PRE-SAMIKSHA 3

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GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER- I
ALL INDIA OPEN MOCK TEST - 3
A
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
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 PRE-SAMIKSHA 3
Q1. IUCN has released the new red list of Q3. Consider the following statements with
threatened species during COP28 of reference to Air pollution in India:
UNFCCC in December 2023. In this 1. India is one of the largest emitters of
context, consider the following statements:
Sulphur Dioxide (SO2) in the world.
1. The number of species facing the threat
of extinction has declined compared to 2. Nearly all the SO2 emissions in India
last year.
come from the vehicular emissions only.
2. Around 25% of the freshwater fish
3. Most of the thermal power plants in
species are facing risk of extinction due
to challenges like climate change, India are equipped with Flue-Gas

pollution, overfishing, and invasive Desulfurization (FGD) technology,

species. which is used to remove SO2 from
3. The Saiga Antelope has become extinct
exhaust gas.
in wild (EW) due to its continuous
How many of the above statements is/are
poaching, illegal trade, disease, and
climate change. correct?
How many of the above statements is/are (a) Only one
correct? (b) Only two
(a) Only one (c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None
(c) All three
(d) None
Q4. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Q2. Consider the following statements:
Domestic Cat is an invasive species both in
Statement-I:
Organisms that are endemic and have India and the USA.

limited ranges are most affected by habitat Statement-II:

destruction. Trap-Neuter-Return (TNR) Policy is used to
Statement-II: control the population of stray dogs and
These organisms are not found anywhere cats in western countries.
else in the world, and thus have less chance Which one of the following is correct in
of recovering.
respect of the above statements?
Which one of the following is correct in
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
respect of the above statements?
correct and Statement-II is the correct
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
explanation for Statement-I.
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
correct explanation for Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct.
II is correct.

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Q5. Consider the following statements: 2. It is chaired by the Prime Minister of
1. Land subsidence. India.
2. Saltwater intrusion. 3. It accords approval for declaring new
3. Global Sea level rise. Tiger Reserves.
4. Decline in water table. 4. It conducts the country-level
5. Shift in the Earth’s axis of rotation. assessment of the status of tiger, co-
6. Reduction in surface water supplies. predators, prey and habitat once in four
How many of the above are the possible years.
impacts of excessive extraction of Which of the statements given above are
groundwater? correct?
(a) Only three (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Only four (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) Only five (c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All six (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q6. Consider the following statements with Q8. Consider the following statements with
reference to Bryophytes: reference to the Coastal Regulation Zone
1. They do not have well differentiated body (CRZ) Notification:
parts like stems and leaves. 1. It is issued under the Environmental
2. They are also called amphibians of the Protection Act, 1986.
plant kingdom. 2. It classifies the coastal land within 500
3. They reproduce through seeds. meters of high tide line on the landward
4. Because of their thick growth, they are side into four categories.
effective soil binder plants that prevent 3. The area between the low tide line and
soil erosion. the high tide line falls under Category-I
5. Liverworts and mosses are the types of (CRZ-I), designated as ecologically
bryophytes. sensitive area.
How many of the above statements are 4. Exploration and extraction of Oil and
correct? Natural Gas are strictly prohibited
(a) Only two under Category-I (CRZ-I).
(b) Only three 5. The Union Environment Ministry has
(c) Only four the sole authority to approve projects in
(d) All five all four categories (zones).
Which of the statements given above are
Q7. Consider the following statements with correct?
reference to the National Tiger Conservation (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Authority (NTCA): (b) 4 and 5 only
1. It has been has constituted as a (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
statutory body under the Environment (d) 2, 3 and 5 only
Protection Act, 1986.

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Q9. Consider the following statements with Q11. Consider the following statements:
reference to Artificial Neural Network (ANN): 1. CD4 is a type of red blood cell in the
1. It is a subset of machine learning that
body’s immune system.
mimics the workings of nerve cells in the
2. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
human brain.
2. It consists of nodes arranged in layers destroys CD4 cells.
and each node receives input signals, 3. CD4 cells are also known as helper T
processes them, and produces an cells.
output signal.
Which of the statements given above is/are
3. It does not require training and can
correct?
immediately provide accurate
predictions. (a) 1 only
4. Unlike other Artificial Intelligence tools, (b) 2 and 3 only
it can only be used for linear data (c) 3 only
analysis and is not suitable for non-
(d) 1, 2 and 3
linear problems.
Which of the statements given above are
correct? Q12. Consider the following statements with
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only reference to the X-ray Polarimeter Satellite
(b) 2 and 3 only (XPoSat) Mission:
(c) 1 and 2 only
1. It is specifically designed to observe
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
sources that emit strong X-

