DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL

SAIL TOWNSHIP,RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class - XII Subject – Accountancy

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks - 80

General Instructions:
1. There is no overall choice, however, there is an internal choice of 2 questions of 1 mark, 2 questions
of 3 marks, 1question of 4 marks and 2 questions of 6 marks.
2. Attempt all parts of a question together.

1. X and Y share profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. Z is admitted as a new partner. Z takes
1/4th of his share from X and Y gives 3/16th from his share to Z. The profit & loss share of Z is
____
(a) 1/6 (b) 1/16 (c) 1/4 (d) None of these [1]
(OR)
A and B are in partnership sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2. They take C as a new partner.
Goodwill of the firm is valued at Rs. 3,00,000 and C brings Rs. 30,000 as his share of goodwill in
cash which is entirely credited to the Capital Account of A. New profit sharing ratio will be:
(a) [Link] (b) [Link] (c) [Link] (d) [Link]

2. Ganga, a partner withdrew Rs. 5,000 in the beginning of each quarter and interest on drawings
was calculated as Rs. 1,500 at the end of an accounting year 31st March, 2023. What is the
interest rate charged on Ganga’s drawings?
(a) 6% p. a (b) 8% p.a. (c) 10% p.a. (d) 12% p.a. [1]
3. Which of the following statement does not relate to ‘Reserve Capital’ ?
(a) It is a part of uncalled capital of a company
(b) It cannot be used during the life time of a company
(c) It can be used for writing off capital losses
(d) It is a part of subscribed capital [1]
4. In the context of debit side of Profit and Loss Appropriation Account, pick out the odd one.
(a) Interest on capital (b) Salary of partner
(c) Interest on drawings (d) Commission of partner [1]
(OR)
A partnership firm has four partners. How many additional partners can be admitted into the
business as per the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013?
(a) 50 (b) 100
(c) 46 (d) 96

5. Which of the following is not a right of a partner?

(a) Right to inspect the books of accounts
(b) Right to take part in the management of the firm
(c) Right to share the profits/losses with other partners in agreed ratio
(d) Right to receive salary at the end of every year. [1]

1
6. A, B and C are partners in a firm sharing profit/loss in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1. On 31st March, 2019, C
died. Books of accounts are closed on 31st December, every year. The sales for the year 2018 were
Rs. 6,00,000 and the Profits of 2018 were Rs. 60,000. The sales for the period from 1st January,2019
to 31st March, 2019 were Rs. 2,00,[Link] share of deceased partner in the current year’s profits
on the basis of sales is______
(a) Rs. 20,000 (b) Rs. 8,000 (c) Rs. 3,000 (d) Rs. 4,000 [1]

7. ASSERTION (A): When the new partner brings his share of Goodwill in cash and it is to be paid
to the existing partners privately, no entry is passed in the books.
REASON (R): The intention of the partners is not to show the amount/transaction relating to
Goodwill for any of the reasons.
In the context of the above two statements, which of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)correctly explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R)does not correctly explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(d) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct [1]
8. ASSERTION: (A) If minimum subscription is not received within the specified period,
application money shall be refunded within 15 days from the closure of the
issue.
REASON: (R) SEBI, the Regulatory authority for listed companies prescribes that the company
must receive a minimum subscription of 90% of the shares issued for public
subscription before it allots the shares.
In the context of the above two statements, which of the following is correct?
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)correctly explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R)does not correctly explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(d) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct [1]
9. On the basis of the following data, how much final payment will be made to a partner on firm’s
dissolution?
Credit balance of Capital account of the partner was Rs. 50,000. Share of loss on realization
amounted to Rs.10,000. Firm’s liability taken over by him was for Rs. 8,000.
(a) Rs. 32,000 (b) Rs. 48,000
(c) Rs. 40,000 (d) Rs. 52,000 [1]
10. A company forfeited 4,000 shares of Rs. 10 each on which application money of Rs. 3 has been
paid. Out of which 2,000 shares were reissued as fully paid up and Rs. 4,000 has been
transferred to Capital Reserve. Calculate the rate at which these shares were re-issued.
(a) Rs. 10 per share (b) Rs. 9 per share
(c) Rs. 11 per share (d) Rs. 8 per share [1]
11. Which of the following statement(s) is /are true?
(i) Authorised Capital < Issued Capital
(ii) Authorised Capital ≥ Issued Capital
(iii) Subscribed Capital ≤ Issued Capital
(iv) Subscribed Capital > Issued Capital
(a) (i) only (b) Both (i) and (iv)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) only [1]

2
12. A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. C died and the new profit sharing
ratio of A and B is 3 : 2. The gaining ratio will be ______
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 2 (d) None of these [1]
13. A, B and C are partners. The firm had given a loan of Rs. 20,000 to B. They decided to dissolve
the firm. In the event of dissolution, the loan will be settled by _____
(a) Transferring it to the debit side of Realisation account
(b) Transferring it to the credit side of Realisation account
(c) Transferring it to the debit side of B’s Capital account
(d) Partner B paying partners A and C privately [1]
14. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct?
(i) Goodwill is the present value of a firm’s anticipated excess earnings
(ii) Goodwill is a fictitious asset
(iii) Goodwill is an intangible asset
(iv) Goodwill is affected by the location of business
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (iii)
(c) Only (ii) (d) Only (iv) [1]
15. Gain/Loss on revaluation at the time of change in profit sharing ratio of existing partners is
shared by __(i)____, where as in case of admission of a partner it is shared by ___(ii)____.
(a) (i) Remaining Partners, (ii) All Partners
(b) (i) All Partners, (ii) Old Partners
(c) (i) New Partner, (ii) All Partners
(d) None of the above [1]
16. At the time of reconstitution of a partnership firm, recording of an unrecorded asset will lead to:
(a) Gain to the existing partners (b) Loss to the existing partners
(c) Neither gain nor loss to the existing partners (d) None of these [1]
17. A, B and C were sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. They decided to share the
future profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4 with effect from 1st April, 2023. An extract of their
Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2023 is given below:
Liabilities Amount(Rs.) Assets Amount(Rs.)
Workmen Compensation
Reserve 65,000
At the time of reconstitution, a certain amount of Claim on workmen compensation was
determined, for which B’s share of loss amounted to Rs. 5,000. The Claim for workmen
compensation would be:
(a) Rs. 15,000 (b) Rs. 70,000 (c) Rs. 50,000 (d) Rs. 80,000 [1]

18. X, Y and Z were partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1. Y died on 30th June, 2020 and
profit for the accounting year ended 31st March, 2020 was Rs. 36,000. If profit share of deceased
partner is to be calculated on the basis of previous year’s profit, amount of profit credited to Y’s
Capital Account will be ____
(a) Rs. 3,000 (b) Rs. 2,400 (c) Rs. 3,600 (d) Rs. 2,800 [1]

19. New Life Ltd. took over the business of Old Life Ltd. and paid for it by issue of 30,000 Equity
Shares of Rs. 100 each at par along with 12% Preference Shares of Rs. 1,00,00,000 at a premium
of 5% and a cheque of Rs. 8,00,000. What was the total agreed purchase consideration payable
to Old Life Ltd.?
(a) Rs. 1,05,00,000 (b) Rs. 1,43,00,000 (c) Rs. 1,40,00,000 (d) Rs. 1,35,00,000 [1]

3
20. On the death of a partner, Loan by the deceased partner to the firm is transferred to ____
(a) The debit of his Current account
(b) The credit of his Capital Account
(c) The debit of Remaining Partners’ Capital Accounts
(d) The credit of Remaining Partners’ Capital Accounts [1]
21. Anita and Momita are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. The firm maintains
fluctuating Capital Accounts and the balance of the same as on 31st March, 2022 was Rs. 4,00,000
and Rs. 3,50,000 for Anita and Momita respectively. Drawings during the year were Rs. 75,000
each. As per Partnership Deed interest on Capital @ 10% p.a. on Opening Capital had been
allowed.
(i) Calculate Opening Capitals of partners given that net profit during the year 2021-’22 was
Rs. 2,25,000.
(ii) Calculate Interest on partners’ Capitals.
Show your working notes. [3]
(OR)
Sriman and Srimati were partners in a firm sharing profits equally. Their fixed capitals were
Rs. 50,000 and Rs.25,000 respectively. The Partnership Deed provided interest on capital at the
rate of 12% per annum. For the year ended 31st March, 2020, the profits of the firm were
distributed without providing interest on capital.
Pass necessary adjustment entry to rectify the error.(Show your working notes clearly)
22. Rakhi and Shikha are partners in a firm, with fixed capitals of Rs. 2,00,000 and Rs. 3,00,000
respectively. The profit of the firm, for the year 2022-’23 is Rs. 23,200. As per partnership
agreement, they share profits in their capital ratio after allowing a salary of Rs. 5,000 per month
to shikha and interest on partner’s capital @ 10% p.a. During the year Rakhi withdrew Rs. 7,000
and Shikha Rs. 10,000 for their personal use. As per partnership deed, salary and interest on
capital are to be treated as charge against profits. You are required to prepare Profit and Loss
Appropriation Account. [3]

23. Yash and Karan were partners in an interior designer firm. Their fixed capitals were Rs. 6,00,000
and Rs. 4,00,000 respectively. There were credit balances in their current accounts of Rs. 4,00,000
and Rs. 5,00,000 respectively. The firm had a balance of Rs. 1,00,000 in General Reserve. The
firm did not have any liability. They admitted Radhika into partnership for 1/4th share in the
profits of the firm. The average profits of the firm for the last five years were Rs. 5,00,000.
Calculate the value of goodwill of the firm by capitalization of average profits method. The
normal rate of return in the business is 10%. [3]
24. Lovely Ltd. forfeited 100 shares of Rs. 10 each issued at 10% premium (Rs. 8 called up) on
which a shareholder did not pay Rs. 3 per share of allotment (including premium) and first call
of Rs. 2 per share. Out of these 60 shares were reissued to Radha as fully paid up, for Rs. 8 per
share and 20 shares to Shyam as fully paid up @ Rs. 12 per share at different intervals of time.
Prepare Share Forfeiture account. [3]
(OR)
Guru Ltd. invited applications for issuing 5,00,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of
Rs. 5 per share. Because of favourable conditions, applications were received for 15,00,000
shares.
Answer the following :
(i) Name the kind of subscription.
(ii) Suggest the alternatives available to the Board of Directors for the allotment of shares.

4
25. Ark Ltd. was registered with an authorized capital of Rs. 20,00,000 divided into 2,00,000 equity
shares of Rs. 10 each, payable Rs. 3 on application, Rs. 6 on allotment (including Rs. 1 premium)
and balance on call. The company offered 80,000 shares for public subscription. All the money
has been duly called and received except allotment and call money on 5,000 shares held by
Mamta and call money on 4,000 shares held by Akash. Mamta’s shares were forfeited and out of
these 3,000 shares were re-issued at Rs. 9 per share as fully paid up.
Show Share Capital in the books of the company. Also prepare notes to accounts. [4]

26. Raka and Baka were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses equally. On 31st March, 2023
their firm was dissolved. On the date of dissolution their Balance Sheet showed stock of
Rs. 60,000 and creditors of Rs. 70,000. After transferring stock and creditors to Realisation
Account the following transactions took place:
(1) Raka took over 40% of the total stock at 20% discount.
(2) 30% of the total stock was taken over by creditors of Rs. 20,000 in full settlement.
(3) Remaining stock was sold for cash at a profit of 25%.
(4) Remaining creditors were paid in cash at a discount of 10%.
Pass necessary Journal entries for the above transactions in the books of the firm. [4]
27. Sunita, Anita and Kavita were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 :2.
With effect from 1st April, 2019, they agreed to share future profits and losses in the ratio of
2 : 5 : 3. Their Balance Sheet showed a debit balance of Rs. 50,000 in the Profit & Loss Account
and a balance of Rs. 40,000 in the Investment Fluctuation Fund.
For this purpose, it was agreed that:
(i) Goodwill of the firm be valued at Rs. 3,00,000.
(ii) Investments of book value of Rs. 5,00,000 be valued at Rs. 4,80,000.
Pass the necessary Journal entries to record the above transactions in the books of the firm.
[4]
(OR)
Mita, Gopal and Farhan were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3: 2 : 1. On 31st
March, 2020 they decided to change the profit sharing ratio to 5: 3 : 2. On this date the Balance
Sheet showed Deferred Advertisement Expenditure Rs. 30,000 and Contingency Reserve
Rs. 9,000. Goodwill of the firm was valued at Rs. 4,80,000.
Pass the necessary Journal entries for the above transactions in the books of the firm on its
reconstitution.

28. Madhu and Neha were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 5. Their
fixed capitals were Rs. 4,00,000 and Rs. 6,00,000 respectively. On 1/1/2016, Tina was admitted
as a new partner for 1/4th share in the profits. Tina acquired her share of profit from Neha. Tina
brought Rs. 4,00,000 as her capital which was to be kept fixed like the capitals of Madhu and
Neha. Calculate the goodwill of the firm on Tina’s admission and the new profit sharing ratio of
Madhu, Neha and Tina.
Also, pass necessary journal entry for the treatment of goodwill on Tina’s admission
considering that Tina did not bring her share of goodwill in cash. [4]
29. Tom, Dick and Harry are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 7. On 1st April, 2023, Tom
gave a notice to retire from the firm. Dick and Harry decided to share future profits in the ratio
of 2 : 3. The adjusted capital accounts of Dick and Harry show a balance of Rs. 33,000 and
Rs. 70,500 respectively. The total amount to be paid to Tom is Rs. 90,500. This amount is to be
paid by Dick and Harry in such a way that their capitals become proportionate to their new
profit sharing ratio.
Pass the necessary Journal Entries for the above transactions. Show your workings clearly. [4]

5
30. Read the following hypothetical text and answer the given questions:
Amit and Mahesh were partners in a fast-food corner sharing profits and losses in ratio 3:2.
They sold fast food items across the counter and did home delivery too. Their initial fixed
capital contribution was Rs. 1,20,000 and Rs. 80,000 respectively. At the end of first year their
profit was Rs. 1,20,000 before allowing the remuneration of Rs.3,000 per quarter to Amit and Rs.
2,000 per half year to Mahesh. Such a promising performance for first year was encouraging,
therefore, they decided to expand the area of operations. For this purpose, they needed a
delivery van, a few Scotties and an additional person to support. Six months into the accounting
year they decided to admit Sundaram as a new partner and offered him 20% as a share of
profits along with monthly remuneration of Rs. 2,500. Sundaram was asked to introduce Rs.
1,30,000 for capital and Rs. 70,000 for premium for goodwill. Besides this Sundaram was
required to provide Rs.1,00,000 as loan for two years. Sundaram readily accepted the offer. The
terms of the offer were duly executed and he was admitted as a partner.
While taking up the accounting procedure for this reconstitution, the accountant of the firm
Mr. Suraj Marwaha faced a difficulty. Solve it by answering the following questions.
(i) Remuneration will be transferred to the _______ of Amit and Mahesh at the end of the
accounting period.
(a) Capital accounts. (b) Loan account.
(c) Current accounts. (d) None of the above.
(ii) Upon the admission of Sundaram the sacrifice for providing his share of profits would be
done:
(a) by Amit only. (b) by Mahesh only.
(c) by Amit and Mahesh equally. (d) by Amit and Mahesh in the ratio of 3:2.
(iii) Sundaram will be entitled to a remuneration of _____________at the end of the year.
(a) Rs. 2,500 (b) Rs.15,000 (c) Rs. 30,000 (d) None of these
(iv) For the amount of loan that Sundaram has agreed to provide, he is entitled to interest
thereon at the rate of ____________.
(a) 5% p.a (b) 6% p.a (c) 10% p.a (d) None of these [4x1=4]
31. Following is the Balance Sheet of Arun and Barun on March 31st, 2023.
Liabilities Amount Assets Amount
(Rs.) (Rs.)
Creditors 76,000 Cash at Bank 17,000
Mrs. Arun’s Loan 10,000 Stock 10,000
Mrs. Barun’s Loan 20,000 Investments 20,000
Investment Fluctuation Reserve 2,000 Debtors 40,000
General Reserve 20,000 Less: Provision
Capitals: For Bad Debts 4,000 36,000
Arun 20,000 Buildings 70,000
Barun 20,000 40,000 Goodwill 15,000
1,68,000 1,68,000

The firm was dissolved on that date. The following were agreed :
(i) Arun promised to pay Mrs. Arun’s loan and took away stock for Rs. 8,000
(ii) Barun took away half of the investments at 10% less.
(iii)Debtors realized for Rs. 38,000 and creditors were paid at less of Rs. 380.
(iv) Buildings realized for Rs. 1,30,000, Goodwill Rs. 12,000 and the remaining Investments
were sold at Rs. 9,000.
(v) An old typewriter not recorded in the books was taken by Barun for Rs. 600.
(vi) Realisation expenses amounted to Rs. 2,000.
Prepare Realisation Account. [6]
6
32. C and D were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses equally. On 31st March, 2023 their
Balance Sheet was as follows:
BALANCE SHEET OF C and D as on 31-3-2023
LIABILITIES AMT (RS) ASSETS AMT (RS)
Sundry Creditors 1,04,000 Cash at Bank 30,000
Capitals Bills Receivable 45,000
C 2,50,000 Debtors 75,000
D 2,16,000 4,66,000 Furniture 1,10,000
__________ Land and Building 3,10,000
5,70,000 5,70,000

On 1-4-2023, they admitted E as a new partner for 1/3rd share in the profits on the following
conditions:
(i) E will bring Rs. 3,00,000 as her capital and Rs. 50,000 as her share of goodwill premium, half
of which will be withdrawn by C and D
(ii) Debtors to the extent of Rs. 5,000 were unrecorded.
(iii) Furniture will be reduced by 10% and 5% provision for bad and doubtful debts will be
created on bills receivables and debtors.
(iv) Value of Land and Building will be appreciated by 20%.
(v) There being a claim against the firm for damages, a liability to the extent of Rs. 8,000 will be
created for the same.
Prepare Revaluation Account and Partners’ Capital Accounts. [6]
(OR)
Kapil, Varun and Praveen are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. Varun retired from the
firm. On that date the Balance Sheet of the firm was as follows:
Balance Sheet as on 31st March, 2020
Liabilities Amt (Rs) Assets Amt (Rs)
Creditors 15,000 Cash at Bank 7,600
General Reserve 12,000 Furniture 41,000
Bills Payable 12,000 Stock 9,000
Outstanding Salary 2,200 Premises 80,000
Provision for Legal Damages 6,000 Debtors 6,000
Capital Accounts: Less: Provision for
Kapil 46,000 Doubtful Debts 400 5,600
Varun 30,000
Praveen 20,000
1,43,200 1,43,200

Additional Information:
(i) Premises to be appreciated by 20%, Stock to be depreciated by 10% and Provision for
doubtful debts was to be maintained @ 5% on Debtors. Further provision for legal
damages is to be increased by 1,200 and Furniture to be brought up to Rs. 45,000
(ii) Goodwill of the firm is valued at Rs. 42,000
(iii) Rs. 50,000 from Varun’s Capital account to be transferred to his loan account and balance
to be paid through bank.
(iv) New profit sharing ratio of Kapil and Praveen is decided to be 5 : 1
Prepare Revaluation account and Capital Accounts of Partners.

7
33. A. B and C were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. C died on
30th June, 2020. After all the necessary adjustments, his capital account showed a credit balance
of Rs. 7,06,000. C’s executors were paid Rs. 1,06,000 on 1st July, 2020 and the balance has to be
paid in three equal yearly installments starting from 30th June, 2021 together with interest
@ 10% p.a. on the unpaid amount. The firm closes its books on 31st March every year.
Prepare C’s executors’ account till the amount is finally paid. [6]

34. Jyoti Ltd. invited applications for issuing 1,20,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of
Rs. 2 per share. The amount was payable as follows:
On Application --- Rs. 2 per share
On Allotment --- Rs. 5 per share (including premium)
On First and Final call --- Balance
Applications for 1,50,000 shares were received. Shares were allotted to all applicants on pro rata
basis. Excess money received on applications was adjusted towards sums due on allotment. All
calls were made. Manav who had applied for 3,000 shares failed to pay the amount due on
allotment and first and final call. Mansi who was allotted 2,400 shares failed to pay the first and
final call. Shares of both Manav and Mansi were forfeited and reissued at Rs. 9 per share as
fully paid-up.
Pass necessary journal entries for the above transactions in the books of Jyoti Ltd. [6]
(OR)
X Ltd. has offered 50,000 equity Shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium Rs. 20, payable as follows:
Application Rs. 50
Allotment Rs. 40 (including premium)
And Balance on First and Final Call.
The Bank Account of the company has received Rs. 35,00,000 on account of share application
money. X Ltd. decided to allot shares to all the applicants on Pro Rata basis. The balance in calls
in arrears account at the time of allotment and first and final call amounted to Rs. 1,00,000 and
Rs. 1,50,000 respectively. These shares were forfeited and re-issued at Rs. 90 per share as fully
paid up.
Journalise the above transactions.

8
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class – XII Subject – Biology

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks - 70

(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are
compulsory.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2
marks each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-
based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks
each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in
some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such
questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION-A
[Link]. Questions Marks

Consider three plants with the following modes of pollination:

1. Plant P: autogamy 1
Plant Q: xenogamy
Plant R: geitonogamy
Which plant will not show genetic variation in the offspring:
(a)Only P (b)Only Q
(c)Only P & R (d)Only Q & R

2. Polyembryony is common in Citrus and Mango where their each ovule 1

contains many embryo.
Which of the following statements is true about polyembryony:
[Link] than one eggs are fertilized at the same time
[Link], genetically-identical offspring arise from a single embryosac.
[Link] cells surrounding the embryo sac start dividing, protrude into
the embryo sac and develop into the embryos.
IV. Developed all embryos are non-identical and genetically diverse from
their parents.
(a)I & IV (b) II & III
(c)III & IV (d) I & II

1
 3 Match the Column-II with Column
Column-II and select correct option
Column-I Column-II 1
A Perimetrium (i) a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin
and pubic hair
B Mons pubis (ii) external thin membranous wall of Uterus
C labia majora (iii) thick layer of smooth muscle
D Myometrium (iv) fleshy folds of tissue, which surround the
vaginal opening

A B C D
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
The human male ejaculates about 200 to 300 million sperms during a [Link] Select
4 the characteristics required in sperms for normal fertility: 1
(a) 60 % sperms must have normal shape and size
(b) 100% must have larger head and smaller tail with thick neck
(c) 40 per cent of them must show vigorous motility
(d) Both a & c.
Sterilisation techniques are generally fool proof methods of contraception with
5 least side effects. Yet, this is the last option for the couples because: 1
I. It is reversible and surgically removed some parts of reproductive tract.
II. Of the misconception that it will reduce sexual urge
III. It is a surgical procedure
IV. Of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the country
country.
Select correct option:
(a) II & III only
(b) II & IV only
(c) II,III & IV
(d) I, II & IV
Select correct statement from the study of the given Karyotypes and Karyograms
6 1

2
 I. Aneuploidy and individual developed trisomic chromosomal disorder
II. Aneuploidy and individual developed monosomic chromosomal disorder
III. Turner’s syndrome results due to loss of an X chromosome in human females
IV. Down’s syndrome where female with rudimentary ovary and sterile.
(a) I & II
(b) II & IV
(c) II & III
(d) I & IV
7 During protein synthesis, if the available tRNAs contain the anticodons UCA,
AUG, and AAG,, what will be the correct sequence of bases on the mRNA strand 1
that is selected by these tRNAs?

