Science 10 Final Exam Preparation

Chemistry
Section I. Multiple Choice

1. The WHMIS symbols at right are displayed on a

can of solvent. They indicate that the solvent is
a) flammable and toxic
b) flammable and corrosive
c) dangerously reactive and toxic
d) dangerously reactive and corrosive

2. Food preservation techniques cause physical and chemical changes. Which of

the following methods is based on a chemical change?
a) salting
b) canning
c) freezing
d) fermentation

3. Copper has many practical advantages over gold because copper is

a) purer than gold
b) softer than gold
c) anneals better than gold
d) holds an edge better than gold

4. John Dalton proposed four ideas in his model of the atom. Which of the following is not
part of his model?
a) all matter is made of small indivisible particles
b) atoms of different elements have different properties
c) atoms are never created or destroyed during a chemical reaction
d) all the atoms of an element are identical in properties such as size and mass

5. A certain chemical family is composed of elements that are soft, shiny, very reactive with water, and form ions
with a charge of 1+. This family could be
a) the halogens
b) the noble gases
c) the alkali metals
d) the alkaline-earth metals

6. Which column in the periodic table contains elements with one electron in their valence
energy level?
a) first on the left
b) first on the right
c) second from the left
d) second from the right

7. Which two particles are approximately equal in mass?

a) proton and neutron
b) proton and electron
c) neutron and electron
d) none of these
 8. The magnesium ion, Mg+2, has
a) 10 electrons and 10 protons
b) 10 electrons and 12 protons
c) 12 electrons and 10 protons
d) 12 electrons and 12 protons

9. An atom of fluorine has 9 protons, 10 neutrons, and 9 electrons. Its mass number is
a) 9
b) 10
c) 18
d) 19

10. What is the formula for sodium carbonate?

a) S2CO3(s)
b) NaCO(s)
c) Na2CO3(s)
d) Na3CO3(s)

11. What is the formula for aluminium hydroxide?

a) AlOH3(s)
b) Al3OH(s)
c) Al(OH)3(s)
d) Al(III) OH(s)

12. Which of the following is an ionic compound?

a) HCl(g)
b) KCl(s)
c) ClO3(g)
d) NCl3(g)

13. Which of the following properties are characteristic of an ionic compound?

I It is malleable.
II It is solid at room temperature.
III Its solution conducts electricity.

a) I and II only
b) I and III only
c) II and III only
d) I, II, and III

14. Which of the following are very soluble?

I Na2S
II CuBr
III Sr(OH)2

a) I and II only
b) I and III only
c) II and III only
d) I, II, and III
15. Which of the following is a general property of bases?
a) taste sour
b) turn litmus red
c) conduct electricity
d) react with Mg to produce hydrogen bubbles

16. Which of the following is an acid?

a) CH4(g)
b) K3PO4(aq)
c) H3PO4(aq)
d) NaOH(aq)

17. Consider the following reaction:

____ NaOH(aq) + ____ Al(NO3)3(aq) → ____ Al(OH)3(s) + ____ NaNO3(aq)
The coefficient for Al(NO3)3 when the above equation is balanced is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

18. The following reaction takes place when gasoline reacts with air:
2 C6H14(l) + 19 O2(g) Æ 12 CO2(g) + 14 H2O(g) + energy
This reaction is
a) an exothermic single replacement reaction
b) an endothermic single replacement reaction
c) an exothermic hydrocarbon combustion reaction
d) an endothermic hydrocarbon combustion reaction

19. The molar mass of chlorine gas is:

a) 35.45 g/mol
b) 70.90 g/mol
c) 141.8 g/mol
d) 283.6 g/mol

20. What is the mass of 3.00 mol of calcium?

a) 3.00 g
b) 9.00 g
c) 40.1 g
d) 120 g

Section II. Numerical Response

21. What is the mass of 1.00 mole of H2O(l)? (1 mark)

22. What is the mass of 4.00 moles of Fe? (2 marks)

23. How many moles of carbon dioxide are in 440.1 g of CO2(g)? (2 marks)

Section III. Skills

Name or give the formula for each compound in questions 24 to 33. (1 mark each)