Q10. Consider the following statements with rays, including black holes, neutron
reference to various approaches to stars, supernova remnants, and active
achieving a controlled nuclear fusion galaxies.
reaction:
2. It is India's first and the world's only
1. In Inertial Confinement Fusion (ICF),
second space mission dedicated to
strong magnetic fields confine hot
plasma within a toroidal chamber to study X-ray polarization in the medium
achieve fusion. X-ray band.
2. In Magnetic Confinement Fusion (MCF), 3. It is the joint mission of NASA and ISRO.
targets filled with deuterium and tritium
4. It is launched by using Launch Vehicle
are rapidly compressed and heated by
Mark-3 (LVM3).
high-powered lasers to initiate fusion.
3. In MCF, the hot plasma is contained for 5. POLIX (Polarimeter Instrument in X-
a longer duration compared to ICF. rays) and XSPECT (X-ray Spectroscopy
4. Both ICF and MCF require extremely and Timing) are two of its payloads.
high temperatures to overcome the
Which of the statements given above are
electrostatic repulsion between nuclei.
correct?
How many of the above statements is/are
correct? (a) 1 and 5 only
(a) Only one (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) Only two (c) 1, 2, and 5 only
(c) Only three
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) All four

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Q13. Recently, India has mandated the testing 3. Llama - Meta
and sampling of Ethylene Oxide residue for 4. LaMDA - TESLA
all spice shipments to Singapore and Hong How many of the above pairs is/are
Kong. In this context, consider the following correctly matched?
statements: (a) Only one
1. Ethylene Oxide is used as a pesticide (b) Only two
and sterilizing agent for medical (c) Only three
equipment. (d) All four
2. It is classified as a Group 1 Carcinogen
by the International Agency for Q16. Consider the following statements about
Research on Cancer. classification of goods in macroeconomics:
3. Adequate aeration of ethylene oxide- 1. Final goods are always consumption
sterilized food is crucial to eliminate goods.
residues and uphold food safety 2. Any expenditure on final goods is
standards. considered consumption expenditure.
How many of the above statements is/are 3. Only final goods (and not intermediate
correct? goods) are included in the estimation of
(a) Only one national product or national income.
(b) Only two 4. A shirt purchased by retailer from the
(c) All three wholesaler for resale is final goods.
(d) None How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
Q14. Consider the following Term-Definition (a) Only one
pairs: (b) Only two
1. Cookies - It imparts style and aesthetics (c) Only three
to the HTML structure by controlling (d) All four
attributes like color schemes, fonts,
spacing, and positioning. Q17. Consider the following statements with
2. Cache - A repository of frequently reference to economic reforms of 1991 in
accessed files. India:
3. Web-Assembly - Encryption protocols to 1. These reforms were prompted by factors
create secure tunnels for data exchange such as rising inflation, increasing fiscal
shielding the information from prying deficit, and a balance of payment crisis.
eyes. 2. One of the general features of LPG
4. JavaScript - New technology that Reforms was the increase in taxes to
enables near-native performance within boost government revenue.
the browser environment. 3. The fixed exchange rate system in India
How many of the above statements is/are shifted to a market-based system in
correct? 1993 as part of the economic reforms.
(a) Only one 4. Environmental degradation in India,
(b) Only two including air quality issues, is identified
(c) Only three as a negative impact of the LPG reforms.
(d) All four Which of the statements given above are
correct?
Q15. Consider the following Large Language (a) 1 and 3 only
Models (LLMs) and Creators pairs: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. ChatGPT - OpenAI (c) 2 and 4 only
2. GEMINI - Google (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

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Q18. Which of the following will lead to Q20. Consider the following:
inclusiveness in the realm of economy in 1. Fiscal Stimulus by government.
India? 2. Repayment of public debt by
1. Increasing the share of indirect taxes in government.
the total revenue of the government. 3. Industrial disputes.
2. Workers to be given the share of profits 4. Smooth international trade.
as incentives. How many of the above factors may
3. Land redistribution in the favour of the contribute to increasing inflation in an
landless. economy?
4. Reduction in the income tax slabs to a (a) Only one
single flat slab rate. (b) Only two
5. Policies framed for the marginalized (c) Only three
sections of the society. (d) All four
6. Boosting agricultural growth and income
of the farmers. Q21. “Rapid Financing Instrument", “Extended
7. Policies for the development of the Fund Facility” and "Rapid Credit Facility"

backward regions of the country. are related to the provisions of lending by

Select the correct answer from the code which one of the following?

given below: (a) World Bank

(a) 1,3, 5, 6 and 7 only (b) Asian Development Bank

(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only (c) International Monetary Fund

(d) UN Environment Program Finance
(c) 2 and 7 only
Initiative
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

Q22. Consider the following statements with

Q19. Consider the following statements:
respect to RBI guidelines on inoperative
1. Real GDP can't be higher than nominal
accounts and unclaimed deposits:
GDP.
1. A savings account shall be treated as
2. A low capital output ratio indicates
inoperative if there are no ‘customer
efficient capital utilization in an
induced transactions’ in the account for
economy.
a period of over two years.
3. In the GVA method of GDP calculation
2. The unclaimed deposits to be
that India started using in 2015, the
transferred by banks to Depositor
final GDP is calculated at Market Price.
Education and Awareness Fund
4. During the overheating of economy,
Scheme which is maintained by the
steps are taken to increase the flow of
Ministry of Education.
money in economy.
Which of the above statements is/are
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 and 2
(d) All four

