) +15
(a) virtual, erect and enlarged (b) +30
(b) real, inverted and diminished (c) -30
(c) real, inverted and enlarged (d) -15
Answer: (c)

BIOLOGY
(d) virtual, erect and diminished
Answer: (b) 34. Lemons placed inside a beaker filled with water appear
relatively larger in size due to:
28. Planets do not twinkle because
(a) scattering of light
(a) they scatter more light
(b) refraction of light
(b) they scatter less light
(c) reflection of light
(c) they act as extended source of light
(d) dispersion of light
(d) they act as a point source of light
Answer: (b)
Answer: (c)
35. A convex lens forms a real and inverted image twice the
29. The focal length of a diverging lens is 50 cm. The power
size of the object. The magnification produced by the lens
of the lens is:
is equal to:
(a) 2 D
(a) 2
(b) -2 D
(b) -1
(c) -5 D
(c) -2
(d) 5 D
(d) 1
Answer: (b)
Answer: (d)
30. The speed of light in two transparent media A and B are
36. What is the distance between the pole and focus of a
2 × 10⁸ m/s and 2.25 × 10⁸ m/s. The refractive index of
spherical mirror?
medium A with respect to medium B is equal to:
(a) 2R
(a) 4.50
(b) R
(b) 1.125
(c) R/2
(c) 0.89
(d) R/4
(d) 4.25
Answer: (c)
Answer: (b)
37. The component of white light, which has maximum
31. A convex lens having power 5 D is placed in contact with
refractive index, is of _________ colour.
a concave lens having power - 3 D. The focal length of the
combination will be: (a) red
(a) 50 cm (b) violet
(b) -0.5 cm (c) yellow
(c) 0.5 cm (d) green
(d) -50 cm Answer: (b)
Answer: (a) 38. What will be the angle of incidence for a ray of light
incident along the principal axis of a convex mirror?
32. The component of white light that deviates the most on
passing through a glass prism is: (a) 0°
(a) blue (b) 30°
(b) red (c) 60°

c
 GENERAL AWARENESS

(d) 90° (d) 220V, 100Hz

Answer: (a) Answer: (b)
39. The value of absolute refractive index of a medium is 45. In an electrical circuit four identical bulbs are connected
always _________. in parallel to each other to a battery of 10 V (negligible
(a) equal to 0 internal resistance). When all the four bulbs glow, a
(b) more than 1 current of 4 A is recorded. Then the power dissipated in
the circuit and the resistance of each bulb are ______ and
(c) equal to 1
_____, respectively.
(d) less than 1 (a) 22.4 W, 1.4 Ω
Answer: (b) (b) 40 W, 10 Ω
40. A light ray is traveling from air medium to water medium (c) 27.2 W, 1.7 Ω
BIOLOGY

(refractive index = 1.3) such that angle of incidence is x (d) 24 W, 1.5 Ω

degree and angle of refraction is y degree. The value of
Answer: (b)
ratio (sin y)/(sin x) is:
(a) 1.3 46. What is the heat energy produced in a resistance of 10 Ω
(b) 1/1.3 when 5 A current flows through it for 5 minutes?
(a) 7.5 × 10⁴ J
(c) 1
(b) 7.5 × 10⁵ J
(d) 0.3
(c) 7.5 × 10⁶ J
Answer: (b)
(d) 7.5 × 10³ J
41. A ray of light, passing through the centre of curvature, is
Answer: (a)
incident on a concave mirror. It is reflected by an angle of
___________. 47. A house is supplied electricity through a 15 A fuse. The
(a) 1.20° number of 100 W lamps that can be used simultaneously
(b) 0° along with a 2KW AC is: (The AC and lamps both are
rated for 220 V Supply))
(c) 3.10°
(a) 13
(d) 4.30°
(b) 23
Answer: (b)
(c) 18
42. Which of the following optical phenomena can explain the (d) 15
flattening of the disk of the Sun at sunrise and sunset?
Answer: (a)
(a) Dispersion of light
(b) total internal reflection 48. The power input to the circuit when charge of Q coulomb
is flowing for t seconds for a potential difference of V volt
(c) scattering of light
is _________.
(d) atmospheric refraction (a) P = V × t/Q
Answer: (d) (b) P = VQt
43. When 60 KJ heat is produced by a heater in 1 minute and (c) P = VQ/t
20 seconds then its power is : (d) P = QV/t
(a) 750W
Answer: (c)
(b) 7.5 kW
49. A battery of 12V supplies a current of 3 A to a lamp
(c) 1.5 kW
connected to it. The energy supplied to it in 15 minutes
(d) 150W will be:
Answer: (a) (a) 32000 J
44. The common domestic power supplied in India is given by (b) 32150 J
which of the following? (c) 32400 J
(a) 110V, 60 Hz (d) 540 J
(b) 220V, 50Hz Answer: (c)
(c) 110V, 50Hz
50. A force of 20 N is applied to an object, and the object

d
 GENERAL AWARENESS

moves 5 meters in the direction of the force. What is the (b) M/R²
work done by the force? (c) M²/R
(a) 4 J (d) M/R²
(b) 25 J Answer: (b)
(c) 100 J
57. Consider a planet whose mass and radius are both twice
(d) 0 J
the mass and radius of Earth. The acceleration due to
Answer: (c) gravity on the surface of the planet is n times that on Earth.
51. In hydroelectric power plants, which energy is tapped The value of n is:
using water turbines to drive generators? (a) 2
(a) Energy of falling water (b) 4
(b) Energy of sunlight (c) 1

BIOLOGY
(c) Energy of waves (d) 1/2
(d) Energy of burning fuel Answer: (d)
Answer: (a) 58. Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?
52. An object with a mass of 22 kg moving with a velocity of (a) Visible rays
5 m/s possesses a kinetic energy of: (b) Gamma rays
(a) 275J (c) Infrared rays
(b) 2750J (d) X-rays
(c) 1100J Answer: (b)
(d) 110J
59. Which of the following is the Greek letter for wavelength?
Answer: (a) (a) Alpha
53. When a compressed slinky is released it converts potential (b) Beta
energy into: (c) Delta
(a) Mechanical energy (d) Lambda
(b) Heat energy Answer: (d)
(c) Chemical energy
60. Which earthquake waves involve transverse displacement?
(d) Kinetic energy
(a) Rayleigh surface waves
Answer: (d)
(b) P-Waves
54. The kinetic energy of a ball weighing 0.5 kg moving with (c) L-Waves
a velocity of 4 m/s will be :
(d) S-Waves
(a) 12 J
Answer: (d)
(b) 8 J
(c) 4 J 61. Which of the following is NOT electromagnetic waves?
(a) Radio
(d) 16 J
(b) Microwave
Answer: (c)
(c) Ultrasound
55. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option. The
(d) Infra-red
Universal Constant of Gravitation is ______.
Answer: (c)
(a) 9.8 Nm²/kg²
(b) 6.76 × 10⁻¹⁰ Nm²/kg² 62. Which of the following are electromagnetic waves?
(c) 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg² (a) Audible waves
(b) X-rays
(d) 6.67 × 10¹⁰ Nm²/kg²
(c) Alpha rays
Answer: (c)
(d) Beta rays
56. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth
Answer: (b) X-rays
(mass M and radius R) is proportional to ______.
(a) M/R 63. In which type of waves do the vibrations move

e
 GENERAL AWARENESS

parallel to the direction of travelling of wave? (b) reflection

(a) Transverse (c) diffraction
(b) Microwaves (d) refraction
(c) Longitudinal Answer: (c)
(d) Surface
70. An electrical device that works on the principle of Joule’s
Answer: (c)
Law of Heating is:
64. In the event of oscillation, the number of oscillations per (a) Immersion rod
second is called ________.(a) Time period (b) Speaker
(b) Amplitude (c) Electromagnet
(c) Frequency (d) Electrical bell
BIOLOGY