24. CaBr2(s)
25. Au3PO4(s)

26. N2O4(g)

27. NH3(s)

28. H2SO4(aq)
29. lead(IV) sulfide

30. methane

31. sulfur trioxide

32. hydrochloric acid

33. iron(II) nitride

34. Consider the following chemical equation:

CaCl2(aq) + Na2CO3(aq) Æ 2 NaCl(aq) + CaCO3(s)
Write a brief procedure that uses aqueous solutions of calcium chloride and sodium carbonate to illustrate the law
of conservation of mass. The assessment will be:
- 2 marks for safety considerations specific to this particular experiment,
- 2 marks for simple directions on how to do the experiment, and
- 2 marks for explaining how to interpret the results of the experiment in relation to the law of conservation of
mass
The amount of space provided below represents that maximum length of the response that should be needed.
Point form response is acceptable.
Section IV. Written Response

Balance the equations in questions 35, 36, and 37. (1 mark each)

35. _____ Na(s) + _____ O2(g) Æ _____ Na2O(s)

36. ______ C8H16(l) + ______ O2(g) Æ ______ CO2(g) + ______ H2O(g)

37. ______ NH3(g) + _____ O2(g) Æ ______ NO(g) + _____ H2O(l)

Predict the formulas of the products for each reaction below and WRITE them in the spaces provided, but do NOT
balance the equations. Also, state the FULL name of the reaction type for each reaction. (2 marks each)

Products Reaction Type

38. Na(s) + Br2(l) Æ

39. CH4(g) + O2(g) Æ

40. Al(s) + CuCl2(aq) Æ

41. NaI(aq) + Pb(NO3)2(aq) Æ

Write balanced formula equations for the reactions in questions 42 and 43.
42. Aqueous ammonium sulfide and aqueous lead(II) nitrate are mixed together. They react to yield aqueous
ammonium nitrate and solid lead(II) sulfide. (2 marks)

43. Copper metal is placed in a solution of silver nitrate. This produces aqueous copper(II) nitrate and silver metal. (2
marks)

44. The element nitrogen has two common isotopes: nitrogen-14 and nitrogen-16.
a) State how these two types of atoms are similar. (1 mark)

b) State how these two types of atoms are different. (1 mark)

 Physics
Multiple Choice

Use the following information to answer questions 1 and 2:

A nervous papa bear is expecting the birth of his first baby cub. He paces 10 m north in 5.0 s,
then 16 m south in 5.0 s, and then 14 m north in 4.0 s.

1. The average speed of the bear is:

a) 0.57 m/s
b) 1.1 m/s
c) 2.9 m/s
d) 4.0 m/s

2. The average velocity of the bear is:

a) 0.57 m/s [N]

b) 1.1 m/s [N]
c) 2.9 m/s [N]
d) 4.0 m/s [N]

3. Another nervous papa bear paces at 1.0 m/s north for 3.0 s, then at 1.6 m/s south for 5.0 s, and then at 1.4 m/s north
for 4.0 s. The average speed of this bear is:

a) 1.3 m/s
b) 1.4 m/s
c) 4.0 m/s
d) 8.0 m/s

4. Which one of the following is true?

a) The units for acceleration are m2/s2.

b) Acceleration is a change in speed over time.
c) The slope of a speed-time graph gives the velocity.
d) A positive slope on a distance-time graph means that the object is accelerating.

Use the following information to answer questions 5 and 6.

A car changes its velocity from 8.00 m/s [E] to 4.00 m/s [E] in 2.10 s.

