Excellent Coaching By Experienced Teachers
Class: Pre-Entrance 2025-26 Test No: 2nd Date: 25-05-2025
“Biology”
1. Proteins are Macromolecules formed of units known as amino acids. The amino acids in which
The variable group (R) is represented by an CH3 is____________
a) Glycine b) Serine c) Phenylalanine d) Alanine
2. Which of the following group is attached to the polymer which is present in the exoskeleton of
Arthropods?
a) NH2 b) sulphur c) calcium d) COOH
3. Phosphodiester linkage is formed between____________
a) Two Nucleo bases
b) 1 sugar and two phosphate
c) Two phosphates
d) Two sugar and one phosphate
4. Steroid is formed by back bone of four fused carbon rings containing
a) 14 carbon atoms b) 16 carbon atoms
c) 17 carbon atoms d) 18 carbon atoms
5. ____________is the attractive force between a water and container wall
a) Cohesion b) adhesion c) tension d) transpiration
6. Ribose is pentose sugar (5 carbon) that contains
a) Aldehyde group b) ketone group c) ester group d) carboxyl group
7. Those molecules which are present in the body of living organisms are called
a) Inorganic molecules b) organic molecules c) Bio-molecules d) Both A & B
8. Which of the following statements is wrong?
a) Sucrose is disaccharide b) cellulose is a polysaccharide
c) Uracil is pyrimidine d) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid
9. Identify the correct match in the following table
OPTION COLUMN-1 COLUMN-2
a) Triglycerides stearic acid
b) RNA Thymine
c) Lactose polysaccharide
d) Beeswax protein
10. Nucleic acids present in____________
a) Ribosomes b) Mitochondria c) Chloroplast d) Nucleus e) all of these
11. Which of the following fatty acid is liquid at room temperature?
a) Palmitic acid b) stearic acid c) linoleic acid d) ribonucleic acid
12. The alpha helices and beta sheets are the examples of which level of protein organization
a) Primary structure b) secondary structure c) tertiary structure d) Quaternary structure
13. ATP is____________
a) Adenosine D-ribose-three phosphate b) Adenosine L-ribose-three phosphate
c) Adenine D-ribose-three phosphate d) Adenine L-ribose-three phosphate
14. A DNA strand is directly involved in the synthesis of following except____________
a) Another DNA b) protein synthesis c) t-RNA d) m-RNA
15. Which of the following is not polynucleotide?
a) m-RNA b) t-RNA c) r-RNA d) DNA e) NAD
16. The diagram shows the base pairing of nitrogenous bases , identify the correct base pair in given
Below table
OPTION Nitrogenous base Nitrogenous base
a) Adenine Guanine
b) Thymine cytosine
c) Adenine uracil
d) Guanine thymine
17. The most abundant compound in the cell is____________
a) Carbon b) water c) oxygen d) hydrogen
18. Identify the following structure in given below diagram
a) Glucose b) Fatty acid c) isoprenoid unit d) Glyceraldehyde
19. Proteins act as____________
a) Enzyme b) receptor c) antibody d) all of these
20. The enantiomer of D-glucose is____________
a) D- galactose b) L- glucose c) both of them d) none of them
21. If water has high latent heat of vaporization, how this property of water could be helpful to plants
And animals
a) With the release of large amount of water vapors, a small amount of heat loss can takes place
b) No cooling effect with the release of even large amount of water vapors
c) It will keep their temperature very high
d) With the release of small amount of water vapors, a great amount of heat loss can takes place