(d) Wavelength Answer: (a)

Answer: (c)
71. What is the melting point of the tungsten filament used in
65. A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose consecutive bulbs?
crests are 125 m apart. The velocity of the wave of the (a) 300° C
moving crests is 25 ms⁻¹. What is the frequency of the
(b) 3422° C
rocking of the boat?
(c) 30° C
(a) 250 Hz
(d) 1000° C
(b) 625 Hz
Answer: (b)
(c) 0.20 Hz
(d) 100 Hz 72. -273. temperature is equal to: 15° 𝐶
Answer: (c) (a) 173 K
(b) 23 K
66. The audible range of sound for human beings extends
from about: (c) 100 K
(a) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz (d) 0 K
(b) 10 Hz to 10,000 Hz Answer: (d)
(c) 40 Hz to 40,000 Hz 73. Which electric device is NOT based on Joule’s law of
(d) 30 Hz to 30,000 Hz\ heating?
Answer: (a) (a) Fuse used in an electric circuit
(b) Electric iron
67. Through which of the following mediums can sound NOT
travel? (c) Electric kettle
(a) Steel (d) Electric plugs and switches
(b) Vacuum Answer: (d)
(c) Air 74. What is the minimum temperature to which a fuel must be
(d) Milk heated so that it may catch fire and start burning?
Answer: (b) (a) Ignition temperature
(b) Neutral temperature
68. The persistence of sound in an auditorium is the result of
repeated reflections of sound and is called _____. (c) Boiling temperature
(a) Intensity (d) Normal temperature
(b) Vibration Answer: (a)
(c) Ranging 75. Among the following, identify the substance which has
(d) Reverberation the highest specific heat capacity.
Answer: (d) (a) snow
(b) aluminum
69. We hear others speaking to us from adjacent rooms due to
_______ of sound waves. (c) water
(a) echo (d) Kerosene
Answer: (c)

f
 GENERAL AWARENESS

76. -273° Celsius = ______ Fahrenheit resistance equal to:

(a) 73° (a) R
(b) -328° (b) R/3
(c) -392° (c) 3R
(d) -73° (d) 9R
Answer: (b) Answer: (b) R/3
77. What is the standard room temperature in Kelvin? 82. The equivalent resistance between points A and B shown
(a) 198K in the figure below:
(b) 293K (a) 2 Ω
(c) 373 K (b) 6 Ω

BIOLOGY
(d) 273 K (c) 9 Ω
Answer: (b) (d) 4.5 Ω
78. The filament of a bulb is made extremely thin and long in Answer: (a)
order to achieve: 83. Two wires A and B are made of the same material and
(a) High resistance have the same length but different cross-sectional areas. If
(b) High current the resistance of wire A is 9 times the resistance of wire B,
(c) High resistivity the ratio of the radius of wire A to that of wire B is:
(d) High voltage (a) 9 : 1
Answer: (a) (b) 1 : 9
79. The I-V graph of three resistances, R₁, R₂, and R₃ is shown (c) 3 : 1
in the figure below. The correct relation between R₁, R₂, (d) 1 : 3
and R₃ is: Answer: (d)
84. A metallic wire of resistance 100 Ω is bent into a circle
having circumference equal to the length of the wire. The
equivalent resistance between two diametrically opposite
points of the circle is:
(a) 100 Ω
(b) 75 Ω
(c) 50 Ω
(d) 25 Ω
Answer: (d)
(a) R₃ > R₂ > R₁ 85. The ratio of a field produced due to a current carrying
(b) R₃ < R₂ < R₁ circular coil of n turns, to that of a field produced due to a
(c) R₃ < R₁ < R₂ single circular loop of the same radius carrying the same
current is:
(d) R₃ > R₁ > R₂
(a) 1 : n
Answer: (b) R₃ < R₂ < R₁
(b) n : 1
80. An AC generator works on the principle of: (c) 1 : n²
(a) electromagnetic induction
(d) 1 : 1
(b) heating effect of electric current
Answer: (b)
(c) force on a current carrying conductor
86. Which of the following home appliances does NOT use an
(d) electromagnetism
electric motor?
Answer: (a) (a) Electric washing machine
81. A wire of a given material has length ‘l’ and resistance (b) Electric mixer
‘R’. Another wire of the same material having three times (c) Electric iron
the length and twice the area of cross section will have a
(d) Electric fan

g
 GENERAL AWARENESS

Answer: (c) 94. Which of the following physical quantities is a scalar

quantity?
87. A current of 2.5 mA flows through a conductor having
(a) electric current
resistance 2Ω. The potential difference across the ends of
the conductor is: (b) electric field
(a) 5 mV (c) torque
(b) 1.25 V (d) impulse
(c) 1.25 mV Answer: (a)
(d) 5V 95. An object with more ______ has more inertia.
Answer: (a) (a) mass
88. When a potential difference of 50 V is applied across the (b) volume
terminals of an electrical appliance, a current of 5 A flows (c) velocity
through it. If the potential difference is increased to 110 V, (d) acceleration
BIOLOGY

what will be the current drawn by the appliance? Answer: (a)

(a) 10A
96. The second equation of motion gives the relation between:
(b) 25 A
(a) Position and Velocity
(c) 5A
(b) Position and time
(d) 11A
(c) Velocity and acceleration
Answer: (d)
(d) Velocity and time
89. Which of the following is a scalar quantity? Answer: (b)
(a) Momentum
97. A rocket is launched to travel vertically upward with a
(b) Force
constant velocity of 20 m/s. After traveling for 35 seconds,
(c) Mass the rocket develops a snag and its fuel supply is cut
(d) Velocity off. The rocket then travels like a free body. The height
Answer: (c) achieved by it is:
(a) 800 m
90. Rockets work on the principle of conservation of:
(a) velocity (b) 700 m
(b) mass (c) 720 m
(c) momentum (d) 680 m
(d) energy Answer: (c)
Answer: (c) 98. The tendency of undisturbed objects to stay at rest or to
keep moving with the same velocity is called:
91. Which of the following is most commonly used as a
(a) velocity
semiconductor in solar cells?
(a) ZmTe (b) force
(b) ZnSi (c) momentum
(c) GeAS (d) inertia
(d) GaAs Answer: (d)
Answer: (d) 99. If the initial velocity of a car is 5 m/s, and the final velocity
is 10 m/s in 5 s, then the acceleration is _________.
92. Who is considered to be the ‘father of modern science’?
(a) 1 m/s²
(a) Galileo Galilei
(b) 0.1 m/s²
(b) Stephen Hawking
(c) 10 m/s²
(c) CV Raman
(d) 5 m/s²
(d) Vikram Sarabhai
Answer: (a)
Answer: (a)
100. A particle experiences constant acceleration for 20 s after
93. ________ is the distance between the bottom of the pitch
starting from rest. If it travels a distance X₁ in the first 10
circle and the teeth of a gear.
s and distance X₂ in the remaining 10 s, then which of the
(a) Bore
following is true?
(b) Addendum (a) X₂ = 2X₁
(c) Dedendum (b) X₁ = 3X₂
(d) Hub (c) X₂ = X₁
Answer: (c) (d) X₂ = 3X₁
Answer: (d)
h
 GENERAL AWARENESS