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Q23. Consider the following statements: Q25. Which of the following best explain the term
1. Consumer Price Index - Urban (CPI-U) democracy?
has higher weight for food and (a) Direct rule by people.
beverages when compared to Consumer
(b) Rule by legitimate authority.
Price Index Rural (CPI-R).
(c) Government in which supreme
2. Consumer Price Index - Industrial
authority is vested in people and
Workers (CPI-IW) has higher weight for
exercised by them either directly or
food and beverages when compared to
Consumer Price Index Rural (CPI-R). indirectly.
Which of the above statements is/are (d) The head of the state is always elected
correct? either directly or indirectly.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Q26. Consider the following statements with
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
respect to the National Commission for
Backward Classes (NCBC) :
Q24. In which of the following cases does the
1. It was initially constituted by the central
constitution of India empower the
Parliament to make laws on any matter government as an executive body.
enumerated in the State List? 2. It has been granted constitutional status
1. If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by the 103rd Constitutional Amendment
supported by one-third of the members Act.
present and voting in the national 3. The Commission consists of a
interest.
Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and
2. The Parliament restricts the power of
three other members.
the State to legislate, while a
4. It shall be the duty of the Commission
Proclamation of National Emergency is
to inquire into specific complaints with
in operation.
3. When the legislatures of two or more respect to the deprivation of rights and
States pass resolutions requesting the safeguards of the socially and
Parliament to enact laws, such a law educationally backward classes.
can be amended or repealed only by the How many of the above statements is/are
Parliament. correct?
4. When the President’s Rule is imposed in
(a) Only one
a State, the Parliament becomes
(b) Only two
empowered to make laws with respect to
(c) Only three
any matter in the State List in relation
(d) All four
to that State.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

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Q27. Which of the following best describes the Q29. Which of the following is NOT
term ‘Point of Order’? representative of a system of checks &
(a) It is an extraordinary instrument raised balances under the constitution of India?
when the proceedings of the House do (a) Executive accountability to legislature.
not follow the normal rules of (b) Removal of judges by the president.
procedure. (c) President to act on the aid & advice of
(b) It is a parliamentary device used for the Council of Ministers.
raising discussions on a matter of (d) Judicial review of courts over legislative
urgent public importance with a time and executive actions.
limit of two hours.
(c) It is used by members of the House for Q30. Which Article of the Constitution
elucidating answer on a matter of fact safeguards one’s right to sleep peacefully at
on an already discussed issue of pubic night?
importance. (a) Article 21
(d) It is an extraordinary instrument used (b) Article 19
by the members to elucidate a ruling by (c) Article 22
the Presiding officer on an issue raised (d) Article 25
by them.
Q31. Consider the following statements
Q28. Consider the following statements with regarding Central Vigilance Commission
reference to the vacating of seats due to (CVC):
'Double Membership': 1. Originally, the CVC was neither a
1. If a person, having been elected to both constitutional body nor a statutory
the Houses of Parliament, does not body.
intimate within 10 days in which House 2. Central Vigilance Commissioner and
they desire to serve, their seat in the Lok other vigilance commissioners are
Sabha becomes vacant. appointed by the President by warrant
2. If a person is elected to the Parliament under his/her hand and seal.
as well as the state legislature, they 3. The President can remove the Central
shall resign from state legislature within Vigilance Commissioner from office if
10 days, else their seat in the state the Commissioner takes on any paid job
legislature becomes vacant. outside of their official duties during
3. If a person is elected to two seats in a their term.
House and they do not exercise the 4. It does not exercise superintendence
option for any one, both seats become over the functioning of CBI.
vacant. How many of the above statements is/are
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) Only three
(c) All three (d) All four
(d) None

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Q32. Consider the following pairs: Which of the pairs given above are correctly
Literary Work Author matched?
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
1. Rajatarangini Kalidas
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
2. Gita Govindam Jayadeva (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. Kathasaritasagara Somadeva

4. Siddhanta Shiromani Bhaskaracharya Q35. Consider the following statements with

5. Prithiviraj Raso Chand Bardai reference to Sangam Age:
1. During the Sangam Age, people had the
How many of the pairs given above are
knowledge to process sugar from
correctly matched?
sugarcane.
(a) Only two
2. Sati was practised and the position of
(b) Only three
the widows was miserable.
(c) Only four
3. Love marriages were strictly prohibited.
(d) All five
4. The Sangam literature was composed
under the patronage of the Pandya
Q33. Consider the given figure with reference to
kings.
'Dravida Style of Temple Architecture':
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Which of the following is correctly matched? Q36. Consider the following statements with

(a) 1 - Dvarapala, 2- Mandapa, 3 - Vimana, reference to the economic conditions during

4 – Shikhara, 5- Garbhagriha the Mughal period:

(b) 1 - Gopuaram, 2 - Mandapa, 3 - 1. Khud-kashta were the residents of the

Amalaka, 4 – Vimana, 5- Garbhagriha village in which they held their lands.