22. Which property of water helps to maintain the integrity of lipid membranes?
a) Specific heat capacity b) cohesion and adhesion
c) Hydrogen bonding d) hydrophobic exclusion
23. The type of lipids which do not contain fatty acids are
a) Phospholipids b) waxes c) steroids d) acylglycerol
24. Which type of Glycosidic bond is present in sucrose?
a) Alpha 1-4 glycosidic bond b) Beta 1-4 glycosidic bond
c) Alpha 1, Beta-2 glycosidic bond d) alpha 1-6 glycosidic bond
25. These small size____________ are volatile in nature and produce special fragrance
a) Steroids b) carotenoids c) prostaglandins d) terpenes
26. Select an example of fibrous protein?
a) Enzymes b) collagen c) Hemoglobin d) hormones
27. The head of phospholipid molecule is polar (hydrophilic) due to
a) Fatty acid b) phosphate and choline
c) Carboxylic acid d) triacylglycerol
28. Cytochromes-phytochromes-rubber-latex etc belong to which type of terpenoids (lipids)
a) Waxes b) carotenoids c) steroids d) prostaglandins
29. They perform function as transport proteins, receptors, antigens of blood groups, this statement is
Correct for which conjugated molecule
a) Glycoproteins b) Glycolipids c) lipoprotein d) nucleoprotein
30. We use aspirin to reduce fever and decrease pain depend on the inhibition of____________ synthesis
a) Steroids b) carotenoids c) prostaglandins d) terpenes
31. Which substance contain carbon-hydrogen-oxygen and nitrogen?
a) Collagen b) amylopectin c) DNA d) all of these e) only A & C
32. Which of the following is reducing sugar?
a) Maltose b) lactose c) Glucose d) fructose e) all of these
33. Which of the following are ketohexose sugars (monosaccharides)?
a) Fructose b) sorbose c) psicose d) mannose e) all A- B & C
34. When two amino acids are linked to form peptide linkage____________ is removed
a) Hydroxyl b) water c) carbon d) nitrogen
35. Estrogen, vitamin-D and cholesterol are all the examples of
a) Glycolipids b) lipoproteins c) terpenes d) steroids
36. Which of the following present in prokaryotic cells?
a) chloroplast- DNA – nuclear envelope
b) chromosomes-mitochondria-nuclear envelope
c) cytoplasm-DNA-mitochondria
d) cytoplasm-DNA-ribosomes
37. Which of the following is present in all eukaryotic cells?
a) Cell wall b) diploid nucleus c) flagellum d) membrane bound organelles
38. Which of the following structure is present in all living organisms?
a) Cell membrane b) nucleus c) lysosome d) mitochondria
39. Select the organelle which is only present in animal cells
a) Lysosomes b) microtubules c) RER d) ribosomes
40. Lipid bilayer makes the membrane differentially permeable barrier that allows the transport of----
a) Ionic materials b) polar materials c) non-polar materials d) glycoproteins
41. The diagram shows a typical animal cell, which labelled structure is involved in the synthesis of
Glycoprotein?
a) Label -1 b) Label-2 c) Label-3 d) Label-4
42. Which of the following represent prokaryotic cell?
a) Blue green algae b) Bacteria c) Archea d) all of these
43. Which of the following cell organelle is enclosed by a single membrane?
a) Mitochondria b) chloroplast c) lysosomes d) nuclei
44. Channels of endoplasmic reticulum are separated from one another by spherical or tubular
Membranes one above another called
a) Vesicle b) crista c) cisternae d) sac
45. circulation-synthesis-detoxification-mechanical support and communication by____________