(a) 5′ − CUUCAUUGA − 3′
(b) 5′ − AGUUACUUC − 3′
(c) 5' −UGACAUCUU − 3'
(d) 5' − AUCGCGUAU − 3'
8 Under the following lac operon model for the regulation of gene expression in E.
coli bacteria, select the correct statement given below. 1

I.P stand for promoter sequence on mRNA

II.O stand for operator sequence on DNA
III. z,y & a stand for structural gene
genes
IV.Q stand for lac mRNA
V.R stand for lac mRNA

(a) II,III & V (b) I,III & IV

(b) I & IV only (d) II & IV only.

3
 9 With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes:
(a) Exons and introns do not appear in the mature RNA 1
(b) Exons appear but introns do not appear in the mature RNA
(c) Introns appear but exons do not appear in the mature RNA
(d) Both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA

10 In pigeons, one gene controls the appearance of a crest on the head. The allele C
(smooth head) is dominant to allele C' (crested head). 1
In a population of pigeons, the frequency of the allele responsible for a smooth
head is 0.7 and for a crested head, it is 0.4.
Which of the following conditions should be satisfied for the population to be in
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
(a) The sum total of the frequency of C and C' is equal to 1.
(b) The sum total of the frequency of C and C' is less than 1.
(c) The sum total of the frequency of C and C' is more than 1.
(d) Cannot be said without knowing the frequency of CC' individuals.
11 A population of grey tree frog lives on deciduous trees where they blend well in
with the bark. Some members of the population have variations in body colour - 1
with different shades of grey as well as yellow on their ventral side.
Due to changes in the environmental conditions, yellow lichen start growing on
the trees. The grey tree frogs can now be easily spotted by predators such as birds
and snakes against the yellow background.

Which of the following BEST describes 'survival of the fittest' in this scenario?

(a) Only the biggest and strongest tree frogs will survive and reproduce.
(b) Tree frogs will change their colour to yellow to avoid being eaten by predators.
(c) Some tree frogs that might have slightly yellowish skin will survive and
reproduce.
(d) Tree frogs with slightly yellowish skin will feed on gray tree frogs to eliminate
them.
12 Which of the given statements is correct in the context of visualizing DNA 1
molecules separated by agarose gel electrophoresis?

(a) DNA can be seen in visible light

(b) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
(c) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light
(d) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light

4
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A & R both are false.

13 Assertion [A]: Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum 1
and sperm meeting.
Reason[R] : In periodic abstinence, the couples avoid coitus from day 10 to12.
14 Assertion[A] : Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as 1
alleles.
Reason[R]: Mendel proposed that something was being stable and passed down,
unchanged from parents to offsprings through gametes.

15 Assertion [A]: In transcription, the strand with 3′→5′ polarity acts as the 1

template strand.
Reason[R] : The enzyme RNA polymerase catalyses the polymerisation in only
one direction, i.e. 5′→3′

16 Assertion [A]: Genetic makeup serves as the primary factor in shaping the 1
phenotype of a species and not vice versa.
Reason[R] : Adaptation involves the phenotype's interaction with the environment,
leading to changes in genetic makeup over generations.

SECTION- B
17. (a) List some STIs that are transmitted through means other than sexual intercourse. 2
(b) What causes deter infected persons from seeking timely detection and proper
treatment?
18. A colour-blind father will not have a colour-blind son. 2
State if the above statement is true and justify your answer if the mother is
homozygous for the:
(a) colour blind trait
(b) normal vision trait
19. Over the years, researchers have gathered enough evidence to suggest that RNA 2
was the first genetic material which was slowly replaced by DNA.
Give two reasons why RNA was replaced by DNA as the genetic material.

20 In a population of birds, individuals with intermediate beak sizes can effectively 2

feed on a range of available seeds while birds with either small or large beak sizes
find it difficult to access certain seeds.

5
 (a) Which birds are more likely to be natura
naturally selected?
(b) Based on (a), which type of natural selection does this phenomenon exemplify?
OR
(a) What is founder effect?
(b) Among the five factors that are known to affect Hardy
Hardy-Weinberg
Weinberg equilibrium,
equilib
three factors are gene flow, genetic drift and genetic recombination. What are
the other two factors?

21. (a) What does H in’ ‘d’ and ‘III’ refer to in the enzyme Hind III? 2
(b) How does one visualize DNA on an agarose gel?
SCETION-C
22. (a) Although majority of flowering plants produce hermaphrodite flowers,
flowers in some 3
species, pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronised. Why have
these plants adapted
dapted to this condition?
(b) Differentiate between parthenocarpy and apomixes.
OR
The following figures depict various stages of embryonic development in a dicot
plant, arranged non-systematically.
systematically. A
Arrange
rrange them in the correct sequential order
and name each stage accordingly
accordingly.

23. In the diagram of a human sperm given below: 3

(a) What is the role of the acrosome?

(b) Only one sperm is able to fertilise the egg. How is this ensured?
(c) Why does the middle piece have a lot of mitochondria?

6
24. Answer the following questions: 3
(i) Based on the site of fertilisation, state one difference between Intra-Uterine
Transfer (IUT) of embryo and Intra-Uterine Insemination (IUI).
(ii) All Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ARTs) require the extraction of the
female gamete from the ovary. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE? Give a
reason.
(iii) State one characteristic each of the donor and recipient's reproductive system
that enables them to participate in Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT).
25. (a) Define aneuploidy. 3
(b) Describe the individuals having following chromosomal abnormalities.
(i)XXY
(ii) X0
26. Given below is a DNA sequence. 3
5' - TAACGATCGTACATGGAT - 3'
Identify the mRNA sequence that is transcribed from this DNA sequence.
Can this sequence be translated? Give a reason to support your answer.
[Note: Assume no post-transcriptional and post-translational modifications will take
place.]
27. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have distinct flagella with differences in structure 3
and mechanism. Prokaryotic flagella are helical and driven by a rotary motor
powered by ion flow. Eukaryotic flagella feature a 9+2 microtubule arrangement,
propelled by microtubule sliding via dynein motor proteins.
(a) Identify if the above can be classified as homologous or analogous structures.
Justify your answer
(b) Differentiate between Divergent and convergent evolution.
28. (a) What are the basic steps involved in genetically modifying an organism? 3
(b) Differentiate between exonuclease and endonuclease.
(c) What is the name of the first restriction endonuclease discovered?
SECTION-D
Q.29&30 are case based [Link] question has 3 subparts with internal choice in one
subpart.
29. Case Study: Haplo-Diploidy Sex Determination in Honey Bees. 4

Honey bees (Apis mellifera) exhibit a unique sex determination system known as
haplo-diploidy. This system is a form of sex determination that results in males
(drones) have one set of chromosomes, and females (queens and workers) they
have two sets of chromosomes.
The haplo-diploid system has significant evolutionary implications. It promotes kin
selection and altruistic behavior among workers since they are more closely related
to their sisters (workers) than to their own offspring. This genetic structure
underpins the highly cooperative nature of honey bee colonies.
(a) What are the ploidy levels of male and female honey bees, and how many
chromosomes do they have?

(b) What special features make this type of sex determination unique?

7
 (c) Justify with a flow diagram: "Males do not have fathers and thus cannot have
sons, but they have grandfathers and can have grandsons."
OR
(i) What type of reproduction occurs when an unfertilized egg develops into a male
bee?
(ii) Although both worker bee and queen bee are females,s, why are only queen bee
fertile while worker bee are sterile?
30. Case Study: Recombinant DNA technology
technology. 4
The DNA, which is transferred from one organism into another by joining it with
the vehicle DNA is called passenger or foreign DNA. Generally three types of
passenger DNAs are used. These are complementary DNA (cDNA), synthetic DNA
(sDNA) and random DNA. Complementary DNA (cDNA) is synthesized on RNA
template (usually mRNA) with the help of reverse transcriptase. Synthetic DNA
(sDNA) is synthesized on DNA template or without a template. Random DNA are
small fragments fanned by breaking a chromosome of an organism in the presence
of restriction endonucleases.

(a) Write the name of DNA which is developed from the template independently
indepe
or without the help of ttemplate DNA.
(b) Give TWO reasons why it is important to introduce the gene/s of interest in a
vector and then into the host cell or insert it directly into the host chromosomal
chromo
genome.
(c) Preferably, the gene of interest and the vector are cut with the same restriction
enzyme. Is this statement true? Give a reason to support your answer.
OR
(i) What is recognition sequence?
(ii) How can we distinguish transformant DNA from nontransformant mass?

8
 SECTION-E
31. (a)Given below is a flow chart showing ovarian changes during menstrual cycle. 5
Fill in the spaces[a,b & c ] giving the name of the hormones responsible for the
events shown and space ‘d’ as fate of corpus luteum.

(b)Why is menstrual cycle absent during pregnancy.

(c) Meiotic division during oogenesis is different from that in spermatogenesis.
Explain how and why?
OR
The image below shows the levels of various hormones measured in a human
female throughout the course of her pregnancy.

9
 Based on the image, answer the following questions.
(a) In which week of pregnancy does the corpus luteum degenerate?
(b) Which hormone peaks around the time in (a)? Name the organ that secretes it.
(c) Name three hormones from the above image that are secreted by the ovary.
(d) Which hormone level rises near the end of pregnancy? Mention its role.
(e) Name of hormones secreted ONLY during pregnancy:
(i) Which one has low levels in early weeks of pregnancy?
(ii) Which one starts declining 15 weeks before parturition?
32. 5
(a) Define linkage & Recombination. Write about relation between linkage and
recombination.
(b) The pedigree chart given below shows a particular trait which is absent in
parents but present in the next generatoin irrespective of sexes. Draw your
conclusion on the basis of the pedigree.

OR
A gardener has been planting white flowers that grow on the terminal ends of the
plant in a garden for several months. One day, a purple flower along the terminal
end of the plant grows. The gardener wants to know if these flowers would give rise
only to purple terminal flowers if pollinated. She knows that purple axial alleles are
recessive over white terminal ones.
(a) What are the possible genotypes of the new purple flower that sprouted?
(b) If she wants to use only one generation to determine its genotype, what should
she do?
(c) With the help of a Punnett grid/s, help her make inferences to arrive to the
conclusion she desires.
33. With the help of experiments done by various scientists over 40 years, it was finally 5
concluded that DNA is the genetic material.
(a) Which theory explains the flow of genetic information from DNA to protein,
and how does it occur?
(b) What were the conclusions drawn from Griffith's experiments using the S and R
strains in mice?
(c) Briefly describe the unequivocal proof that led to the conclusion that DNA is the
genetic material.
OR
(a) Why is RNA processing an essential step in eukaryotes? Explain each step
sequentially.
(b) What is the charging of tRNA? Describe the components of the initiation
complex for translation.

10
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP,RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class - XII Subject – Business Studies

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks - 80
General Instructions:-
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:
1. This question paper contains 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Marks are indicated against each question.
3. Answers should be brief and to the point.
4. Answers to questions carrying three marks may be from 50 to 75 words.
5. Answers to questions carrying four marks may be in about 150 words.
6. Answers to questions carrying six marks maybe in about 200 words.
7. Attempt all parts of a question together.

1. Identify the reason which makes management important in the light of the fact that generally
seen that individuals in an organisation resist change as a change often means moving from a
familiar secure environment into a newer and a more challenging one
(a) Management helps in achieving group goals
(b) Management creates a dynamic organisation
(c) Management increases efficiency of the organisation
(d) Helps in the development of the society (1)

2. Allo, a mobility platform is in the process of laying off 400 - 500 employees in a move aimed at
deriving cost efficiency. Which objective of management will the firm not be able to achieve by
carrying out this process?
(a) Efficiency
(b) social
(c) profit
(d) Survival (1)

3. In "Delight Ice Cream” limited "decision making authority is concentrated at the top level and
no authority has been delegated amongst the subordinates. On the other hand in" Tasty ice
cream limited "a big organisation as compared to" Delight Ice Cream limited", decision making
authority is always delegated among more than one person identify the principle of
management discussed above
(a) Stability of personnel
(b) Centralisation and Decentralization
(c) Authority and Responsibility
(d) Scalar chain (1)

4. What is the primary strategic focus of the company, considering it’s "The complete Man”
tagline, top position in the men's wear industry, and long standing collection that has enriched
a modern Gentleman's wardrobe for decades?
(a) ensuring ethical Sourcing
(b) reinforcing cultural heritage
(c) establishing a Unique Identity
(d) maximising production efficiency (1)
1
5. The GST Council during the 50th meeting resolved a prolonged debate on the tax treatment of
online gaming, casinos and horse racing , deciding to impose a 28% levy on the bets and wagers
for all three activities and amend the GST laws to include online gaming .Which of the
following is the most likely to impact of the GST Councils decision on the businesses in the
industry
(a) The cost of doing business will increase ,leading to higher prices for consumers
(b) Businesses will move their operations to other countries with lower tax rates
(c) The government will receive more revenue from the taxes
(d) The government will become more competitive (1)
6. ____ is considered a major element of the political environment
(a) The extent and nature of Government intervention in Businesses
(b) Planned Outlay in Public and Private Sectors
(c) Expectations from the work force
(d) Administrative order issued by Government authorities (1)

7. Which step in the process of ‘Planning’, function of Management Weighs Pros and cons of
each alternative?
(a) Developing premises
(b) Identifying alternative courses of action
(c) Evaluating alternative courses of action
(d) Selecting an alternative (1)

8. A Strategy is a comprehensive plan and will not include this dimensions

(a) Determining long term objectives
(b) Adopting particular course of action
(c) The ends which the management seeks to achieve by its operations
(d) Allocating resources necessary to achieve the objective (1)

9. Match the Following by choosing the correct option

COULMN A COULMN B
(i) Anticipate changes (a) Planning.
(ii) Planning decides in advance how work. (b) Reduces the risk of uncertainty.
is to be done.
(iii) Establishing standards for controlling. (c) Promotes innovation.
(iv) Planning encourages new ideas. (d) Provides directions.

(a) (i) - (a), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (d)

(b) (i) – (b), (ii) - (d), (iii) – (a), (iv) - (c)
(c) (i) – (c), (ii) – (d), (iii) – (a), (iv) – (b)
(d) (i) – (d), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (b), iv – (c) (1)
10. As span of Management increases in an organisation the number of levels of management in
the organisation -------------
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains unaffected
(d) None of the above (1)

2
11. Assertion (A): The lack of incentive within an organisation leads to high rate of employee
turnover
Reason (R): Motivation helps to reduce absenteeism in the organisation
(a) Both the statement (A )and( R )are correct and (R )is the right explanation of (A)
(b) Both the statement (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A)
(c) Statement (A) is correct but statement (R) is incorrect
(d) Both statement (A) and statement (R) are incorrect. (1)

12. In statement I: An Autocratic leader follows a two-way communication model

In Statement II: An Autocratic leader does not wish to be contradicted
(a) Both the statement I and statement II are true
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true (1)
13. Responsibility is derived from ____
(a) Authority
(b) Formal position
(c) Accountability
(d) All the above (1)
14. The process of defining and grouping the activities of the enterprise and establishing authority
responsibility relationship among them is
(a) Directing
(b) Staffing
(c) Management
(d) Organising (1)

15. Name the concept which explains the manner in which decision making responsibilities are
divided among the hierarchical levels
(a) Organisational structure
(b) Span of Management
(c) Delegation
(d) Decentralization (1)

16. A bottle of Antidandruff Shampoo" mentions "Clean your hair and get rid of the dandruff in
one squeeze" the product related decision involved
(a) Branding
(b) Product quality
(c) Packaging
(d) Labelling (1)

17. Name the function of Marketing which is effective in bringing repeat sales from customers
and developing brand loyalty for a product
(a) Standardisation and grading
(b) Promotion
(c) Customer support service
(d) Packaging and Labelling (1)

3
18."Product Cost" as a factor affecting price determination of a product includes
(a) Cost of producing, distributing and selling of the product
(b) Utility provided by the product
(c) Nature and degree of competition
(d) Maximising profit in the short run (1)

19. A brand or a part of the brand that is given legal protection is called ----------
(a) Brand Mark
(b) Trade Mark
(c) Brand
(d) Brand name (1)

20. Harshita Verma has set up a factory to manufacture herbal hand sanitizers, made in Meerut
The size and shape of the bottle in which the product are packed especially designed so that it
should be convenient to handled and to be use by the customer. The bottle in which the
sanitizers is packed is a part of
(a) Primary packaging
(b) Secondary packaging
(c) Territory Packaging
(d) Both secondary and tertiary packaging (1)

21. Management is an inexact Science do you agree? Explain stating reasons. (3)

22. Raj and Simran are both qualified surgeons and good friends. After obtaining a certificate of
practice they decide to purse their career of their own choice. Raj starts an ‘Eye Care Clinic’ in
the city where Simran joins a government hospital in a small village. They both meet each
other after a long time in a party .Raj invites Simran to visit his eye care center .and she accepts
the invitation and finds that there is a fixed place for everything and everyone. and it is present
there so there is no hindrance in the activities of the clinic. Also Raj tends to replace" I with We
"in all his conversations with the staff members. Later on Raj shares with her that he always
deals with the lazy staff sternly only to send the message that everyone is equal to his eyes.
• In the context of the above case identify and explain the various principles of management
that Raj is applying for the successful management of his “Eye Care Centre.” (3)

23. Bitcoin is a cryptocurrency and world wide payment system. It is the first decentralized digital
currency as the system works without a central bank or single administrator. The network is
peer to peer and transaction takes place between users directly without an intermediary. These
transactions are verified by network known through the use of cryptography and recorded in a
public distributed Ledger called the Blockchain. Bitcoin was invented by an unknown person
or group of persons under the name Santosh Nakamoto and release and open source software
in 2009 in the banking sector across the world.
• Identify and explain any two dimensions of business environment being referred to in the
above case. (3)

24. Explain Autocratic and Free Rein Leadership. (3)

4
25. Fast runners has become one of the most recognised Athletic brands in India. It deals in a wide
variety of sportswear, however off late it has been facing difficulty in keeping its inventory
under control. In 2022 the company adopted an inventory management software which helped
it to predict items that could sell best and prepare the company to meet the demand. This has
helped the company in providing better customer satisfaction by making the goods physically
available to them.
• State the three activities other than the one discussed above, that Fast Runners should
undertake in order to ensure the availability of its products at the right place at the right time
and in right quantity. (4)

26. Distinguish between Delegation and Decentralisation on the basis of (4)

(a) Nature. (b) Freedom of action (c) Status . (d) Scope.

27. Explain, (a) Employment Interview

(b) Selection Tests and types of selection tests. (4)
OR
Estimating manpower requirements is the first step of -----------------'Function of management
Enumerate and explain the other four steps followed for the same

28. Public transport corporation has hired 1000 buses for the different routes for the passengers of
a metropolitan city. Most of the 3000 Crewmen (drivers, conductors, helpers etc) of these buses
have been found to be wanting in satisfactorily dealing with the public and daily commuters.
They seem to be little interested in the job and the job seems to have lost all meaning .
(i) As a manager of the public transport company what measures do you suggest to improve
working of the crewmen in question?
(ii) Is it possible to modify the behaviour by planning a suitable type of training?
suggest any two types of the same. (4)

29. Pallavi started a wedding planner company" Dreams Unlimited" in 2016 and her target was to
be among the top 10 companies in the field within the next three years. And for this she
employed people having different skills. She worked hard and United the efforts of different
people to achieve this ,The requirement of the customers in this industry changed very fast and
the company adapted to keep pace with the changing environment .As planned the company
achieved its targets within Three years . All the employees of the Organisation were happy
and satisfied and the effect of management was noticeable in the Organisation.
The way Pallavi was managing her business highlights some of the features of Management.
By QUOTING LINES from the above paragraph explain any TWO features. (4)
OR
ENUMERATE the Designations of Supervisory level of Management and its Functions
(any four )

30. (i) ENUMERATE the steps in planning Process.

(ii) Explain, (a) Budget and (b) Programme as the type of single use plan. (4)

5
31. Kunal joined as a Shop Level Manager in the production department of a textile company in
the year 2005. Because of his good work he became the Deputy Production Manager of the
company in the year 2010. He had Status and Prestige and was well respected by all the
company On 1st March, 2019 he was promoted as the General Manager' of the company. Kunal
was very happy on his promotion as now he had become what he was capable of becoming as
a good manager, Kunal decided to motivate his subordinate after understanding the Need
Hierarchy theory which is based on the various assumption he realised that people 's
behaviour is based on their needs and the manager can influence the behaviour of the
employees by satisfying their needs .
(a) One of the assumptions of the need hierarchy theory is stated in the above paragraph state
the other Three Assumptions on this theory.
(b) State the need of Kunal which are being satisfied through Promotion. (6)

32. Explain the nature of principles of Management (6)

OR
Explain the following.
(a) Motion study
(b) Standardization and Simplification
(c) Subordination of Individual interest to General interest
(d) Differential wage rate system.
33. Sweets and more is one of the most important popular brands for Snacks and Sweets .It offers
a wide variety of Sweets Namkeen cookies and frozen foods .Its organisational structure
comprises of separate business units in each of the above category .Each of these unit have a
manager responsible for the performance having authority over the unit. Moreover iwithin
each unit it is multi Functional there is a need for different functions like production
marketing finance Though each type of organisation structure increase cost because of
duplication of the activity across product, but it provides a proper basis for performance
measurement as revenue and cost related to each of these business unit can be easily identified.
(a) identify the organisation structure of "Sweets and More "
(b) State Three Advantages and Two Disadvantages of the Organizational structure Identified
in (a) above which are not discussed in the above case. (6)

34. Traditional trade of Kirana stores constitute 90% of FMCG (Fast moving consumers good)
business in [Link] is the market leader of in FMCG with over 60 lakh Outlets According
to industry estimates, Patanjali Products are currently available in two Lakh retail outlets '
Availability of the product is the single largest driver of FMCG sales. A shopper research
suggest that 30% - 40% consumer shift preference if their favourite brand is not available at the
store in the context of the above case
(a) Identify the component of marketing mix being discussed in the above lines Explain
(b) State the two main decisions related to the concept identified in part (a)
(c) Name the type of Channel of Distribution adopted by HUL. (6)

6
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class - XII Subject – Chemistry

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks-70

General Instructions: Read the following instructions carefully and follow them:
(i) This Question Paper contains 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into FIVE sections – Section A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A – question number 01 to 16, are multiple choice type questions. Each question
carries 01 mark.
(iv) Section B – question number 17 to 21, is very short answer type questions. Each question
carries 02 marks.
(v) Section C – question number 22 to 28, is short answer type questions. Each question carries
03 marks.
(vi) Section D – question number 29 and 30, are case-based questions. Each question carries 04
marks.
(vii) Section E – question number 31 to 33, is long answer type questions. Each question carries 05
marks.
(viii) There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in few questions in all the sections except Section – A.
(ix) Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

SECTION – A

1. The relative lowering of vapour pressure of an aqueous solution containing nonvolatile solute is
0.0125. The molality of the solution is
A. 0.70
B. 0.50
C. 0.60
D. 0.80

2. Arrange the given set of compounds in order of increasing boiling points

(I) 1 – Chloro propane (II) Isopropyl chloride (III) 1 – Chlorobutane
A. II < III < I
B. I < II < III
C. II < I < III
D. III < I < II

3. Out of Fe , Co , Cr , Ni , the one which show highest magnetic moment is

A. Fe
B. Co
C. Cr
D. Ni
1
4. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the time (t) required for the completion 99% of
the reactions is given by
A. t = 2.303/k
B. t = 0.693/k
C. t = 6.909/k
D. t = 4.606/k

5. For the cell reaction

2Fe (aq) + 2I (aq) 2Fe (aq) + I (aq)
= 0.24 V at 298K. The standard Gibbs Energy of the all reaction is
A. 23.16 kJ/mol
B. -46.32 kJ /mol
C. -23.16 kJ /mol
D. 46.32 kJ /mol

6. Heating of phenylmethyl ether with HI produces

A. Iodobenzene + Iodoethane
B. Phenol + Methyl iodide
C. Benzene + Methyl iodide
D. Ethylchloride + Benzene

7. The quantity of charge required to obtain one mole of aluminium from Al O is

A. 1 F
B. 6 F
C. 3 F
D. 2 F

8. The average osmotic pressure of human blood is 7.8 bar at 37 $. What is the concentration of an
aqueous NaCl solution that could be used in the blood stream?
A. 0.15 mol/L
B. 0.30 mol/L
C. 0.60 mol/L
D. 0.45 mol/L

9. Two reactions R1 and R2 have identical pre exponential factors. Activation energy of R1 exceeds
that of R2 by 10 KJ/mol. If k1 and k2 are the rate constant for reactions R1 and R2 respectively at
300 K, then n (k2/k1) is equal to
A. 6
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12

10. What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K % &Fe'CN() * based on crystal
field theory
A. +% , +
B. , %+ +

C. , )+ +
D. + , +
2
11. The organic chloro compound, which shows complete stereochemical inversion during a
S. 2 reaction, is
A. CH Cl
B. 'C H0 ( CHCl
C. 'CH ( CCl
D. 'CH ( CHCl

12. The compound ‘A’ on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together
to give diethylether. A,B and C are in the order
A. C H0 OH, C H), C H0 Cl
B. C H0 OH, C H0 Cl, C H0 ONa
C. C H0 Cl, C H) , C H0 OH
D. C H0 OH, C H0 ONa, C H0 Cl

Direction: For questions number 13 to 16, two statements are given, One labelled as Assertion
(A) & other labelled as Reason (R) . Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes
(A), (B), (C) and (D), as given below :
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the
Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false.