5. The acceleration of the car is:

a) –1.90 m/s2 [E]

b) 1.90 m/s2 [E]
c) –5.71 m/s2 [E]
d) 5.71 m/s2 [E]

6. The acceleration of the car in the example above is:

a) positive because it is speeding up in a positive direction

b) negative because it is slowing down in a positive direction.
c) positive because it is slowing down in a negative direction.
d) negative because it is speeding up in a negative direction.
 7. The unit of work described in fundamental units is:

a) kg·m/s
b) kg·m/s2
c) kg·m2/s
d) kg·m2/s2

8. A student pushes a box a horizontal distance of 8.70 m with a horizontal force of 55.0 N. The work done by the
student in pushing the box is:

a) 0.158 J
b) 6.32 J
c) 63.7 J
d) 479 J

Use the following information about the development of the concept of energy to answer questions 9 and 10:

The development of the concept of energy from the 1600s to the 1850s involved the following scientists:
I Liebniz
II Rumford
III Black
IV Joule

9. Which of the scientists listed above performed experiments to prove a connection between heat and mechanical
energy?

a) I only
b) II and III
c) II and IV
d) III and IV

10. Which of the scientists listed above suggested that heat was a fluid called “caloric” fluid that flowed from hot to
cold objects?

a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV

Use the following information to answer questions 11, 12, and 13:

On a camping trip, the following scenario occurs:

I A camper rubs a match on a gritty surface igniting a match.
II The match is then used to ignite a pile of wood kindling, creating a bonfire.
III While standing by the bonfire, the camper senses that the part of his body facing the fire is warm while his
backside remains cool.
IV Another group of campers across the lake spots the bonfire.

11. Which of the above describes a conversion of mechanical energy to heat?

a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV
12. Which of the above describes a conversion of chemical energy to heat?

a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV

13. Which of the above describes a conversion of heat to radiant energy?

a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV

14. Which of the following is not a result of an energy transfer or transformation?

a) An object undergoes a change in motion.

b) An object undergoes a change in temperature.
c) An object undergoes a change in shape or position.
d) An object undergoes a change in status or significance.

15. Technologically “useful” energy refers to:

a) energy needed to do work

b) useful thermal energy input
c) total mechanical energy input
d) input energy of a cogeneration process

16. A 2.00-kg object is thrown 3.00 m/s horizontally at 1.50 m above the ground.
The total mechanical energy of the ball is:
a) 9.00 J
b) 20.4 J
c) 29.4 J
d) 38.4 J
Use the following information to answer questions 17 and 18:
I A carpenter applies a force on the handle of a claw hammer to pull a nail from a board and the handle
moves a certain distance.
II The nail comes out of the board a certain distance.
III When the carpenter then touches the nail, she senses that the nail is hot.
17. Which of the situations stated above can best be described by the first law of thermodynamics?
a) I and II
b) I and III
c) II and III
d) III only
18. Which of the situations stated above can best be described by the second law of thermodynamics?
a) I and II
b) I and III
c) II and III
d) III only
Use the following information to answer questions 19 and 20:
In the 1600s, scientists and engineers discovered the following scientific phenomena or principles:
I Two teams of eight horses could not pull two hemispheres apart because of the vacuum created inside.
II Vis viva or “living force” could be kinetic or potential.
III Water increases its volume by 1300 times when heated to steam.
19. Which of the principles listed above was/were instrumental in the development of the technology of the steam
engine in the 1600s?
a) I and II
b) I and III
c) II only
d) II and III
20. Which of the principles listed above was/were instrumental in explaining the Newton’s cradle demonstration in
the 1600s?
a) I and II
b) I and III
c) II only
d) II and III

Use the following information to answer questions 21, 22, and 23:

The names of some of the scientists and engineers who designed the early steam engines are listed below:
I Hero
II Papin
III Savery
IV Newcomen
V Watt

21. Which of the steam engines listed above did not have a piston?

a) I and II
b) I and III
c) II and IV
d) III and V

22. Which of the early steam engines could be considered a turbine?

a) I only
b) I and III
c) II only
d) III only

23. Which of the early steam engines first used the tilting of a beam back and forth to drive a piston that could then
be used to pump water?

a) II
b) III
c) IV
d) V
Use the following information to answer questions 24, 25, and 26:

Examples of energy sources are:

I wind
II biomass
III fossil fuels
IV geothermal

24. Which of the above is not a solar energy source?

a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV

25. Which of the above energy sources results from the Sun heating Earth’s surface?

a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV

26. Which of the above involve energy from photosynthesis?

a) I and III
b) I and IV
c) II and III
d) II and IV

27. Which of the following is not a factor in the development of the energy crisis?

a) The price of fossil fuels is increasing.

b) The population is growing exponentially.
c) The demand for energy in the residential sector is increasing.
d) The economies of most countries are becoming more industrialized.