a) Peroxisomes b) endoplasmic reticulum c) nucleus d) cytoplasm
46. Mitochondria are also called____________
a) Power house of the cell b) power room of the cell
c) Power car of the cell d) Generator of the cell
47. Mitochondria supply most of the necessary biological energy by____________
a) breakdown of sugar b) oxidizing substrates of TCA cycle
c) Reducing NADP d) Breakdown of protein
48. Nuclear envelop is derivative of____________
a) Membrane of Golgi complex b) microtubules
c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
49. Which of the following is the site of lipid synthesis?
a) RER b) SER c) Golgi complex d) ribosome
50. The function of nucleolus is the synthesis of____________
a) DNA b) m-RNA c) t-RNA d) r-RNA and ribosomes
51. The nucleus is separated from surrounding cytoplasm by a nuclear membrane, which is
a) Single layered with pores b) single layered without pores
c) Double layered with pores d) double layered without pores
52. Select one which is not true for ribosome
a) Made of two sub units b) form polysome
c) May attach with mRNA d) have no role in protein synthesis
53. Which of the following is not the function of lysosomes?
a) Phagocytosis b) endocytosis c) autophagy d) degeneration of cell
54. Select the mis-match
a) Large central vacuoles__________ animal cells
b) Protists________Eukaryotes
c) Methanogens_______ prokaryotes
d) Ribosomes_________ non-membrane bound
55. The two polynucleotides strands are wound round each other. How many base pairs are
There in each turn
a) 5 base pair b) 15 base pairs c) 10 base pairs d) 20 base pairs
56. A person’s diet contains more protein than is needed for growth and repair. This cause increased
Production of____________
a) Carbon dioxide b) hormones c) lactic acid d) urea
57. Which one of the following reactions result in the conversion of amino acids to proteins?
a) Condensation b) deamination c) hydrolysis d) phosphorylation
58. Cell wall of cells are held together by___________
a) Middle lamella b) Primary wall c) Secondary wall d) Tertiary wall
59. Which of the following is not the property of water?
a) Cohesion b) dipolar molecule
c) Main source of energy d) temperature regulation
60. Which type of RNA is most abundant in the cells?
a) mRNA b) tRNA c) rRNA d) all of these
61. Which of the following has peptidoglycan cell wall?
a) Yeast b) Salmonella typhi c) Chlamydomonas d) onion cell
62. Inner concave surface of Golgi complex is called____________
a) Ending b) forming c) starting d) Maturing
63. Mitochondria move about freely in cytoplasm because
a) They are small in size b) they are ionic in nature
c) Cytoplasmic streaming movement occurs d) all of the above
64. Based on position of centromere, the chromosomes are classified into how many types?
a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 4
65. Which type of plastid plays role in pollination and dispersal of seeds in plants
a) Chloroplast b) amyloplast c) proteioplast d) chromoplast
66. Which of the following cell organelles evolved through endosymbiosis?
a) Mitochondria b) golgi bodies c) chloroplast d) Both A & C
67. What kind of ribosome present in mitochondria?
a) 70 S b) 80 S c) 40 S d) 60 S
68. Number of chromosomes in Drosophila melanogaster is____________
a) 6 b) 8 c) 2 d) 10
Chemistry
69. The average kinetic energy of the gas molecules is
a) Inversely proportional to its absolute temperature
b) Directly proportional to its absolute temperature
c) Equal to the square of its absolute temperature
d) Directly proportional to number of molecules in gas
70. Real gases behave like ideal gases at__________
a) Low temperature and high pressure b) Low temperature and low pressure
c) High temperature and high pressure d) High temperature and low pressure
71. Partial charge is
a) Double than unit electric charge b) less than unit electric charge
c) Equal to unit electric charge d) Quadruple of unit electric charge
72. Dipole induced dipole force is present in
a) HF and Xe b) H2O and C2H5OH
c) Br2 and CBr4 d) CH3OH and C2H5OH
73. Calculate the concentration of a gas at 300 K and 1.5 atm,
a) 2.61 mol/dm3 b) 1.061 mol/Ldm3
3
c) 0.061 mol/ dm d) 3.8 mol/ dm3
74. All the statements are correct for gases except
a) Gases do not have definite shape and volume
b) Volume of the gas in container is equal to the volume of the container
c) The gas exerts uniform pressure on the wall of the container in all directions
d) Mass of the gas is equal to mass of container in which it gas is contained.
75. The volume of 2.8 g of carbon monoxide at 27°C and 0.0821 atm is
a) 30 L b) 3 L c) 0.3 L d) 1.5 L
76. The Falling drop of water is spherical due to:
a) Hydrogen Bonding b) Surface Tension c) Capillary Action d) Viscosity
77. At absolute zero, a substance exists in ----------state
a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) Plasma
78. The process of sublimation occurs when
a) Ice melts into water b) Water evaporates into steam
c) Dry ice turns into carbon dioxide gas d) Liquid nitrogen boils into nitrogen gas
79. The purity of acetic acid can be checked by
a) Dehydration with H2SO4 b) Combustion reaction
c) Measuring its boiling point d) Reaction with ethanol
80. The momentary attractions between the molecules of a liquid caused by instantaneous dipole and
induced-dipole attractions are called
a) ion–dipole forces b) dipole- dipole forces c) Protonic Bridge d) London forces
81. Quartz is_________ solid
a) Ionic b) Molecular c) Covalent d) Metallic
82. Sublime substances is / are.
a) Iodine b) ammonium chloride c) camphor d) all of these
83. Isomorphism is found in
a) Diamond and graphite b) NaCl and CsCl
c) Na2SO4 and Na2SeO4 d) C6H6 and C6H5Cl
84. The S.I. unit of Surface Tension is
a) Dyne/meter b) Newton-meter c) Newton/meter d) Dyne-meter
85. Viscosity is a measure of a substance’s ability to resist change in
a) Its surface area b) Its compressibility c) Its color d) Its flow.
86. All the statements about vapor pressure are correct except
a) The stronger intermolecular forces lower the vapor pressure.
b) Vapor pressure increases with increasing temperature.
c) Seawater has higher vapor pressure than pure water.
d) Boiling occurs when the vapor pressure equals the external pressure.