13. Assertion: Rate constant increases with increase in temperature.

Reason: Increasing the temperature of the substance increase the fraction of molecules, which
collide with energies greater than activation energy.

14. Assertion: Addition of a non volatile solute to a volatile solvent increases the boiling point
Reason: Addition of a non volatile solute results in lowering of vapour pressure.

15. Assertion: A solution of sucrose in water is dextrorotatory but on hydrolysis in presence of

little hydrochloric acid, it becomes laevo –rotatory
Reason: Sucrose on hydrolysis gives unequal amounts of glucose and fructose as a result of
which changing sign of rotation observed.

16. Assertion: In monohaloarenes, further electrophilic substitution occurs at ortho & para
position
Reason: Halogen atom is a ring deactivator.

SECTION – B

17. (A) On mixing liquid X and liquid Y, the volume of resulting solutions increases. What type of
deviation from Raoult’s law is shown by the resulting solution? What change in
temperature wonld you observe after mixing liquids X and Y?
(B) How can the direction of osmosis be reversed?

3
18. (A) Rusting of iron is quicker in saline water than in ordinary water - give reason for that.
(B) Write one merit and one demerit of using nickel cadmium cell over lead storage cell.

19. (A) Alkyl halides are immiscible in water. Give reason for this.
(B) How to distinguish between Chlorobenzene and Benzyl chloride by a chemical test?
OR
(A) Why is methyl chloride hydrolysed more easily than chlorobenzene?
(B) Complete the following reaction :

20. (A) Suggest a possible mechanism for for the following reaction.

n-BuBr +KCN EtOH - H2O n – BuCN

(B) Write the IUPAC name of 'CH ( CCH Br.

21. Write any two differences between maximum boiling azeotrope and minimum boiling
azeotrope.

SECTION – C

22. Calculate the freezing point of an aqueous solution containing 10.50g of MgBr in 200 g of
water.

Molar Mass of Mg Br = 184g/mol

K 6 for water = 1.86 K kg/mol

23. A strip of nickel metal is placed in a 1 molar solution of Ni (NO3)2 and a strip of silver metal is
placed in a 1 molar solution of AgNO3. An electrochemical cell is created when the two
solutions are connected by a salt bridge and the two strips are connected by wires to a
voltmeter. Calculate the cell potential at 25 $ for the cell if the initial concentration of
Ni (NO3)2 is 0.100 molar and the initial concentration of AgNO3 is 1.00 molar.

[E N; /N; = -0.25 V
E Ag /Ag = 0.80 V ]

24. (A) What type of isomerism is shown by &Co'NH (0 ONO* Cl ?

(B) On the basis of Valence Bond Theory explain the hybridisation and shape of &Co'NH () *

25. (A) Write the product formed on reaction of D – glucose with <= water (provide chemical
reaction)
(B) Name two components of ∝ - glucose which constitute starch.
(C) What is the difference between native protein and denatured protein?

4
26. The rate constant of a first order reaction increases from 2 × 10 to 8 × 10 when the
temperature changes from 300 K to 320 K. Calculate the energy of activation
[ @A2 = 0.301]
27. What happens when (Write chemical reactions)
(A) 'CH ( C − OH is treated with Cu at 573 K.
(B) Phenol reacts with bromine water.
(C) Ethyl chloride is treated with NaOCH .
28. Give reason for the following :
(A) Ethyl iodide undergoes S. 2 reaction faster than ethyl bromide.
(B) Grignard’s reagent should be prepared under anhydrous conditions.
(C) Dipole moment in chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride.
OR
How do you convert
(A) Propene to 1-Iodo propane
(B) Chlorobenzene to 2-chloroacetophenone
(C) Aniline to Bromo benzene

SECTION - D
29. Read the given passage and answer the following question.
Biomolecules are complex molecules that build up living organisms and are required for their
growth, maintenance and ability to reproduce. Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehydes and
Ketones which are major sources of energy. Monosaccharides are simple sugars that cannot be
hydrolysed. Proteins are complex nitrogenous polymers of amino acids connected through
peptide bonds Hormones perform specific functions and are secreted by endocrine glands.
vitamins are essential for healthy body. Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides. RNA helps
in protein synthesis, DNA transfers genetic characteristics. [1+1+2=4]

(A) Name a disaccharide which on hydrolysis give glucose and galactose.

(B) Name one non reducing sugar
(C) (i) Which one is the complementary base of cystosine in one strand of DNA to that in
another strand of DNA?
(ii) Which linkage by which nucleotides are joined together 5’ and 3’ atoms of Pentose
sugar?
OR
(C) Write the structural difference between nucleoside and nucleotide. Write the type of
protein in albumin

30. The half life of a reaction is the time required for the concentration of reactant to decrease by
E
half i.e &C*D = &C*
For first order reaction, ,E/ is independent of initial concentration.
It may be noted that though the major portion of the first order kinetic may be over in a finite
time but the reaction will never cease as the concentration of reactant will be zero only at
infinite time. [1+1+2=4]

5
 (A) The rate constant for a first order reaction is 7 × 10 % F E? If the intial concentration of
reactant is 0.080 M, what is the half life of the reaction?

(B) Write the effect of adding catalyst on (i) Gibbs energy of reaction (ii) Activation energy.

(C) Mention any four factors which affect the rate of chemical reaction.
OR
(C) With the help of diagram explain the role of activated complex in a reaction.

SECTION - E
31. (A) State Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ion. Write its one application. [2]
% 0 E
(B) Conductivity of 2.5 × 10 M methanoic acid is 5.25 × 10 F G . Calculate its molar
conductivity and degree of dissociation. [3]
E
[Given λ 'H ( = 349.5 S cm mol
λ (Hcoo E )=50.5 S cm mol E ]
OR
(A) What type of battery is the lead storage battery? Write the anode and cathode reactions and
the overall reactions occurring in a lead storage battery when current is drawn from it.
(B) Calculate the time to deposit 1.17 g of Ni at cathode when a current of 5 A was passed
through the solution of Ni 'NO ( . [Molar mass of Ni = 58.5 g/mol]
(C) Predict the product of electrolysis of an aqueous solution of H2SO4 using Pt electrode.
[2+2+1=5]

32. Write any five for the following: [1x5=5]

Give reasons:
(A) A solution of &MN'O P() * is green while a solution of &Ni'CN(% * is colourless.
(B) CO forms more stable complex with metal than NH .
(C) &MN'$ (% * is paramagnetic but &Ni'CO(% * is diamagnetic.
(D) Co is easily oxidized to Co in presence of a strong ligand.
(E) The Π complexes are known for transition elements only.
(F) Nickel (II) does not form low spin octahedral complexes.
(G) &Co'en( * is more stable complex in compared to &Co'NH () * .
33. (A) Write chemical reactions involved in the following . [2]
(i) Reimer Tiemann reaction .
(ii) Williamson’s synthesis .
(B) Write the mechanism for hydration of ethene to ethanol. [2]
(C) Rearrange the following compound in the increasing order of their boiling points: [1]
CH − CHO, CH − CH − OH, CH − CH CH
OR
(A) Give a chemical test to distinguish between ethanol and phenol.
(B) Convert the following:
Acetone to 2 – Methyl propan −2 − @
(C) Write the mechanism for ethanol converted to ethene when treated with cone O FP% .
(D) Arrange the following in the increasing order of acidic strength.
p – nitrophenol, ethanol, phenol [1+1+2+1=5]

6
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class - XII Subject – Computer Science

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks- 70

General Instructions:
• Please check this question paper contains 35 questions.
• The paper is divided into 4 Sections- A, B, C, D and E.
• Section A, consists of 18 questions (1 to 18). Each question carries 1 Mark.
• Section B, consists of 7 questions (19 to 25). Each question carries 2 Marks.
• Section C, consists of 5 questions (26 to 30). Each question carries 3 Marks.
• Section D, consists of 2 questions (31 to 32). Each question carries 4 Marks.
• Section E, consists of 3 questions (33 to 35). Each question carries 5 Marks.
• All programming questions are to be answered using Python Language only.

SECTION : A (MCQ): 1 MARK EACH.

1. Which of the following is a valid arithmetic operator in Python? 1

a) // b) ? c) < d) and
2. If L=[1,2] then L*2 will yield_________. 1
a) [1,2]*2 b) [1,2,2] c) [1,1,2] d) [1,2,1,2]
3. Which of the following statement will create a tuple? 1
a) tp=(“a”,”b”) b) tp[2]=(“a”,”b”) c) tp=(3)*3 d) None of these
4. Dictionary are __________ set of elements. 1
a) sorted b) ordered c) unordered d) random
5. Pick the following statement to correctly complete the function body in the given 1
code snippet.
def f(number):
#Missing function body
print(f(5))
a) return “number” b) print(number) c) print(“number”) d) return number
6. Which of the following function headers is correct? 1
a) def f(a=1,b): b) def f(a=1,b,c=2):
c) def f(a=1,b=1,c=2): d) def f(a=1,b=1,c=2,d):
7. Which of the following function calls can be used to invoke the below given function 1
header?
def test(a,b,c,d)
a) test(1,2,3,4) b) test(a=1,2,3,4)
c) test([1,2,3,4]) d) test((1,2,3,4))

1
8. What is a variable defined outside all the functions referred to as? 1
a) A static variable b) A global variable
c) A local variable d) An automatic variable
9. To read the remaining lines f the file from a file object infi, we use 1
a) [Link](all) b) [Link]() c) [Link]() d) [Link]()
10. The readlines() method returns____________ 1
a) a str b) a list of str c) a list of list d) a list of integers
11. Which functions is used to read all content of text file? 1
a) read() b) readline() c) readlines() d) both a and c.
12. Which of the following represents mode of both writing and reading in binary 1
format in file?
a) wb+ b) w c) r+ d) w+
13. What is the output when we execute list(“hello”)? 1
a) [‘h’,’e’,’l’,’l’,’o’] b) [‘hello’] c) [hello] d) None
14. Which of the function will always return a tuple of 3 elements. 1
a) find() b) index() c) partition() d) split()
15. Which key is the dependent key on the attribute of another table? 1
a) Candidate b) Primary c) Foreign d) All of these
16. Mismatched multiple copies of the same data is called data_________. 1
a) wasteage b) redundancy c) inconsistency d) none of these.
Q17 and 18 are ASSERTION AND REASONING based questions. Mark the
correct choice as
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is True but R is False
(d) A is false but R is True
17. Assertion (A):- If the arguments in function call statement match the number and 1
order of arguments as defined in the function definition, such
arguments are called positional arguments.
Reasoning (R):- During a function call, the argument list first contains default
argument(s) followed by positional argument(s).
18. Assertion (A): CSV (Comma Separated Values) is a file format for data storage which 1
looks like a text file.
Reason (R): The information is organized with one record on each line and each field
is separated by comma.

SECTION B (CARRIES 2 MARKS EACH)

19. If a is (1,2,3) 2
a) What is difference between a*3 and (a,a,a)?
b) is a*3 equivalent to a+a+a?
c) What is the meaning of a[1:1]?
d) What is the difference between a[1:2] and a[1:1]?

2
20. What will the following code fragments b) 2
produce? T=('im','ur')
a) T1=range(len(T))
L=['im','ur'] for i in T1:
L1=range(len(L)) T[i]=T[i].upper()
for i in L1: print(T)
L[i]=L[i].upper()
print(L)
21. Find and write the output of the following Python Code: 2
a=10
def call():
global a
a=15
b=20
print(a)
call()
22. Write any two advantages of using a text file over the binary file. 2
23. How are CSV file different from a regular text file. 2
24. Differentiate between “DROP” command and “DROP” Clause? 2
25. What do you mean by Foreign key? Explain with suitable example. 2
SECTION C(CARRIES 3 MARKS EACH)
26. Write a code in Python to display the elements of list thrice if it is a number and 3
display the element terminated with # if it is not a number.
For example, if the content of the list (List1) is as follows:
List1=[‘41’,’DROND’,’GIRIRAJ’,’13’,’ZARA’]
The output should be:
414141
DROND#
GIRIRAJ#
131313
ZARA#
27. Find and write the output of the following python code: 3
from math import *
def fun1():
pi=30
print(pi)
def fun():
pi=20
print(pi)
fun1()
fun()
print(pi)

3
28. Find the output: 3
def fun(s):
k=len(s)
m=""
for i in range(0,k):
if (s[i].isupper()):
m=m+s[i].lower()
elif s[i].isalpha():
m=m+s[i].upper()
else:
m=m+'bb'
print(m)
fun('school12@com')
29. Find the output: 3
import pickle
names=['First','Second','Third','Fourth','Fifth']
lst=[]
for i in range(-1,-5,-1):
[Link](names[i])
with open ('[Link]','wb') as fout:
[Link](lst,fout)
with open('[Link]','rb') as fin:
n=[Link](fin)
print(n)
30. Explain the following terms with suitable example. 3
a) Primary Key b) Candidate Key c) Alternate Key

SECTION D (CARRIES 4 MARKS EACH)

31. a) Write a python program that prints the longest word in a list of words. 2+2
b) Write a python program that reads a date as an integer in the format
MMDDYYYY. The program will call a function that print out the date in the format:
<Month name><day>, <year>
Sample run:
Enter date: 12252020
December 25, 2020
32. A binary file "[Link]" has structure [BookNo, Book_Name, Author, Price]. 2+2
(a) Write a user defined function CreateFile() to input data for a record and add to
[Link].
(b) Write a function CountRec(Author) in Python which accepts the Author name as
parameter and count and return number of books by the given Author which are
stored in the binary file “[Link]”.

Section E(CARRIES 5 MARKS EACH)

33. Write a function random_fact(a,b) that takes two arguments ‘a’ and ‘b’, It should 5
generate two unique random numbers in the range from ‘a’ to ‘b’ and find the sum of
all the common factors of those two generated random numbers.

4
34. Write a program that intends to print from a csv file([Link]) that stores data as 5
given below:
Empid Fname Lname Phone
201 Vibhu Jain 295000
- - - -
- - - -
- - - -
The incomplete code is given below:
import csv #Line 1
with open(________, ______) as myfile: #Line 2
fin=csv.________(myfile) #Line 3
for row in ________: #Line 4
print(_______)#Line 5
a) Complete the Line2 of the given code so that given csv file is opened in read mode
for processing.
b) Complete Line3 so that the comma separated file is read into fin object.
c) Complete the code of Lines 4 and 5 so that the records from the open csv file are
printed line by line.
d) Modify the code of Lines 4 and 5 so that only the fourth field (Phone) from each
record gets printed.
e) Write the output obtained by running the code of Lines 4 and 5. (on the basis of (c)
and (d)
35. Write SQL Query for the following activity:- 5
a) Create a Database Named as “DPS” and get inside the created database.
b) Create a table “students” with the following specifications:
FieldName DataType(Limit) Constraints
ADMNO INT PRIMARY KEY
NAME VARCHAR(25)
DOB DATE
c) Modify the table to add a constraint “NOT NULL” to the field “NAME”.
d) Add a new field “MOBNO” to store the mobile numbers of the students.
e) Delete a field DOB.

5
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
(2024
(2024-25)
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION(202

Class - XII Subject – Core Mathematics

Time – 3 hours Maximum Marks- 80

General Instructions:

1. This Question paper contains - five sections A, B, C, D and E. Each section is compulsory.
However, there are internal choices in some questions.
2. Section A has 18 MCQ’s and 02 Assertion-Reason based questions of 1 mark each.
3. Section B has 5 Very Short Answer (VSA)-type questions of 2 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 Short Answer (SA)-type questions of 3 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 Long Answer (LA)-type questions of 5 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 source based/case based/passage based/integrated units of assessment (4
marks each) with sub parts.

SECTION A (1 mark each)

(Multiple choice Questions)

1. If R = {( , ): , ∈ , + ≤ 4} is a relation in set Z, then domain of R is

(a) {0,1,2} (b) {-2,-1,0,1,2} (c) {0,-1,-2} (d) {-1,0,1}

2. A function f: R → R defined by f(x) = 2 + x2. Which one is the best suitable option?
(a) not one-one (b) one-one (c) not onto (d) neither one-one nor onto.

3. %&'() *+,' -− 01 is equal to

/

(a) −1 (b) 1 (d) −

/ /
3
(c)

4. What is the domain of the function 45+ () (2 − 3)?

(a) [-1,1] (b) (1,2) (c) (-1,1) (d) [1,2]
5. If for a square matrix A, 8 − 8 + 9 = 0, then 8() equals
(a) A (b) A + I (c) I – A (d) A – I

6. If a matrix A is both symmetric and skew symmetric, then A is necessarily a

(a) diagonal matrix (b) zero square matrix (c) square matrix (d) identity matrix

7. If A is a square matrix of order 3, such that A (adj A) = 10 I, then |&=> 8| is equal to

(a) 1 (b) 10 (c) 100 (d) 101
@ −2 |8B |
8. If for the matrix A = ? A, = 125, then the value of @ is
−2 @
(a) ±3 (b) −3 (c) ± 1 (d) 1

9. The function D( ) = | |, ∈ E is differentiable

(a) Only at x = 0 (b) Only at x = 1 (c) in R (d) none of these.

1
 FGH I )
10. Derivative of sin x with respect to log x is

JGK I I
(a) cos x (b) x cos x (c) (d) cos x

11. For the curve √ + M = 1, NI at -3 , 30 is

NO ) )

(a) −1 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 1/2

12. The function f(x) = x − , x ≠ 0, ∈ E is

)
I
(a) increasing for all ∈ E.
(c) increasing for (0, ∞)
(b) increasing for domain of the function.
(d) neither increasing nor decreasing.

13. If &R , STR and U&R + STRV are all unit vectors and W is the angle between &R and STR ,
then the value of W is,
/ X/ / /
(a) B (b) Y (c) B (d) Y

TTTTTR + Z[
14. ABCD is a rhombus whose diagonals intersect at E. Then Z8 TTTTTR + Z]
TTTTTR + Z\ TTTTTR equals

(a) TR
0 TTTTTR
(b) 8] TTTTTR
(c) 2[\ TTTTTR
(d) 28]

15. The angle between the lines 2x = 3y = −z and 6x = − y = −4z is

(a) 0^ (b) 30^ (c) 45^ (d) 90^

= , a = 2 are
I` O(X
(B
(d) 4, −3, 0
16. The direction ratios of the line
(a) 2, -3, 0 (b) 2, -3, 1 (c) 4, -3, 2

17. Five fair coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability of the events that at least one head

b X B) )
comes up is

B
(a) (b) B (c) B
(d) B

18. A card is picked at random from a pack of 52 playing cards. Given that the picked card is

) 3 ) )
queen, the probability of this card to be a card of spade is

B )B 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)

ASSERTION-REASON BASED QUESTIONS

In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason(R). Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

with respect to r is 4cd .

19. Assertion (A): The rate of change of volume of a sphere of diameter r,

Reason (R): Rate of change of y with respect to x is NI.

NO

20. Assertion (A): Maximum value of Z=11x +7y subject to constraints 2x + y ≤ 6, x≤2,
x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 will be obtained at (0,6).
Reason (R): In a bounded feasible region, there always exist a maximum and
minimum value .

2
 SECTION B
This section comprises of very short answer type questions of 2 marks each.

21. Find the value of %&' () ?2+,' -245+ () 0A

√B

22. If A and B are symmetric matrices, show that AB + BA is symmetric and AB – BA is skew
symmetric.

23. Show that D( ) = 2 + 45% () + logU√1 + − V is increasing in R.

24. The radius r of a right circular cylinder is decreasing at the rate of 3cm/min, and its height h

the volume of cylinder. [Use c = ]

is increasing at the rate of 2 cm/min. When r = 7cm and h = 2cm, find the rate of change of

The area of an expanding rectangle is increasing at the rate of 48 4k /+. The length of the
OR

rectangle is always equal to square of its breadth. At what rate, the length is increasing at the
instant when breadth is 4.5cm?

25. Evaluate m
NI
)` n o

OR

Evaluate m Ipqrs ()`JGK I)

NI

SECTION C
This section comprises of short answer type questions of 3 marks each.

0 −%&'
u

v and I is the identity matrix of order 2,

%&' 0
26. If A =t u

cos @ − sin @
show that I + A = (I – A) ? A
sin @ cos @

2 0 1
OR

If A = t2 1 3v , find 8 − 58 + 49 and hence find a matrix X

1 −1 0
such that 8 − 58 + 49 + { = 0 .

, •ℎ•' <0
)(FGH 3I
~ Is
27. If D( ) = &, •ℎ•' = 0 „ is continuous at x = 0, find the value of a.
}
•ℎ•' >0
√I
|M)Y`√I ( 3

= …†5‡U + √ + 1Vˆ , show that (1 + )

Ns O NO
NI s NI
28. If + x - 2 = 0.

OR

If x = sin t and y = sin pt, prove that (1 − ) – x +‰ = 0.

Ns O NO
NI s NI

I pqrI I s `)
I s ()
29. Differentiate + with respect to x.

3
30. Evaluate m )(Š‹Œ I =
)`Š‹Œ I

31. 3 defective bulbs are mixed with 7 good ones. Find the probability distribution of the
number of defective bulbs, if 3 bulbs are drawn at random. What is the average number of
defective bulbs drawn?
SECTION D
This section comprises of long answer-type questions of 5 marks each

E = {(&, S): &, S ∈ &'= (& − S),+ =,•,+,S†• S 5} . Prove that R is an equivalence relation.
32. Let Z be the set of all integers and R be the relation on Z defined as

Find the equivalence class of [3].

