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Written Examination for Recruitment to the post of
Assistant Public Prosecutor — 2007
PAPER -1
1. Complaint under Cr.P.C. means
(A) A written allegation made to Station house officer
(B) An allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate that some person
has committed an offence
(C) First Information Report (FIR)
(D) All the above
2. The Court may issue search warrant under Section .............. of [Link].
(A) 91 (B) 92 (C) 93 (D) 94
3. A report submitted by a police officer on completion of investigation is known
as
(A) Final report (B) Charge sheet
(C) Either of the above (D) None of the above
4. Which section of Cr.P.C. mandates that a person arrested not to be
detained more than 24 hours?
(A) 57 (B) 58 (C) 59 (D) 60
5. A Judicial First Class Magistrate is empowered to receive complaint relating
to
(A) cognizable offence
(B) non-cognizable offence
(C) both cognizable and non-cognizable offence
(D) none of the above
6. Under which provision of the Cr.P.C. does the State Government
appoint an Assistant Public Prosecutor
(A) Section 25 (B) Section 26 (C) Section 27 (D) Section 28
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7. Under which provision of law does the Magistrate have certain duties
while recording a confession
(A) Section 164 Cr.P.C. (B) Section 27 of Indian
Evidence Act
(C) Article 20(3) of the Constitution (D) All the above
8. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that,
Section 125 Cr.P.C. is applicable to Muslims?
(A) Shaira Banu’s Case (B) Meharunisa
Begum’s Case
(C) Sha Banu Begum’s Case (D) Best Bakery’s Case
9. The power of Quashing an FIR or criminal proceedings are conferred
upon a High Court under Section
(A) 421 (B) 430 (C) 436 (D) 482
10. Direction for grant of bail to a person apprehending is provided under
(A) Section 435 Cr.P.C. (B) Section 436 Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 438 Cr.P.C. (D) Section 500 Cr.P.C.
11. Who made the statement that ‘India is a federation inspite of the
Center having overriding powers on provinces’ ?
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (B) Alladi Krishna
Swamy
(C) KM. Munshi (D) T.T. Krishnamachari
12. Who was the judge of the Supreme Court in Sukh Dev Singh v
Bhagatram’s case who, for the first time, indicated the broader test for
the definition of “State” as “If the functions of the corporation are of
public importance and closely related to Governmental, it should be
treated as an agency or instrumentality within the ambit of Article 12 of
the Indian Constitution”.
(A) Justice Alligiri Swamy (B) Justice Bhagawathi
(C) Justice Mathew (D) None of the above
13. In which case did the Supreme Court strike down Section 303 of IPC
as unconstitutional ?
(A) Mithu V State of Punjab (B) R. Rajgopal V State of Tamil Nadu
(C) A. K. Gopalan V State of Madras(D) Bachan Singh V State of Punjab
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14. Article 15(4) was added by the First Constitution (Amendment) Act,
1951 to nullify the judgement of Supreme Court delivered in
(A) University of Madras V Santha Bai
(B) State of Madras V Champakam Dorai Rajan
(C) Balaji V State of Mysore
(D) None of the above
15. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that, “The freedom of
speech and expression include the freedom of silence”?
(A) National Anthem Case (B) Maneka Gandhi’s Case
(C) Tata Press Limited’s Case (D) Cricket Association’s Case
16. Article 20(2) safeguards the Accused from
(A) Expost facto laws (B) Double jeopardy
(C) Self incrimination (D) All the above
17. Promotion of Educational and Economic Interest of Weaker Sections of
the Society is a Directive Principle contained in
(A) Article 42 (B) Article 43
(C) Article 45 (D) Article 46
18. Under the Indian Constitution the Residuary Powers are vested with
(A) The State Government (B) The Union Government
(C) The President of India (D) The Governor of the State
19. Which of the following courts was established under the Government of
India Act, 1935?
(A) High Court (B) Federal Court
(C) Supreme Court (D) Privy Council
20. Which of the following words was included in the preamble by the 42nd
(Amendment) Act, 1976?
(A) Sovereign (B) Secular
(C) Democratic (D) None of the above
21. Under Article 13 of the Indian Constitution, the use of words “To the
extent of such inconsistency be void” indicates a doctrine known as
(A) Doctrine of Severability (B) Doctrine of Eclipse
(C) Doctrine of Pith and Substance (D) None of the above
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22. In which case did the Supreme Court pass guidelines to prevent sexual
harassment of women at work place
(A) Revathi V Union of India (B) Air India V Nargis Mirza
(C) Vishaka V State of Rajasthan (D) None of the above
23. Justice Ramanandan Committee was appointed by the Union
Government to deal with
(A) Identification of creamy layer
(B) Identification of Economically Backward Classes
(C) Reservations in Super Specialities
(D) All the above
24. Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to reside
and settle in any part of the country?