(c) 1 - Gopuram, 2 - Mandapa, 3 - Vimana, 2. Pahi-kashta cultivated lands elsewhere

4 Shikhara, 5- Garbhagriha on a contractual basis.

(d) 1 - Gopuram, 2- Mandapa, 3 - Shikhara, Which of the statements given above is/are

4 Vimana, 5- Garbhagriha correct?

(a) 1 only

Q34. Consider the following pairs: (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
Philosophers Vedanta Theories (d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. Sankaracharya Advaita
Q37. ‘The Philosophy of the Bomb’ was written by
2. Ramanuja Vishista Advaitavada
which of the following revolutionaries?
3. Madhavacharya Dvaita (a) Surya Sen
(b) Bhagat Singh
4. Nimbarkacharya Shuddha Advaita
(c) Sachin Sanyal
5. Vallabhacharya Dvaita Advaita (d) Bhagwati Charan Vohra

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Q38. Consider the following statements with Q41. Consider the following statements:
reference to the Civil Disobedience Statement-I:
Movement (CDM): The presence of fossils in sedimentary rocks
1. Gopabandhu Chaudhary led the Salt
can indicate the past climate of the region.
Satyagraha in Orissa.
Statement-II:
2. The region of Assam remained
Fossils are the preserved remains of
unaffected during this movement.
organisms that lived in specific
3. Sarojini Naidu played an important role
in the Salt Satyagraha on the Dharsana environmental conditions.
coast. Which one of the following is correct in
4. In Peshawar, Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan respect of the above statements?
organized a volunteer brigade, known as (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
the ‘Red Shirts’. correct and Statement-II is the correct
Which of the statements given above is/are
explanation for Statement-I.
correct?
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
correct and Statement-II is not the
(b) 2 and 3 only
correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect.
Q39. Consider the following statements: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
1. He became acharya at Brahmo Samaj in II is correct.
1858.
2. He was instrumental in popularising the
Brahmo Samaj Movement outside
Q42. Consider the following statements with
Bengal.
reference to Polar Vortex:
3. He preached radical ideas for social
1. It is a large area of low pressure and
reforms like openly supporting inter-
caste marriages. very cold air, flowing counter-clockwise
Which of the following personalities is being in northern hemisphere.
referred to in the above given statements? 2. It always exists near the poles but
(a) Keshab Chandra Sen weakens in winter and strengthens in
(b) Debendranath Tagore summer.
(c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Which of the given above statements is/are
(d) Anand Mohan Bose
correct?
(a) 1 only
Q40. With the reference to Civil/Tribal uprisings,
(b) 2 only
Majnum Shah, Chirag Ali, Musa Shah and
Bhawani Pathak were associated with (c) Both 1 and 2
which of the following revolt/ Rebellion? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Cutch Rebellion
(b) Paika Rebellion
(c) Sanyasi Revolt
(d) Ahom Revolt

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Q43. Consider the following statements: 4. Dibru-Saikhowa
Statement-I: 5. Raimona
Mount Merapi is considered as one of the Arrange above mentioned National Parks
most dangerous and active volcanoes in the from East to West direction:
world. (a) 1 – 4 – 3 – 2 – 5
Statement-II: (b) 4 – 3 – 1 – 2 – 5
Mount Merapi is located on the Pacific Ring (c) 1 – 4 – 2 – 3 – 5
of Fire, which is characterized by high (d) 4 – 1 – 3 – 2 – 5
volcanic activity due to the subduction of
tectonic plates, making it prone to frequent Q46. Consider the following rivers:
and intense volcanic eruptions. 1. Indus
Which one of the following is correct in 2. Sutlej
respect of the above statements? 3. Brahmaputra
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 4. Kosi
correct and Statement-II is the correct 5. Jhelum
explanation for Statement-I. 6. Ravi
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are How many of the above-mentioned rivers
correct and Statement-II is not the have their origin outside India?
correct explanation for Statement-I. (a) Only three
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II (b) Only four
is not correct. (c) Only five
(d) Statement-I is not correct but (d) All six
Statement-II is correct.
Q47. Consider the following statements with
Q44. Consider the following statements with respect to Health-related initiatives taken in
reference to types of Plateaus: India:
1. The plateau which are bordering the 1. SeHAT Initiative is the tri-services
fold mountain range or are partly or teleconsultation initiative of the
fully enclosed within them are the Ministry of Defence designed for all
intermontane plateaus. entitled personnel and their families.
2. The plateaus that are situated at the 2. SAMRIDH Initiative aims to combine
foot of the mountains and are bounded public and philanthropic funds with
on other sides by a plain or an ocean are commercial capital to create and rapidly
called piedmont plateau. scale market-based health solutions.
Which of the above statements is/are NOT 3. Project BHISHM aims to enhance
correct? healthcare accessibility and boost
(a) 1 only disaster response capabilities, ensuring
(b) 2 only that no terrain is too challenging, and
(c) Both 1 and 2 no patient is too remote.
(d) Neither 1 and 2 How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
Q45. Consider the following National Parks of (a) Only one
Assam: (b) Only two
1. Kaziranga (c) All three
2. Manas (d) None
3. Orang