+ 1, ,D ,+ 5== „
OR
Show that D : N→ N given by D( ) = Ž , is bijective.
− 1, ,D ,+ •••'
Is Os
33. Find the area of the greatest rectangle that can be inscribed in an ellipse • s + •s = 1.
OR
A window is in the form of a rectangle surmounted by a semicircular opening. The total
perimeter of the window is 10 m. Find the dimensions of the window to admit maximum
light through the whole opening.

joining the points B(0, −1, 3) and C(2, −3, −1).

34. Find the coordinate of the foot of perpendicular drawn from a point A(1, 8, 4) to the line

Also find the shortest distance between the line joining the points B (0, −1, 3) and
C (2, −3, −1) and the line passing through the point A (1, 8, 4) in the direction of ‘̂ + “̂ + ”•

4 + ≥ 80
35. Solve the following Linear Programming problem graphically:

+ 5 ≥ 115 „
3 + 2 ≤ 150
Minimise: Z = 6x + 3y subject to the constraints :–
≥ 0, ≥ 0

SECTION E

36. A factory produces three products every day. Their production on a particular day is 45
tons. It is found that production of third product exceeds the production of first product by
8 tons while the total production of first and third product is twice the production of second
product.

4
 i. If x, y and z respectively denotes the quantity (in tons) of first, second and third product

1 1 1 ()
2 2 2 1 1 1 ()
produced, then construct the system of equations and write it in matrix form. [2]

ii. If t1 0 −2v = Y t3 0 −3v, then findt1 0 −1v

)

1 −1 1 1 −2 1 1 −2 1
[2]

following questions. Let &R, STR and 4R be 3 nonzero vectors.

37. A class XII student appearing for a competitive examination was asked to attempt the

i. If &R and STR are such that ˜&R + STR˜ = ˜&R − STR˜ then find the relation between&
&R and STR.
ii. Let &R, STR and 4R be unit vectors such that &R .STR = &R . 4R= 0 and
[1]

angle between STR &'= 4R is Y then

then&R=
/

(a) 2(STR ™ 4R) (b) −2(S STR ™ 4R) (c) ±2(STR ™ 4R) (d) 2(STR ± 4R) [1]

iii. If &R = ‘̂ − 2“R , STR = 2‘R + “R+3”TR then find the value of (2&
( R + STR). š(2&R + STR )™
™ ( &R − 2STR)] . [2]

38. There are two antiaircraft guns, named as A and B. The probabilities that the shell fired from
them hits an aeroplane are 0.3 and 0.2 respectively. Both of them fired one shell at an
aeroplane at the same time.

i. What is the probability that the she

shell fired from exactly one of them hit the plane? [2]
ii. If it is known that the shell fired from exactly one of them hit the plane, then what is the
probability that it was fired from B? [2]

5
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP,RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class - XII Subject – Economics

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks - 80

General Instructions
i. This Question Paper contains two parts:
• Part A – Macro Economics (40 marks)
• Part B – Indian Economic Development (40 marks)
ii. Question No. 1 – 10 and 18-27 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. They are
required to be answered in one word or one sentence each.
iii. Question No. 11-12 and 28-29 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answers to
them should not normally exceed 60 - 80 words each.
iv. Question No. 13-15 and 30-32 are short answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answers to
them should not normally exceed 80 - 100 words each.
v. Question No. 16–17 and 33-34 are long answer questions carrying 6 marks each. Answers to
them should not normally exceed 100-150 words each.

PART A- MACROECONOMICS
1. Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason(R). Choose one of the correct
alternatives given below.
Assertion (A): In the income phase, factor incomes flow from firms to households.
Reason(R): Firms distribute the revenue received from the sale of goods and services as rent,
interest, profit and wages.
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason(R) is true.

2. Which of the following statements is/ are correct?

(i) GDP may be a good indicator of economic growth but not economic welfare.
(ii) GDP can never be equal to NDP.
Alternatives:
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) None of these

1
3. Complete the table:
Produc Value of Output (VO) Intermediate Value Added
er Consumption (IC) (VA= VO-IC)

Farmer 2,000 - 2,000

Baker ....(i).... 2,000 2,000

Retail 4,400 ….(iii).... 400

Seller

Total ….(ii).... 6,000 ….(iv)....

Alternatives:
(a) 4,000; 10,400; 4,000; 4,000
(b) 4,000; 10,400; 4,000, 4,400
(c) 2,000; 6,000; 6,000; 4,400
(d) 4,000; 10,400; 6,000; 4,000

4. _____ is the change in stock of finished goods, semi-finished goods and raw materials.
(a) Net Investment
(b) Inventory Investment
(c) Gross Investment
(d) None of these

5. Ms. Iqra Ansari, a teacher, was explaining in her class about various types of deposits with the
commercial banks. She quoted that: “These deposits form a part of M1 measure of money supply and
are payable on demand by the commercial banks.” Identify the type of deposits she was
explaining about and choose the correct alternative:
(i) Demand Deposits
(ii) Time Deposits
(iii) Post Office Deposits
Alternatives:
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

6. Read the following statements carefully.

Statement 1: Commercial banks are able to lend money which is a number of times more than
their cash reserves.
Statement 2: Demand deposits and primary deposits are one and the same thing.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the
following:
(a) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(b) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false
2
7. According to the theory of Keynesian Economics, the value of Average Propensity to Consume
can never be _____.
(a) positive
(b) zero
(c) more than one
(d) less than one
8. In case of an underemployment equilibrium, which of the following is not true?
(a) Aggregate demand is equal to aggregate supply
(b) There exists excess production capacity in the economy
(c) Resources are not fully and efficiently utilized
(d) Resources are fully and efficiently utilized
OR
The national income of Rs. 90 crore and consumption expenditure of Rs. 81 crore rises to Rs. 100
crore and to Rs. 88 crore respectively, what will be the marginal propensity to save?
(a) 0.7
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.9
(d) 0.81
9. Inflationary gap:
(a) raises the level of employment
(b) raises the level of output
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) raises the general price level

10. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Loans from the IMF are a revenue receipt.
(b) Higher revenue deficit necessarily leads to higher fiscal deficit.
(c) Borrowing by a government represents a situation of fiscal deficit.
(d) Revenue deficit is the excess of capital receipts over the revenue receipts.

11. If all the customers of a commercial bank demand for the deposits at a time, then how will the
Central Bank help commercial banks in this situation? Identify and discuss the relevant
function of the central bank.
12. What is deflationary gap? Explain with a diagram. Also, mention a fiscal tool to solve the
problem of deflation.
OR
If in an economy, saving function is given by S= (-)50+0.2Y and Y=Rs.2,000 crores;
consumption expenditure for the economy would be Rs.1,650 crores and the autonomous
investment is Rs.50 crores and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8. True or false? Justify
your answer with proper calculations.
13. Suppose output produced during the year 2021 and 2023 were 500 and 650 units respectively.
If the market price of the output produced was Rs.150 and Rs.200 per unit, then calculate the
percentage change in Real GDP and Nominal GDP, taking 2021 as the base year.

14. Explain the ‘Saving-Investment Approach’ of equilibrium determination. savings exceeds

planned investment in an economy, explain its likely impact on income, output and
employment.
3
15. With an objective to reduce inflation, the Reserve Bank of India may promote the commercial
banks to park their surplus funds with it.” Discuss the rationale behind the step taken by the
Reserve Bank of India.
OR
“We cannot measure the national income of an economy unless we measure the market value
of all final goods and services produced in an economy in terms of money.” Which function of
money is highlighted in the given statement? Discuss.

16. (a) Given the following data, estimate the values of: (i) revenue deficit, (ii) fiscal deficit and
(iii) primary deficit

Particulars Rs. Crores

Capital receipts net of borrowings 95

Revenue expenditure 100

Interest payments 10

Revenue receipts 80

Capital expenditure 110

(b) “Fiscal deficit is necessarily inflationary in nature.” Do you agree? Support your answer
with valid reasons.
OR
(a) Government provides essential items of food grains almost free to the families below the
poverty line. Which objective is the government trying to fulfill through the government
budget and how? Explain.
(b) “The government budget of a country cannot have a fiscal deficit without the existence of a
revenue deficit.” Defend or refute the given statement.
17. (a) Find out Gross National Product at Market Price:

Particulars Rs. Crores

Net Indirect Tax 35

Private final consumption expenditure 500

Consumption of fixed capital 50

Closing stock 10

Government final consumption expenditure 150

Net domestic fixed capital formation 100

Net factor income to abroad (-)15

Net imports 20

Opening stock 10
4
 (b) Giving reason, explain how the following should be treated in estimating the domestic
income of a country.
(i) Fees to a mechanic paid by a firm.
(ii) Interest paid by an individual on a car loan taken from a bank.
(iii) Expenditure on purchasing a car for use by a firm.

PART B- INDIAN ECONOMY

18. On the eve of Independence, India's demographic condition was characterized by which of the
following statements?
(a) low level of literacy, low mortality rates and high life expectancy
(b) high level of literacy, high mortality rate and low life expectancy
(c) low level of literacy, high mortality rate and high life expectancy
(d) low level of literacy high mortality rates and low life expectancy

19. Arrange the following events in the correct chronological order:

(i) The year of Great Divide
(ii) Establishment of Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO)
(iii) Introduction of Railways in India by the British
(iv) Opening of Suez Canal

20. Read the following statements: Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Choose one of the correct
alternatives given below.
Assertion(A): The goal of equitable distribution of land was fully served by abolition of
intermediaries, in post-independence India.
Reason(R): Big landlords challenged the land ceiling legislation, delaying the implementation
and subsequently escaping from the legislation.
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(b) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion(A).
(c) Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false.
(d) Assertion(A) is false but Reason(R) is true.

21. Which of the following is not the feature of economic policies pursued under economic
planning of India till 1991?
(a) Import Substitution
(b) Self Reliance
(c) Unrestricted flow of foreign capital
(d) Land reforms

5
22. Read the following statements carefully.
Statement 1: The process of globalization has produced only positive results for India.
Statement 2: Market driven globalization reduces the economic disparities among nations and
people.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(b) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false

23. On 24th July, 1991, the then Prime Minister Narasimha Rao announced the end of the license
permit Raj and Finance Minister Manmohan Singh presented a historic budget that rolled out
economic ______ in India.
(a) Globalization
(b) Liberalization
(c) Privatization
(d) None of these

24. Benefits of physical capital accrue only to private entities, whereas human capital provides
private as well as ______ benefits.
(a) Profitable
(b) Social
(c) Fiscal
(d) Monetary
OR
On the basis of the below mentioned information answer the following question:
Particulars 1951 1981 1991 2001 2016-17

Real Per Capita Income 7,651 12,174 15,748 23,095 77,659

(in Rs.)
The real per capita income of India (as per the given data) has increased by ______
(approximately) between 1951 and 2016-17. (Fill in the blank with correct alternative)
(a) 915%
(b) 1,015%
(c) 815%
(d) 715%

25. Identify which of the following are associated with the problem of human capital formation in
India?
(i) Brain Drain
(ii) Low academic standards
(iii) Rising population
(iv) Changes in Social Outlook
Alternatives:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iv)
6
26. ‘Cooperative marketing societies have faced a downfall in recent years.’ Identify which of the
following was not a reason behind its downfall.
(a) Lack of coordination between processing and marketing societies
(b) Inefficient financial management
(c) Inadequate coverage of all the members
(d) Intervention of the government is most essential

27. Study the following picture and answer the given question:

Women in rural households take up beekeeping as an entrepreneurial activity. Such kind of

activities may be envisaged under ______ as diversification activity.
(a) Animal Husbandry
(b) Fisheries
(c)Horticulture
(d) Poultry
28. “Demand for Indian Handicrafts in the Indian market as well as foreign markets was
systematically destroyed by Britishers.” Defend or refute.

29. “Modernisation as a planning objective shows a dichotomy with employment generation.”

Justify the statement.
OR
What is meant by privatization? What are the two ways in which privatization was done in
India?

30. “Agriculture sector appears to be adversely affected by the economic reform process.” Explain
the given statement.
OR
India has certain advantages which makes it a favourable outsourcing destination. What are
these advantages?

31. ‘Higher productivity and production is the result of investment in human resources.’ Do you
agree with the statement? Explain in context with the given image.

7
32. Discuss the merits and limitations of Organic Farming.

33. (a) A dentist ran his clinic in an economically backward area. He was earning a comparatively
low income. So, he decided to move to a city and spent a huge amount for the same.
Identify and explain the type of expenditure incurred by the dentist which directly
contributed to the process of human capital formation.
(b) Discuss the need for promoting women's education in India.
OR
(a) “Process of globalization has produced only positive results for India and other countries.”
Comment.
(b) Discuss the foreign trade reforms under Liberalisation.

34. Read the following article and answer the questions that follow:
Crop diversification is intended to give a wider choice in the production of a variety of crops in
a given areas so as to expand production related activities on the various crops and also to less
than risk top diversification in India is generally viewed as a shift from traditionally grown list
remunerative crops to more remunerative props the crops the crop shift also takes place due to
government policy.

Development in the field of crop diversification goes hand in hand with agriculture marketing.
Agriculture Marketing System is an efficient way by which the farmers can dispose off their
surplus produce at a fair and reasonable price. When there is a shift from single cropping
system to multi cropping system, it needs to be backed by the support of agricultural markets,
wherein, the government should take various initiatives to give boost to the small farmers by
providing them Direct Access to the consumers and eliminating the middlemen.
(a) Mention some obstacles that hinder the mechanism of agriculture marketing.
(b) Why is agriculture diversification essential for sustainable livelihood?

8
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP,RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class - XII Subject – English

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks-80

General Instructions:
• Read all the questions carefully.
• All questions are compulsory to be attempted.
• The question paper is divided into three sections: A, B and C (Reading, Writing and
Literature).
• Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary. Read
these instructions very carefully and follow them.
• Do not exceed the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A {22 Marks}

READING

1. Read the passage below : {12 marks}

1. If you enjoy watching crime shows on TV, you know that fingerprints play a major role in
identifying people. But, you might be surprised to find out that use of fingerprints for
identification is not a new science. In Babylon (1955 – 1913 BCE), when people agreed to a
business contract, they pressed their fingerprints into the clay on which the contract was
written. Thumbprints have also been found on clay seals from ancient China 221 (BCE).

2. In 14th century Persia, which is now Iran, a government doctor recognised that all
fingerprints are different. In 1684, a British doctor, Nehemiah Grew, spoke about the ridged
surfaces of the fingers. In 1686, a professor of anatomy (the study of the structure of the
human body) named Marcello Malpighi, wrote about the ridges and loops in fingerprints.
Malpighi’s work was considered so important that a layer of skin found on the fingertips was
named after him. This layer of skin is called the Malpighian layer. Although scientists had
studied fingerprints, the value of fingerprinting in the identification of individuals did not
become clear until later.

3. Sir William James Herschel is generally thought to be the first European to realise that
fingerprints were unique of each person. In his work as Chief Magistrate in the Hoogly
district in Jungipoor, India, Herschel asked people to put their handprints on contracts.
Herschel believed that personal contact with the contracts made people more likely to
honour their commitments, or to keep their promises. As he looked at more and more
handprints, he began to see that all the handprints were different. He started to believe that
fingerprints were unique, which means they are all different from each other, and
permanent, which means that they do not ever change. To prove that they never change,
Herschel kept track of his own fingerprints over his entire lifetime.

1
4. Dr Henry Faulds, a British surgeon at a Japanese hospital, began studying the furrows (also
called ridges) on fingertips in the 1870s. He published an article in a scientific journal about
the use of fingerprints as a tool in identification. He also devised or invented a system of
classifying fingerprints. He wrote to Charles Darwin about his findings, but Darwin was
getting too old to work on the findings. So, he promised to pass the information to his cousin,
Sir Francis Galton. Using Henry Faulds’ findings, Galton published a major book on
classifying fingerprints based on arches, loops, and whorls. His work with Sir Edward R.
Henry on fingerprint classification was the basis of a classification system which is still used
by law enforcement agencies in English-speaking countries. The Federal Bureau of
Investigation (FBI) now uses a variation of the Galton-Henry system.

5. Although the use of fingerprinting in identification originated in Britain, it has been

developed in the United States. In 1924, two large fingerprint collections were combined to
form the foundation of the Identification Division of the FBI. Within the Identification
Division, the Integrated Automated Fingerprint Identification Systems (IAFIS) can search
and find fingerprints anywhere in the United States within thirty minutes. The IAFIS can
compare results with automated fingerprint systems in countries around the world. The
IAFIS has fingerprints of more than 250 million people on file.

6. About one in six Americans has fingerprints on file with the FBI. But not all fingerprints are
related to criminal investigations. People need to have their fingerprints taken for many other
reasons. People have their fingerprints taken for employment, licenses, and adoption. For
example, when people work for the government in classified jobs, their fingerprints are
checked to be sure that they do not have a criminal background. When prospective parents
adopt a child, their fingerprints are matched against those of all criminals for the safety of the
child.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

(i) Which fingerprint system is used by an intelligence driven international security

organization? (1)
(ii) When people agreed to a business contract in Babylon they took off their fingerprints
from the clay on which the contract was written. State TRUE/FALSE. (1)

(iii) How did Herchel prove that fingerprints were unique and permanent? (30-40 words)
(2)

(iv) Where did the practice of using fingerprinting for identification first originate? (1)
a. Britain
b. China
c. India
d. Babylon

(v) ‘People need to have their fingerprints taken for many other reasons.’ Elucidate.
(30-40 words) (2)

(vi) What can the IAFIS do? (1)

a. It can dismantle the foundation of the Identification Division of the FBI.
b. It can search and find fingerprints anywhere in the United States.
c. It can compare results with automated fingerprint systems in countries around the
world.
d. Both (b) and (c)
2
 (vii) FBI formed the foundation of its Identification Division by combining ______ (1)

(viii) Who was Marcello Malpighi? Why was he a known personality? (2)

(ix) Which word from the passage corresponds to the word ‘potential’. (1)
a. Adoption (para 6)
b. Investigations (para 4)
c. Classified (para 6)
d. Prospective (para 6)

2. Read the passage below : {10 Marks}

1. Over the last five years, more companies have been actively looking for intern profiles,
according to a 2018-19 survey by an online internship and training platform. This survey
reveals that India had 80% more internship applications - with 2.2 million applications
received in 2018 compared to 1.27 million in the year before. The trend was partly due to more
industries looking to have fresh minds and ideas on existing projects for better productivity.
What was originally seen as a western concept, getting an internship before plunging into the
job market, is fast gaining momentum at Indian workplaces.

2. According to the survey data, India's National Capital Region has been the top provider of
internships, with a total of 35% internship opportunities, followed by Mumbai and Bengaluru
at 20% and 15%, respectively. This includes opportunities in startups, MNCs and even
government entities. The survey also revealed popular fields to find internships in (Fig 1).

3. There has been growing awareness among the students about the intern profiles sought by
hiring companies that often look for people with real-time experience in management than B-
school masters.

4. The stipend has been an important factor influencing the choice of internships. The survey
data reveals that the average stipend offered to interns was recorded as 7000 while the
maximum stipend went up to ₹ 85,000. According to statistics, a greater number of people
considered virtual internships than in-office internships. Virtual internships got three times
more applications than in-office, since a large chunk of students were the ones already
enrolled in various courses, or preferred working from home.

5. Internship portals have sprung up in the last three to four years and many of them already
report healthy traffic per month. Reports suggest that on an average, an internship portal
company has around 200,000plus students and some 8,000 companies registered on it. It gets
around two lakh visits online every month.

3
 6. The Managing Director of a leading executive search firm says that though these web
platforms are working as an effective bridge between the industry and students, most
established companies are still reluctant to take too many interns on board for obvious
reasons.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

(i) Does the following statement agree with the information given in the passage. Established
companies are reluctant to take too many interns on board.
TRUE If the statement agrees with the information.
FALSE If the statement contradicts the information.
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this. (1)

(ii) Select the central idea of the paragraph likely to precede Paragraph I.
a. Process of registering for internships
b. Knowing more about internships
c. Do’s and Don’ts for an internship interview
d. Startups and internships (1)
(iii) The survey statistics mention the average stipend, indicating that
a. 50% interns were offered Rs.85,000
b. 7,000 was the lowest and Rs. 85,000 was the highest
c. Most interns were offered around 7,000
d. No intern was offered more than 7,000 (1)

(iv) Select the correct inference with reference to the following.

Over the last five years, more companies have been actively looking for intern profiles...
a. The past five years have seen active applications by interns to several companies.
b. The activity for intern profiling by the companies has reached a gradual downslide over the
past five years.
c. There were lesser companies searching for intern profiles earlier, as compared to those in
the recent five years.
d. Several companies have initiated intern profiling five times a year in the recent past. (1)

(v) Companies do not prefer taking many interns because________________. (1)

(vi) Internship websites have increased in the past few years and are now showing a
significant ________________. (1)

(vii) Highlight two trends that demonstrate the increasing prominence of internships in Indian
workplaces. (30 – 40 words) (2)

(viii) Mention the two types of internships. Which one is preferred more by students and why?
(30 – 40 words) (2)

4
 SECTION B:CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS (18 marks)

3. Attempt ANY ONE of the two in about 50 words. {4}

A. You are Rakhsita/Rohit of MVN Public School. Your school is organising a SPIC MACAY
programme on the occasion of the World Dance Day wherein the renowned Bharatnatyam dancer,
Geeta Chandran would be giving a lecture-demonstration. As the President, Cultural Society of
your school, draft a notice in about 50 words, informing the students about the same.
OR
B. You visited PGIMS,Rohtak and found that there was a shortage of blood for accidental cases.
After that, you decided to organize a blood donation camp in your school’s campus to help the
needy ones at PGIMS Rohtak. Therefore, as the Principal of G.S.S.S. Model Town, Rohtak, you
decided to organize a blood donation camp at the school auditorium urging the parents to be a
part of this project. Write a notice for the students asking them to convey this message to their
parents to come and participate in the blood donation drive. (50 Words)

4. Attempt ANY ONE of the two in about 50 words. {4 marks}

A. You are Dhruv/Deepa. Your father, Shri Dheeraj Garg of Gurugram wants you to draft an
invitation card to be sent to friends and relatives on the occasion of your elder sister's marriage.
Prepare the invitation giving necessary details, in not more than 50 words.

OR
B. Smt. Leelavati Khatri, your grandmother, has received an invitation from her childhood friend,
residing at a distance in the same city. The invite is for the blessing ceremony and celebratory
dinner, marking the birth of her granddaughter. Your grandmother wishes to attend the event
but would need to be accompanied by a family member to assist her with her wheelchair. Create
an appropriate reply, accepting this invitation, on behalf of your grandmother. (50 Words)

5. Attempt ANY ONE of the two in 120-150 words. {5marks}

A. You are Tarun/Taruna of 121 Main Street, Kanpur, a student aspiring to be a doctor. The recent
horrifying incident in Kolkata, where a young woman faced a traumatic experience within the
hospital premises disturbed you a lot. You were compelled to write a letter to The Editor of a
national daily demanding the concerned authorities to urgently improve safety protocols in
hospitals to ensure that women are protected in a place meant to provide care and security.
(120-150 Words)
OR
B. You are Shantanu, residing at Ghar B-94, Balimela Road, Malkangiri. You comeacross the
following classified advertisement in a local daily. Write a letter, in about 120-150 words,
applying for the position of a volunteer for the 'Each One Teach One' campaign.