Practice Question Chemistry

1. Benzene was discovered by Michael Faraday in which of Ans: A
the following year?
(a) 1820
7. Which of the following is also called a plastic explosive?
(b) 1821
(a) TNT
(c) 1825
(b) Rdx
(d) 1826
(c) Gunpowder
Ans: C
(d) TNP
Ans: B
2. Nylon is made up of the repeating units of a chemical

BIOLOGY
called?
(a) Chloride 8. Gunpowder was discovered by which of the following
personality?
(b) Amide
(a) Roger Banken
(c) Sulphite
(b) Dr Gatting
(d) None of the above
(c) CV Raman
Ans: B
(d) Samuel Colt
Ans: A
3. According to Lewis’s’ concept, an acid is a/an.?
(a) Acceptor of electrons
9. Which of the following is used to make drinking water
(b) Donar of electrons
free from germs?
(c) Acceptor of Protons (a) Washing soda
(d) Donar of Protons (b) Gypsum
Ans: A (c) Baking Soda
(d) Bleaching Powder
4. Which of the following is also called the fuel of Ans: D
the future?
(a) Diesel
10. When baking powder is heated or mixed in water, which
(b) Hydrogen gas is produced that causes bread or cake to rise, making
(c) Petrol them soft and spongy?
(d) Kerosene (a) Co2
Ans: B (b) O2
(c) O3
(d) C6H6
5. Which of the following is the heaviest metal?
(a) Osmium Ans: A
(b) Iridium
(c) Rhenium 11. Photochromic glass automatically darkens in sunlight due
(d) Neptunium to the presence of?
Ans: A (a) Silicon dioxide
(b) Silver iodide
(c) Silver bromide
6. Which of the following is not the function of roots?
(d) Lead oxide
(a) Photosynthesis
Ans: C
(b) Water absorption
(c) Absorption of nutrients
(d) To provide support to the plants 12. Acid turns blue litmus paper into?

i
 GENERAL AWARENESS

(a) Red (a) In making microscopes, telescopes, and prisms

(b) Green (b) Sunglasses lenses
(c) Yellow (c) Lab equipment
(d) White (d) Utensils for daily use.
Ans: A Ans: C

13. Which of the following gas is used in cigarette lighter? 19. Which of the following compounds can change the color
(a) Methane of litmus paper from red to blue?
(b) Butane (a) Acetic acid
(c) Radon (b) Hydrochloric acid
BIOLOGY

(d) Propane (c) Sodium hydroxide

Ans: B (d) Sulfuric acid
Ans: C

14. Which of the following processes is associated with the

term “Transcription”? 20. Which of the following is known as ‘Plaster of Paris’?
(a) Protein synthesis (a) 2CaSO4.2H2O
(b) Reproduction process in algae (b) 2MgSO4.H2O
(c) Decay of cell (c) 2MgSO4.7H2O
(d) Genome mapping of a cell (d) CaSO4.1/2H2O
Ans: A Ans: D

15. Which of the following is the lowest-grade coal? 21. About ..........carbons in the Earth’s crust are in the form of
(a) Coco peat carbonate, coal, petroleum.?
(b) Lignite coal (a) 0.03%
(c) Bituminous coal (b) 0.27%
(d) Bituminous coal (c) 2.2%
Ans: A (d) 1.5%
Ans: B

16. Which one of the following metals is NOT an essential

component in stainless steel? 22. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
(a) Iron A) In diamond, each carbon atom is covalently bonded to
(b) Nickel four neighbouring carbon atoms.
(c) Chromium B) When diamond is heated to 800f C in the presence of
(d) Tin oxygen, oxygen is expelled.
Ans: D C) Diamonds are not affected by acids or alkalis.
D) Diamond is a poor conductor of electricity because it
has no free electrons.
17. The wax used to make candles is chemically a mixture of-
(a) A and B only
(a) Cyclic Hydrocarbons
(b) A, C and D only
(b) Aliphatic hydrocarbons
(c) A, B and C only
(c) Aromatic hydrocarbons
(d) A and D only
(d) None of these
Ans: B
Ans: B

23. Which scientist’s atomic model explained the permanence

18. Pyrex glass Mainly is used in?
of the atom by proposing permanent orbital structures for

j
 GENERAL AWARENESS

electrons? (c) It contributes to the atom’s positive charge.

(a) J.J. Thomson (d) It occupies the extranuclear region.
(b) Ernest Rutherford Ans: C
(c) Niels Bohr
(d) John Dalton
29. Which ideal gas law states that the pressure of a given
Ans: C
volume of gas at constant temperature varies inversely
with its volume?
24. The smallest particle of matter was named Atom by (a) Charles’s Law
............... (b) Graham’s Law of Radiation
(a) 1) Democritus (c) Boyle’s law

BIOLOGY
(b) 2) Maharshi Kanad (d) Avogadro’s Law
(c) 3) Dalton Ans: C
(d) 4) None of the above
Ans: A
30. Which of the following materials is NOT likely to be
ductile and malleable?
25. Choose the correct statement. (a) Gold
A) Methanol is derived from wood hence it is called (b) Aluminum
‘wood alcohol’. (c) Carbon (diamond)
B) Methanol is used in hospitals as Spirit. (d) Oxygen
(a) A is right, B is wrong Ans: D
(b) B is right, A is wrong
(c) Both are correct 31. Consider the following statement :
(d) Both are wrong Statement I: In the treatment of deadly diseases like cancer
Ans: C The isotope “Sodium-24” is used.
Statement II : “Iodine-131” is used in the treatment of
26. Stainless steel is an alloy formed by mixing the goitre, a disease of the thyroid glands.
following metals? (a) Only I is correct, II is wrong
(a) Copper, zinc, tin (b) Only II is correct, I is false
(b) Iron, Chromium, Nickel (c) Both I and II are false
(c) Copper, Nickel, Zinc (d) Both I and II are correct
(d) Copper, Zinc Ans: B
Ans: B
32. Which of the following is not a characteristic of solid
substance ?
27. Arrange the following metals in ascending order of their
reactivity. A) High hardness
(a) Sodium – Calcium – Lead – Copper B) regular shape
(b) Calcium – Copper – Lead – Sodium C) High density
(c) Sodium – Calcium – Copper – Lead D) High compressibility
(d) Copper – Lead – Calcium – Sodium (a) A, B
Ans: A (b) D
(c) C, D
(d) A, C
28. What is the main characteristic of a proton in an atom’s
nucleus? Ans: B
(a) It has a negative charge.
(b) It has negligible mass. 33. Who is known as the ‘first man to penetrate the atom’?
k
 GENERAL AWARENESS