28. Which of the following solutions to the energy crisis is not a band-aid solution to the energy crisis?

a) Alternative energy sources must be developed.

b) More reserves of fossil fuel must be discovered.
c) All sectors of society should decrease their demands for energy.
d) All sectors of society should use present energy sources more efficiently.

29. The term “cogeneration” when applied to energy and the energy crisis refers to which of the following:

a) People should live together.

b) Companies should share buildings.
c) Grandparents should live with their children and grandchildren.
d) Waste energy from one process should be used as an energy source for another process.

30. The type of energy stored in the bonds of chemical compounds is:

a) elastic energy
b) potential energy
c) electromagnetic energy
d) gravitational potential energy
Numerical Response

31. A girl lifts her 30-kg knapsack a vertical distance of 0.50 m. Then she carries it 10 m across the park to the water
fountain. What is the value of the work done by the girl?

Use the following information to answer questions 32, 33, and 34:

An archer uses a force of 60.0 N to draw back the string of his bow through a distance of 0.330 m. He then fires
a 300-g arrow straight up into the air.

32. What is the value of the work done by the archer?

33. What is the maximum speed of the arrow at the instant it leaves the bow?

34. What is the maximum height reached by the arrow in its flight into the air? (Record your answer to three
significant digits.)

Use the following information to answer questions 35 and 36:

A worker applies a force of 550 N in sliding a block of wood 15.0 m along a surface. The work output is
determined to be 5.00 × 103 J.

35. Calculate the efficiency of the worker.

36. If the percent efficiency is 35.0%, what work input would be required to do the same work output?
Written Response

37. A student rolls a 1.25-kg ball up a 1.50 m inclined plane with a vertical height of 0.350 m, as shown below. The
uniform force exerted by the student to roll the ball up the inclined plane is 4.00 N along the incline. The time
taken to roll the ball a distance of 1.50 m is 3.30 s.

a) Calculate the work input, the work output, and the percent efficiency in rolling the ball up the inclined plane.

b) Explain why there is a difference in the work input and the work output.

c) Calculate the average speed of the ball up the incline.

d) Calculate the gravitational potential energy of the ball at the top of the incline.

e) Suppose the ball drops over the edge of the inclined plane. Calculate the maximum speed of the ball just
before it hits the ground below.

f) Describe the assumption that was made in determining the maximum speed of the ball.
38. A battery-operated CD player is the technology example in the following questions. In your answers, make sure
to communicate clearly your understanding of the scientific principles involved.

a) Identify and describe all the energy transfers and transformations occurring in the operation of the
technology. Start with the initial energy source.

b) State the first law of thermodynamics. Describe one situation in the technology where this law can be
applied.

c) State the second law of thermodynamics. Describe one situation in the technology where the second law can
be applied.

d) Identify one place in the technology where percent efficiency of an energy transfer or transformation will be
a low value.

e) Define “sustainable” and describe how the efficiency of the technology can be changed to achieve
sustainability.
 Biology
Section I - Multiple Choice
1. The cell structure that is too small to be clearly seen under the light microscope is the
a. nucleus
b. vacuole
c. chloroplast
d. mitochondrion
2. What was an important difference between the microscopes used by Hooke and van Leeuwenhoek?
a. Hooke’s contained an achromatic lens.
b. Van Leeuwenhoek’s produced a blurry image with a halo.
c. Hooke’s was a simple microscope and van Leeuwenhoek’s was a compound microscope.
d. Van Leeuwenhoek’s produced greater magnification than compound microscopes of that time.