SITUATION VACANT
WANTED committed volunteers, aged 18 years and above, to teach underprivileged children, for
one hour a week, in the district of Malkangiri. Ability to speak, read and write Odiya fluently,
Experience not necessary. All volunteers to receive training. Contact Nethra N, Coordinator (Each
One Teach One), 4Literacy, Ambaguda, Malkangiri, Odisha - 764045.

5
6. Attempt ANY ONE of the two in about 120-150 words. {5marks}

A. On the threshold of being a world super power, India does have a large young workforce but
unfortunately not many in this force are employable for want of necessary skills. Write an
article for a newspaper on the topic 'Skill Development is the need of the hour'. You are
Anita/Arnav. (120-150 Words)

OR
B. You are Akhil/Anjana, a reporter of the local newspaper The Assam Times, Silchar, Assam.
Recently, your city experienced a lot of rain and consequently people living in the low-lying
areas suffered a lot of difficulties. NDRF rescue teams reached the affected areas in time. The
marooned people were taken to safer places and provided with shelter, food andmedicines.
Write a report on the floods and rescue efforts by the government and locals in 120-150 words.

SECTION C- LITERATURE TEXT BOOK AND SUPPLEMENTARY READING TEXT {40 marks}

7. Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow. (ANY ONE ) {1x6=6}

A. If we were not so single-minded

about keeping our lives moving.
And for once could do nothing.
Perhaps a huge silence
Might interrupt this sadness
of never understanding ourselves
and of threatening ourselves with
Death

(i) Who does ‘we’ refer to in the above lines?

(ii) Why does the poet want us to ‘do nothing’ for once?
a. To aggravate brotherhood
b. To give rest to your speech for a few minutes
c. To introspect ourselves
d. None of these
(iii) What do understand by the phrase single minded
(iv) What does ‘keeping our life moving’ mean?
(v) What is the tone of the poet in the following lines :
Perhaps a huge silence
Might interrupt this sadness
a. Unsure
b. Pessimistic
c. Optimistic
d. Both (a) and (c)
(vi) What does the poet hope for?
a. Man would become less interested in each other
b. Man would stop to focusing more on keeping his life moving.
c. Man would begin to be more humane if he begins to introspect.
d. Man would develop new ideas to destroy each other.
6
 OR
B. And such too is the grandeur of dooms
We have imagined for the mighty dead:
All lovely tales that we have heard or read:
An endless fountain of immortal drink,
Pouring unto us from the heaven’s brink.

(i) What do the tales refer to in the above lines?

(ii) What does Keats mean by ‘an endless fountain of immortal drink?
(iii) Which of the following poetic devices has been used in the fourth line of the stanza?
a. Alliteration
b. Personification
c. Hyperbole
d. Metaphor

(iv) Which word from the following means the same as ‘indestructible”?
a. Immortal
b. Pouring
c. Dead
d. None of these
(v) What is the effect of immortal drink?
(vi) Explain the phrase, ‘ Grandeur of dooms ‘ .

8. Read the given extracts and answer ANY ONE of the two given. {1x4=4}

[Link] that day onwards it was celebration time for all the tigers inhabiting
Pratibandapuram. The state banned tiger hunting by anyone except the Maharaja. A
proclamation was issued to the effect that if anyone dared to fling so much as a stone at a
tiger, all his wealth and property would be confiscated.

The Maharaja vowed he would attend to all other matters only after killing the hundred tigers.
Initially the king seemed well set to realise his ambition. Not that he faced no dangers. There
were times when the bullet missed its mark, the tiger leapt upon him and he fought the beast
with his bare hands. Each time it was the Maharaja who won.

(i) What is the tone of the author when he says, it was celebration time for all tigers’?
(ii) The Maharaja paid no heed to matters related to his kingdom. (True/False)
(iii) In which of the following options can the underlined words NOT be replaced with
‘proclamation?
a. The politician shared his manifesto during the election meeting.
b. All the citizens of the kingdom had to abide by the emperor’s edict.
c. The communique made by the official had a disastrous effect.
d. The decree of the state forbade cruelty against animals.

7
 (iv) On the basis of this extract, pick the option that enumerates the characteristics of the
king.
a. Gullible
b. Arrogant
c. Stubborn
d. Prudent
e. Apathetic
f. Scrupulous
a. (1),(2) and (6)
b. (3), (5) and (6)
c. (3), (4) and (6)
d. (2), (3) and (5)

OR
B. You lose all earthly sense of perspective and time here. The visual scale ranges from the
microscopic to the mighty: midges and mites to blue whales and icebergs as big as countries
(the largest recorded was the size of Belgium). Days go on and on and on in surreal 24-hour
austral summer light, and a ubiquitous silence, interrupted only by the occasional avalanche or
calving ice sheet, consecrates the place. It’s an immersion that will force you to place yourself
in the context of the earth’s geological history. And for humans, the prognosis isn’t good.

(i) Complete the following statement. The ‘visual scale’ refers to ___________.
(ii) Four people give a reason for the author’s feeling while travelling. Choose the option that
correctly summarizes it based on your understanding of the extract.

Person 1

I think the author is being paranoid about leaving her hometown.

Person 2

According to me, She is bewildered by the travel duration.

Person 3

As far as I can judge, Tishani is being hypocritical because she is comparing the two
places.

Person 4

In my opinion, she is amazed by the splendor of the icy city.

a. Person 1
b. Person 2
c. Person 3
d. Person 4
8
(iii) Select the option that correctly fits the category of microscopic to the mighty” out of the
ones given below.
1. Trace of a skin cell: trace of a bird’s egg
2. A grain of wheat: field of wheat
3. A scoop of ice cream: an ice-cream cone
4. A drop of water: Pacific Ocean
a. (1) and (2)
b. (3) and (4)
c. (1) and (3)
d. (2) and (4)
(iv) What are the elements that influence someone to think of Earth’s physicality.

9. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two given. {1x6=6}

A. It seemed a long way down. Those nine feet were more like ninety, and before 1 touched bottom
my lungs were ready to burst. But when my feet hit bottom I summoned all my strength and
made what I thought was a great spring upwards, I imagined I would bob to the surface like a
cork. Instead, I came up slowly. I opened my eyes and saw nothing but woter water that had a
dirty yellow tinge to it. Deep Water

(i) Why did the nine feet deep pool seem ninety to Douglas?
(ii) The expression "I imagined I would bob to the surface like a cork" implies that
(a) Frightened, Douglas was not able to shout for help.
(b) Douglas accepted his failure and ultimate death.
(c) Though Douglas was frightened he was not out of his wits.
(d) Douglas was afraid to die.

(iii) Pick the word from the given extract which means to make a quick, short movement up
and down.
(iv) What does the speaker mean by ‘I summoned all my strength’?
(a) That he called up his strength.
(b) That he accumulated his strength.
(c) That he gathered his strength.
(d) All of these
(v) Where did the given event take place?
(vi) "It seemed a long way down.” What was the author referring to?
OR
B. Sharecroppers from Champaran began arriving on foot and by conveyance to see their
champion. Muzzafarpur lawyers called on Gandhi to brief him; they frequently represented
peasant groups in court; they told him about their cases and reported the size of their fee.
Gandhi chided the lawyers for collecting big fee from the share croppers.

(i) How did the sharecroppers arrive in Muzzafarpur?

a. Some sharecroppers arrived on foot.
b. Some sharecroppers arrived by conveyance.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
9
 (ii) Who is 'champion' here?
(iii) Who are they in the above mentioned extract?
(iv) Which word in the given extract is the antonym of ‘erratically’ ?
(v) In which of the following sentences has the word 'chided' been used in the same context
as in the extract?
A. The other guys on the team chided him for missing that easy basket.
B. Mom chided me for coming to the party without a gift.
C. Maria chided Gerald for being late.
D. The Dean chided the management for upgrading the fees indiscriminately
(vi) Who are sharecroppers?
(a) Farmers who get to share their crops.
(b) Farmers who get a share of the crops.
(c) Farmers who own their crops
(d) Farmers who sells their crops.

10. Answer ANY FIVE of the following six questions in about 40-50 words. {5X2=10marks}

(i) What can be inferred from Rajendra Prasad's recorded upshot of the lawyer consultations, at
Motihari? [Reference- The senior lawyer replied, they had come to advise and help him; if he went to jail
there would be nobody to advise and they would go home. What about the injustice to the sharecroppers,
Gandhi demanded.] (Indigo)

(ii) State the common issues faced by most of the aged people in current times with reference to
the poem ‘ My Mother at Sixty Six’.

(iii) ‘Food is more important for survival than an identity.’ Examine ‘Lost Spring’ by Anees Jung in the
light of this statement.

(iv) “…there was terror in my heart at the overpowering force of the waves.” When did Douglas start
fearing water? Which experience had further strengthened its hold on his mind and
personality?( Deep Water)

(v) “To be grateful is a great virtue of a gentleman.” How did the peddler show his gratitude to Edla ?

(vi) In Robert Frost's poem "The Roadside Stand," cars symbolize both the promise and the
disillusionment brought by modernity and urbanization. Comment.

11. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions in about 40-50 words. {2X2=4}

(i) What did the astrologer foretell about the death of the Tiger King? ( The Tiger King )

(ii) ‘Take care of the small things and the big things will take care of themselves.' What is the relevance of
this statement in the context of the Antarctica? ( Journey to the End of the World)

(iii) What transpired as the second event that afternoon. Why did it scare Hana, Dr Sadao’s wife,
so desperately?

10
12. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions in about 120 -150 words. {5 marks}

A. While greedy good-doers, beneficent beasts of prey,

Swarm over their lives enforcing benefits
That are calculated to soothe them out of their wits
Keeping the above lines by Robert Frost in his poem ‘A Roadside Stand’ in mind, explain what
according to the author refrains the bangle makers from organizing themselves into a
cooperative? (120-150 words)
OR
B. You are the Head boy or Head girl of your school. You have to deliver a speech in the morning
assembly explaining the distinction between feeling proud of one’s language and having an
overarching sense of pride? Write a speech in not more than 120-150 words.

13. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions in 120-150 words. {5 marks}

A. “The chain reaction of evil — hate begetting hate, wars producing more wars — must be broken, or we
shall be plunged into the dark abyss of annihilation.” — Martin Luther King Jr.

Write an article for a popular political journal as Dr Sadao highlighting the futility of war in
about 120-150 words.
OR
B. Sam’s letter addressed to Charley exhibits a refined amalgamation of tangible reality and
imaginative abstraction. After reading the letter, Charley decided to write him back in order to
get the answer of all his questions. (120-150 words.)

11
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class – XII Subject – Fine Art Painting (049) /Graphics (050)

Time – 2 Hours Maximum Marks - 30

General Instructions:
▪ Section-A: Attempt all Questions (Each Question will carry 1 Mark)
▪ Section-B: Attempt all Questions (Each Question will carry 2 Marks)
▪ Section-C: Attempt any two Questions (Each Question will carry 6 Marks)

SECTION-A
Select the right answer from the given options: [1x8=8]
1. A. The colour medium used in the making of Miniature paintings from Pala to
Mughal mainly consists of __________
i. Oil Colour ii. Natural Colour iii Pastel Colour iv Metallic Colour
B. Assertion (A): The Mughal School of Miniature Painting used decorative borders
to enhance the beauty of the paintings.
Reason (R): Artists of Mughal courts used floral motifs and gold to make their
paintings look royal and grandeur.
i. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
ii. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
iii. A is true but R is false
iv. A is false and R is true
C. The miniature paintings based on Ragmala, Baramasa, Krishna Lila and
Ramayana were the main themes of the following school of art.
i. Shahjahan school ii. Hyderabad school iii. Rajasthani school iv. Akbar school
D. The style and mastery of artistic representation of forms in bright colours with
natural surroundings having delicate outlines, depicting female forms in Deccan
style is shown in the painting:
i. Radha Bani Thani ii. Maru Ragani [Link] Players iv. Chand Bibi Playing Polo

E. The dance of Krishna and Gopis symbolically indicates the dance of God and ______.
F. Assertion (A): During the 18th Century, Deccan Miniature paintings glorified the
empowerment of Female rulers.
Reason (R): The brave, generous and gallant Chand Bibi is shown playing polo
with other females.
i. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
ii. A is true but R is false
iii. A is false and R is True
iv. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
G. In Mugal Paintings blue colour were obtained from
i. Cinnabar ii. Lepis – Lazuli iii. Orpiment iv. Grounded shells
H. Match the tables I with Table II from the options given below:
Table I Table II
1. Krishna on swing a. Guman
2. Maru – Ragini b. Sahibdin
3. Bharat meets Rama at Chitrakut c. Unknown
4. Hazrat Nizamuddin Aaliya and Amir Khusro d. Nuruddin
 SECTION-B
(Short answer type questions)
The answer to this question is expected around 80 to 100 words [2x5=10]

2. (A) Write a short note on Pala (Eastern) Indian miniature painting.

OR
Write a short note on Jain (Western) Indian miniature painting.
OR
(B) How did the Central Indian miniature painting evolve?
3. (A) Miniature paintings are also a reflection of female status and dignity. It also reflects the
empowered woman, her versatile personality, overcoming traditional norms, and engaging all
strata of society. Throw light on this subject matter through the painting “Chaugan Players”.
How successful do you think the artist Dana has been showcasing their valour (courage)?
OR
(B) Based on its Compositional Arrangement, appreciate the simplicity and bond of Eternal
Friendship in the painting “Kabir and Raidas”.
(a) How can you justify the simple living and dignity of work depicted in this artwork?
(b) Write the name of the Artist and its Medium / Technique.
4. (A) Why do you like or dislike the paintings of the Deccan School of miniature painting included
in your course of study? Write your answer in detail with a suitable example.
OR
(B) Describe the depiction of the Krishna-Lila themes in the Pahari miniature paintings
according to the paintings in your syllabus.
5. (A) The Mughal school paintings depict the royal splendour and flamboyance of the Mughal
rulers. Validate the statement with the help of paintings included in your course of study
(except Kabir and Ridas)
OR
(B) How the Pahari School of Miniature Painting came into existence. Mention any two Pahari
sub-schools with names of paintings and artists in your syllabus.
.
6. (A) Explain the silent features of Pahari school painting.
. OR
(B) The aesthetical depiction of nayika in the Rajasthani miniature painting made by the artist
Nihal Chand captures the beauty and pride of an Indian Woman.
(i) Name the Painting and describe the features of this sub-school.
(ii) How did the Indian government give this painting its due respect?
SECTION-C
Attempt any two questions from the given options (Long answer type questions)
An answer for this question is expected in around 200words [6x2=12]

7. Discuss the impact of Mughal miniatures on Indian painting. Discuss the influence of the
Mughal style, its detailed portrayal, and its themes, origin, development and characteristics.
8. Discuss the evolution of Indian miniature painting. Highlight the Origin and development,
features of Rajasthani School.

9. (A) How Artists Contributed to the National Freedom Movement.

(B) Our national flag is the identification of our country and its citizens. It narrates thousands
of stories of courage and sacrifice, peace and honesty, chivalry and prosperity, embracing
secularism as it proudly flies high in our independent sky.
· Do you feel we still imbibe these qualities in us?
· Explain your point of view. How can these values help us in contributing towards
the progress of our country?
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class - XII Subject – General Studies

Time – 1 Hour Maximum Marks - 50

I. Select the best option in the following questions (1X10= 10 Marks)

1. "System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research" (SAFAR) is an initiative of
which Union Ministry of India?
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(c) Ministry of Science and Technology
(d) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
2. Who is the first Indian cricketer to hit 400 international sixes?
(a) Rohit Sharma
(b) Virat Kohli
(c) Rahul Dravid
(d) MS Dhoni
3. What is the full form of "BRICS"?
(a) Bangladesh, Romania, Indonesia, Cambodia an Spain
(b) Botswana, Rwanda, Ivory Coast, Croatia an Sydney
(c) Bangladesh, Romania, India, Cambodia and Somania
(d) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa
4. Match the following
(i) Kalamkari (a) Madhya Pradesh
(ii) Pithora (b) Maharashtra
(iii) Warli (c) Bihar
(iv) Madhubani (d) Andhra Pradesh
(a) (i)-(c). (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
(b) (i)-(d). (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
(c) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(d) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
5. If D is the Brother of B, how B is related to C? To answer this question which of the statement/s
is/are necessary?
1. The son of D is the grandson of C.
2. B is the sister of D.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Either 1 or 2
(d) Both 1 and 2 are required

1
6. Who wrote the book 'The Wealth of Nations'?
(a) Raghuram Rajan
(b) E.M. Forster
(c) Adam Smith
(d) None of the given
7. Who appoints the Finance Commission Chairman in India?
(a) RBI Governor
(b) CAG of India
(c) President of India
(d) Central Finance Minister
8. Which Five Year Plan had the primary goal to establish India as a self-reliant and self-
generating economy?
(a) First five year plan
(b) Second five year plan
(c) (c)Third five year plan
(d) Fourth five year plan
9. The world’s nation 5G mobile network was launched by which country?
(a) Japan
(b) Asia
(c) South Korea
(d) Malaysia
10. The largest public sector undertaking in the country is?
(a) Railways
(b) Airways
(c) Roadways
(d) Iron and Steel Plants
II. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS IN 120-10 WORDS (8X4=32 Marks)
1. What are the Challenges faced by the Indians in transitioning to a Cashless society?
2. The Flag Code of India, published in 2002, is a collection of all the laws, customs, practices,
directives, and rules that govern the display of the national flag. Many citizens, whether
consciously or inadvertently, violate the Flag Code. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has
issued advice to all States and Union Territories to ensure that the Flag Code is strictly
followed during major national events.
Write a paragraph in 120 to 150 words on ,’The Flag Code of India ‘.
3. What is the difference between environmental conservation and environmental preservation?
4. How does the Russian Ukraine war affect the economy of India?

III. CASE STUDIES (8X1=8Marks)

Case: A criminal has killed Mohan's mother during a bank robbery. He killed her intentionally
in order to create fear in the minds of people present in the bank that day, so that nobody
interferes during the robbery. He has been caught but the damage has already been done. The
criminal has been sentenced for life imprisonment 8 years later, Mohan is contacted by an
NGO which works for the rehabilitation of criminals in the society. The NGO informs Mohan
that the criminal who killed his mother is suffering from blood cancer and has only maximum
one more year to live. If Mohan permits by signing the amnesty plea, this criminal can spend
his last time with his family. What and why in your opinion Mohan should do in this
situation?

2
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class - XII Subject – Geography

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks - 70

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This question paper contains 32 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. This question paper is divided into five sections. Sections - A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A - Question numbers 1 to 20 are Multiple Choice type questions carrying 1 mark each.
4. Section B - Question numbers 21 and 22 are Source based questions carrying 3 marks each.
5. Section C- Question numbers 23 to 25 are Short Answer type questions carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.
6. Section D - Question numbers 26 to 30 are Long Answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.
7. Section E - Question numbers 31 and 32 are Map based questions.

SECTION – A
(Q. Nos. 1 to 20 are Multiple Choice Questions.)
1. Make correct pairs of the following two columns and select the correct option. [1]
Period Approaches
I. Early colonial period 1. Spatial Organisation
II. Later colonial period 2. Areal Differentiation
III. 1930s through the inter-war period 3. Regional Analysis
IV. Late 1950s to the late 1960s 4. Exploration and Description
Options:
I II III IV
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 1 2 3
2. Which one of the following is NOT a push factor? [1]
(A) Water shortage
(B) Unemployment
(C) Epidemics
(D) Pleasant climate
3. Which of the following features is related to the second stage of Demographic Transition
Theory? [1]
(A) Both fertility and mortality decline considerably
(B) Fertility remains high in the beginning and morality rate reduced
(C) High fertility and high mortality
(D) Fertility declines and mortality increased

1
4. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? [1]
Pillars of Indicators
Human Development
(A) Productivity - Resources must be used keeping in mind the future
(B) Equity - Making equal access to opportunities available to everybody
(C) Sustainability - Continuity in the availability of opportunities
(D) Empowerment - To have the power to make choices
5. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given
options. [1]
Statement I: Gathering is practised in regions with harsh climatic conditions.
Statement II: Gathering often involves primitive societies.
Options:
(A) Only statement I is correct.
(B) Both the statements are correct
(C) Only statement II is correct.
(D) Both the statements are incorrect.

6. In which of the following types of agriculture is the farming of citrus fruit very important? [1]
(A) Mediterranean agriculture
(B) Market gardening
(C) Plantation agriculture
(D) Co-operative farming
7. Which one of the following features is correct about cottage industries? [1]
(A) It is a large manufacturing unit.
(B) Raw material is imported from outside markets.
(C) Goods produced by them have low commercial significance.
(D) Finished products are sold in the open market.
8. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the
statements carefully and choose the correct option. [1]
Assertion (A) : Industries based on ores are located to close to the sources of raw
material.
Reason (R) : Industries maximise profits by reducing transportation costs.
Options:
(A) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
9. Which one of the following activities is related to quaternary activities? [1]
(A) Production of information
(B) Fishing
(C) Tourism
(D) Trading
10. In a developed economy, the majority of workers get employment in which of following
sectors of economy? [1]
(A) Quinary Sector
(B) Tertiary Sector
(C) Secondary Sector
(D) Primary Sector
2
11. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the
statements carefully and choose the correct option. [1]
Assertion (A) : In some reasons tourism is seasonal.
Reason (R) : The vacation period is not dependent on favourable weather conditions.
Options:
(A) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
12. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given
options. [1]
Statement I: The number of female workers is relatively low in primary sector in India
Statement II: In recent years there has been some improvement in work participation of
women in secondary and tertiary sectors in India.
Options:
(A) Only statement I is correct.
(B) Both the statements are correct
(C) Only statement II is correct.
(D) Both the statements are incorrect.

13. The characteristics of an agricultural crop in India are given below. Read them carefully and
identify the crop. [1]
• It is a tropical crop.
• It is grown in Kharif season in semi-arid areas of the country.
• It requires clear sky during flowering stage.
• Leading producers of this crop are Gujarat and Maharashtra.
Crop:
(A) Tea
(B) Cotton
(C) Maize
(D) Jute
14. Which of the following is NOT the benefit of rainwater harvesting? [1]
(A) It increases water availability.
(B) It checks the declining groundwater table.
(C) It improves the quality of groundwater through dilution of contaminants like fluoride and
nitrates.
(D) Helpful in production of hydroelectricity.