(a) J. J. Thomson (c) Proton

(b) John Dalton (d) Nucleon
(c) Rutherford Ans: A
(d) Goldstein
Ans: A 39. Newlands’ Law of Octaves was criticized primarily for:
(a) Its failure to predict the discovery of new elements.
34. How many crystalline allotropes of carbon are there? (b) Placing cobalt and nickel inaccurately
(a) Two (c) Applying only to a limited number of elements.
(b) Three (d) Ignoring the relationship between atomic number and
(c) Six properties.
BIOLOGY

(d) Numerous Ans: C

Ans: B
40. Consider the following statements.
35. Which of the following is not a strong acid? a) Acetylene is a carbon compound.
(a) HBr b) Acetylene is used for metal cutting as well as joining.
(b) HNO3 (a) Only A is correct
(c) H2SO4 (b) Only B is correct
(d) None of the above (c) Both A and B are correct
Ans: B (d) Both A and B are wrong
Ans: C

36. Consider the following statements.

A) Acetylene is a saturated hydrocarbon. 41. Almost all the compounds of hydrocarbons as well
B ) Acetylene is used for joining metals. as carbon are thrown out when they are burned in the
presence of oxygen.
(a) A is right B is wrong
(a) Heat and light
(b) A is wrong B is right
(b) Only light
(c) Both A and B are correct
(c) Heat only
(d) Both A and B are wrong
(d) Dust and nitrogen
Ans: B
Ans: A

37. Which of the following elements is/are not metallic?

42. Consider the following statements.
A) Silicon
A) Isotons have the same number of neutrons and protons.
B) Germanium
B) Isotones have the same number of neutrons.
C) Sulphur
(a) Only A is wrong
D) Antimony
(b) Only B is wrong
(a) A and D only
(c) Both A and B are wrong
(b) Only D
(d) Both A and B are correct
(c) Only C
Ans: A
(d) B and C only
Ans: C
43. Polypropylene is used in the manufacture of which
component?
38. Which subatomic particle has a mass nearly equivalent to (a) Injection syringe
that of a proton?
(b) Bags
(a) Neutron
(c) Nonstick pots
(b) Electron

l
 GENERAL AWARENESS

(d) All of the above (b) Only B is correct

Ans: A (c) A and B correct
(d) Both incorrect
44. Note the following statements.And choose the correct Ans: C
option.
A) Diamond is electrically conductive. 48. Consider the following statements about Bohr’s permanent
B) Diamond does not dissolve in any solvent. orbital atomic structure.
C) In diamonds, each carbon atom is bound by a covalent A) The energy of an electron is constant while in a
bond with the four neighboring carbon atoms. particular orbit.
(a) A and B are eligible B) Electrons emit energy equal to the difference in jumping
from inner to outer orbit.

BIOLOGY
(b) B and C are eligible
(c) Only A (a) A is correct
(d) All of the above (b) B is correct
Ans: D (c) Both are correct
(d) None of the above
Ans: A
45. In a biogas plant, animal dung, foliage, and wet waste is
decomposed by bacteria to produce what gas. ?
(a) Ethane 49. Identify the correct statement from the following
(b) Methane statements
(c) Carbon dioxide A) If energy is released during a reaction, it is called an
(d) 2 and 3 endothermic reaction.
Ans: D B) If energy is absorbed during the reaction, it is called an
exothermic reaction.
(a) A
46. Which of the following group of compounds is called
(b) B
‘carbonyl compounds’?
A) Aldehyde (c) A, B
B) Ketone (d) None of these
C) Ether Ans: D
D) Carboxylic acid
(a) A, B and C. 50. Which of the following is not a natural viewer?
(b) B, C and D (a) Turmeric solution
(c) A, B and D. (b) Various flower petals
(d) All of the above (c) Indigo Blue, Beat
Ans: C (d) All of the above
Ans: D

47. Note the following statements.

(a) When carbon chains have different lengths but the 51. Identify the correct statement/statements?
functional group between them is the same, their A) Sulphate is used to make artificial silk.
chemical properties are very similar. B) Sodium is used in textile and paper making.
(b) The range of compounds formed by the addition of (a) Only A
the same functional group in place of a particular (b) Only B
hydrogen on a chain with a gradually increasing (c) Both are wrong
length is called a homogeneous range.
(d) Both are correct
Choose the right option.
Ans: D
(a) Only A is correct

m
 GENERAL AWARENESS

52. What is the central concept of Nuland’s Octet Theory in (c) A catalyst can speed up a reaction.
chemistry?
(d) Catalysts cannot react at low temperatures.
(a) The arrangement of electrons in an atom into energy
Ans: C
levels
(b) The classification of elements based on their atomic
number 57. Oxidation takes place at .................
(c) The theory explaining the periodicity of chemical (a) Cathode
properties of elements (b) Anode
(d) The bonding behavior of atoms based on their (c) Proton
outermost electron configuration (d) None of these
Ans: D Ans: A
BIOLOGY

53. What are isotopes? 58. According to Nuland’s Octet Theory, which of the
(a) Elements having the same atomic number but different following elements is likely to exhibit similar chemical
atomic mass numbers. properties?
(b) Elements which have the same atomic number but (a) Sodium (Na) and Potassium (K)
different atomic number. (b) Magnesium (Mg) and Calcium (Ca)
(c) Elements which have the same atomic number and (c) Chlorine (Cl) and Fluorine (F)
atomic mass number. (d) Carbon (c) and Silicon (Si)
(d) Elements which have different atomic number and Ans: C
atomic mass number.
Ans: A
59. Aromatic hydrocarbons are _____.
A) It has carbon-carbon single bond.
54. Consider the following statements. B) It has carbon-carbon double bond.
A) Diamond is a metal with a high melting point. C) It has single and double bond between carboncarbon
B) Diamond is an amorphous form of carbon. respectively.
(a) Statement B is correct A is false D) It contains at least six carbon atoms.
(b) Statement A is correct B is false (a) Only A
(c) Both statement A and B are correct (b) Only B
(d) Statements A and B are both wrong (c) Only C
Ans: B (d) C and D
Ans: D
55. Which metal is an exception to being a good conductor
of electricity? 60. Which of the following scientists discovered the
(a) Aluminum negatively charged particles i.e. electrons?
(b) Lead (a) John Dalton
(c) Gold (b) Ernest Rutherford
(d) Copper (c) Niels Bohr
Ans: B (d) Sir J. J. Thomson
Ans: D
56. Identify the correct statement among the following about
catalysts. 61. Which metal is known for its high melting and boiling
(a) During the reaction, the substance of the catalyst is points?
decomposed. (a) Sodium
(b) A catalyst increases the amount of products in a given (b) Potassium
reaction. (c) Silver
n
 GENERAL AWARENESS

(d) Gallium (b) 2) Gold Stein

Ans: C (c) 3) James Chadwick
(d) 4) Rutherford
62. Electrons in the outermost orbit of an element are called Ans: A
...........
(a) Cation
68. Which of the following statements regarding chlorine gas
(b) Valence electrons is not correct?
(c) Anion (a) Chlorine is used to disinfect water.
(d) None of the above (b) Chlorine is used to make sodium chloride.
Ans: B (c) Chlorine is poisonous and colorless.