3. Pasteur presented convincing experimental evidence against the theory of spontaneous generation. In Pasteur’s
experiments it was observed that
a. meat open to air developed maggots.
b. a sealed flask containing boiled broth remained clear if all the air was removed.
c. a sealed flask containing boiled broth with air above it, developed micro-organisms.
d. a flask with an S-bend in the neck, open to the air, did not develop micro-organisms in boiled broth.
4. The scientist or scientists who proposed that all plants and animals were composed of cells was/were
a. Pasteur
b. Virchow
c. Schleiden and Brown
d. Schleiden and Schwann
5. Which of the following characteristics in the light microscope is limited by the wavelength of light?
a. contrast
b. magnification
c. resolving power
d. size of the specimen
6. One disadvantage of the transmission electron microscope is that
a. The resolution is poor.
b. The specimens are non-living.
c. The area covered by the image is very large.
d. A three-dimensional picture of the cell is easily seen from thin sections.
7. The green fluorescence protein (GFP) is used to
a. map DNA.
b. diagnose cancer.
c. fix the specimen.
d. attach to and view certain cell parts.

8. One technology used to determine the three-dimensional structure of molecules is

a. staining.
b. confocal technology.
c. X-ray crystallography.
d. scanning electron microscopy.
9. A cell is considered an open system because it exchanges
a. nothing with its surroundings
b. only matter with its surroundings.
c. only energy with its surroundings.
d. matter and energy with its surroundings.
10. Which statement is true?
a. The nucleus contains the DNA.
b. The cell wall is found only in animal cells.
c. The chloroplast is responsible for cellular respiration.
d. The cell membrane is a rigid frame providing strength.
11. The organelle that stores nutrients, water, products of secretion, and fats is the
a. vacuole.
b. lysosome.
c. ribosome.
d. Golgi apparatus.
12. Which statement is true about diffusion?
a. It is active transport.
b. It requires no energy.
c. Particles move from low to high concentration.
d. Particles move against/up a concentration gradient.
13. An egg has had the shell removed using vinegar. It is placed in a beaker of pure, distilled water. What should
happen?
a. The egg will swell.
b. The egg will shrink.
c. The egg will lose mass.
d. The egg will remain the same.
14. The process that produces a vesicle to enclose a large particle is termed
a. osmosis
b. dialysis
c. exocytosis
d. endocytosis
15. A starch solution is poured into a “model cell” formed by a zipper lock bag and placed upright in a beaker of
water containing iodine tincture. What will happen after a time?
a. Starch is found in the beaker of water.
b. No change is observed inside or outside the model cell.
c. Iodine ions pass into the model cell and the starch changes colour.
d. Iodine ions pass into the cell, starch passes out and the solutions inside and outside the cell change colour.

16. Which of the following is an advantage of multicellular organisms over single-celled organisms?
a. Specialized cells are less efficient in performing their tasks.
b. Single-celled organisms have a high surface to volume ratio.
c. Abnormal functioning of one cell type will affect the whole organism.
d. Internal transport systems allow movement of materials and therefore increased size.
17. Groups of cells that function together are called a/an
a. body.
b. organ.
c. tissue.
d. system.
18. Which of these is not one of the three main types of plant tissue?
a. dermal tissue
b. ground tissue
c. vascular tissue
d. epithelial tissue
19. Which statement is true about xylem tissue?
a. It moves sugar all around the plant.
b. The mature xylem tubes contain cytoplasm.
c. It moves water and minerals up the stem to the leaves.
d. It is formed from sieve tube cells that contain cytoplasm.
20. The cells responsible for cell division and growth in plants are found in the
a. epidermis
b. meristems
c. vascular tissue
d. palisade tissue
21. Which process produces oxygen in the leaves?
a. respiration
b. transpiration
c. phototropism
d. photosynthesis
22. Guard cells open the stomata because
a. their turgor pressure decreases.
b. water enters the cell by osmosis.
c. water leaves the cell by evaporation.
d. a hormone causes the cells to elongate.
23. Root pressure is the result of
a. transpiration moving water into the leaves
b. attraction of water molecules for each other
c. minerals in the root cells cause water to enter by osmosis
d. attraction of water molecules for other types of molecules
24. What is the loss of water through stomata and lenticels called?
a. adhesion
b. cohesion
c. plasmolysis
d. transpiration

25. How does a plant shoot produce a phototropic response?

a. Cells on the side away from the light shrink.
b. Cells on the side away from the light elongate.
c. Cells on the side facing toward the light shrink.
d. Cells on the side facing toward the light elongate.