87. The boiling point of water decreases as we go to high altitudes because of:
a) Low Atmospheric pressure b) Low Temperature
c) High atmospheric pressure d) Lighter gases
88. The Compound X consists of molecules only, it has likely
a) Low melting point and high boiling point. b) High melting point and low boiling point.
c) Low melting point and low boiling point. d) High melting point and high boiling point.
89. The compressibility factor of ideal gas is
a) Z=1 b) -2 c) Z < 1 d) Z > 1
90. Which gas has value of nearly equal to Z=1 at low pressure
a) H2 b) He c) N2 d) all of these
91. The particles have the highest energy in__________ state
a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) Plasma
92. The density of CO2 gas at 2 atm pressure and a temperature of 25 is
a) 3.5960 g/L b) 0.980 g/L c) 1.39 g/L d) 16.6 g/L
93. The constant R is
a) Work done per molecule b) Work done per degree absolute temperature
c) Work done per degree per mole d) Work done per mole
94. The vapor pressure is not affected by
a) Temperature b) Nature of the liquid
c) Surface area of the liquid d) Concentration of non-volatile solutes
95. The vapor pressure of a solution containing a non-volatile solute is:
a) Directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solute
b) Directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent
c) Inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solute
d) Inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent
96. Which liquid would have the highest vapor pressure at a given temperature?
a) Water b) Ethanol c) Ether d) Gasoline e) Methanol
97. Adding a non-volatile solute to a solvent causes:
a) Increase in boiling point and vapor pressure
b) Decrease in boiling point and vapor pressure
c) Increase in boiling point and decrease in vapor pressure
d) Decrease in boiling point and an increase in vapor pressure
98. The term "lattice point” is used for
a) A specific type of atom.
b) A point in space where an atom or molecule is located
c) A chemical bond between two atoms.
d) A specific type of crystal structure.
99. The highest lattice energy is expected for
a) NaCl b) KCl c) MgO d) CaO
100. The vapour pressure of water at 200K is 2 atmosphere, if size of container is increased to double, its
new pressure at 200K will be
a) 2 atm b) 4 atm c) 1 atm d) 6 atm
101. Crystals can be classified into______ basic crystal habits
a) 3 b) 7 c) 14 d) 4
102. A container has an initial volume of 7.0 L and contains 0.8 moles of gas. If 0.30 moles of gas are added,
the new volume will be
a) 0.0076 liters b) 9.625 L c) 7.7 liters d) 6.9 liters
103. Solids have all properties except
a) Intermolecular distances are short. b) Intermolecular forces are weak.
c) Constituent particles have fixed positions. d) Solids oscillate about their mean positions.
104. Solid butane is
a) Ionic solid b) Covalent solid c) Molecular solid d) Metallic solid
105. Which of the following is a network solid?
a) dry ice b) Camphor c) Diamond d) Napthalene
106. The value of lattice energy is affected by
a) Size of ions only b) Charge of ions only
c) Mass of ions d) Size and charge of ions
107. An ideal gas occupies 5 L at 298 K and 1 atm pressure. If the temperature is increased to 328 K s the
new volume of gas will be
a) 3.5 L b) 4.0 L c) 5.5 L d) 7.0 L
108. Water in glass forms concave meniscus because.
a) Water has stronger cohesive force with glass b) Water has stronger adhesive force with glass
c) Water has hydrogen bond d) Water is polar liquid
109. Surface tension of liquid is independent of the
a) Nature of the liquid b) Impurities present in the liquid
c) Temperature of the liquid d) Area of the liquid surface
110. Water has bond angle 104.5 bcause of
a) Hydrogen bond b) lone pair –lone pair repulsion
c) Lone pair –bond pair repulsion d) Sp3 hybridised oxygen atom
111. In ice crystal, the H2O molecules are held together in a ___________
a) Planar trigonal structure b) linear structure
c) Tetrahedral three dimensional structure d) bent structure
112. The water has maximum density of at
a) 273 K b) 277 K c) 29 8 K d) 285 K
113. The property which changes with change in direction of crystalline substance is called
a) Isotropy b) Isomorphism c) Anisotropy d) Allotropy
114. The properties which will increase on raising the temperature are
a) Diffusion, evaporation, compression of gases
b) Evaporation, freezing, solubility of gases in liquids
c) Evaporation, diffusion, expansion of gases
d) Deposition, solubility of gases in liquids, effusion in solids
115. All the following statements are correct except
a) Low boiling liquids evaporate faster than high boiling liquids.