BIOLOGY
(d) Chlorine is always found in free state.
63. Which of the following is a physical property of metals? Ans: D
(a) They gain electrons to form negative ions.
(b) They are usually insoluble in solvents. 69. Unsaturated hydrocarbons which have carboncarbon
(c) They have low melting and boiling points. double bonds in their structure are called ........................
(d) They are good conductors of heat and electricity. .........
Ans: D (a) Alkanes
(b) Alkynes
(c) Alkynes
64. What property allows metals to conduct electricity?
(a) They have a tight bond structure. (d) None of the above

(b) They have a lattice structure. Ans: B

(c) They have free electrons that can move freely.

(d) They have a high melting point. 70. What is the main characteristic of the particles in a solid
Ans: C state of matter
(a) High compressibility
(b) Fixed shape and volume
65. Which of the following compounds is used to make a
(c) Free movement of particles
permanent magnet Nipermag?
(a) Iron, Nickel , Aluminium , Titanium etc (d) Weak intermolecular forces

(b) Iron, Carbon , Tungsten , Aluminium Ans: B

(c) Aluminum, Nickel , Cobalt

(d) Iron , Carbon , Chromium 71. Graphite is used for which of the following:?
Ans: A a) Color, Polish b) Arch lamp a) Pencil e) Carbon electrode
(a) D , C
(b) B , C
66. Water is a compound formed by the chemical combination
of the elements hydrogen and oxygen. The weight ratio of (c) A , C , D
oxygen and hydrogen elements in it is ........... (d) All of the above
(a) 2:3 Ans: D
(b) 5:2
(c) 6:4 72. Identify the correct statement/s from the following
(d) 8:1 A) The smallest particles of an element are made up of the
Ans: D same type of atoms.
B) Different substances can be obtained by decomposition
67. Electrons were discovered by.............. of elements.
(a) 1) J. J. Thomson (a) A is correct
(b) B is correct

o
 GENERAL AWARENESS

(c) A and B 78. Who among the following is said to be the first person to
(d) None of the above penetrate the atom?
Ans: A (a) J J Thomson
(b) Rishi Kanada
(c) Rutherford
73. Which metal is an exception to being a good conductor
(d) Newton
of electricity?
(a) Aluminum Ans: A
(b) Lead
(c) Gold 79. Consider the following statements and choose the correct
(d) Copper option.
BIOLOGY

Ans: B A) Carbon occurs in nature in free and combined form.

B) Carbon is found in free form in the form of coal,
petroleum, natural gas.
74. Note the following statements.
C) Carbon is present in diamond, graphite compounds in
(A) Saturated hydrocarbons react rapidly with chlorine in
combination.
close proximity to sunlight.
(a) Only A
(B) The organic compound is not fully oxidized by
(b) A and B
combustion.
(c) B and C
(a) Only A is correct
(d) A, B, C
(b) Only B is correct
Ans: A
(c) A and B correct
(d) Both incorrect
Ans: A 80. According to the Law of Conservation of Matter, what
happens to the total mass of substances during a chemical
reaction
75. Which metal exhibits the property of melting at a (a) Mass increases
temperature lower than room temperature? (b) Mass decreases
(a) Iron
(c) Mass remains constant
(b) Aluminum
(d) Mass fluctuates
(c) Mercury
Ans: C
(d) Copper
Ans: C
81. Identify the correct statement/statements?
A) Calcium hydroxide / lime slurries are used for lime /
76. Which group of the modern periodic table includes inert colour bleaching.
gases?
B) Sodium Hydroxide / Caustic Soda is used to make
(a) Group 15th
fertilisers.
(b) Group 16th
(a) Only A
(c) Group 17th
(b) Only B
(d) Group 18th
(c) Both are wrong
Ans: D
(d) All correct
Ans: A
77. Valency number of an atom is………….
(a) Number of chemical bonds formed by an atom
82. The general formula for an alkyne is …….
(b) The total number of electrons in an atom
(a) CnH2n+2
(c) Number of protons in an atom
(b) CnH2n
(d) None of the above
(c) CnH2n-2
Ans: A

p
 GENERAL AWARENESS

(d) None of the above 88. Which of the following is used as a catalyst in the reaction
Ans: C to make ghee from vegetable oil?
(a) Iodine
(b) Platinum
83. Consider the following statements regarding the modern
(c) Nickel
periodic table.
A) Elements in group number 18 are called inert gas (d) Cupric chloride
elements. Ans: C
B) The modern periodic table has 7 periods and 18 groups
C) Mendeleev classified the elements in increasing order 89. How many isotopes of carbon are there?
of their atomic number (a) Two
D) Of the 118 elements known today, 92 are naturally

BIOLOGY
(b) Three
occurring, while 26 are man-made. (c) Four
(d) None of these
84. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? Ans: B
(a) A, B and D
(b) A, C and D
90. Which scientist proposed the concept of “triads” in the
(c) B, C and D classification of elements based on their atomic masses?
(d) A, B and C (a) Dobereiner
Ans: A (b) Newlands
(c) Mendeleev
85. Which of the following is not a natural viewer? (d) Moseley
(a) Turmeric solution Ans: A
(b) Various flower petals
(c) Indigo Blue, Beat 91. When a beta particle is emitted from a radioactive atom
(d) All of the above ______
Ans: D (a) Atomic number decreases and atomic mass increases.
(b) Atomic number increases or decreases And atomic
mass remains constant.
86. When an electric current is passed through a saturated
aqueous solution (brine) of sodium chloride, it decomposes (c) Both Atomic mass and atomic number remain constant.
and near the negative pole .............. gas and near the (d) Both atomic mass number and atomic number decrease.
positive pole ............. ........... gas is released. Ans: B
(a) Hydrogen and Chlorine
(b) Chlorine and Hydrogen
92. What is Fe‚ Oƒ formula?
(c) Sodium and Hydrogen (a) Morchud
(d) Hydrogen and sodium (b) Red Oxide
Ans: A (c) Ferrous sulfate
(d) None of the above.
87. Which scientist’s model proposed that atoms consist Ans: B
of a positively charged nucleus surrounded by orbiting
electrons?
(a) J.J. Thomson 93. According to Dalton’s atomic theory, which of the
following statements is true?
(b) Ernest Rutherford
(a) Atoms are composed of a positively charged nucleus
(c) Niels Bohr
surrounded by orbiting electrons.
(d) John Dalton
(b) Atoms are indivisible and indestructible.
Ans: B
(c) Negatively charged particles called electrons revolve

q
 GENERAL AWARENESS

around the nucleus. 98. Identify the correct statement/statements regarding food
(d) Almost all the mass of an atom is concentrated in the preservation practices?
nucleus. A) Fumigation uses aluminium phosphide to preserve
Ans: B food.
B) Low temperature slows down biological and chemical
processes in foods, so foods can last longer.
94. Who defined acid and base by proposing acid and base
(a) Only A
theory?
(b) Only B
(a) Arrhenius
(c) Both are wrong
(b) Carl Linias
(d) All correct
(c) H. M. Ingole
Ans: D
BIOLOGY