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Q48. Consider the following statements about Q50. ‘The Food Waste Index Report 2024’ was in
the Habitat Rights: news recently. It is released by which of the
1. Habitat rights are granted under the following organisations?
Forest Rights Act, 2006. (a) Food and Agriculture Organisation
2. It helps protect and promote traditional (b) World Health Organisation
livelihoods and ecological knowledge (c) United Nations Environment Program
that have been passed down through and Waste and Resources Action
generations. Program
3. Over 50% of all officially recognized (d) International Food Policy Research
PVTGs have been granted habitat rights Institute
in India.
Which of the statements given above are Q51. Consider the following pairs:
correct?
Region Countries
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. Maghreb Algeria
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. Levant Lebanon
(d) 1, 2 and 3

3. Anatolia Brazil

Q49. Consider the following statement: 4. Balkans Greece

1. Formal inclusion of the African Union as How many of the above pairs is/are
a permanent member of the G20. correctly matched?
2. Launch of the Global Biofuel Alliance (a) Only one
(GBA) to increase the consumption of (b) Only two
biofuels. (c) Only three
3. Launch of India-Middle East-Europe (d) All four
Corridor (IMEC).
4. Commitment to triple the Q52. Consider the following seas:
global renewable energy capacity by 1. Sulu Sea
2030. 2. Chukchi Sea
5. Unanimous adoption of the G20 New 3. Kara Sea
Delhi Leaders Joint Declaration. 4. Laptev Sea
How many of the above are the key outcome 5. Balearic Sea
of the 2023 G20 New Delhi summit? How many of the above seas is/are NOT
(a) Only two part of the Arctic Ocean?
(b) Only three (a) Only two
(c) Only four (b) Only three
(d) All five (c) Only four
(d) All five

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Q53. Consider the following statements (a) Only one
regarding National Initiative for Promotion (b) Only two
of Upskilling of Nirman Workers (NIPUN) (c) Only three
Scheme: (d) All four
1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of
Labour and Employment under the Q55. Consider the following statements:
flagship scheme of the Deendayal 1. It is a bird species that was first spotted
Antyodaya Yojana- National Urban in Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary,
Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM). Arunachal Pradesh.
2. It aims to train over 1 lakh construction 2. The bird is small babbler with olive-grey
workers through fresh skilling and plumage and a black cap.
upskilling programmes and provides 3. The bird has been named in honor of the
them with work opportunities in foreign efforts of the tribal community of
countries. Singchung village in West Kameng
3. It will provide trainees with 'Kaushal district.
Bima', three-year accidental insurance 4. It is categorized as critically endangered
with coverage of Rs 2 lakhs. by IUCN.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the following bird species is
correct? referred to in the above statements?
(a) 1 only (a) Jerdon’s Courser
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) Sociable Lapwing
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Spoon Billed Sandpiper
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) Bugun Liocichla

Q54. Consider the following statements with Q56. Consider the following statements with
reference to Green Credit Programme (GCP): respect to Intergovernmental Science Policy
1. It is an initiative within the Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem
government's Lifestyle for Environment Services (IPBES):
(LiFE) movement. 1. It is a specialised agency of United
2. In its initial phase, the GCP is focused Nations Environment Program (UNEP).
on two key activities namely 2. It is established to strengthen the
Sustainable Agriculture and Waste science policy interface for biodiversity
management. and ecosystem services.
3. The Indian Council for Forestry 3. IPBES assessments are used to inform
Research and Education (ICFRE) serves international environmental
as the GCP administrator, responsible agreements and policies, including the
for program implementation, Convention on Biological Diversity
management, monitoring and (CBD).
operation. How many of the above statements is/are
4. Green Credit Registry and trading correct?
platform would facilitate the buying and (a) Only one
selling of green credits. (b) Only two
How many of the above statements is/are (c) All three
NOT correct? (d) None

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Q57. Consider the following statements with (c) The Himalayas remain untouched by
reference to Cloud Seeding: human activity, providing a pristine
1. It involves dispersing substances into wilderness were species flourish
the air that serve as cloud condensation without disturbance.
or ice nuclei. (d) It is a confluence of different bio-
2. Silver iodide and sodium chloride are geographical realms.
commonly used substances in cloud
seeding. Q60. Consider the following statements with
3. It is only effective in areas with high reference to the Convention on Migratory
humidity levels and is ineffective in arid Species (CMS):
regions. 1. It is the only global Convention
4. This technique is completely reliable specializing in the conservation of
and can guarantee precipitation. migratory species, their habitats and
Which of the above statements are correct? migration routes.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 2. It is an environmental treaty under the
(b) 2 and 4 only aegis of the United Nations
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only Environment Programme.
(d) 1 and 2 only 3. All the agreements under the
convention are binding on the parties
Q58. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Speciation is the process by which new correct?
species arise from an existing one. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Geographical isolation is the only factor (b) 2 only
that can lead to speciation. (c) 1 and 3 only
3. Speciation always results in rapid (d) 1, 2 and 3
evolution of new traits.
How many of the above statements are Q61. Consider the following statements with
correct? reference to Taiga Biome:
(a) Only one 1. It is also known as Boreal forests.
(b) Only two 2. Taiga regions generally have colder
(c) Only three temperatures compared to tundra
(d) None regions.
3. Coniferous evergreens, primarily spruce
Q59. The Himalayan Range is very rich in species with some pine and fir, make up the
diversity. Which one among the following is majority of the vegetation.
the most appropriate reason for this How many of the above statements is/are
phenomenon? correct?
(a) The average temperature across the (a) Only one
Himalayas remains constant (b) Only two
throughout the year. (c) All three
(b) The Himalayas are relatively young (d) None
mountain range.