b) Evaporation is cooling process
c) The normal boiling point occurs at 273K
d) Vaporization is a surface phenomenon
116. The liquid which has the highest rate of evaporation is:
a) Petrol b) Nail- polish remover c) Water d) Alcohol
117. The impurity causes
a) Decreases in boiling point b) Increase in boiling point
c) Increases in Vapour pressure d) Increase in melting point
118. When some one is in hurry, he sips hot tea in a saucer instead of cup, because
a) It tastes better b) It Cools quickly in saucer than cup
c) It is Easy to hold d) It remains hot for long time
119. The condensation is.
a) Endothermic process b) Change of liquid into gas
c) Exothermic process d) Change of gas into solid
120. All have cleavage plane except
a) NaCl crystal b) Ice c) Copper crystal d) graphite
121. The height to which a liquid rises in a capillary tube is affected by all factors except
a) The surface tension of the liquid b) The diameter of the capillary tube
c) The density of the liquid d) Atmospheric pressure
122. Which of the following gases would you expect to effuse the fastest under the same conditions?
a) Carbon dioxide (CO₂) b) Hydrogen (H₂)
c) Nitrogen (N₂) d) Oxygen (O₂)
Physics
123. 80g of water at 30°C is poured on a large block of ice which is at 0°C. The mass of ice that melts is:
(Specific heat of water is = 1 cal/g 0C) (Latent heat for ice = 80 cal/g).
a) 30g b) 80g c) 150g d) 1600g
124. A particle is acted upon by a force in x direction which varies as shown in the graph.
What is the work done on the particle?
a) 12 J b) 6 J
c) 8 J d) 10 J
125. Heat was given to a substance per unit mole, which raises its
temperature by 1°C is known as:
a) Molar specific heat b) Latent heat of vaporization
c) Heat capacity d) Specific heat capacity
126. A body of mass 40 Kg covers a distance of 50 m in the direction of
force in 5s starting from rest under the influence of a force.
What is the work done by the force on the body?
a) 2000 J b) 8000 J c) 20000 J d) 800 J
127. If the rotation is clockwise in this page, suppose, then in which direction will the thumb project if you
curl your hand in the same direction of the rotation?
a) It will point to the direction perpendicular to the plane of the paper and towards you
b) It will point to the direction perpendicular to the plane of the paper and away from you
c) It will point to the direction parallel to the plane of the paper and towards right
d) It will point to the direction parallel to the plane of the paper and towards left
128. 50g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 50g of water at 80°C. What is the final temperature of the mixture?
(Specific heat for water = 1 cal/g 0C) (Latent heat for ice = 80 cal/g).
a) 0°C b) 40°C c) 80°C d) Less than 0°C
129. A quantity of heat required to change the unit mass of substance, from liquid state to gas state, while
the temperature remains constant, is known as:
a) Latent heat b)Specific heat capacity
c) Latent heat of vaporization d) Latent heat of fusion
130. If both force and displacement of particle in the same direction are doubled. Work would be
a) Double b) Half c) 4 times d) ¼ times
131. Boiling water is changing into steam. Under this condition the specific heat of water is:
a) zero b) one c) infinite d) less than one
132. You push a heavy crate down a ramp at a constant velocity. Only four forces act on a crate. Which
force does the greatest magnitude of work on the crate?
a) Force of friction b) Force you pushing c) Normal force d) Force of gravity
133. A solid object (disc) is rotating around its own axis, which of the statement/statements is/are correct?
I) Angular speed of different points of body is same
II) Angular speed of different points of body is different
III) Tangential speed of different points of body is same
IV) Tangential speed of different points of body is different
a) I only b) III only c) II and III only d) I and IV only
134. A particle of mass 200g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 10ms-1, the maxim work done by
force of gravity is. (g=10m/s2)
a) 0.5J b) 5J c) 15J d) 10J
135. If velocity is doubled then:
a) momentum increases 4 times and K.E increases 2 times
b) momentum increases 2 times and K.E remains constant
c) momentum and K.E. remain same
d) momentum increases 2 times and K.E increases 4 times
136. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 20m/s. At what height, will its kinetic energy be
one-fourth of its original value? ( g = 10 m/s2)
a) 15m b) 10m c) 20m d) 5m
137. The gravitational potential energy of an object at infinity distance (height) with respect to the center of
earth is.