Section II - Numerical Response

26. a) A ruler is placed under the low-power objective (4×) and measures a diameter of 4.5 mm. Determine the
diameter of the high-power field of view in micrometres, if the magnification of the high-power objective is
40×. (3 marks)
b) An onion cell is observed under high power. Its length is the same as the field diameter and its width is about
one third of the field of view. Determine the length and width of the onion cell in micrometres. (2 marks)
27. Two cells are observed under the microscope. Cell A is shaped like a cube with each side, s, approximately 10
µm. Cell B is shaped more like a flat rectangular prism. Its dimensions are 160 µm length, by 40 µm width, by
1.25 µm height. Which of the cells will show a faster rate of diffusion? Explain in terms of surface area and
volume. Show your calculations. (6 marks)
28. Compare the surface area to volume ratio of a cube with a side length of 5.0 cm to that of a sphere with a
diameter of 5.0 cm, both made of the same material. Show your work. Which one will support the faster rate of
diffusion? (3 marks)
29. Place the statements in the correct order to describe the process of water movement from the roots to the leaves.
(3 marks)
1. Root pressure forces water through the cells or along cell walls into the xylem.
2. Transpiration pull combined with the forces of adhesion and cohesion, draws water up the xylem vessels.
3. A high concentration of solute in the root cells causes water to enter the root hairs through the process of
osmosis.
4. Evaporation through the stomata and lenticels creates tension.
5. Water in the leaves is used to manufacture sugar in photosynthesis.
6. Water moves from the xylem into the ground tissue of the leaves.

Section III - Skills

30. A student examines three leaf specimens from aquatic plants and makes the following observations:
Leaf A: very thin leaves, no stomata, few air spaces in the spongy mesophyll, and poorly developed xylem
Leaf B: broad leaves, upper epidermis has a thick cuticle, chloroplasts, and many stomata, large air spaces in the
spongy mesophyll
Leaf C: waxy cuticle on upper and lower surface, stomata on both surfaces

Decide which leaf belongs to each of the following species and explain your reasoning.
Water lily, a floating aquatic plant; Cattail, an emergent aquatic plant (leaves in the air); Elodea, a submersed
(underwater) aquatic plant (6 marks)

31. A student wants to study the effect of the hormone, auxin, on the stem of plants. She mixes a specific amount of
the powdered hormone, into a known quantity of petroleum jelly. As a test, to see if the mixture will have an
effect, she places a small amount on one side of the stem of a Coleus plant. After two days, she notes there is
observable bending of the stem at the point of application.
a) Did the stem bend toward or away from the applied auxin site? Explain.
b) She wants to test the effect of three different concentrations of auxin on the degree of bending of the stem.
Design a controlled experiment she could perform. Identify variables she must control. Describe the control
for the experiment. (5 marks)

Section IV - Written Response

32. Describe the fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane. Include the components and their functions. (5 marks)

33. How did Pasteur’s experiments on spontaneous generation remove all doubt, in a way that Spallanzani’s
experiment had not? (2 marks)

34. a) Describe how the water needed for photosynthesis moves from its source outside the plant to where it is
needed in the leaf cells. Include specific structures and cell types.
b) Describe how the sugar produced by photosynthesis moves from the leaf to where it is needed or stored. (6
marks)

35. Describe one practical application of our understanding of semi-permeable membranes. (2 marks)

36. In the winter, salt is often spread on the roads to “melt” the ice and snow. Cars driving along the road cause slush
to spray sideways. In the spring you notice that the cedar trees close to a road have brown leaves from the ground
up to a height of about a metre. Propose a plausible explanation for this observation. (2 marks)
 Climate
Section I: Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following statements are examples of climate?