(A) 19 (1)(b) (B) 19(l)(c) (C) 19(l)(d) (D) 19(l)(e)
26. Which of the following statement is not correct :
(A) Right to Privacy is a fundamental right
(B) Right to Die is a fundamental right
(C) Right to Education is a fundamental rig?
(D) Right to Legal Aid is a fundamental right
27. The Fundamental Duties inserted into the Indian Constitution by the
42nd Amendment are based on
(A) The Constitution of USSR (B) The Constitution of USA
(C) The Constitution of UK (D) The Constitution of UN
28. Right to Education under Article 21-A was inserted by
(A) 83rd Constitutional Amendment (B) 84th Constitutional Amendment
(C) 85th Constitutional Amendment (D) 86th Constitutional Amendment
28. The Indian Penal Code extends to
(A) Whole of India
(B) Whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir and Sikkim
(D) None of the above
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29. Under which provision of the IPC a child below 7 years of age can
commit no offence
(A) Section 81 (B) Section 82 (C) Section 83 (D) Section 84
30. A cuts down a tree on Z’s ground, with an intention of dishonestly
taking the tree out of Z’s possession with out Z’s consent. What is the
offence that A has committed if he has still not moved the tree away
(A) Mischief (B) Nuisance
(C) Theft (D) None of the above
31. In which case was the constitutional validity of Section 497 of IPC challenged?
(A) Menaka Gandhi V Union of India
(B) A.K. Gopalan V Union of India
(C) Sowmitri Vishnu V Union of India
(D) None of the above
32. Section 359 of IPC, deals with
(A) kidnapping (B) abduction
(C) kidnapping for ransom (D) habitual kidnapping
33. Chapter XV of IPC deals with
(A) Offences relating to religion (B) Offences relating to human body
(C) Offences against marriage (D) Offences against property
34. The Latin Maxim ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means
(A) ignorance of fact is no excuse
(B) ignorance of law is no excuse
(C) ignorance of law is an excuse
(D) ignorance of fact is an excuse
35. In which case did the Supreme Court of India hold that Section 309 IPC
is constitutionally valid?
(A) State of Maharastra V Sripathy Dubal
(B) Channa Jagadishwar V State of Andhra Pradesh
(C) P. Rathinam V Union of India
(D) Gian Kaur V State of Punjab
36. The right of private defence is provided under
(A) Section 86 (B) Section 87 (C) Section 90 (D) Section 96
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37. A voluntarily burns a valuable security belonging to Z to cause wrongful
loss to Z. What is the offence A has committed?
(A) Mischief (B) Criminal intimidation
(C) Cheating (D) Nuisance
38. The offence of Dowry death is punishable under
(A) Section 300 A (B) Section 304
(C) Section 304 A (D) Section 304 B
39. The Chief Architect of the Indian Evidence Act is
(A) Lord Macaulay (B) Lord Brown
(C) Lord Stephen (D) None of the above
40. Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, are motive,
preparation and conduct relevant
(A) Section 7 (B) Section 8
(C) Section 9 (D) Section 10
41. A judgement given by a final court in exercise of its probate,
matrimonial, admiralty and insolvency jurisdiction is called
(A) Judgement in rem (B) Judgement in personam
(C) Resjudicata (D) Estoppel
42. When a document is very clear in its plain reading but difficult in its
application to the existing facts, it is known as
(A) Patent ambiguous document (B) Latent ambiguous document
(C) Unworthy document (D) Critical document
43. Under which Section of Indian Evidence Act, Presumption as to
legitimacy of child is provided
(A) Section 112 (B) Section 113 (C) Section 113-A(D) Section 113-B
44. Which of the following is correct?
(A) Witness is allowed to see any document to refresh his memory
(B) Plaintiff can cross examine his own witness with the permission of the court
(C) Leading questions can be asked in the cross examination
(D) All the above
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45. “Conclusive proof” is relating to
(A) A presumption of fact only
(B) Presumption of law only
(C) Can be a presumption of fact or law or both
(D) None of the above
46. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(A) Confession made to a police officer shall not be proved
(B) Confession made while in the custody of a police officer shall not be proved
(C) Confession made under a promise of secrecy shall not be proved
(D) All the above
47. Which of the following statement is correct as to burden of proof in
India?