a) Maximum b) infinity c) zero d) half
138. A force F = (5i – 3j +2k) N moves a particle from r1 = (2i + 7j + 4k) m to r2 = (5i + 2j + 8k) m.
What is the work done by the force?
a) 18 J b) 28 J c) 38 J d) 48 J
139. Proton, electron, neutron and alpha particles have same momentum. Which of them have lowest K.E?
a) Electron b) neutron c) proton d) alpha
140. At what angle the work done will be negative:
a) 3300 b) 1200 c) 3600 d) 300
141. The work done in a very short interval of time (time nearly equals to zero) is called:
a) Average power b) uniform power c) instantaneous power d) average work
142. An ideal gas is taken around the cycle ABCA as shown in P-V diagram The next work done by the gas
during the cycle is equal to:
a) 10 b) 5
c) 10 d) 5
143. Which of the following is not the unit of energy:
a) Calorie b) electronvolt
c) Kilowatt d) watt.second
144. The dot product of force and velocity is called:
a) Work b) potential energy
c) Momentum d) power
145. The circumference subtends an angle of:
a) 𝜋 radian b) 2𝜋 radian c) 𝜋/2 radian d) 4𝜋 radian
146. An angle subtended at its center by an arc whose length is equal to radius is:
a) 57.3 radian b) 10 c) 0.0174 radian d) 1 radian
147. A force of 10 N creates a displacement of 2 m but the work done on the body throughout its motion is
equal to 70 J. What possibly can be the reason of this?
a) The force is uniform b) The body is at rest
c) There are multiple forces acting on the body d) The displacement is harmonic
148. The energy can neither be created nor it can be destroyed but it can be transferred from one form to
another, total energy of the system (universe) remains constant. This is the statement of:
a) Law of conservation of mass b) Law of conservation of energy
c) Law of conservation of linear momentum d) Law of conservation of angular momentum
149. A body of weight 20 N, mass 2 kg is moving in horizontal circular motion with the help of a string of
radius 1 m and with a velocity of 5 m/s. What is the tension in the string when the body is at right side
of circle.
a) 30 N b) 50 N c) 20 N d) 25 N
150. The difference between and is equal to:
a) Universal gas constant b) Boltzmann constant
c) Avogadro’s number d) specific heat constant
151. Work being a scalar quantity sometimes has negative and positive signs. What does the sign suggest?
a) Relative directions of force and displacement b) The direction of work
c) The direction of force d) The direction of displacement
152. The scape velocity of object from the surface of any planet is independent of:
a) Mass of planet b) radius of planet c) mass of object d) diameter of planet
153. A body of mass 10 kg, is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s in a circle of radius 2 m, what is the centripetal
acceleration of the body?
a) 125m/s2 b) 25m/s2 c) 2.5 m/s2 d) 12.5 m/s2
154. The angular velocity of a stone being rotated is 11 rad/s. What is the angular displacement covered in
0.5s?
a) 5.5 rad b) 0.55 rad c) 55 rad d) 0.5 rad
155. A ball is being rotated in a circle of radius 5 m with a constant tangential velocity of 20 m/s. A stone is
also being rotated in a circle of radius 4 m with a constant tangential velocity of 16 m/s. Which one of
the following choices is true about both the circular motions?
a) Both have same angular velocity b) Both have different angular velocity
c) Angular velocity of ball > angular velocity of stone d) Angular velocity of stone > angular velocity of ball
156. At which position in vertical circular motion is the tension in the string maximum?
a) At the highest position b) At the lowest position
c) When the string is horizontal d) At an angle of 35° from the horizontal
157. A body is moving in a vertical circular motion. Which one of the following forces does it not experience?
a) Force of gravity b) Centripetal force c) Normal reaction force d) Centrifugal force
158. Which of the following is not a conservative force?
a) friction force b) spring force c) gravitational force d) electric force
159. Water falls from a height of 60m at the rate of 15kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to friction
forces are 20% of energy. How much power is generated by the turbine? ( g= 10m/s2 )
a) 7200 Watt b) 9000 Watt c) 10800 Watt d) 8100 Watt
160. Two racing cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circle of radii r1 and r2 respectively. Their speeds
are such that each car makes a complete circle in same time t. The ratio of the angular speed of the first
to the second car is.
a) 1:1 b) r1 : r2 c) m1 : m2 d) m1 m2 : r1 r2
161. On the application of a constant torque, a wheel is turned from rest through 400 radians in 10s. Find
the angular acceleration.