(d) None of these

Ans: A
99. If the pH of a solution is reduced from 4 to 1, the
concentration of hydrogen in it becomes …….
95. Which atom has a smaller size: Mg or Na?
(a) decreases
(a) Mg
(b) increases
(b) Na
(c) It remains the same
(c) Both have the same size
(d) Can’t determine.
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans: B
Ans: A

100. Why are metals shiny?

96. Which property allows metals to produce sound when
(a) Metals have a surface cloud of free electrons that
struck on a hard surface?
reflect light rays.
(a) Luster
(b) Metals have a high melting point.
(b) Hardness
(c) Metals have a tight bond structure.
(c) Ductility
(d) Metals have a lattice structure.
(d) Sonorous
Ans: A
Ans: D

97. Identify the name of the carbon compound from the

molecular formula given below.
CH3-CO-CH2-CH3
(a) Ethyl methyl ketone
(b) Dimethyl ketone
(c) Butyl ketone
(d) None of these
Ans: A

r
 GENERAL AWARENESS

Practice Question Biology

1. Which of the following organisms is not correctly matched Ans: B
with respect to its respiratory organ?
Organism - Breathing organ
6. Consider the following statements related to the
(A) Reptiles – Lung
sympathetic nervous system:
(B) Earthworm - Skin 1. It reduces the secretion of salivary and tear glands.
(C) Insect - Skin 2. It helps in blood clotting.
(D) Fish – Gills Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Ans: C (A) Only 1
(B) Only 2

BIOLOGY
2. Consider the following statements regarding RBCs (C) Both 1 and 2
1. It constitutes 98% of the blood corpuscles which is also (D) None of these
known as ‘Erythrocytes’. Ans: C
2. Nucleus is found in RBC.
3. RBCs are produced in the bone marrow.
7. Which of the following is not part of the hindbrain?
4. The lifespan of RBC is 110-120 days.
(A) Cerebellum
Which of the above statements are true?
(B) Pons Varolii
(A) 1 and 2 only
(C) Medulla Oblongata
(B) Only 2 and 3
(D) Thalamus
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
Ans: D
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
8. What is the percentage of plasma in human blood?
(A) 55%
3. The energy generated by the oxidation of Is it called? (B) 60%
(A) Protein
(C) 80%
(B) Glucose
(D) 98%
(C) Fiber
Ans: A
(D) Fat
Ans: C
9. Consider the following statements:-
1. The hypothalamus controls body temperature.
4. Which of the following statements is false? 2. Cerebellum controls all types of voluntary actions.
(A) The study of blood is called Hematology.
Which of the above statements are true?
(B) The nature of blood is acidic.
(A) Only 1
(C) Blood is a liquid connective tissue.
(B) Only 2
(D) The amount of hemoglobin in the body is 12-16 grams
(C) Both 1 and 2
per 100 ml.
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
Ans: C

5. Which part of the cerebrum performs the functions of

10. Consider the following statements related to the transport
thinking and reasoning?
of oxygen:
(A) Temporal mass
1. Oxygenated blood is carried from the heart to the cells
(B) Frontal mass
through arteries.
(C) Parietal mass
2. 98.5% of oxygen in the human body is carried by
(D) Occipital mass hemoglobin (Hb) found in RBCs.

s
 GENERAL AWARENESS

11. Which of the above statements is incorrect? 16. Which of the following is called the graveyard of RBC?
(A) Only 1 (A) Kidney
(B) Only 2 (B) Bone marrow
(C) Both 1 and 2 (C) Spleen
(D) None of these (D) Heart
Ans: D Ans: C

12. Consider the following statements: 17. By what name is the membrane found over the brain
1. Excess of white blood cells can cause leukemia. known?
(A) Meninges
2. Deficiency of white blood cells can cause leukopenia.
BIOLOGY

(B) Sulcus
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(C) Ponspo Veroli
(A) Only 1
(D) cerebrospinal
(B) Only 2
Ans: A
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C 18. Consider the following statements related to external
respiration:
1. Under this, the process of breathing and exchange of
13. Consider the following statements related to the gasses takes place.
respiratory tract:
2. In case of exhalation the diaphragm becomes dome
1. Mucus is found in it.
shaped.
2. The thread-like structure in the respiratory tract is called
Which of the above is/are correct?
cilia.
(A) Only 1
Which of the above is/are correct?
(B) Only 2
(A) Only 1
(C) Both 1 and 2
(B) Only 2
(D) None of these
(C) Both 1 and 2
Ans: A
(D) None of these
Ans: C
19. If the concentration of CO2 increases, what will be the
effect on respiration?
14. Which of the following is the largest cell in the human (A) There will be no change in it
body?
(B) The rate of respiration will decrease
(A) Osteocytes
(C) The rate of respiration will increase
(B) Neuron
(D) First it will increase and then it will decrease.
(C) Chromatophores
Ans: C
(D) lymph cells
Ans: B
20. What is the empty space between the right brain and left
brain known as?
15. Which of the following is correctly matched? (A) Corpus callosum
(A) Subcerebral - small brain
(B) Diencephalon
(B) Medulla oblongata – controller of involuntary actions
(C) Occipital mass
(C) Midbrain – controller of sensory organs of the body
(D) Ponspo Veroli
(D) More than one of the above
Ans: A
Ans: D

21. The conversion of a complex food into a simple food like

t
 GENERAL AWARENESS

glucose is an example of which reaction? 26. Which of the following statements regarding internal
(A) Anabolic reaction respiration is incorrect?
(B) Reduction reaction (A) A total of 38 ATP energy is released in it.
(C) Metabolic reaction (B) Glycolysis is the first stage of cellular respiration
(D) None of these which occurs in mitochondria.
Ans: A (C) Aerobic respiration involves the decomposition of
food in the presence of oxygen.
(D) In aerobic respiration, when oxygen reacts with
22. Consider the following statements:- pyruvic acid, the Krebs cycle starts.
1. Dendrite connects the axon and the nerve ending.
Ans: B
2. The function of the myelin sheath is to transmit messages

BIOLOGY
from the dendrite to the nerve ending.
3. The central nervous system constitutes the largest part 27. In which of the following relationships does one organism
harm while the other organism is not affected?
of the nervous system, 97%.
(A) Parasitism
Which of the above statements are false?
(B) Predation
(A) 1 only
(C) Competition
(B) 1 and 2 only
(D) Amensalism
(C) 2 and 3 only
Ans: D
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
28. Which of the following minerals is responsible for
chlorophyll formation?
23. What is the primary function of the spinal cord? (A) Sodium
(A) Controlling body temperature
(B) Potassium
(B) Controlling the digestive process
(C) Magnesium
(C) Relaying messages between the brain and the rest of
(D) Sulphur
the body
Ans: C
(D) Producing hormones
Ans: C
29. Select the incorrect option from the following.
(A) Uremia- The amount of urea in the blood increases.
24. Which of the following statements regarding lungs is
(B) Gout disease- The amount of uric acid in the blood
incorrect?
increases.
(A) Lungs are paired organs located in the thoracic cavity.
(C) Addison’s disease - The amount of sodium in urine.
(B) The right lung is smaller than the left lung.
(D) Himeter’s disease - The amount of blood in the urine
(C) The lungs are protected by a two-layered pleural
increases.
membrane.
Ans: C
(D) Due to alveoli, the nature of the lungs is spongy.
Ans: B
30. Reproductive and child health (RCH) Program was
launched in which year?
25. What is the messenger speed of the nervous system? (A) 1996
(A) 70 meters per second
(B) 1997
(B) 80 meters per second
(C) 1998
(C) 120 meters per second
(D) 1999
(D) More than one of the above
Ans: B
Ans: D

31. Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the growth

u
 GENERAL AWARENESS

of bones and tissues in children? 37. The National Nutrition Mission, also known as POSHAN
(A) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Abhiyaan, was launched by the Government of India in
(B) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) which year?
(A) 2010
(C) Somatotropin
(B) 2012
(D) Prolactin
(C) 2018
Ans: C
(D) 2022
Ans: C
32. Which vitamin is known as the “sunshine vitamin” because
the body can synthesize it when exposed to sunlight?
(A) Vitamin A 38. Which of the following vitamins is found in abundance
BIOLOGY

(B) Vitamin C in Golden Rice?