I. Not another day of rain!
II. Once again, it’s a cold winter.
III. We had 3 mm of rain last night.
IV. Spring always seems to come about this time of year.
a) I and II
b) II and III
c) II and IV
d) III and IV
2. The non-living components of the biosphere are:
a) lithosphere, hydrosphere, atmosphere
b) hydrosphere, cryosphere and atmosphere
c) lithosphere, crust, hydrosphere, atmosphere
d) lithosphere, hydrosphere, troposphere, climate
3. Weather occurs in which layer of the atmosphere?
a) troposphere
b) mesosphere
c) stratosphere
d) thermosphere
4. Which of the following statements is an example of scientific evidence of climate change?
I. The growing season seems longer now.
II. There are fewer elk now than there were 20 years ago.
III. Snow cover has increased by 4% over the past 10 years.
IV. The average global surface temperature has increased by 0.5°C in the last century
a) I and II
b) I and IV
c) II and III
d) III and IV
5. In order with increasing altitude, Earth’s atmospheric layers are:
a) troposphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, stratosphere
b) troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere
c) thermosphere, mesosphere, troposphere, stratosphere
d) mesosphere, troposphere, stratosphere, thermosphere

6. Which of the following is NOT part of the electromagnetic spectrum?

a) x-rays
b) visible light
c) cathode rays
d) ultraviolet light
7. A town along the equator gets more insolation, on average, than Calgary, Alberta, because of the effect of:
a) less atmospheric dust
b) the angle of incidence
c) the angle of inclination
d) both the angle of incidence and angle of inclination
 8. Suppose that all the trees in a region are cut down, exposing dark soil. Assuming that no vegetation grows back,
how will the albedo of this region change?
a) There will be no change in the albedo.
b) Albedo will increase in summer and in winter.
c) Albedo will decrease in summer and in winter.
d) Albedo will decrease in summer and increase in winter.
9. Which statement describes the relationship between average net radiation budget and latitude?
a) The net radiation budget does not change with latitude.
b) There is a net radiation budget surplus at the equator and at the poles.
c) The net radiation budget is the same at both the equator and the poles.
d) There is a net radiation budget surplus at the equator, and a net radiation budget deficit at the poles.
10. Thermal energy can be transferred globally by:
a) winds
b) water currents
c) convection only
d) winds and water currents
11. Water currents and wind currents flow clockwise in the Northern hemisphere due to:
a) the Coriolis effect
b) convection currents
c) thermal energy imbalances
d) changes in atmospheric pressure
12. The hydrological cycle transfers:
a) water
b) energy
c) greenhouse gases
d) water and energy
13. The amount of energy released when 1 mol of water vapour changes phase to liquid water, without a change in
temperature, is called:
a) the heat of fusion
b) the heat of vaporization
c) the heat of condensation
d) the specific heat capacity

14. Which of the following factors would not influence the net radiation budget of a biome?
a) albedo
b) longitude
c) time of year
d) cloud cover and atmospheric dust
15. On average, which biome has the highest precipitation level and average temperature?
a) taiga
b) grassland
c) rain forest
d) deciduous forest
16. Which of the following biomes is most important to the agricultural industry?
a) taiga
b) tundra
c) grassland
d) deciduous forest
17. Two cities are located at the same latitude but in different regions of Earth. Which of the following factors could
cause these cities to have different climates?
a) the angle of inclination of Earth
b) the number of hours of daylight
c) the biome in which each city is located
d) whether either city is situated close to a large body of water
18. Which of the following greenhouse gases has the highest Global Warming Potential (GWP)?
a) CFCs
b) methane
c) nitrous oxide
d) carbon dioxide
19. Which of the following removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
a) Earth’s oceans
b) the ozone layer
c) using public transit
d) conserving electricity
20. A scientist reports that her conclusions on the historic greenhouse gas concentrations, deduced from data taken
from ice core samples, are very likely to be correct. These conclusions should be considered to have:
a) a low level confidence
b) a medium level confidence
c) a very high level of confidence
d) an extremely low level of confidence
21. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change was important because it provided:
a) an outline for future agreements
b) an opportunity to recognize the issue of climate change
c) a process to charge countries producing too much greenhouse gas
d) an opportunity to identify countries producing the most greenhouse gases