15. Which of the following is an example of organic non-metallic mineral? [1]

(A) Coal (B) Limestone (C) Mica (D) Graphite

16. In which Five Year Plan, Hill Area Development Programmes were initiated? [1]
(A) First Five Year Plan (B) Third Five Year Plan
(C) Fifth Five Year Plan (D) Seventh Five Year Plan

17. Which of the following plan was introduced to improve the conditions of roads in India
after independence? [1]
(A) Five Year Road Plan (B) Nagpur Plan
(C) Ten-Year Road Plan (D) Twenty-Year Road Plan
3
 Study the given table carefully and answer the question no 18 to 20

India – Trends of Urbanisation 1901 - 2011

18. Which of the following decades has the largest decennial growth of towns? [1]
(A) 1941 - 1951 (B) 1931 - 1941
(C) 1911 - 1921 (D) 2001 - 2011
19. Which of the following decades has highest growth of urban population? [1]
(A) 1901 - 1911 (B) 1951 - 1961
(C) 1921 - 1931 (D) 1991 - 2001
20. In which of the following decades has the number of towns declined? [1]
(A) 1991 - 2001 (B) 1971 - 1981
(C) 1901 - 1911 (D) 2001 - 2011

SECTION - B
(Q. Nos. 21 and 22 are Source Based Questions.)
21. Study the given figure carefully and answer the following questions: [3]

Most Populous Countries

(21.1) Name the highest populous country. [1]

(21.2) How many total countries of North America continent are shown in the figure? [1]
(21.3) How do landforms affect the density of population in Asia? [1]

4
22. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: [3]
India has traditionally been an agrarian economy, and about two-third of its population have
been dependent on agriculture. Hence, development of irrigation to increase agricultural
production has been assigned a very high priority in the Five Year Plans, and multipurpose
river valleys projects, like the Bhakra-Nangal, Hirakud, Damodar Valley, Nagarjuna Sagar,
Indira Gandhi Canal Project, etc., have been taken up. In fact, India’s water demand at present
is dominated by irrigational needs.
Agriculture accounts for most of the surface and groundwater utilisation, it accounts for 89
per cent of the surface water and 92 per cent of the groundwater utilisation. While the share of
industrial sector is limited to 2 per cent of the surface water utilisation and 5 per cent of the
ground-water, the share of domestic sector is higher (9 per cent) in surface water utilisation as
compared to groundwater. The share of agricultural sector in total water utilisation is much
higher than other sectors. However, in future, with development, the shares of industrial and
domestic sectors in the country are likely to increase.

(22.1) Which sector uses most of the surface and groundwater in India? [1]
(22.2) Name any two states where groundwater utilisation is very high. [1]
(22.3) Why is irrigation needed in agriculture sector in India? [1]

SECTION C
(Q. Nos. 23 to 25 are Short Answer Type Questions.)

23. "Physical environment has been greatly modified by human beings, it has also, in turn
impacted human lives." Explain the statement. [3]
OR
"Human Geography is the study of the changing relationship between the unresting man and
unstable earth." Support the statement.

24. "The size of a territory and per capita income are not directly related to human development."
Support the statement with examples. [3]

25. Which is the most effective and advanced personal communication system in India? Explain
any two characteristics of it. [3]

OR
How are Indian railways contributing to the growth of national economy? Explain with
examples.
SECTION - D
(Q. Nos. 26 to 30 are Long Answer Type Questions.)
26. Describe any five characteristics of 'commercial livestock rearing' in the world. [5]
OR
Explain any five characteristics of ‘mixed farming’ in the world.

27. "High technology is the latest generation of manufacturing activities." Examine the statement.
[5]
OR
Analyse the classification of industries on the basis of raw materials used.
28. Examine the different aspects of the growth of population in India during 1951 - 1981 and
1981 - 2021. [5]
5
29. 'Low productivity’ and ‘lack of land reforms’ are the major problems of Indian agriculture."
Substantiate the statement. [5]
OR
Classify Indian farming into two groups on the basis of main source of moisture for crops.
Write two feature of each.

30. Explain any five measures necessary for the promotion of sustainable development in 'Indira
Gandhi Canal Command Area'. [5]

SECTION - E
(Q. Nos. 31and 32 are Map Based Questions.)

31. On the given political map of the world, seven geographical features have been marked as A,
B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any FIVE correctly with the help of the following information and
write their correct names on the lines marked near them. [5]
(A) An area of subsistence gathering in South America
(B) A major area of nomadic herding in Asia
(C) A major area of commercial livestock rearing in Australia
(D) A major area of extensive commercial grain farming in North America
(E) A major area of mixed farming in Europe
(F) A major area of nomadic herding in Africa
(G) An area of subsistence gathering in Africa

32. Locate and label any FIVE of the following geographical features on the given political outline
map of India with appropriate symbols: [5]
(A) A state leading in the production of coffee
(B) A state with lowest population density
(C) Mayurbhanj : Iron ore mines
(D) Khetri : Copper mines
(E) Raniganj : Coal mines
(F) Mathura : Oil refinery
(G) Katni : Bauxite mines

6
Q. 31

7
Q. 32

8
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class - XII Subject – History

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks - 80

General Instructions:

i. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 34 questions in the
question paper. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Section A – Question 1 to 21 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii. Section B – Question no. 22 to 27 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 60-80 words.
iv. Section C – Question no 28 to 30 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 8 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 300-350 words.
v. Section D – Question no.31 to 33 are Source based questions - with three sub questions-
and are of 4 marks each.
v. Section-E – Question no. 34 is Map based, carrying 5 marks that includes the identification
and location of significant test items. Attach the map with the answer book.
vi. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
vii. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever
necessary.

SECTION A

1. Which one of the following statement is correct regarding Virashaivas?

a. It means heros of shiva
b. They wore the idol of Shiva in their left shoulder
c. They were persistent regarding the purity of caste as Basavanna, the founder was a Brahmin
himself
d. They believed a sati is the best position a women could achieve

2. Arrange in sequence
i. MulkAbadi
[Link]
iii. SipahAbadi
Codes
a. ii,i,iii,
b. i,iii, ii
c. iii, ii, i
d. ii, iii, i

1
3. Read the informations given below
i. They were the leaders at local level in rural India
ii. They were highly privileged in their village
iii. Theyheaded the village panchayat
Identify and choose the correct answer from the following
a. Mandal
b. Vadan
c. Mawas
d. Diwan

4. Study the following statements carefully

i. A character of Mahabharata
ii. Blessed by his teacher to be unrivalled among his pupil
iii. His father is said to be the king of all Gods
Now choose the correct answer
a. Yudhistira
b. Ekalavya
c. Arjuna
d. Karna

5. Amuktamalyada’ written by Krishna Deva Raya was in

a. Malayalam
b. Telugu
c. Kannada
d. Tamil

6. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option

I. Europeans were the first foreigners who had written detailed account of trade, religion and
society in medieval India
II. Many Europeans who came to India were merchants, doctors and other professional who
were looking for commercial opportunities in India.
a. Only I is correct
b. Only II is correct
c. Both I and II are correct
d. Both I and II are incorrect

7. Which of the following countries ‘Duarte Barbosa' belonged to?

a. Russia
b. Portugal
c. Spain
d. France

8. Who was the first Bikkuni?

a. Maya Devi
b. Sanghamitra
c. Mahapajapati Goutami
d. Prabhavati Gupta

2
9. To justify their claim of supremacy Brahmanas often cited a verse from a hymn in the Rigveda.
Identify its name from the following
a. Manusmriti
b. Purushardha
c. Purushasukta.
d. Naitikashastra
10. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R ). Mark your answer as per
the codes provided below.
Assertion (A): Lingayats did not practice after death practices like the rest of Hindus
Reason(R): Lingayats believed that on death the devotee will be united with Shiva and will not
return to this world
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is correct but R is wrong
d. A is wrong but R is correct
11. Consider the folowing statements and choose the correct option
I. Both Khud Kashta and Pahi Kashta were residents of their own village
II. Only Pahi Kashta owned the Land in their own village
Codes
a. Only I is correct
b. Only II is correct
c. Both I and II are correct
d. Both I and II are not correct

12. Abu'lFazl was a court historian of which Mughal Emperor?

a. Humayun
b. Babur
c. Akbar
d. Jahangir

13. Why was Vijaya nagara named as Hampi?

Select the appropriate option from the following
a. This name was given by KrishnadevaRaya
b. This name was derived by Colin Meckenzie
c. This name was derived from the local Goddess named Pampadevi
d. This name was devoted to Virupaksha, a local deity

14. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer
i. The original version of Mahabharata was written in Sanskrit
ii. According to Shastras, only Kshatriyas could be kings
iii. During the Mahbharata age, gotras were considered very important by the higher varnas of
the society
iv. The Mahabharata gives vivid descriptions of battles forests palaces and settlements
Codes
a. i and ii
b. ii and iii
c. i, ii and iii
d. i, ii, iii and iv

3
15. Who is considered as the founder of Jainism?
a. Rishabh dev
b. Mahavira
c. Parshvanadha
d. Padmaprabha

16. Who among the following Gurus of Sikhs compiled Shree Guru AdiGranth Sahib?
a. Guru Arjan Dev
b. Guru Nanak Dev
c. Guru Govind Singh
d. Guru TegBahadur

17. Read the following statements carefully

i. It is a dargah of the Shaikh MoinuddinChisti
ii. Akbar visited this place several time
locate this from place from the following options.
a. Delhi
b. Ajmer
c. Mehrauli
d. FatehpurSikri

18. If arranged in chronological order which dynasty would be the first one in Vijayanagara
Empire
a. Arvidu
b. Tuluva
c. Sangama
d. Saluva

19. Who wrote the book Kitab-Ul-Hind

a. Abul Fazl
b. Abdul khan Samrkhand
c. Al-Biruni
d. Abdur Razzak

20. Identify the term which defines the given below statement and give the correct answer.
“The stupa originated as a simple semi circular mound of earth “
a. Marmik
b. Amalka
c. Anda
d. Harmika
21. Identify the following figure

a. Mandapa from Hazara Rama Temple

b. Gopuram from virupaksha temple
c. Carving from Mahanavami Dibba
d. Stamba from Lotus Mahal
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 SECTION B
22. Discuss whether the Mahabharata could have been the work of a single author

23. Discuss the brilliance of architecture in the city of Vijayanagara specially mentioning about its
Fortifications?

24. Explain the observations of Ibn Battuta about the cities of India, with special reference to Delhi.

25. Explain the role of women in the agrarian society in the sixteenth and seventeenth century
Mughal India

26. ’The Zamindars regularly failed to the pay the land revenue demand after the introduction of
the Permanent Settlement in Bengal.’ Examine the causes of the same

27. How does Mahanavami Dibba shows the imperial power of Vijayanagara?
SECTION C

28. What do visual representations tell us about the revolt of 1857? How do historians analyse
these representations

29. Explain the background of the growth of Buddhism along with its main philosophical
teachings.

30. ‘The similarity between the major teachings in Bhakti -Sufi traditions are commendable ‘
Elucidate.

SECTION D
SOURCE /CASE BASED QUESTIONS

31. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow
A Language with and Enormous Range
Al-Biruni described Sanskrit as follows: If you want to conquer this difficulty (i.e. to learn
Sanskrit), you will not find it easy, because the language is of an enormous range, both in
words and inflections, something like the Arabic, calling one and the same thing by various
names, both original and derivative, and using one and the same word for a variety of subjects,
which, in order to be properly understood, must be distinguished from each other by various
qualifying epithets.
(i) How did Al-Biruni compare Sanskrit with Arabic? [1]
(ii) Give an example of the work Al-Biruni translated in Arabic from Sanskrit. [1]
(iii) Analyse the reason of Sanskrit considered as a language with enormous range. [2]

32. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
From the Fifth Report
Referring to the condition of zamindars and the auction of lands, the Fifth Report stated: The
revenue was not realised with punctuality, and lands to a considerable extent were
periodically exposed to sale by auction. In the native year 1203, corresponding with 1796-97,
the land advertised for sale comprehended a jumma or assessment of sicca rupees 28,70,061,
the extent of land actually sold bore a jumma or assessment of 14,18,756, and the amount of
purchase money sicca rupees 17,90,416. In 1204, corresponding with 1797-98, the land

5
 advertised was for sicca rupees 26,66,191, the quantity sold was for sicca rupees 22,74,076, and
the purchase money sicca rupees 21,47,580. Among the defaulters were some of the oldest
families of the country. Such were the rajahs of Nuddea, Rajeshaye, Bishenpore (all districts of
Bengal),… and others, the dismemberment of whose estates at the end of each succeeding year,
threatened them with poverty and ruin, and in some instances presented difficulties to the
revenue officers, in their efforts to preserve undiminished the amount of public assessment.
(i) Examine the reason for calling it as a ‘Fifth Report’.
(ii) Why were activities of East India Company closely debated in England?
(iii) What was the condition of the zamindars according to the report

33. Read the source given below and answer the questions that following
Draupadi’s Questions

Draupadi is supposed to have asked Yudhisthira whether he had lost himself before staking
her. Two contrary opinions were expressed in response to this question. Once, that even if
Yudhisthira had lost himself earlier, his wife remained under his control, so he could stake her.
Two, that an unfree man (as Yudhisthira was when he had lost himself) could not stake
another person. The matter remained unresolved, ultimately, Dhritarashtra restored to the
Pandavas and Draupadi their personal freedom.

(i) How did Draupadi’s questions unsettle everyone in the assembly?

(ii) What was the implication of her questions?
(iii) What makes Draupadi’s question admirable?

SECTION E
34. A. Identify the two major Buddhist centres marked as 1 & 2 and label them in the given map of
India

B. Locate and Label the following Centres of revolt of 1857

i. Delhi

ii. Jhansi

iii. Meerut

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7
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL Township, Ranchi
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION 2024
Class: XII Time: 03:00 Hr.
Subject: Informatics Practices (065) Marks: 70

General instructions:
General Instructions:
● Please check this question paper contains 37 questions.
● All questions are compulsory. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. Attempt only
one of the choices in such questions
● The paper is divided into 5 Sections- A, B, C, D and E.
● Section A consists of 21 questions (1 to 21). Each question carries 1 Mark.
● Section B consists of 7 questions (22 to 28). Each question carries 2 Marks.
● Section C consists of 4 questions (29 to 32). Each question carries 3 Marks.
● Section D consists of 2 case study type questions (33 to 34). Each question carries 4 Marks.
● Section E consists of 3 questions (35 to 37). Each question carries 5 Marks.
● All programming questions are to be answered using Python Language only.
● In case of MCQ, text of the correct answer should also be written.

Section–A
01. State whether True or False: (1)
(i) Copying someone else’s work/programs and claiming them as your own is an act of plagiarism.
(ii) Cyber bullying is an attempt to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords and
credit card details by sending emails or instant messaging.
02. Which of the following is not done by cyber criminals? (1)
(A) Unauthorized account access (B) Mass attack using Trojans as botnets
(C) Email spoofing and spamming (D) Report vulnerability in any system
03. An organization purchase new computers every year and dumps the old one into the local
dumping yard. Write the name of the most appropriate category of waste that the organization (1)
is creating every year, out of the following options:
(A) Business waste (B) Commercial waste
(C) E-waste (D) Green waste
04. Which type of values will be returned by SQL while executing the following statement? (1)
Select Length(“LENGTH”);
(A) Numeric value (B) Text value
(C) Null value (D) Float value

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05. If column “salary” contains the data set (45000, 5000, 55000, 45000, 55000), what will be (1)
the output after the execution of the given query?
SELECT AVG (DISTINCT Salary) FROM employee;
(A) 38500 (B) 40000
(D) 35000
(C) 41000
06. Single row function is: (1)
(A) That finds the average of a column.
(B) That extracts a certain number of characters of a string.
(C) IN clause.
(D) DISTINCT clause.
07. The correct SQL from below to find the temperature, in increasing order of all cities. (1)
(A) SELECT city FROM weather order by temperature;
(B) SELECT city, temperature FROM weather;
(C) SELECT city, temperature FROM weather ORDER BY temperature;
(D) SELECT city, temperature FROM weather ORDER BY city;
08. Which one of the following is not an aggregate function? (1)
(A) Min (B) Sum
(C) With (D) Avg
09. Where and Having clauses can be used interchangeably in SELECT queries? (1)
(A) True (B) False
(C) With update (D) With order by
10. Given a Pandas series HEAD, the command which will display excluding last 3 rows is: (1)
(A) print([Link](3)) (B) print([Link](-3))
(C) print([Link](3)) (D) print([Link](-3))
11. In order to draw charts in Python, which of the following statement will be used: (1)
(A) import [Link] as pl (B) import [Link] as plt
(C) import [Link] (D) import pyplot from matplotlib as plt
12. We can create DataFrame from: (1)
(A) Series (B) Numpy arrays
(C) List of Dictionaries (D) All of the above
13. What is plagiarism? (1)
(A) Using copyrighted material without acknowledgement.
(B) Downloading software without legal license.
(C) Spreading misinformation online.
(D) Hacking into computer systems.

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14. In SQL, which function returns the date & time both: (1)
(A) SYSDATE (B) NOW
(C) None of these (D) Both of these
15. ________is the attempt by individual to obtain confidential information from you through an
original looking site and URL. (1)
(A) Pharming attack (B) Plagiarism
(C) Spamming (D) Phishing scam
16. Chitra sets up her own company to sell her own range of clothes on Instagram. What type of
intellectual property can she use to show that the clothes are made by his company. (1)
(A) Patents (B) Copyright
(C) Trademark (D) Production Certificate
17. Which Matplotlib plot is best suited to represent changes in data over time? (1)
(A) Bar plot (B) Histogram (C) Line plot (D) Histogram & Bar plot
18. Boolean indexing in Pandas DataFrame can be used for _______. (1)
(A) Creating a new DataFrame
(B) Sorting data based on index labels
(C) Joining data using labels
(D) Filtering data based on condition
19. Which of the following Python statements is used to import data from a CSV file into a Pandas (1)
DataFrame (Note: pd is an alias for pandas)?
(A) pd.open_csv('[Link]') (B) pd.read_csv('[Link]')
(C) pd.load_csv('[Link]') (D) pd.import_csv('[Link]')
Q-20 and Q-21 are Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Type questions. Choose the correct option as:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is True, but Reason (R) is False
(D) Assertion (A) is False, but Reason (R) is True
20. Assertion (A): We can add a new column in an existing DataFrame. (1)
Reason (R): DataFrames are size mutable.
21. Assertion (A): In SQL, INSERT INTO is a Data Definition Language (DDL) Command. (1)
Reason (R): DDL commands are used to create, modify, or remove database structures, such as tables.

Section – B
22. What is a Series in Python Pandas? Also, give a suitable example to support your answer. (2)
OR
What does the term 'library' signify in Python? Mention one use for each of the following libraries:
• Pandas
• Matplotlib
23. Neelam, a database administrator needs to display Class wise total number of students of ‘XI’ and (2)
‘XII’ house. She is encountering an error while executing the following query:

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 SELECT CLASS, COUNT (*) FROM STUDENT ORDER BY CLASS
HAVING CLASS=’XI’ OR CLASS= ‘XII’;
Help her in identifying the reason of the error and write the correct query by suggesting correction (s).
24. What is the purpose of GROUP BY clause in SQL? Explain with the help of suitable example. (2)
25. Write a program to create a series object using a dictionary that stores the number of Schools in (2)
each city of cities of your state.
Note: Assume some cities like Ranchi, Patna, Kolkata, Bhubaneswar having 4, 3, 5, 4 branches
respectively and pandas’ library has been imported as mypandas.
26. Write any two points to manage e-west and also mention any two net-etiquettes. (2)
OR
Differentiate between the active digital footprint and passive digital footprints.
27. What will be the output of the following code: (2)
>>> import pandas as pd
>>> mydata=[Link]( [‘rajesh’, ‘amit’, ‘tarun’, ‘Radhika’] )
>>> print(mydata < ‘rajesh’ )
28. Carefully observe the following code: (2)
>>> import pandas as pd
>>> xiic = {‘amit’:34, ‘kajal’:27, ‘ramesh’:37}
>>> xiid = {‘kajal’:34, ‘lalta’:33, ‘prakash’:38}
>>> result = {‘PT1’:xiic, ‘PT2’:xiid}
>>> df = [Link](result)
>>> print(df)
Now answer the following:
(i) List the index of the DataFrame df
(ii) Find the output of the following code: print([Link][‘kajal’: ‘ramesh’])

Section-C
29. Write outputs for SQL queries (i) to (iii) which are based on the given table GAME (3)
GID NAME DATEOFGAME UNDER WINNER
1 JUDO 2022-10-17 17 RAMESH
2 BADMINTON 2022-5-18 14 KIRTI
3 JUDO 2022-8-18 19 KAMAL
4 TAEKWONDO 2021-7-20 14 SADIQ
5 CHESS 2021-5-6 17 ALANKAR
(i) Select name, under, winner from GAME where month(DateOfGame)>7;
(ii) Select Lcase(Mid(winner,2,3)) from GAME where NAME like “%O”;
(iii) Select Mod(Under, Month(DateOfGame)) from GAME where NAME=“CHESS”;

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30. Write a Python code to create a DataFrame with appropriate column headings from the list
given below: (3)
[[1001,'IND-AUS',’2022-10-17’], [1002,'IND-PAK',’2022-10-23’], [1003,'IND-SA' , ‘2022-10-30],
[1004,'IND-NZ',’2022-11-18’]]

31. Consider the given DataFrame ‘Items’: (3)

Name Price Quantity
0 CPU 7750 15
1 Watch 475 50
2 Key Board 225 25
3 Mouse 150 20
Write suitable Python statements for the following:
(i) Add a column called Sale_Price which is 10% decreased value of Price
(ii) Add a new item named “Printer” having price 8000 and Quantity as 10.
(iii) Remove the column Quantity
32. Consider the following tables STOCK & COMPANY as given here, write (1+2)
suitable SQL queries for the following:
Table: STOCK
STOCKID NAME COMPANY TYPE DOPURCHASE Quantity
1 Photoshop Adobe SW 5-Oct-2022 1
2 Windows 10 Microsoft SW 15-Apr-2021 5
3 Mother Board ASUS HW 8-Sep-2022 5
4 Office 2007 Microsoft SW 8-Jul-2022 2
5 Hard Disk Seagate HW 6-Feb-2021 10
6 Azure Microsoft SW 17-Jul-2022 6
Table: COMPANY
STOCKID LOCATION Price
1 Paris 8000
3 New York 10000
5 Beijing 7500
7 New Delhi 5500
9 Singapore 9000
(i) Display company wise highest Quantity available
(ii) Display Product Names, Company, Location & Price present in the above tables.
OR
Consider the following tables:
Table 1: ATHLETE, which stores AthleteID, Name, Country. The table displays basic information
of the athletes
Table 2: MEDALS, which stores AthleteID, Sport, and Medals. The table displays the number of
medals won by each athlete in their respective sports.

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 Write appropriate SQL queries for the following:
(i) Display the sports-wise total number of medals won.
(ii) Display the names of all the Indian athletes in uppercase.
(iii) Display the athlete’s name along with their corresponding sports.

Section – D
33. Observe the following figure. Identify the coding for obtaining this as output, where score (4)
progress of two cricket teams (India & South Africa) in this graph is plotted. Also assign suitable
Title, and labels in x-axis and y-axis. Finally give a python statement to save this graph.

(4)
34. Write Python code to plot a bar chart for No of Games in State Level Sports shown below:

Give suitable python statement to save this chart along with Captions as Title, x-axis & y-axis.