(A) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin D
(B) Vitamin B
(D) Vitamin E
(C) Vitamin A
Ans: C
(D) Vitamin D
Ans: C
33. Which of the following symptoms refers to malnutrition?
(A) Low weight in proportion to height
(B) Thin arms and legs and large belly 39. Which of the following vitamins helps in blood clotting
in humans?
(C) Low weight for age
(A) Vitamin A
(D) All of the above
(B) Vitamin B
Ans: D
(C) Vitamin K
(D) Vitamin D
34. Which of the following is the longest and strongest bone Ans: C
in the human body?
(A) Tibia
(B) Femur 40. Which gland plays a key role in regulating metabolism
and energy production?
(C) Rib
(A) Thymus gland
(D) Humerus
(B) Pineal gland
Ans: B
(C) Thyroid gland
(D) Parathyroid gland
35. How much percent argon gas is found in the atmosphere ? Ans: C
(A) 0.093%
(B) 0.93%
41. Which of the following substances is primarily excreted
(C) 0.39%
by the kidneys in urine?
(D) 1.93% (A) Urea
Ans: B (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Oxygen
36. ABO blood group system was discovered by? (D) Water
(A) Louis Pasteur Ans: A
(B) Theodore Schwann
(C) Karl Landsteiner
42. Which of the following diseases is caused by a bacterial
(D) None of the above infection?
Ans: C (A) Asthma
(B) Tuberculosis (TB)

v
 GENERAL AWARENESS

(C) COVID-19 48. Which part of the central nervous system is primarily
(D) Influenza responsible for coordinating movement and balance?
Ans: B (A) Thalamus
(B) Cerebrum
(C) Medulla
43. Which hormone is responsible for regulating blood sugar
(D) Cerebellum
levels by promoting the uptake of glucose by cells?
(A) Insulin Ans: D
(B) Glucogen
(C) Thyroxine 49. The Study of Angiology is called?
(D) Cortisol (A) Study of blood vessels

BIOLOGY
Ans: A (B) Study of anxiety
(C) Study of blood
(D) Study of X-ray
44. Consider the following statements regarding lungs
1. Lungs are a major respiratory organ. Ans: A
2. It controls body temperature.
Choose the correct answer from the following options: 50. Which of the options provided represents a carbohydrate
(A) Only 1 that does not belong to the category of sugars?
(B) Only 2 (A) Starch
(C) Both 1 and 2 (B) Glucose
(D) None of the above (C) Fructose
Ans: C (D) Sucrose
Ans: A

45. Supersonic jets cause pollution by thinning the?

(A) CO2 layer 51. Which of the following pairs is not matched?
(B) O3 Layer (A) Vitamin A - Retinol
(C) O2 Layer (B) Vitamin B1 - Riboflavin
(D) None of these (C) Vitamin C - Ascorbic Acid
Ans: B (D) Vitamin E - Tocopherol
Ans: B

46. Which of the following is essential for DNA Synthesis

and cell division? 52. Which of the following is not an essential amino acid?
(A) Vitamin B9 (A) Isoleucine
(B) Vitamin B2 (B) Lucium
(C) Vitamin D (C) Tryptophan
(D) Vitamin B6 (D) Arginine
Ans: A Ans: D

47. Which of the following is not an example of saprophytism? 53. Xanthium is an example of which of the following?
(A) Monotropa (A) light indifferent plants
(B) Neottia (B) short day plants
(C) Rhizopus (C) insolated plants
(D) Santalum (D) shade loving plants
Ans: D Ans: B

w
 GENERAL AWARENESS

54. Who is the current Executive Director of the United (A) 1996
Nations Environment Programme? (B) 1995
(A) Eric Solheim (C) 1997
(B) Ngozi Akonjo Iweala (D) 1998
(C) Inger Anderson Ans: B
(D) Hissain Brahim Taha
Ans: C
60. HUGO (Human Genome Organization) was Established
on?
55. Which gland is commonly referred to as the “biological (A) 1988
clock” of the human body? (B) 1991
BIOLOGY

(A) Pineal gland (C) 1992

(B) Pituitary gland (D) 1993
(C) Thyroid gland Ans: A
(D) Adrenal gland
Ans: A
61. Which of the following is not an effect of malnutrition?
(A) Due to the body not receiving a necessary balanced
56. Choose the correct answer - diet for an extended period, the immunity of children
1. Nutritional anemia - a. Heredity and women decreases, making them more susceptible
2. Thalassemia - b. Iron deficiency service to various diseases.
3. Aplastic anemia - c. In case of prolonged illness (B) Anemia, goiter disease in women, rickets, night
4. Hemophilia - d. When exposed to radiation blindness in children, and even blindness are the side
(A) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4- d effects of malnutrition.
(B) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4- a (C) Malnutrition primarily affects children, beginning
shortly after birth or even before, and intensifying
(C) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4- d
rapidly between 6 months and 3 years of age.
(D) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4- c
(D) Due to malnutrition, human productivity can decrease
Ans: D
by 50-60 percent, potentially causing a reduction in
GDP by 40-50 percent.
57. Which of the following diseases can arise due to deficiency Ans: D
of pyridoxine?
(A) Anaemia
62. Which of the following is one of the most common
(B) Ophthalmic disease
polysaccharides found in plants?
(C) Infertility (A) Chitin
(D) Mental disorders (B) Starch
Ans: D (C) Cellulose
(D) Insulin
58. Which of the following vitamins is essential for proper Ans:C
blood clotting?
(A) Vitamin A
63. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin:
(B) Vitamin C
(A) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin D
(B) Vitamin D
(D) Vitamin K
(C) Vitamin C
Ans: D
(D) Vitamin E
Ans: C
59. The Mid-Day Meal Program was Launched in which of
the following Year?

x
 GENERAL AWARENESS

64. In which of the following syndromes the thymus gland 70. Bones are made up of which among the following
does not develop congenitally? minerals?
(A) Apert syndrome (A) Calcium and phosphorus
(B) Cri-du-chat syndrome (B) Sodium and potassium
(C) DiGeorge syndrome (C) Calcium and phosphorus
(D) Philadelphia syndrome (D) Sodium and calcium
Ans: C Ans: A