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Q62. What is the term used to describe the Q65. Which of the following can be used to
achievement of a quantum computer amplify an electric signal?
performing a task that cannot be done 1. Transistor
efficiently by a classical computer? 2. Amplifier
(a) Quantum Entanglement 3. Diode
(b) Quantum Supremacy Choose the correct answer from the codes
provided below:
(c) Quantum Coherence
(a) 2 only
(d) Quantum Tunnelling
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Q63. Consider the following statements about
(d) 1 and 2only
Quantum Entanglement:
1. It says that if the two quantum particles
Q66. Consider the following statements with
are entangled, any change in one reference to Lab-grown diamonds (LGDs):
particle will also produce an 1. LGDs have basic properties similar to
instantaneous change in the other. natural diamonds, including their
2. Albert Einstein was the first scientist to optical dispersion.
practically show the phenomenon of 2. LGDs are most often used for industrial
entanglement. purposes because of their hardness and
3. The satisfactory theoretical explanation extra strength.
of the phenomenon has still not been 3. Like natural diamonds, LGDs do not
understood/explained/determined by require any polishing and cutting to
anyone. provide diamonds their
Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the above statements are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) 1 and 2 only
(c) Only three
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Q67. Consider the following statements about

Q64. Consider the following statements Leprosy:
regarding End-to-End Encryption (E2EE): 1. Leprosy is caused by a type of round
1. Only the Application Service Provider worm.
can read the data send via the method 2. It can only affect elderlies.
of E2EE. 3. It is one of the Neglected Tropical
2. E2EE uses Symmetric Key Algorithms Diseases.
to encrypt or decrypt the message. 4. There is no treatment available for
Which of the given statements is/are NOT Leprosy.
correct? How many of the above statements is/are

(a) 1 only correct?

(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) All four

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Q68. Consider the following statements about 2. Borrowings and disinvestment are
Smart Cities Mission (SCM): examples of Capital Receipts.
1. The SCM was launched in 2015. 3. They are regular and recurring in nature.
2. In last 9 years, the Government of India Which of the statements given above is/are
have spent more than 2 lakh crore correct?
rupees on the mission. (a) 1 only
3. At the national level, the mission (b) 1 and 2 only
implementation is coordinated by the (c) 2 and 3 only
State Level High Powered Steering (d) 1, 2 and 3
Committee (HPSC) chaired by Chief
Secretary of the State Q71. If the GDP of a country is increasing
4. As of May 2024, Integrated Command constantly, what does it indicate?
and Control Centers have been set up in 1. It shows necessarily increase in overall
70 out of 100 Smart Cities chosen under standard of living or well-being of a
the mission. country.
How many of the above statements is/are 2. It could mean growth in the
correct? consumption rate of the country.
(a) Only one 3. It necessarily means the continuous
(b) Only two increase in exports of the country.
(c) Only three Select the correct answer using the codes
(d) All four given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q69. Consider the following statements about (b) 3 only
the Regional Rural Banks (RRBs): (c) 2 only
1. The Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are (d) 2 and 3 only
the financial institutions which ensure
adequate credit for agriculture and Q72. Consider the following statements:
other rural sectors. 1. Indian Railway’s Operating Ratio has
2. The RRBs were set up on the basis of increased substantially over the last five
the recommendations of the years.
Narasimham Working Group. 2. Indian Railway’s Freight segment was
3. The RRBs have to follow the priority profitable and Passenger segment was
sector lending targets of the RBI. in loss in FY23.
Which of the statements given above are 3. Indian Railways Modal share of freight
correct? traffic has decreased substantially since
(a) 1 and 2 only independence.
(b) 1, 2 and 3 4. India Railways has seen consistent
(c) 1 and 3 only increase in passenger traffic in last 10
(d) 2 and 3 only years.
How many of the above statements is/are
Q70. Consider the following statements with correct?
reference to ‘Capital Receipts’: (a) Only one
1. They either create a liability or reduce (b) Only two
an asset of the government. (c) Only three
(d) All four

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Q73. Which of the following may occur in (a) Only one
economy of India due to deficit financing by (b) Only two
the government? (c) All three
1. Rise in employment rates (d) None
2. Inflation
3. Increase in money supply Q76. Consider the following statements
4. Increased private investments regarding Uttar Poorva Transformative
Select the correct answer using the code Industrialization Scheme, 2024:
given below. 1. It is Central Sponsored Scheme for the
(a) 1 and 2 only development of industries in the states
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only of North East Region.