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 Section – E
35. movieID Name Rating Production Collection DORelease
201 Nadiya Ke Par A+ Rajshree 400 15-Aug-1989
202 Hum Aapke Hain Kaun A+ Dharma 1500 4-May-1992
203 Veer Zara A Yashraj 1100 25-Oct-2004
204 Chandni A+ Yashraj 2000 8-Nov-1989
205 Om Shanti Om A Red Chillies 2007 14-Nov-2007
Harsh, a movie information collector has designed a database for Indian movies. Help him by
writing answers of the following questions based on the above table MOVIE: (1+1+1+2)
(i) Write a query to display movie name and production – both in upper case
(ii) Write a query to display all details of movies released in year 1989
(iii) Write a query to display records in descending order on Collection, those have A+ rating.
(iv) Write a query to count production wise total number of movies
OR (Option for part iv only)
Write a query to count rating wise total number of movies
36. Mr. Sumit in data-analysis having “[Link]” file where data on Computer infrastructure is stored
as given below. Now answer: (1+1+1+2)

(i) Create a DataFrame from this .csv with ‘S01’, ‘S02’, ‘S03’, ‘S04’, ‘S05, ‘S06’ as indexes
(ii) Add a new column Tot_Comp of sum of Working & Non-working computers.
(iii) Write Python statement to display the data of working column of indexes S03 to S05.
(iv) Predict the output of the following python statement:
(A) [Link] (B) df[2:4]
OR (Option for part ii only)
Write Python statement to compute and display the difference of data of non-working column and working
column of the above given DataFrame.
37. Write suitable SQL query for the following: (5)
(i) Display 4 characters extracted from 3rd character onwards from string ‘IMPOSSIBLE’.
(ii) Display the position of occurrence of string ‘GO’ in the string “LET’s GO to GOA”.
(iii) Round off the value 257.75 to nearest ten rupees.
(iv) Display the remainder of 18 divided by 5.
(v) Remove all the leading and trailing spaces from a column passwd of the table ‘USER’.
OR
Explain the following SQL functions using suitable examples.
(i) MONTHNAME()
(ii) SUBSTRING()
(iii) LTRIM()
(iv) ROUND()
(v) RIGHT()
###

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 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class – XII Subject – Hindustani Music Vocal

Time – 2 Hours Maximum Marks- 30

सामा य नदश :
इस न प म तीन ख ड है क , ख और ग।
ख ड-क 1 अंको का है । सभी न अ नवाय है ।
ख ड-ख 2 अंको का है । सभी न अ नवाय है ।
ख ड-ग 6 अंको का है । सभी न अ नवाय है ।

ख ड क [1×8=8]

1. पश वर कसे कहते है ?
i) वण
ii) मीड
iii) मुक$
iv) कण
2. जब तीन वर' को तेज़ ग त मे गाया बजाया जाता है तो उस *या को +या कहते है ?
i) मीड
ii) वण
iii) मुक$
iv) अलंकार

3.'मीड' -लखने के -लए उ/टा अध चं3 कहा लगाते है ?

i) दायी ओर
ii) बाई ओर
iii) ऊपर
iv) नीचे
4. अ8वदशक वर कसे कहा गया है ?
i) षडज
ii) धैवत
iii) म8यम
iv) :रषभ

1
5. ती; म8यम वाले राग कस समय गाए जाते है ?
i) सुबह
ii) दोपहर
iii) रात
iv) कसी भी समय

6. मलान क िजए ।
I II

क. आ=य राग 1. >ाम

ख. षडज 2. भैरव
ग. बागे=ी 3. औडव- औडव
घ. मालकAस 4. काफC थाठ
i) क- 2, ख-1, ग- 4, घ-3
ii) क -2, ख -3, ग -4, घ-1
iii) क -3, ख -4, ग- 2, घ-1
iv) क -4, ख -3, ग- 2, घ-1
7. कथन- I: ताल Fपक का सम ,खालG पर आता है ।
कथन - II : Fपक ताल मे 8 मा ाएं होती है ।
इन कथन' के आलोक मे नIन -लJखत Kवक/प' मे से सहG उLतर चुने:
i) कथन (अ) सहG है , कMतु (ब) गलत है ।
ii) कथन (अ) गलत है , कMतु (ब) सहG है ।
iii) कथन (अ) और कथन (ब) दोनो सहG है ।
iv) कथन (अ) और कथन (ब) दोनो गलत है ।

8. सहG कथन को चु नए।

क. राग मालकौस मे वर 'रे प' विजत है ।
ख. राग बागे=ी का वादG वर 'ध' है ।
ग. राग भैरव ातः कालGन सिMध काश राग है ।
घ. झपताल के तीन Kवभाग है ।
i) क और ख
ii) क और ग
iii) ख और ग
iv) ख और घ

2
 ख ड ख [2×5=10]

9. अलंकार कC प:रभाषा -लJखए एवं एक अलंकार आरोह अवरोह सRहत -लJखए।

अथवा
Fपक ताल के एक आवतन कC दग
ु न
ु -लJखए।

10. तानपरु े का नामां कत Sच उसके अंग' के नाम सRहत बनाइए ।

अथवा
गमक कसे कहते है ? गमक के कुछ कार का वणन कCिजए।

11. राग बागे=ी का Kव तार 50 वर' तक कCिजए ।

अथवा
आलाप कसे कहते है ? आलाप के कार का संUेVत मे वणन कCिजए ।

12. राग भैरव कC मख

ु Kवशेषताओं का वणन कCिजए ।

13. नIन-लJखत मे से कMहG दो को प:रभाKषत कCिजए - कण, मीड, >ाम, मW

ु छाना
अथवा
सVता8यायी कस >ंथ को कहते है वणन कCिजए ।

ख ड ग [6×2=12]

14. अपने पाXय*म मे से कोई भी एक राग के बड़े Zयाल कC वर-लKप -लJखए।

अथवा
राग भैरव मे छोटे Zयाल को वर -लKपब[ कCिजए ।

15. Rहंद ु तानी संगीत के राग' के समय -स[ांत के आधार पर कए गए वग\करण को 'पव
ू ा^ग' व 'उLतरांग' का +या
महLLव है ? _याZया कCिजए ।
अथवा
झपताल मे ठाह,दग
ु न
ु , एवं तगुन को ताल -लKपब[ कCिजए ।

3
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class - XII Subject – Odissi Dance

Time – 2 Hours Maximum Marks - 30
Total Marks: 30 General instructions:

General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains three sections: A, B and C.
2. Section A has 8 [Link] questions are compulsory.
3. Section B has 8 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
4. Section C has 3 questions. Attempt any 2 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.

SECTION-A
01 Which instrument is commonly use in Chhau Dance? 1
02 SatvikaAbhinaya deals with? 1
03 In Odissi Dance which musical instrument controls rhythm? 1
04 The term Angika deals with? 1
05 Guru KelucharanMahapatra style of Odissi dance is based on? 1
06 Who were the ancient temple dancers in Odisha? 1
07 Who is the author of AbhinayaDarpan Text? 1
08 Sareikela Chhau dance belongs to which state? 1
SECTION-B
09 Define the term Tala and Avartan. 2
10 What do you know by the term Lokadharmi? 2
11 Briefly define the term Nritta? 2
12 Name four musical instruments of Chhau dance. 2
13 Define the term Tandav? 2
14 Define the term Abhinaya? 2
15 Write any one Tala with its calculation of Matra, Vibhag, and Chhanda. 2
16 Originally Chhau dance form belongs to which state? 2
SECTION-C
19 Write about the introduction of the text AbhinayaChandrika and what is 6
mainly described in the Text?
20 Write short biography about Guru PankajaCharan Das? 6
21 Define the terms: Nritta, Nritya and Natya. 6
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class - XII Subject – Physical Education

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks - 70

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:-
a. The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.
b. Section A consists of questions 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice question. All
questions are compulsory.
c. Section B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and
should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
d. Section C consist of questions 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer type and
should not exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
e. Section D consist of questions 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies.
f. Section E consist of question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and
should not exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

SECTION-A
1. Publication of rules and regulations should be done __________________. (1)
(a) Pre event
(b) During event
(c) Post event
(d) Any time during the event
2. Minimum duration of activity should be _______________ per week at vigorous intensity in
adult above 65 years of age. (1)
(a) 75 minutes
(b) 150 minutes
(c) 300 minutes
(d) 450 minutes
3. Lordosis is also known as __________________. (1)
(a) Kyphotic
(b) Lordotic
(c) Sway back
(d) Skolios
4. Which asana is of side twist pose? (1)
(a) Shavasana
(b) Chakrasana
(c) Ardha matseyendrasana
(d) Parvatasana

1
5. Which glands secrets the hormone insulin, the lack of which is associated with diabetes? (1)
(a) Endocrine glands
(b) Pituilary
(c) Pancreas
(d) Hypothalamus
6. In which of the following food groups “Sugar and Jaggery” come under? (1)
(a) Protective or regulatory food
(b) Energy giving food
(c) Body building food
(d) Immunity booster food
7. Which of the following is the water soluble vitamin? (1)
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) vitamin D
(d) Vitamin K
8. What is the weight of dumbbell for men in arm curl of Rikili and Jones test? (1)
(a) 5 pounds
(b) 6 pounds
(c) 8 pounds
(d) 10 pounds
9. Push ups is an example of which lever? (1)
(a) 1st class
(b) 2nd class
(c) 3rd class
(d) none of these
10. Johnson methny test battery does not consist of _____________ motor. (1)
(a) Front roll
(b) Back roll
(c) Side roll
(d) Jumping full turns
11. National sports day is celebrated on _________________. (1)
(a) 9th august
(b) 19th august
(c) 28th august
(d) 29th august
12. Which one of the following methods is not used for preparing fixtures in league or round robin
tournament? (1)
(a) Staircase method
(b) Cyclic method
(c) Combination method
(d) Tabular method

2
13. Lateral curve is the spine is known as ________________. (1)
(a) Kyphosis
(b) Scoliosis
(c) Lordosis
(d) Knock-knees

14. BMI between 25.0-29.9 is _______________. (1)

(a) Underweight
(b) Normal weight
(c) Overweight
(d) Obesity class 1

15. Which of the asana is for relaxation? (1)

(a) Makrasana
(b) Bhadrasana
(c) Ardh-chakrasana
(d) All of the above

16. Infrequent menstruation is known as :- (1)

(a) Metrorrhagia
(b) Oligomenorrhoea
(c) Polymenorrhea
(d) Menorrhagia

17. Which of the following tournament helps to save time:- (1)

(a) Knock-out tournament
(b) League tournament
(c) Combination tournament
(d) Round robin tournament

18. How many byes will be given if 29 teams are participating in knock-out tournament? (1)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
SECTION-B

19. Explain the importance of fluid intake during a competition? (2)

20. Write any four benefits of Ardha Halasana? (2)
21. What is menstrual dysufunction? Write in brief. (2)
22. Write in brief the cause and remedies of Knock-knees? (2)
23. Write about the objectives of Intramural tournaments? (2)
24. Explain the role of marketing committee during the event? (2)

3
 SECTION-C

25. Write down the procedure and contraindications of Gomukhasana? (3)

26. Briefly explain the function of Staffing and Controlling in sports event management? (3)
27. Write down physical activities exercise guidelines for under 5 yrs. of age? (3)
28. Define Non- nutritive components of diet? (3)
29. Explain the procedure of Sit and Reach Test? (3)
30. With the help of suitable examples, discuss the application of Newton’s laws of motion in
sports. (3)

SECTION-D
31. During the gymnastics practice, Zoya was finding it difficult to maintain her balance on the
balancing beam. Her coach tried to explain to her about basic principles of equilibrium? (4)

According to the principles of equilibrium, centre of gravity plays a very important role

1. The nearer the centre of gravity to the centre of the base of support the more will be the
__________________.
2. The position of the centre of gravity changes depending upon the __________________.
3. The sum of all the Vertical and Horizontal forces acting on the body must
be_______________.
4. Centre of gravity is the average location of an objects _____________________.

32. XYZ school is conducting an Invitation Tournament in which 25 teams have sent their entries.
Matches have to be conducted on a knock-out basis. (4)
1. How many total matches will be played?
2. How many matches will be played in the first round of the tournament?
3. How many rounds will be played?
4. Which team will get 4th bye of the tournament?
33. Mr. Sandeep aged 65 years worked as a civil engineer in a construction company. He had to
walk and climb a lot as a part of his job. After retirement, he settled with his son spending time
with his grand children. Now a days, he is experiencing difficulty in doing certain chores
which involve physical movement. (4)

1. Which of the following test would your recommend to check mr. Sandeep fitness?
(a) Harvard step test
(b) Rikili and Jones test
(c) AAPHER test
(d) Rockport test
2. How many series of test are there in prescribed fitness test for Mr. Sandeep?
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 4
4
 3. Chair sit and reach test is done to check___________________.
(a) Agility
(b) Speed
(c) Flexibility
(d) Strength

4. Pick the odd one: -

(a) arm curl test
(b) Chair stand test
(c) 6 minute walk test
(d) Partial curl up

SECTION-E

34. What is Friction? Explain the various types of Friction with example. (5)
35. Explain Harvad step test in detail? (5)
36. Draw a Tabular fixture of 13 teams mentioning all the steps involved. (5)
37. Explain Lordosis and Flatfoot, write its causes and remedies in detail. (5)

5
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class - XII Subject – Physics

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks-70

General Instructions

1. There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.

2. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section
E.
3. All the sections are compulsory.
4. Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQs and four and Assertion Reasoning based
of 1 mark each, Section B contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains
seven questions of three marks each, Section D contains two case study based questions of
four marks each and Section E contains three long answer questions of five marks each.
5. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question in
Section B, one question in Section C, one question in each CBQ in Section D and all three
questions in Section E. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
6. Use of calculators is not allowed.

SECTION – A

1. An electric charge q is placed at one of the corners of a cube of side a. The electric flux on one of
its faces will be :-

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of V volt. After disconnecting
the charging battery, the distance between the plates of the capacitor is increased using an
insulating handle. As a result, the potential difference between the plates
(a) decrease
(b) increases
(c) does not change
(d) becomes zero

1
3. If the drift velocity in
n a material varies with the applied electric field E as ∝ √ , then the
V-I graph
raph for a wire made of such a material is best given by:
by:-

oving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 900 Ω.. In order to send only 10% of the main
4. A moving
current through this galvanometer, the resistance of the required shunt is:
is:-
(a) 0.9 Ω
(b) 90 Ω
(c) 100 Ω
(d) 405 Ω

5. Two wires of the same length are shaped into a square and a circle. If they carry the same
current, the ratio of thee magnetic moments of the square to the circle is ::-
(a) 2:
(b) : 2
(c) 4:
(d) : 4

6. What will be the directions of induced current in metal rings

rings 1 and 2 when the current I in the
wire is increasing steadily?

(a) 1 – Clockwise, 2 – Anticlockwise

(b) 1 – Anticlockwise, 2 – Clockwise
lockwise
(c) 1 – Clockwise, 2 – Clockwise
(d) 1 – Anticlockwise, 2 – Anticlockwise

2
7. In a coil of resistance 10 Ω,, the induced current developed by changing magnetic flux through it,
is shown in the figure as a function of time. T The
he magnitude of change in flux through the coil (in
weber) is :-

(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2

8. The current and voltage in A.C. circuit are given by

I = 5 Sin (100 t - ) amp
V = 200 Sin (100 t ) V
The power dissipation in the circuit in one complete cycle is :-
(a) Zero
(b) 20 W
(c) 40 W
(d) 1000 W

9. In L-C-R
R series circuit, the capacitance is changed from C to 4 C.. For the same resonant
frequency, the inductance should be changed from L to ::-
(a) 2L
(b)
(c)
(d) 4L

10. A ray of light passes through an equilateral glass prism, such that the angle of incidence is
'
equal to the angle of emergence. If the angle of emergence is times the angle of the prism, the
refractive index of the material of the prism will be:
be:-
(a) 1.51
(b) 1.414
(c) 1.33
(d) None of these

11. The oscillating magnetic field in a plane e.m wave is given by

B = 5 10 Sin 1000 !5" # 4 10( )* tesla. The amplitude of the electric field will be :-
:
(a) 15 10 $% &
(b) 5 10 $% &
(c) 16 10& $% &
(d) 4 10 $% &

3
12. The power of a convex lens:-
(a) increases when the lens is dipped in water.
(b) decreases when another convex lens is placed in contact with it.
(c) increases when the wavelength of light, incident on it, decreases .
(d) increases when the lens is cut into two identical plano – convex lenses.

For Questions 13 to 16, two statements are given -one

one labelled Assertion (A) and other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as given below.
A. Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. Both Assertion and Reason are false.

13. Assertion (A): The equivalent resistance between points A and B in the given network is 2R.
Reason (R): All the resistors are connected in parallel.

14. Assertion (A): A proton and an electron with the same momenta, enter a magnetic field at
right angle to the lines of force.
force The radius of the paths
aths followed by them will
be the same.
Reason (R): An electron has lesser mass than proton.

15. Assertion (A): In water, the value of magnetic field decreases.

decrease
Reason (R): Water is a diamagnetic substance.

16. Assertion (A): If the frequency of the applied AC is doubled, the power factors of a series R
R-L
circuit decreases.
5
R circuit is given by Cos 4 , 5 67
Reason (R): Power factor of a series R-L

SECTION – B

17. Two similar balls each having mass m and charge q are hung from a rigid support by a silk
thread of length +.. Prove that in equilibrium, the separation (x)
( ) between them is given by
&/'
.
",- /0
1 when each thread makes a small angle 8 with the vertical.
OR
Two small identical electric dipoles AB and CD, each of dipole moment 9: are kept at an angle
of 1203 to each other in an external electric field ;: pointing along the X – axis as shown in the
figure.

Find
(i) the dipole moment of the arrangement
(ii) the magnitude and direction of the net torque acting on it.

4
18. Derive expressions for (i)) time period (ii) pitch for a charge entering obliquely in a uniform
magnetic field.
19. Find the ratio of the potential differences that must be applied across the parallel and the series
combination of two capacitors <& and < with their capacitances in the ratio 1:2, so that the
energy stored in the two cases, becomes the same.

20. If x stands for the magnetic suscept

susceptibility of a given material, identify the class of materials for
which:-
(a) #1 = " > 0
(b) 0 > " >∈ (∈ = small positive number)
Also draw the pattern of magnetic field lines when they are placed in an external magnetic
field.

21. Identify the e.m. waves, whose method of production, is associated

associate with:-
(a)
a) vibrations of atoms and molecules
(b) decay of atomic nuclei.
Also mention one use of each.

SECTION – C

22. (a) Use Gauss’s ’s theorem to find the electric field intensity due to a uniformly charged
infinitely large, thin planee sheet with surface charge density C .
(b) An infinitely large, thin plane sheet has uniform surface charge density + C.
Obtain the work done in bringing a point charge q from infinity to a point at a
perpendicular distance ‘r’ in front of the sheet.

23. (a) Define ‘mobility’ of charge carriers.

arriers. Give its S.I. unit.
(b) Two aluminium wires have their lengths in the ratio 2:3 and radii in thee ratio 1:3. These are
connecteded in parallel across a battery of emf E and of negligible internal resistance.
resistance Find the
ratio of drift velocities of the electrons in these two wires.
wires
OR
A battery of internal resistance, D , 4Ω is connected to the given network of resistances.
resistance
What must be the value of R, so that the maximum power is delivered to the network?
What is the maximum power?

& & &

24. Derive the mirror formula @ A B , E (the symbols carry their usual meaning). Draw a relevant
diagram for the same.

25. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 6 J/T is alligned at 603 with a uniform eternal magnetic
field of 0.44 T. Calculate
(a) the work done in turning the magnet to align its magnetic moment (i) normal to the
magnetic field (ii) opposite
pposite to the magnet
magnetic field
(b) the torque on the magnet in the final orientation in case (ii)
(ii).

5
26. (a) Define ‘Coefficient
oefficient of mutual induction
induction’. Give its S.I. unit.
(b) Derive an expression for the mutual inductance of two long co-axial
axial solenoids [[having the
same length but different radii ((D& N D ) and turn density] wound over
er one another, when
current I& is sent through the first solenoid.

27. (a) Two point charges AQ& and # Q are placed r distance apart. Obtain the expression for the
amount of work done to place a third charge Q' at the mid-point
point of the line joining the two
charges.
(b) At what distance from charge AQ& on the line joining the two charges (in terms of Q& , Q
and r ) will this work done be zero?

28. (a) (i) What is the principle of a transformer?

(ii) Why is its core laminated?
(iii) Why is soft iron used as the core material?

(b) The primary coil of a transformer has 200 turns and the secondary has 1000 turns. If the
power output from the secondary at 10 1000 V is 9 kW, calculate
(i) the primary voltage
0. Ω and the
(ii) the rate of heat loss in the primary coil if the resistance of primary coil is 0.2
efficiency of the transformer is 90%.

SECTION D: CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

Question number 29 and 30 are Case
Case study based questions. Read the following paragraphs
and answer the questions that follow.
29. Force on a Current Carrying Conductor
onductor in a Magnetic Field.

When a conductor carrying a current is placed in an external magnetic field, it experiences a

mechanical force. A current is an assembly of moving charges and a magnetic field exerts a
force on a moving charge. That is why a current
current-carrying conductor when placed in a magnetic
field experiences a sideways force as the force experienced by the moving electrons is
transmitted to the conductor as a whole. A conductor of length + carrying a current I held in a
magnetic field L ;: at an angle 8 with it, experie
experiences a force given by F = I + B Sin 8. In vector
form, M = I (+ x L) The direction of M is perpendicular to both +: and L
: : ;: ;;;: ;: and is given by Fleming's
left hand rule. A conducting bar with mass m and length + slides over horizontal rails that are
connected to voltage source V. The source maintains a constant current I in the rails and bar,
and a uniform magnetic field B, acting vertically upwards, acts in the region between the rails.

6
(i) Ignoring friction, air resistance and electrical resistance, the magnitude and direction of the
net force on the conducting bar is
(a) I + B, to the right
(b) I + B, to the left
(c) 2 I + B, to the right
(d) 2 I + B, to the left

(ii) If the bar has mass m, the distance d, that the bar must move along the rails from rest to
attain a speed v, will be
'@ /
(a)
O.P
Q@ /
(b)
O.P
@ /
(c) O.P
@ /
(d) O.P

(iii) A force acting on a conductor of length 5m, carrying a current of 8A kept perpendicular to
a magnetic field of 1.5 T will be:-
(a) 100 N
(b) 60 N
(c) 50 N
(d) 75 N

(iv) A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5m carries a current of 2A. It is suspended in
mid air by a uniform horizontal magnetic field B. The magnitude of B (in tesla) is :-
(Assume g=9.8 m/R )
(a) 2
(b) 1.5
(c) 0.55
(d) 0.65
OR
(iv) A wire of length + carries a current i along X – axis. A magnetic field given by
L , L3(Ŝ A Û A VW ) T exits. The magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire is:-
(a) X + L3
(b) √3 X + L3
(c) 2X + L3
(d) √2 X + L3

30. Inductance
When a current passing through a coil changes, the magnetic flux linked with the coil changes.
As a result an emf is induced in the coil. This phenomenon is called self-induction. At any
instant the flux NΦ linked with the N turns of the coil is proportional to the current I through
the coil i.e., NΦ ∝ I or NΦ = LI. The proportionality constant L is called self-inductance or
simply inductance. Inductance is the ratio of flux-linkage to the current. It is equal to NΦ/I. As
per Lenz's law, the induced emf opposes the change of current. So inductance L is a measure
of the inertia of the coil against the change of current through it. In contrast to it, a resistor R
7
 opposes the flow of current I through a circuit. A solenoid made from a thick wire has a
negligible resistance but a sufficiently large inductance. Such an element is called an ideal
inductor. Inductance of a coil depends on the geometry of the coil, number of turns in the coil
and the permeability of the medium inside the coil.
(i) The dimensional formula of self –inductance of a coil is :-

(a) [ML T A `
(b) [ML T A `
(c) [ML T A `
(d) [ML T A `

(ii) If both - the number of turns and the length of an inductor are doubled, keeping other
factors constant, its self inductance will be:-
(a) unaffected
(b) doubled
(c) halved
(d) quadrupled

(iii) An iron – cored solenoid has self inductance 2.8 H. When the core is removed, the self
inductance becomes 2 mH. What is the relative permeability of the core?
(a) 1.40
(b) 2.80
(c) 1400
(d) 2800

(iv) In a coil of self inductance 5 H, the rate of change of current is 2 AR & . The emf induced in
the coil will be
(a) −5V
(b) 5V
(c) −10 V
(d) 10 V
OR
(iv) A coil of 100 turns carries a current of 5mA and creates a magnetic flux of 10 Q weber. The
self inductance is:-
(a) 0.2 mH
(b) 2.0 mH
(c) 0.02 mH
(d) None of these

SECTION – E

31. (a) With the help of a labelled diagram, explain the principle and working of a moving coil
galvanometer. Show that the defection produced in the galvanometer coil is directly
proportional to the current following through it.