(A) Burden of proof lies on the accused person if he pleads the defence under
the general exceptions of IPC
(B) Burden of proof always constant but the burden to adduce evidence is not
constant
(C) Burden of proof as to ownership lies on the person who affirms that the
possessor of the property is not the owner
(D) All the above
48. Under which provision of the Indian Evidence Act, is an accomplice a
competent witness against an accused person?
(A) Section 333 (B) Section 141 (C) Section 146 (D) None
49. The meaning of “leading question” is
(A) One which leads the judge to get a proper answer from the witness
(B) One which suggests the answer in the question
(C) One where the question is very important for deciding relevancy and
admissibility of other evidences
(D) None of the above
50. Under which provision of the Indian Evidence Act, improper admission
or rejection of evidence is not a ground for re-trial
(A) Section 136 (B) Section 166 (C) Section 167 (D) Section 168
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51. Offences punishable under AP Town Nuisances Act 1889 — which of
the following statements is correct
(A) A police officer cannot arrest a person committing any offence under this
Act without a warrant
(B) A police officer can arrest a person committing certain offences only
without a warrant
(C) A police officer can arrest without warrant any person committing any
offence punishable by this Act
(D) None of the above
52. Which, if any, of the following, does not fall under the definition of
“public servant”, as per the Prevention of Corruption Act 1988?
(A) Judge of the Supreme Court
(B) Depot Manager of APSRTC
(C) Chief Secretary to Govt.
(D) All of the above fall under the definition of public servant
53. Which is the provision of Cr.P.C. which allows a witness being
examined by a police officer, not to answer questions, answers to which
would have a tendency to expose him to a criminal charge?
(A) S.159 (B) S.160 (D) S.161 (D) S.162
54. A instigates B to murder Z. The offence is not committed. What
punishment, if any is A “”liable tor?
(A) Not liable for any punishment (B) Imprisonment for life
(C) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years
(D) None of the above
55. Which of the following accused would you link to offences under
Sections 256 to 260 IPC?
(A) Charles Sobharaj (B) Telgi
(C) Accused in Nithari Killings (D) None of the above
56. The Legal Metrology department mainly deals with the offences in
______ of the IPC
(A) Chapter XI (B) Chapter XII (C) Chapter XIII (D) Chapter XIV
57. Sextion of 124 IPC deals with the offence of assaulting
(A) Governor of a state (B) Chief Minister of a state
(C) Any minister of a state (D) None of the above
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58. Which of the following cities is not deemed to be declared to be a
metropolitan area by the Cr.P.C. itself?
(A) Bombay (B) Delhi (C) Calcutta (D) Ahmedabad
59. Which among the following is not designated as a grievous hurt?
(A) Emasculation
(B) Permanent disfiguration of the face
(C) Any hurt which causes the sufferer to be in severe bodily pain for fifteen days
(D) Dislocation of a tooth
60. What is the maximum punishment which can be imposed on conviction
for any of the offences under The AP Town Nuisances Act 1889?
(A) Rs. 50 fine and one month RI (B) Rs. 1,000 fine and six months RI
(C) Rs. 5,000 fine and 1 year RI (D) Rs. 10,000 fine and 1 year RI
61. Who among the following will not be a member of Juvenile Justice
Board constituted under The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of
Children) Act, 2000.
(A) Police Officer (B) Woman
(C) Magistrate (D) Social worker
62. “Cattle” under AP Forest Act, 1967 includes
(A) Elephants (B) Pigs (C) Cows (D) All the above
63. “Foreman” has been given certain responsibilities under
(A) Factories Act, 1948
(B) Andhra Pradesh Chit Funds Act, 1971
(C) Hyderabad City Police Act, 1348
(D) Andhra Pradesh (Telangana Area) District Police Act, 1329
64. Which of the following agencies is not exempted from Right to
Information Act, 2005 under S.24 of the Act?