65. Which of the following is not a Types of cancer? 71. Which compound from the options is categorized as a
(A) Carcinoma polyhydroxy ketone?
(A) Fats

BIOLOGY
(B) TypeSarcoma
(C) Lymphoma (B) Protein
(D) Glaucoma (C) Carbohydrates
Ans: D (D) All of the above
Ans: C

66. A person suffering from which syndrome has a beaked

nose? 72. Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan was launched
(A) Apert syndrome in which year?
(B) Angelman syndrome (A) 2016
(C) Philadelphia syndrome (B) 2013
(D) Cri-du-chat syndrome (C) 2014
Ans: A (D) 2015
Ans: A

67. Choose the wrong statement ?

(A) White blood cells - Leukocyte 73. Which of the following salts is found in a maximum
(B) Platelets - Lymphocytes amount in human bones?
(A) Magnesium chloride
(C) Red blood cells - Erythrocyte
(B) Calcium carbonate
(D) Fibrinogen - Enzyme
(C) Calcium phosphate
Ans: B
(D) Sodium chloride
Ans: C
68. Which of the following is not a type of anemia?
(A) Nutrition plus anemia
(B) Aplastic anemia 74. What is the primary function of platelets in the
bloodstream?
(C) Hemolytic anemia
(A) Oxygen transport
(D) Pernicious anemia
(B) Clotting of blood
Ans: A
(C) Immune response
(D) Nutrient absorption
69. A person of which blood group can be a universal donor? Ans: B
(A) O
(B) A
75. Which of the following bones is not a part of the pelvic
(C) B
girdle?
(D) AB (A) Ileum
Ans: A (B) Tribrium
(C) Ischium

y
 GENERAL AWARENESS

(D) Pubis 80. What does CRISPR stand for?

Ans: B (A) Clustered Regularly Interspaced Palindromic Repeats
(B) Clustered Regulatory Interfering Spacer Repeats
(C) Clustered regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic
76. Where is Salim Ali National Park located?
Repeats
(A) Rajasthan
(D) Clustered Regularly Interposed Spacer Repeat
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans: C
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: B 81. A person suffering from which of the following syndromes
has angry and criminal tendencies?
BIOLOGY

(A) XYY syndrome

77. Which of the following is not considered a major
(B) Turner syndrome
symptom of malnutrition according to the World Health
Organization? (C) Jacob syndrome
(A) Stunting (D) Wolf syndrome
(B) Wasting Ans: A
(C) Underweight
(D) Mentally retarded 82. Which of the following statements about the Pancreas is
Ans: D Incorrect?
1. The pancreas is a large cream-colored gland found
directly below the stomach.
78. Choose the correct statement -
2. Pancreatic juice operates on carbs and proteins,
1. The right side of the heart pumps deoxygenated blood
converting them into simpler molecules.
to the lungs for oxygen, while the left side pumps
3. The partially digested meal now moves to the lower
oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.
region of the small intestine, where intestinal juice
2. The left ventricle contracts, pumping deoxygenated
[succus entericus] completes the digestion of all
blood through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary
dietary components.
artery.
Option:-
3. The left side of the heart pumps deoxygenated blood
(A) One
to the lungs for oxygen, while the right side pumps
oxygenated blood to the rest of the body. (B) Two
4. The right ventricle contracts, pumping deoxygenated (C) Three
blood through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary (D) Four
artery. Ans: D
(A) Option 2 and 4 are correct.
(B) Option 1 and 3 are correct. 83. Dextrocardia is?
(C) Option 1 and 4 are correct. (A) Abnormal working of the heart
(D) Option 2 and 3 are correct. (B) The heart is located in the right side
Ans: C (C) Unusual enlargement of the heart
(D) Accumulation of water in the heart
79. The test done to detect congestion in blood vessels is -? Ans: D
(A) Angioplasty
(B) Angiogram 84. Which of the following glands is often referred to as
(C) Angioma the “master gland” because it regulates other endocrine
(D) Angiography glands?
Ans: D (A) Thyroid gland
(B) Adrenal gland

z
 GENERAL AWARENESS

(C) Pituitary gland 91. 2. It is related to distortion in the shape of red blood cells.
(D) Pancreas Which of the following statements given above is/ are
Ans: C correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
85. Which organ regulates the flow of food into the stomach?
(C) Both 1 and 2
(A) Pyloric sphincter
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(B) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
Ans: C
(C) Sphincter of Oddi
(D) Sphincter of Boyden
Ans: B 92. Which of the following is correctly matched?

BIOLOGY
1. Study of bones - a. Angiology
2. Study of blood - b. Osteology
86. Usually What amount of hemoglobin is found in people
of hilly areas? 3. Study of blood vessels - c. Hematology
(A) 14-16 grams/100 ml. blood 4. Study of heart - d. Cardiology
(B) 16-18 grams/100 ml. blood (A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a 4-b
(C) 18-20grams/100 ml. blood (B) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(D) 20-22 grams/100 ml. blood (C) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
Ans: C (D) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
Ans: D

87. Which of the following is NOT a type of underground

stem? 93. Who is regarded as a father of ECG?
(A) Rhizome (A) Willem Einthoven
(B) Tuber (B) Edward Jenner
(C) Stolon (C) Antonio de Ulloa and Charles Wood
(D) Taproot (D) Karl Benz
Ans: D Ans: A

88. Who coined the term ‘Ecological Niche’? 94. Choose the correct statement -
(A) Joseph Grinnell 1. Cartilage is avascular, meaning it lacks blood vessels.
(B) Michael Green 2. Cartilage acts as a flexible connective tissue, which
(C) Michael Fleming cushions and supports joints.
(D) None of these 3. Cartilage’s ability to heal is unlimited due to the lack of
Ans: A direct blood supply.
(A) Options 1 and 2 are correct.
(B) Options 2 and 3 are correct.
89. Who among the following discovered protein?
(C) Option 1 and 1=3 are correct.
(A) Jones Mulder
(D) Options 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(B) Johns berzelius
Ans: A
(C) Henry Frank
(D) David Johnson
Ans: A 95. Which part of the body is mainly affected by polio
infection?
(A) Nervous system
90. Consider the following statements regarding sickle cell
(B) Digestive system
anaemia:
(C) Respiratory system
1. It is a genetic disease.

aa
 GENERAL AWARENESS

(D) Cardiovascular system (D) 2025

Ans: A Ans: D

96. Mission Indradhanush was launched in which year? 99. Which of the following is not a mode of nutrition in living
(A) 2016 organisms?
(B) 2013 (A) Autotrophic nutrition
(C) 2014 (B) Heterotrophic nutrition
(D) 2015 (C) Saprotrophic nutrition
Ans: C (D) Inorganic nutrition
Ans: D
BIOLOGY

97. Blood circulation was discovered by?

(A) Robert Hooke 100. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(B) William Harvey 1. Study of heart - Cardiology
(C) Louis Pasteur 2. study of blood - Hematology
(D) Theodore Schwann 3. Study of blood vessels - Angiology
Ans: B 4. No blood clot - Hemophilia
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
98. According to WHO, India will become the diabetes WHO
capital of the world by? (C) 2, 3 and 4
(A) 2020 (D) All of the above
(B) 2023 Ans: D
(C) 2024

ab