a) 6 rad/s2 b) 4 rad/s2 c) 2 rad/s2 d) 8 rad/s2
162. The direction of angular velocity vector is along.
a) The tangent to the circular path b) The direction of radius
c) The opposite to radius d) The axis of rotation
163. The energy possessed by a body by the virtue of its position is called.
a) Kinetic energy b) Potential energy c) Mechanical energy d) Position energy
164. A system absorbs 10 kJ of heat at constant volume and its temperature rises from 270 to 370 , the
value of is:
a) 1000 kJ b) 100 kJ c) 10 kJ d) 0 kJ
165. A body is moving in a circle of radius (r) with angular velocity (ω). Its acceleration directed towards
center of circle is given as:
a) ω2/r b) ω2/r c) ω2 r d) ω r2
166. Linear acceleration (a) and angular acceleration (α) of particle moving along center of circle of radius
r, are related as:
a) a = α x r b) a = r x α c) α= a x r d) α = r x a
167. A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m.
a) Its potential energy decreases and kinetic energy increases during the fall
b) Its potential energy is equal to the kinetic energy during the fall
c) The potential energy increases and the kinetic energy decreases during the fall
d) The potential energy is zero and kinetic energy is maximum while it is falling
168. A person is holding a bucket by applying a force of 10N. He moves a horizontal distance of 5m and then
climbs up a vertical distance of 15m. Find the total work done by him?
a) 50J b) 150J c) 100J d) 200J
169. A body executing uniform circular motion has at any instant is velocity vector and acceleration vector.
a) Along the same direction b) In opposite direction
c) Perpendicular to each other d) Not related to each other
170. A machine has a power of 5kW. How long will it take for it to lift a body of mass 10kg from the ground
to a height of 100m? (Assume g = 10m/s2)
a) 1 second b) 2 seconds c) 3 seconds d) 4 seconds
171. In which of the following process total heat supplied to the system is converted into work done?
a) Isochoric b) Isobaric c) Isothermal d) Adiabatic
172. A body is moving in uniform circular motion, which of the following is false statement?
a) Acceleration vector leads tangential velocity at
b) Tangential velocity leads position vector (radius) at
c) Acceleration vector lags tangential velocity at
d) Position vector lags tangential velocity at
173. For a body moving in a circular path, the work done by the centripetal force is.
a) Negative b) Positive c) Zero d) Constant
174. The system through which energy can be transferred but mass cannot transferred is called:
a) Open system b) closed system c) isolated system d) glass of water
175. A body is moving along circular path in clockwise direction with decreasing angular velocity. The
direction of angular acceleration of body is:
a) Towards the center of circle b) away from the center of circle
c) Tangent to the center of circle d) antiparallel to tangential velocity
176. An object moves in a circle. If the mass is 0ne-fourth, the speed is tripled and radius is unchanged, then
the magnitude of the centripetal force must be multiplied by a factor of:
a) 3/2 b) 3/4 c) 9/4 d) 6
English
177. There is nothing interesting which I can tell you about my travels.
a) Nothing b) which c) you d) my e) No error
178. Find the correct statement.
a) We dislike their interfering into our friendship.
b) We dislike them interfering into our friendship.
c) We dislike they interfering into our friendship.
d) We dislike theirs interfering into our friendship.
179. That diary of ______, I think, contains all of the project details.
a) You b) your c) yours d) your’s e) No error
180. My argument was good, but her is better.
a) My b) good c) her d) No error
181. Find the correct statement.
a) Neha and you must enjoy themselves at the party.
b) You and Neha must enjoy themselves at the party.
c) Neha and you must enjoy yourselves at the party.
d) You and Neha must enjoy yourselves at the party.
182. It’s a good idea for you and I to meet soon.
a) It’s b) you c) I d) meet e) No error
183. You and Arshad must finish __________homework on time.
a) Their b) your c) his d) our
184. Find the correct statement.
a) There is an agreement between he and I.
b) There is an agreement it is between him and me.
c) There is an agreement him and me.
d) There is an agreement between him and I.
185. His feet are so big that he can’t find shoes to fit him.
a) His b) that c) he d) him e) No error
186. Find the correct statement.
a) Who breaks these rules will be eliminated?
b) Who break these rules will be eliminated?
c) Whoever breaks these rules will be eliminated?
d) Whoever break these rules will be eliminated?
187. Great is he who belonged to the history in his own life-time.
a) He b) who c) his d) own e) No error
188. Find the correct statement.
a) One must be honest if he wants his definitive achievement.
b) One must be honest if one wants their definitive achievement.
c) One must be honest if one wants one’s definitive achievement.
d) One must be honest if he wants his or her definitive achievement.