(c) 2 and 4 only 2. Department for Promotion of Industry

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 and Internal Trade (DPIIT) will

implement the scheme in collaboration

Q74. Consider the following statements: with the states.

1. 'Jobless growth' may suggest increased 3. The scheme duration is for a period of

productivity of labor despite minimal or 20 years from the date of notification.

no expansion in employment Which of the statements given above is/are

opportunities. NOT correct?

2. Decreasing 'employment elasticity' (a) 1 and 2 only

indicates rising labor productivity. (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2 and 3
given below:
(a) 1 only
Q77. A citizen of India belonging to a particular
(b) 2 only
state feels that the Chief Minister who has
(c) Both 1 & 2
recently assumed office after the election to
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the legislative assembly does not have the
necessary qualification to hold on to such
Q75. Consider the following statements with
office. In such a case he wants to challenge
reference to Cotton cultivation in India:
the appointment of chief minister in a court
1. India has the world's second largest
of law.
area under cotton cultivation.
What would be the appropriate writ by
2. India produces more than half of the
which he can challenge such appointment?
total organic cotton production of the
(a) Certiorari
world.
(b) Mandamus
3. In Tamil Nadu, it can be grown both as
(c) Prohibition
kharif and rabi crop.
(d) Quo-warranto
How many of the above statements is/are
NOT correct?

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Q78. Consider the following statements (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
regarding Article 17 of the Constitution: correct, and Statement-II is the correct
1. The Constitution has defined the term explanation for Statement-I
Untouchability under Article 17. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. It also covers the social boycott of a few correct, and Statement-II is not the
individuals or their exclusion from correct explanation for Statement-I
religious services. (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II
3. The Supreme court held that the right is incorrect
under Article 17 is available only (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-
against the state and not against private II is correct
individuals.
How many of the above statements is/are Q81. Which of the following will be the
correct? consequences of declaration of National
(a) Only one Emergency by the President?
(b) Only two 1. The executive power of the Centre can
(c) All three override the State’s executive power.
(d) None 2. The State assembly is suspended till the
emergency is in operation.
Q79. Consider the following statements 3. The life of the Lok Sabha may be
regarding the territorial extent of the extended beyond its normal term by a
Central and State Legislation: law of Parliament for one year at a time.
1. The laws made by a State Legislature 4. All the fundamental rights are
can never be applied outside the state. suspended.
2. The Parliament can make ‘extra- Select the correct answer using the code
territorial legislation’. given below.
3. The President may repeal or amend any (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
act of the Parliament in relation to the (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Andaman and Nicobar Islands. (c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) 1 and 3 only
NOT correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only Q82. Consider the following statements with
(b) 2 only reference to Parliamentary Privileges:
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. Article 105 of Indian Constitution
(d) 1 only mentions parliamentary privileges.
2. They are borrowed from USA.
Q80. Consider the following statements: 3. The breach of parliamentary privilege is
Statement-I: not a punishable offence under the law
Rajya Sabha is a permanent body of the of Parliament.
Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are
Statement-II: correct?
The Constitution has not fixed the term of (a) 1 only
office of members of the Rajya Sabha. (b) 1 and 2 only
Which one of the following is correct in (c) 3 only
respect of the above statements? (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q83. Consider the following statements with Q85. Consider the following statements with
reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital reference to Mughal Paintings:
Mission: 1. The Mughals introduced new themes

1. It is implemented by C-DAC, under the depicting the court, battle scenes and
the chase.
Ministry of Electronics and Information
2. Daswant and Basawan were the famous
Technology.
painters of Akbar’s court.
2. Unique identification number, called
3. During Akbar's reign, Indian themes,
ABHA number, is provided to the scenes, and landscapes became
persons. popular, which contributed to liberating
3. A registry has been created for the the school from Persian influence.
healthcare professionals and health How many of the above statements is/are
facilities across India. NOT correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Only one

(b) Only two
correct?
(c) All three
(a) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
Q86. Consider the following ancient cities:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Hampi
2. Pataliputra
3. Amaravati
Q84. As per Abhinaya Darpan, the famous 4. Pratishthana
treatise on dance, an act has been broken 5. Tanjore

into three basic elements. In this context, 6. Takshashila

How many of the above cities is/are located
consider the following pairs:
on the riverbanks?
1. Nritya refers to the basic dance steps,
(a) Only three
performed rhythmically but devoid of
(b) Only four
any expression or mood. (c) Only five
2. Natya refers to dramatic (d) All six
representations and refers to the story
that is elaborated through the dance Q87. Arrange the following external invasions of
recital. Assam in chronological order:
3. Nritta refers to the sentiment and the 1. Invasion of Bakhtiyar Khilji
2. Invasion of Turbak
emotions evoked through dance.
3. Invasion of Mir Jumla
Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Invasion of Sikandar Shah
correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes
(a) 1 and 3 only
given below:
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
(c) 2 only (b) 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 – 4 – 3 – 2
(d) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