22. One of the major limits to making better computer-based climate models is:
a) faster computers
b) understanding global climate processes
c) collecting more data from existing research projects
d) more support for research on the use of technology to study climate
23. If the amount of carbon dioxide were to double, which of the following biomes is predicted to increase in area in
Alberta?
a) desert
b) tundra
c) grasslands
d) deciduous forest
24. Which of the following sectors is NOT included in Canada’s Action Plan on Climate Change?
a) tourism
b) industry
c) agriculture
d) transportation
Section II: Numerical Response

25. How much thermal energy is required to increase the temperature of 500 g of water from 20.0°C to 80.0°C? The
specific heat capacity of water is 4.19 J/g·ºC. (3 marks)
26. When 200 g of an unknown substance absorbs 4.30 kJ of thermal energy, the temperature of the substance
changes from 30.0°C to 80.0°C. Determine the experimental specific heat capacity of the unknown substance. (3
marks)

27. How much thermal energy is absorbed when 1.00 kg of ice melts completely, without a change in temperature?
The theoretical heat of fusion of ice is 6.01 kJ/mol and the molar mass of ice is 18.02 g/mol. (3 marks)

28. a) How much thermal energy is needed to heat 100 g of water at 25.0ºC to 100.0ºC, without a change in phase?
The theoretical specific heat capacity of water is 4.19 J/g·ºC. (3 marks)

b) How much thermal energy is absorbed when 100 g of water at 100.0ºC evaporates completely, without a change
in temperature? The heat of vaporization of water is 40.7 kJ/mol and the molar mass of water is 18.02 g/mol. (3
marks)

c) Using your answers from part a) and b) of question 28, calculate the amount of thermal energy needed to heat
100 g of liquid water at 25.0ºC to water vapour at 100.0ºC. Assume that all the water evaporates. (1 mark)
Section III: Skills

29. Rhys and Gareth complete an experiment to determine the Trial Number Experimental Value of Hfus
experimental heat of fusion of water. They perform the experiment 1 5.75 kJ/mol
three times, and calculate the values given in the table for the
2 6.61 kJ/mol
experimental heat of fusion of water.
3 5.97 kJ/mol
Given that the theoretical heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol, what
is the percent error for the average of the three trials? (4 marks)

30.a) On a clean sheet of graph paper or with spreadsheet software, create climatographs for the following cities. (4
marks)
Banff, Latitude 51.1° N
Month J F M A M J J A S O N D
Temperature (°C) –5.3 0.1 3.8 9.0 14.2 18.7 22.1 21.6 16.1 10.1 0.5 –5.3
Precipitation (mm) 31.0 23.9 21.5 32.4 57.5 60.0 51.2 51.3 43.8 30.3 30.4 34.6

Fort McMurray, Latitude 56.4° N

Month J F M A M J J A S O N D
Temperature (°C) –14.5 –8.6 –1.1 9.3 17.1 21.5 23.2 21.8 15.1 8.4 –4.5 –12.6
Precipitation (mm) 20.4 16.0 17.3 22.6 40.7 63.9 79.1 71.8 51.4 32.2 26.4 23.0

b) Use your climatographs to predict whether the cities will or will not have similar vegetation. Give reasons for
your prediction. (2 marks)

Section IV: Written Response

31. Describe the relationship between the net radiation budget of a region and the type of biome that is likely to be
found in that region. List the factors that can influence the net radiation budget. (5 marks)

32. Assess the risks and benefits of global warming to life in Alberta. (5 mark)