189. He later avenged _____ on his brother’s murderer.
a) Him b) himself c) his d) NOT
190. Find the correct statement.
a) You, he and I am going to that place tomorrow.
b) I, he and you are going to that place tomorrow.
c) You, he, and I are going to that place tomorrow.
d) I, you and he are going to that place tomorrow.
191. This is the girl whom love for him is immeasurable.
a) This b) whom c) him d) No error
192. ________, do you think, has stolen my phone?
a) Who b) whom c) which d) NOT
193. Find the correct statement.
a) Everything comes to he who waits.
b) Everything come to him who waits.
c) Everything comes to him who wait.
d) Everything comes to him who waits.
194. There is one assignment missing. _____ hasn’t been submitted?
a) Who b) whom c) whose d) NOT
Read the given passage and answer the question from 195 to 198.
Passage
Many people believe that success is the result of luck. However, if we look closely at successful individuals,
we often find a pattern of hard work, discipline, and perseverance. Take the example of Thomas Edison, who
failed thousands of times before inventing the light bulb. He once said, “I have not failed. I've just found
10,000 ways that won't work.” His words remind us that failure is not the opposite of success but a part of the
journey. Therefore, rather than relying on luck, we should focus on consistent effort and a positive attitude.
195. What is the main idea of the passage?
a) Luck is the key to success.
b) Failure should be avoided.
c) Hard work and perseverance lead to success.
d) Thomas Edison invented electricity.
196. According to the passage, how should we treat failure?
a) As a sign to give up.
b) As a necessary part of success.
c) As something shameful.
d) As an unusual event.
197. What does the author suggest is more important than luck?
a) Wealth
b) Talent
c) Consistent effort
d) Popularity
198. What is the meaning of the word "perseverance" as used in the passage?
a) Giving up easily
b) Continuous effort despite difficulties
c) Being lucky all the time
d) Acting without thinking
199. Choose the odd figure.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5
200. Choose the figure that completes the pattern.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Excellent Coaching By Experienced Teachers
Pre-Entrance 2025-26 Test No: 2nd Date: 25-05-2025
“Answer Key”
Q.# Ans: Q.# Ans: Q.# Ans: Q.# Ans: Q.# Ans: Q.# Ans: Q.# Ans: Q.# Ans:
01 D 26 B 51 C 76 B 101 B 126 B 151 A 176 C
02 A 27 B 52 D 77 A 102 B 127 B 152 C 177 B
03 D 28 B 53 GRACE 78 C 103 B 128 A 153 D 178 A
04 C 29 A 54 A 79 C 104 C 129 C 154 A 179 C
05 B 30 C 55 C 80 D 105 C 130 C 155 A 180 C
06 A 31 E 56 D 81 C 106 D 131 C 156 B 181 D
07 C 32 E 57 A 82 D 107 C 132 A 157 C 182 C
08 D 33 E 58 A 83 C 108 B 133 D 158 A 183 B
09 A 34 B 59 C 84 C 109 D 134 D 159 A 184 B
10 E 35 D 60 C 85 D 110 B 135 D 160 A 185 E
11 C 36 D 61 B 86 C 111 C 136 A 161 D 186 C
12 B 37 D 62 D 87 A 112 B 137 C 162 D 187 E
13 C 38 A 63 C 88 C 113 C 138 C 163 B 188 C
14 B 39 A 64 D 89 A 114 C 139 D 164 C 189 B
15 E 40 C 65 D 90 D 115 GRACE 140 B 165 C 190 C
16 C 41 B 66 D 91 D 116 B 141 C 166 A 191 B
17 B 42 D 67 A 92 A 117 B 142 B 167 A 192 A
18 C 43 C 68 B 93 C 118 B 143 C 168 B 193 D
19 D 44 C 69 B 94 C 119 C 144 D 169 C 194 C
20 B 45 B 70 D 95 B 120 C 145 B 170 B 195 C
21 D 46 A 71 B 96 C 121 D 146 D 171 C 196 B
22 D 47 B 72 A 97 C 122 B 147 C 172 C 197 C
23 C 48 C 73 C 98 B 123 A 148 B 173 C 198 B
24 C 49 B 74 D 99 C 124 D 149 B 174 B 199 C
25 D 50 D 75 A 100 A 125 A 150 A 175 B 200 A