(A) Border Security Force (B) Supreme Court
(C) Intelligence Bureau (D) Assam Rifles
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65. If a personis convicted a second time under Sections 3 or 4 of the
Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 the
maximum punishment he can be awarded is
(A) 5 years imprisonment and fine of rupees 1 lakh
(B) 4 years imprisonment and fine of rupees 50 thousand
(C) 1 year imprisonment and fine of rupees 25 thousand
(D) 6 months imprisonment and fine of rupees 2 thousand
66. The concept of plea bargaining was introduced in the criminal
administration of justice in India through
(A) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2006
(B) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 1983
(C) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 1993
(D) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005
67. The definition of Child under the Child Labour (Prohibition and
Regulation) Act, 1986 is
(A) A person who has not completed 12 years of age
(B) A person who attained 12 years of age
(C) A person who has not completed 14 years of age
(D) A person who has completed 16 years of age and is below 18 years of
age
68. Any person aggrieved by an order passed by any officer, other than the
Commissioner or District Collector under AP Excise Act, 1968 may
appeal to the Deputy Commissioner
(A) Within 15 days from the date of communication of the order
(B) Within 30 days from the date of communication of the order
(C) Within 40 days from the date of communication of the order
(D) Within 45 days from the date of communication of the order
69. Which of the following is not a requisite of a Promissory Note?
(A) The Promise to pay as unconditional
(B) The sum payable must be certain
(C) The signature of the maker
(D) The attestation of witnesses
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70. The Andhra Pradesh Pawn Brokers Act was passed in the year
(A) 2001 (B) 2002 (C) 2003 (D) 2005
71. You would associate “Mathura Case” with the offences relating to
(A) environmental pollution (B) wounding of religious feelings
(C) rape (D) none of the above.
72. Which is the provision of the Cr.P.C. which enables a High Court to
transfer cases and appeals from one court to another?
(A) Sec. 402 (B) Sec. 404 (C) Sec. 406 (D) Sec. 407
73. Which of these offences are compoundable without the permission of
the court?
(A) S. 342 IPC (B) S.335 IPC (C) S.354 IPC (D) None of the above
74. Who can make a reference to the High Court under S 395 Cr.P.C.?
(A) President of India (B) Governor of a State
(C) The Supreme Court of India (D) Any court subordinate to that HC
75. Warrant case means
(A) All cases relating to an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life
(B) All cases relating to an offence punishable with death or imprisonment
exceeding seven years
(C) All cases relating to an offence, punishable with death or imprisonment for
a term exceeding two years
(D) None of the above
76. You would associate the word “Service Providers” with which Act?
(A) The Information Technology Act 2000
(B) The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act 2000
(C) Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005
(D) The Right to Information Act 2005
77. What if any role does the state legislature have in an exercise to form a
new state by separation of territory from that State?
(A) It has no role
(B) Its views have to be sought before introducing a Bill in Parliament
(C) The consent of the State legislature is mandatory before introducing a Bill in
Parliament
(D) None of the above
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78. Whoever threatens any person with any injury to his person, reputation
or property with intent to cause that person to give false evidence
commits an offence under
(A) S.192-A IPC (B) S.194-A IPC (C) S.195-A IPC (D) S.196-A IPC
79. The Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955 basically intends to ensure that
the rights accrued due to_______ of the Constitution of are repected and
enjoyed.
(A) Art. 17 (B) Art. 18
(C) Art. 19 (D) None of the above
80. Which of these laws do not have a provision for enhanced punishment
for subsequent convictions under some of the provisions in that law?
(A) A.P. Gaming Act 1974
(B) SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act 1989
(C) Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955
(D) None of the above.
81. Any offence committed under the SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities)
Act 1989 shall be investigated only by
(A) A police officer in the CID
(B) A police officer not below the rank of Deputy Supdt. of police
(C) A police officer specially empowered in this regard by Govt.
(D) All of the above
82. Which of the following statements is not true in relation to the Right to
Information Act 2005?
(A) No court shall entertain any suit application or other proceeding in respect
of any order made under this Act.
(B) The Act is not applicable to the Central Reserve Police Force
(C) Wherever there are inconsistencies between this Act and the Official
Secretes Act 1923, the provisions of the RTI Act shall prevail
(D) The Act has three schedules
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83. What are the qualifications required for being appointed as Presiding
Officer of a Cyber Appellate Tribunal under the Information Technology
Act 2000?
(A) is or has been a member of the Indian Legal Service and is holding or has
held a post in grade 1 of that service for atleast 3 years
(B) is or has been, or is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court
(C) both (A) and (B) above
(D) either (A) or (B) above
84. Which is the agency which, as per the Act has a vital role to play in the
operation of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act
2005?
(A) Officials of Women and Child Welfare Dept.
(B) Officials of Social Welfare Dept.
(C) Protection Officers
(D) All of the above
85. Under what circumstances can Govt. pass an ad interim order attaching
the money or other property of a financial establishment or the
promoter under S.3 of AP Protection of Depositors of Financial
Establishments Act 1999?