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Q88. Consider the following statements with (b) 2 and 3 only
reference to the Nehru Report: (c) 2 only
1. The Nehru Report defined the Dominion (d) 1, 2 and 3
Status as the form of government
desired by India. Q91. Consider the following factors:
2. It rejected the principle of separate 1. Gravity
communal electorates, on which the 2. Wind
previous constitutional reforms had 3. Revolution of the earth
been based. 4. Heating by solar energy
3. The Report recommended universal adult Which of the above-mentioned factors
suffrage and equal rights for women. influence the ocean currents?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
given below: (b) 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Q92. Consider the following statements:
1. Air drainage is the flow of air from the
Q89. Consider the following statements with mountain top towards the valley due to
reference to the Lucknow Pact: the influence of gravity.
1. The Lucknow Pact led to the Congress’s 2. Air drainage leads to an increase in
acceptance of separate electorates temperature in the bottom of valley.
which would continue till any one 3. Air drainage protects plants from frost
community demanded joint electorates. damages.
2. Congress did not accept reservation of Which of the statements given above is/are
seats for the Muslims at All-India level. correct?
3. Lala Lajpat Rai was the main architect (a) 2 only
of the Lucknow Pact. (b) 1 and 3 only
How many of the above statements is/are (c) 2 and 3 only
correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Q93. Consider the following statements with
(c) All three reference to Central Highlands of India:
(d) None 1. It is the part of the peninsular plateau
lying to the south of the Narmada.
Q90. According to Gandhi Irwin pact the 2. The flow of the rivers draining the
government agreed on which of the Central Highlands is from southwest to
following demands? northeast.
1. Immediate release of all political 3. They are wider in the west but narrower
prisoners. in the east.
2. Right to make salt in coastal villages for How many of the above statements is/are
personal consumption. correct?
3. Public inquiry into police excesses. (a) Only one
Select the correct answer using the codes (b) Only two
given below. (c) All three
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) None

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Q94. The Gurez valley in north Kashmir was once with many threats like incursion of
inaccessible to civilians due to frequent poachers and violence against women,
shelling from Pakistan, is now set to perhaps the most dehumanising experience
connect with Ladakh. Which river flows for them are the ‘human safaris’ through
through Gurez Valley, making it a the Andaman Trunk Road, which has
prominent geographical feature of the turned them into exhibitions for tourists.
region? Which of the following tribe is described in
(a) Indus River the above passage?
(b) Jhelum River (a) Nyishi
(c) Sutlej River (b) Jarawa
(d) Kishanganga River (c) Chenchu
(d) Muria
Q95. Consider the following statements with
reference to the internal migration in India: Q97. Consider the following statements with
1. Migration within the country for work is reference to the Alliance for Global Good-
not a fundamental right of a citizen in Gender Equity, and Equality:
India. 1. The alliance was established by India
2. According to the Economic Survey of during the 2023 G-20 conference in New
2022-23, Maharashtra has the highest Delhi.
number of inter-state migrants. 2. This alliance is a response to the
3. As per the Census 2011, Bihar has the Leader’s Declaration of the G20 Summit
highest share of out migration in India. 2023 and India's commitment to
4. As per the Census 2011, the annual net women-led development.
migrant flows amounted to about 1% of 3. The primary objective of this new
the working age population. alliance is to bring together global best
How many of the above statements is/are practices, knowledge sharing and
NOT correct? investment in identified areas of
(a) Only one women's health, education and
(b) Only two entrepreneurship.
(c) Only three 4. It seeks to build on the initiatives of the
(d) All four Engagement Group and frameworks
like Business 20, Women 20, and G20
Q96. This tribe, consisting of approximately 100 EMPOWER.
to 400 individuals, are one of the How many of the above statements is/are
indigenous residents of the Andaman and correct?
Nicobar Islands. They are nomadic and live (a) Only one
in small groups of 40-50 people. Their chief (b) Only two
mode of sustenance is hunting, gathering, (c) Only three
and fishing for crabs and catfish eel. Faced (d) All four

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Q98. Consider the following statements with Q100. Consider the following statement with
reference to the Comprehensive Nuclear reference to the KIRTI Programme:
Test Ban Treaty (CTBT): 1. Its primary goal is to encourage young
1. It is a treaty that bans nuclear girls to study and pursue careers in
explosions only for military purposes. STEM (science, technology, engineering,
2. It was adopted by the United Nations and math) fields.
General Assembly in 1996. 2. It is aimed at school-going children
3. The headquarters of the Comprehensive between 9 and 18 years of age.
Nuclear Test Ban Treaty Organization 3. It comes under the Ministry of Youth
(CTBTO) is located in Vienna. Affairs and Sports.
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. It aims to conduct 20 lakh assessments
correct? throughout the year through Talent
(a) 1 only Assessment Centers.
(b) 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1 and 2 only correct?
(d) 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Q99. Recent geological discoveries indicate that (c) 1 and 4 only
the ‘Afar Triangle’ in Africa may become the (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
origin of a new ocean within the next 5 to
10 million years. In this context, consider
the following countries:
1. Ethiopia
2. Kenya
3. Sudan
4. Eritrea
5. Djibouti
How many of the above-mentioned
countries comprise the ‘Afar Triangle’?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five

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