(A) Upon complaints received from depositors that the financial establishment
has defaulted or is likely to default in the return of deposits after maturity
(B) Where Govt. has reason to believe that the financial establishment is acting
in a manner prejudicial to the interests of the depositors with an intention
to defraud them
(C) Where Govt. is satisfied that the financial establishment is not likely to
return the deposits after maturity
(D) All of the above
86. X, while doing a lawful act with proper care and caution, accidentally
causes the death of A. What is the provision of IPC under which X can
seek protection?
(A) Sec. 79 (B) Sec. 80
(C) Sec. 81 (D) Sec. 82
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87. Where an accused facing trial in a sessions case does not have
sufficient means to engage a pleader to defend himself, under what
provision of the Cr.P.C. does the court assign a pleader to defend him?
(A) Sec. 303 Cr.P.C (B) Sec. 304 Cr.P.C
(C) Sec. 305 Cr.P.C (D) Sec. 306 Cr.P.C.
88. Which is the case in which the Supreme Court of India has laid down
exhaustive instructions and guidelines relating to the process and
procedure of arrest?
(A) Indra Sawhney case (B) D.P. Yadav case
(C) D.K. Basu case (D) None of the above
89. Which is the provision of Cr.P.C. which bars appeal by the convicted
person in certain petty cases?
(A) Sec. 374 (B) Sec. 375 (C) Sec. 376 (D) Sec. 377
90. The period of limitation U/S 468 Cr.P.C, for taking cognisance of an
offence punishable with a term exceeding one year but not exceeding
three year is
(A) one year (B) two years
(C) three years (D) there is no limitation
91. A person who intentionally gives false evidence in any stage of a
judicial proceeding or fabricates false evidence for the purpose of being
used in any stage of a judicial proceeding shall be punished with
imprisonment which may extend to
(A) Two years (B) Three years
(C) Seven years (D) Ten years
92. When can a court not permit leading questions?
(A) When the question pertains to matters which are already sufficiently proved
(B) When the question pertains to matters which are undisputed
(C) When the question pertains to matters which are introductory
(D) None of the above
93. A foreigner commits an act on board an Indian ship on the high seas
which amounts to an offence under the I.P.C. but does not constitute an
offence in his own country
(A) He cannot be tried in India for an offence under the I.P.C.
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(B) He can be tried in India for an offence under the I.P.C.
(C) He can be tried only in his own country
(D) None of the above
94. The doctrine of estoppel applies to
(A) civil proceedings only (B) civil and criminal proceedings only
(C) criminal proceedings only (D) none of the above
95. In which year was the Andhra Pradesh Gaming Act enacted?
(A) 1972 (B) 1973 (C) 1974 (D) 1975
96. What is the minimum punishment for demanding of dowry under Dowry
Prohibition Act, 1961?
(A) One month (B) Two months (C) Four months (D) Six months
97. Who shall be appointed as a Justice of the Peace under the Andhra
Pradesh (Andhra Area) District Police Act 1859?
(A) Director General of Police (B) Deputy Inspector General of Police
(C) Superintendent of Police (D) None of the above
98. A confession which is otherwise relevant, but has been obtained in
consequence of a deception practised on the accused for obtaining such
confession
(A) is not admissible in evidence (B) is admissible in evidence
(C) is hit by S.24 of Evidence Act (D) none of the above
99. surgeon who performs a complicated surgery on X with the consent of
X, knowing that it is likely to cause the death of X, but intending in
good faith to benefit X, would, the case of death of X, be protected by
(A) S.87 IPC (B) S.88 IPC
(C) S.89 IPC (D) None of the above
100. What are the ways in which the credit of a witness may be impeached?
(A) By evidence of persons that the witness is unworthy of credit
(B) By proof that the witness has been bribed or received any other corrupt
inducement
(C) By former statements inconsistent with the present evidence
(D) By all of the above
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PAPER -2
DESCRIPTIVE
Marks :200
Questions 1 to 10 : 10 marks each
1. Plea Bargaining
2. Criminal Misconduct of Public Servant under Prevention of Corruption Act
3. Res Gestae
4. Confessions in Police Custody
5. Under what circumstances Secondary evidence may be given.
6. Writ of Mandamus.
7. What is the procedure while conductiong search
8. Theft, extortion and robbery.
9. Offences relating to marriage.
10. Inquest
Questions 11 to 15 : 20 marks each
11. What are the guidelines given by SC in Dr. D. K. Basu vs. State of West
Bengal.
12. Common Intention and Common Object
13. Culpable Homiside and Murder
14. Dying Declaration
15. Judgement relating to IXth Schedule of the Constitution.
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