(b) “Increasing the current sensitivity of a galvanometer does not necessarily increase its
voltage sensitivity.” Justify.

8
 OR
(a) The current flowing in a galvanometer G when the key b is open, is I.. On closing the key
d
b , the current in the galvanometer becomes where n is an integer. Obtain an
e
expression for the resistance Rg of the galvanometer in terms of R, S and n.

(b) A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter of a certain range by connecting a

resistance of 980 Ω in series with it. When the resistance of 470 Ω is connected in
series, the range
ge is halved. Find the resistance of the galvanometer.

32. (a) Obtain an expression for the average power consumed in a series L
L-C-RR circuit connected to
an A.C. source
ce for which the phase difference between
n the voltage and current in the circuit
is 4.

(b) An alternating voltage and the corresponding current in a circuit is given by:-
by:

E=110 Sin (c) + /6)) and I = 5 Sin (c)

( − /6) respectively.
ectively. Find the impe
impedance and the
average power dissipation in it.

OR
(a) Define root mean square value of current (I rms) . Derive an expression for I rms.
(b) An a.c. source of voltage E = Eo Sin ctt is connected to a resistance, a capacitor and an
inductor in series. Draw a phasor diagram for a predominantly capacitive L-C-RL series
circuit. Also obtain the impedance of the circuit.

33. (a)
a) Using the relation for refraction at spherical surfaces
surface and an appropriate ray diagram,
deduce Lens-Maker’s ’s formula.
(b) A converging lens of refractive
tive index 1.5 has a power of 10 D. When it is completely
immersed in a liquid, it behaves as a diverging lens of focal length 50 cm. Find the
refractive index of the liquid.
OR
(a) The distance between an object and a screen is D. A convex lens of focal length f is placed
between the object and the screen. Prove that in order to obtain the image of the object on
the screen, the minimum value of D should be 4f.
(b) With the help of a ray diagram, show how an equilateral prism can deviate
deviate a light ray by
600 [Given - Critical
ritical angle at glass-air
glass interface is 420].

9
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class - XII Subject – Psychology

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks - 70

General Instructions:
i. All questions are compulsory except where internal choice has been given.
ii. QuestionNos.1-15 in Section A carry 1 mark each.
iii. Question Nos. 16-19 in Section B are Very Short Answer Type-I questions carrying2
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.
iv. Question Nos. 22-24 in Section C are Short Answer Questions Type- II carrying 3 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
v. Question Nos.25-28 in Section D are Long Answer Type I questions carrying 4 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
vi. Question No. 29-30 in Section E is a Long Answer Type II question carrying 6 marks.
Answer to this question should not exceed 200 words.
vii. Question No. 31 in Section F will be a case based question.

SECTION A
1. Sangita is high on critical thinking and can manipulate symbols to solve numerical
problems. She is also high on the ability to understand one’s own feelings, motives and
desires. Which of the following intelligences are displayed by Sangeeta? [1]
i. Spatial
ii. Logical-mathematical
iii. Interpersonal
iv. Intrapersonal
a. i and ii
b. ii and iii
c. i and iii
d. ii and iv

2. Ryan believes that he is very good at football. Therefore, he has a high as far as sports [1]
is concerned.
a. Self-esteem
b. Self-efficacy
c. Self-motivation
d. Self-control

3. According to the behaviourist , personality of an individual is the result of . [1]

a. Unconscious motives and conflicts
b. Response of an individual to the environment
c. Early childhood experiences
d. A relationship of the individual to her/his environment
1
4. Which of the following would a humanistic psychologist not use to explain an individual’s
behaviour? [1]
a. Innately good
b. Goal-directed and adaptive
c. Self-actualised
d. Balance among three competing forces

5. Which of the following are the dimensions of stress? [1]

i. Intensity
ii. Duration
iii. Predictability
iv. Vulnerability
a. i,iiandiv
b. i, iiiandiv
c. ii,iiiandiv
d. i,iiandiii

6. Imran feels disappointed when he is not able to do every thing perfectly, leading him to
push him self to achieve unrealistically high standards. Identify the cause of his stress. [1]
a. Social Pressure
b. Conflict
c. Frustration
d. Internal Pressure

7. Sonali was questioned by her senior when her performance started to decline. She
Admitted that she was no teating regularly and her sleep was disturbed. Moreover, she could
not concentrate on work and felt over burdened. Identify the effects of stress being indicated
here. [1]
i. Emotional
ii. Behavioural
iii. Cognitive
iv. Physiological
a. i and ii
b. ii and iii
c. iii and iv
d. i and iv
8. Which of the following is / are true about psychological disorders in the middle ages? [1]
Demonology and superstition we reused as explanations of psychological disorders.
i. Mental anguish and conflict we reconsidered as reasons for psychological disorders.
ii. Disturbed interpersonal relationship emphasaised to explain mental disorders.
iii. There was emphasis on deinstitutionalization for people with psychological disorders.
a. Only i is true.
b. i and ii are true.
c. Only iii is true.
d. ii and iv are true.

2
9. While paying bills, Sanjana was suddenly overwhelmed by anxiety. Her heart pounded,
she felt like she couldn’t breathe, and she became dizzy. This was most likely to be __________.
[1]
a. A panic attack
b. A dissociative episode
c. A manic episode
d. A generalized anxiety episode
10. Brijesh, an accountant, went on a work trip and never returned home. Years later, he was
Found by a friend in another city, where he was working as a labourer. He was living with
An identity and had no memory of his past. Brijesh’s symptoms are indicative of _______. [1]
a. Dissociative fugue
b. Dissociative identity disorder
c. Schizophrenia
d. Depersonalisation
11. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Mark the correct choice. [1]
Assertion (A): The principle of reciprocal inhibition states that the presence of two
mutually opposing forces at the same time will lead to the stronger
force inhibiting the weaker one.
Reason(R): The principle of reciprocal inhibition is a procedure where in the client learns to
behave in a certain way by observing the behaviour of the therapist.
a. Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are true, and Reason(R)is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
b. Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R)are true, but Reason(R) is not the correct
Explanation of Assertion (A).
c. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason(R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason(R) is true.

12. Amit throws temper tantrums every time he goes to the market with his parents. He insists
that they buy him a new toy every time. Identify the most suitable behavioural technique
to modify this unwanted behaviour. [1]
a. Token economy
b. Aversive conditioning
c. Differential reinforcement
d. Systematic desensitisation

13. What is the chief benefit to the client in cognitive therapy? [1]
a. Emotional insight is gained and the client is able to change his emotions towards
The conflict.
b. The client is able to change maladaptive behavior to adaptive ones.
c. The client is able to replace irrational thoughts with rational ones.
d. The client is able to achieve personal growth which leads to understanding
oneself.

3
14. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Mark the correct choice. [1]
Assertion (A): We assign causes to the behaviours how in specific social situations. This
process is called attribution.
Reason (R): We are also interested in why people behave in ways they do. Therefore, we
assign a cause to a behaviour.
a. Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are true, and Reason(R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
b. Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are true, but Reason(R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
c. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason(R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason(R) is true.
.
15. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Mark the correct choice. [1]
Assertion (A): Situation and circumstances in which one is placed influence one’s
behaviour.
Reason(R): The situational influences are so powerful that individuals with similar
personality traits respond to them in almost the same ways.
a. Both Assertion (A)and Reason(R)are true, and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
b. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason(R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
c. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason(R)is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason(R)is true.

SECTION B
16. Ivaan experiences distress and is constantly complaining of snakes crawling inside his
stomach. Identify the disorder and the symptom that Ivaan is experiencing. Explain any
one negative symptom of this disorder . [2]

17. Fatima communicates her feelings and views clearly with confidence .She could say ‘no’
To are questorstate an opinion without being self-conscious. Which life skill is she using?
Suggest two more life skills that can help Fatima meet the challenges of life successfully. [2]
OR
Resham has been overwhelmed by the quantum of work in her office. She has been advised
some stress management techniques by her counsellor. What are the two techniques that you
think would be helpful for her to manage stress?

18. State any two ethical standards that need to be practiced by professional psychotherapists. [2]

19. What is IQ? How do psychologists classify people on the basis of their IQ scores? [2]

OR
Write a short note on behavioural approach.

4
 SECTION - C

20. Kirti is of average intelligence but is high on ability to appraise, express and regulate her
emotions. Identify the intelligence that she exhibits and why it is receiving so much
attention these days. Suggest some ways to enhance this kind of intelligence of students in
schools. [3]

21. Explain major depressive disorder. State the factors which predispose an individual to [3]
depression.

22. Describe Hans Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS). [3]

23. Describe the importance of the therapeutic relationship in the process of psychotherapy. [3]

24. Raghu & Ram are twins who were separated in childhood. However, they both show a
considerable similarity in their IQ level. Explain their similarities? [3]

SECTION - D

25. Explain the role of assessment in understanding psychological attributes. Describe the key
Features of any two methods used for psychological assessment. [4]
OR
Explain the term intelligence. Describe the PASS model of intelligence.

26. Mother Teresa believed that she had a mission to fulfill and did what came natural to her, [4]
Loving others and serving them. Identify the trait being referred to here by Gordon Allport
and how it affects a person's behaviour. Distinguish it from other traits given by him.

27. Shahid showed a reduction in symptoms after he received treatment for schizophrenia. He
Was sent to the rehabilitation centre to improve his quality of life. What steps would be
Taken in the rehabilitation centre to help him become a productive member of the community?
Explain. [4]
OR
Mukesh was given therapy that encouraged him to seek personal growth and actualize his
potential. Based on these principles, explain the therapy that is being applied here.

28. How is aptitude & interest different from intelligence? How is aptitude measured?

SECTION-E
29. Describe Freud’s psychosexual stages of personality development. [6]
OR
Explain the characteristics of indirect techniques that are used to assess personality. Describe
any two such tests.

30. Individuals differ in the coping strategies that they use to deal with stressful situations.
Justify this statement highlighting various coping strategies. [6]

5
 SECTION - F
31. Read the case and answer the questions that follow. [4]
Anna is a 28-years-old Caucasian woman who has struggled with alcohol use for most of her
teenage and young adult life. She began drinking in high school, at age 15, and dropped out of
college partway through her first year because she was missing so many classes due to alcohol
use. She has attempted to go back to school twice since then but has been unsuccessful each
time due to relapses. Anna reports multiple attempts to stop drinking, but has only been able
to maintain sobriety for 2-4 weeks at a time. Whenever she tries to stop drinking, she gets
nauseous, shaky, and disoriented. Within the last 4 months, she has withdrawn from her
friends, feels sad almost every day, and has frequent suicidal ideation. Her appetite has
decreased, but her alcohol use has continued to increase, and she is currently consuming
approximately. half a "fifth' of vodka per day. She has frequent arguments with her parents,
who are now threatening to cut her off financially because she spends most of her rent money
on alcohol. She "can't stop thinking about my next drink," and reports feelings of guilt and
worthlessness over being unable to stop drinking.
(i) Identify the psychological disorder with which Anna is suffering from
a. Bulimia Nervosa
b. Depression
c. Bipolar Disorder
d. Panic Disorder
(ii) Which of the following symptoms suggest that Anna is suffering from Depression?
a. Suicidal ideation
b. Loss of appetite
c. Feeling of guilt and worthlessness
d. All of the above
(iii) Along with depression, Anna also has
a. Alcohol use disorder
b. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
c. Schizophrenia
d. Social Anxiety Disorder

(iv) Which of the following is not among factors predisposing towards depression?
a. Genetic make-up
b. Age
c. Gender
d. Sleep problem

6
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class - XII Subject – Sociology

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks-80

General Instructions
1. The question paper is divided into four sections.
2. There are 35 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section A includes question No. 1-16. These are objective type questions.
4. Section B includes question No. 17-25. These are very short answer type questions carrying 2
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.
5. Section C includes question No. 26-32. These are short answer type questions carrying 4 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words. Question no. 26 and 27 are case
based questions with 4 parts each carrying 1 mark, making the questions of 4 marks each.
6. Section D includes question No. 33-35. They are long answer type questions carrying 6 marks
each. Question No. 33 is to be answered on the basis of data provided. Answer to each question
should not exceed 200 words each. Question no 35 is to be answered with the help of the
passage given.

SECTION A
1. Larger proportion of persons in working age group relative to the population is termed as
A. dividend of population
B. age structure of the population
C. population statistics
D. none of these
2. Assertion (A): Demography is the systematic study of the population.
Reason (R): Demographic data is important for the planning and implementation of state
policies, especially those for economic development and general public welfare.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
3. The person who is refused a job because of his/her caste may be told that he/she was less
qualified than others and the selection was done purely on merit. This is an example of-
A. Discrimination
B. Social stratification
C. Egalitarianism
D. Stereotype

1
4. Person from a well off family can afford expensive higher education someone with influential
relatives and friends may – through access to good advice, recommendations or information -
manage to get a well paid job.
Which of the following is true in the given context?
Codes
i) There are multiple forms of capital.
ii) Different forms of capital cannot be converted into the other.
iii) The forms of capital overlap.
A. i is false.
B. i and ii are true.
C. i and iii are true.
D. i, ii and iii are true.
5. Assertion (A): Schedule caste is a term used to refer to those castes which had a large
population and were granted land rights by the partial land reforms effected
after Independence.
Reason (R): Intermediate castes became the dominant castes in the countryside and played a
decisive role in regional politics and the agrarian economy.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

6. ……………. passed a law that recognised SC’s and ST’s.

A. The Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities)Act,2005
B. The Untouchability Offences Act of 1955
C. The Scheduled Castes (Prevention of Atrocities)Act,1989
D. The Government of India Act,1935
7. Assertion (A): In most regions of India, women are usually excluded from ownership of land
because of the prevailing patrilineal kinship system and mode of inheritance.
Reason (R): In reality, they only have limited rights and some access to land only as part of a
household headed by a man.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

8. Which of the following thinkers has called the State as a monopoly of statutory violence?
A. Emile Durkhiem
B. Max Weber
C. Karl Marx
D. Mac Iver and Page
9. The aggressive political ideology which is associated with religion is called ________.
A. Communalism
B. Secularism
C. Terrorism
D. Casteism

2
10. During colonial rule, ________ was exported as a raw material from Calcutta to Britain.
A. Cotton
B. Rice
C. Sugar
D. Jute
11. In 1698, ----------- was established by the river Hoogly for defensive purposes, and a large open
area was cleared around the fort for military engagements.
A. Fort Laurence
B. Fort William
C. Fort Charnock
D. Fort Johnson
12. Changes occur in social relations and social institutions are called .... .
A. Cultural change
B. Structural change
C. Constructional change
D. Political change
13. Who is called the father of modern India in the following?
A. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
C. Keshav Chandra Sen
D. Dayanand Saraswati
14. Assertion (A): Secularization is not closely associated with modernization and Westernization.
Reason (R): Religious fanatics are found in Western countries.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

15. The 19th century reforms initiated a period of -------- .

A. Questioning
B. Reinterpretation
C. Intellectual and social growth
D. All of the above
16. Which of the following is/ are the characteristics of agricultural labour?
A. They own no land of their own
B. They work for others
C. They are often paid less wages i.e. below the statutory minimum wages
D. All of these
OR
................ are essentially the government’s declared minimum procuring prices for agricultural
products for a given year.
A. Subsidies
B. Issue price
C. Incentives
D. Support price

3
 SECTION B
17. How endogamy can be held responsible for caste remained largely unaffected by
modernization and change.
OR
Elaborate the two major sets of principles of caste system in India.
18. Is there any relationship between caste and economic inequality today? Elaborate.
19. Who are called OBC's?
OR
What do you understand by ‘discrimination’?
20. In Indian nationalism, the dominant trend was marked by inclusive and democratic vision
explained.
21. Describe the term ‘Assimilation’.
OR
Highlight two common features of ‘Ascriptive identity’.
22. Who are privileged minorities?
23. Examine the emergence of nationalism during colonial rule in India.
OR
How colonialism influenced the mobility of Indian people?
24. Is community identity an integral part of the formation of nation state? Explain.
OR
How is the outcome of vibrant Civil Society different from an Authoritarian state?
25. Establish the connection between Circulation of labour and Footloose labour.
SECTION C
26. Describe the theory of ‘Demographic Transition’. Why is the transition period associated with
a population explosion?
27. Highlight the problems faced by the tribals in India.
28. The argument for tribe - caste distinction is based on cultural difference between Hindu
mainstream and tribal society. State two key points of tribe-caste distinction.
OR
The institution of caste underwent major changes during colonial period. Explain.
29. State the declaration of the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress which committed
itself to women’s equality. How far the status of women has improved in contemporary India?
Give example to support your answer.

30. How did Industrialisation take place after independence in India.

31. What is meant by the term ‘Regionalism’? What are the major factors of regionalism in India?
32. Explain the agrarian structure of rural society. Also examine the caste and class relationship
that exists.
OR
Rural society structure was altered by agricultural development in the 1960’s and 1970’s
Discuss.

4
 SECTION D
33.

1. In absolute terms, what is the difference in urban Indian population between 1951 and 2011?
[2]
2. Contribution of agriculture in GDP has fallen drastically. What is its share? Why? [1+1=2]
3. Mention the role of mass media for rural migration to cities. [2]
34. Give a detailed account of social consequences of Green Revolution.
OR
What is ‘contract farming’ Mention its positive and negative impact.
35. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
(Race and Caste -A Cross Cultural Comparison.)
Just like caste in India, race in South Africa stratifies society into a hierarchy. About one South
African in seven is of European ancestry, yet South Africa’s white minority holds the dominant
share of power and wealth. Dutch traders settled in South Africa in the mid 17th century: early
in the 19 century, their descendants were pushed inland by British colonization. At the
beginning of the 20th century, the British gained control of what became the Union and then the
Republic of South Africa.
To ensure their political control, the white European minority developed the policy of
Apartheid or separation of the races. An informal practice for many years, apartheid became
law in 1948 and was used to deny the black majority South African citizenship and ownership
of land, and a formal voice in government. Every individual was classified by race and mixed
marriages were prohibited. As a racial caste, blacks held low paying jobs, on average, they
earned only ¼ what whites did.
1. How do you relate caste system in India and racial discrimination practiced in South Africa.
Explain your answer with similarities and differences. [3]
2. Exclusion, Humiliation - Subordination and exploitation are the three dimensions of
untouchability. Explain with example. [3]

5
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP,RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2024-25)

Class - XII Subject – Mathematics (Applied)

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks - 80

General Instructions:
1. This Question paper contains - five sections A, B, C, D and E. Each section is compulsory.
However, there are internal choices in some questions.
2. Section A has 18 MCQ’s and 02 Assertion-Reason based questions of 1 mark each.
3. Section B has 5 Very Short Answer (VSA)-type questions of 2 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 Short Answer (SA)-type questions of 3 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 Long Answer (LA)-type questions of 5 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 source based/case based/passage based/integrated units of assessment
(4 marks each) with sub parts.

SECTION-A (1X20=20 MARKS)

1. The value of 316 (mod 4) is

a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 4
2. 600 gms of jaggery syrup has 40% jaggery in [Link] much jaggery should be added to make it
50% in the syrup?
a) 120
b) 130
c) 150
d) 140
3. If a and b are positive real numbers such that ab = 1,then the least value of (1+a)(1+b) is
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 1

4. The pairs of consecutive odd positive integers , both of which are smaller than 10,such that
their sum is more than 11 are
a) (5,7) , (7,9)
b) (3,5) ,(5,7)
c) (7,9) , (9 , 11)
d) None of these

1
5. If A is a square matrix such that A2 = I , then the simplified value of ( A – I)3 +(A+I)3 – 7A is
a) I
b) A
c) 7A
d) Cannot be determined
6. A matrix which is both symmetric as well as skew-symmetric is a
a) Identity matrix
b) Row matrix
c) Null matrix
d) None of these
1 −2 5
7. The values of x for which the value of determinant 2 −1 is 86 are
0 4 2
a) -7 ,3
b) 2,-3
c) -3,7
d) 7,3
8. If A is an invertible matrix of order 3 and | | = 5, then the value of | | is
a) 5
b) 25
c) 125
d) None of these
9. The side of an equilateral triangle is increasing at the rate of 2 cm/[Link] what rate is its area
increasing when the side of the triangle is 20 cm?
a) 50 cm2/sec
b) 20 cm2/ sec
c) 10 cm2/ sec
d) None of these
10. The least value of ‘a’ such that the function f(x) = x2 + ax +1 is increasing on 1,2 is
a) -1
b) -4
c) -2
d) 2
11. If the mean of a binomial distribution is 81 ,then the interval in which the standard deviation of
the binomial distribution lies is
a) (0,5)
b) (0,9)
c) (3,9)
d) (9,0)
12. Given that the mean of a normal variate X is 12 and standard deviation is 4,then the Z-score of
data point 20 is
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 1
2
13. Rs. 250,000 cash is equivalent to a perpetuity of Rs. 7,500 payable at the end of each quarter.
The rate of interest convertible quarterly is
a) 5%
b) 4%
c) 2%
d) 12%
14. Mira takes a loan of Rs. 300,000 at an interest of 10% compounded annually for a period of 3
years. The EMI using flat rate method is
a) Rs.1024.56
b) Rs. 1235.21
c) Rs. 5432.83
d) None of these

15. If x = a cos( nt) – b sin( nt ) and ( ) = λx , then the value of λ is

a) n
b) n2
c) n3
d) None of these

16. The maximum value of Z =3x+4y subject to the constraints x +y ≤ 40 ,x+2y ≤ 60, x,y≥ 0 is
a) 110
b) 130
c) 120
d) none of these

17. A machine costing Rs. 50,000 has a useful life of 4 years. The estimated scrap value is
Rs. 10,[Link] use the straight line method, then the annual depreciation is
a) Rs.5000
b) Rs. 10,000
c) Rs.13000
d) Rs.9000

18. The effective rate that is equivalent to a nominal rate of 8% compounded semi-annually is
a) 8.19%
b) 8.13%
c) 8.16%
d) 8.12%
ASSERTION – REASONING TYPE QUESTIONS
Statement I is called Assertion (A) and Statement II is called Reason (R). Read the given statements
carefully and choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) Both the Statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
b) Both the Statements are true and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
c) Statement I is true , Statement II is false.
d) Statement I is false ,Statement II is true.
19. The corner points of the feasible region for an L.P.P. are (60,0) , (120 , 0) ,(60,30)and (40,20). The
objective function Z = ax + by , a , b > 0 has maximum value 600 at points (120,0 ) and (60,30).
Statement I : Minimum value of Z = 300
Statement II : a =5 ,b = 10
3
20. Suppose that x =t -t4 , y = t2 -t3 .

Statement I : at (0,0) is equal to or 1.

Statement II : = .

SECTION B (2 X 5 =10 Marks)

21. In a game , A can give 20 points to B , A can give 32 points to C and B can give 15 points to C.
How many points make the game?
OR
The stream is flowing at the speed of 4 km/hr. If Ravi rows a certain distance upstream in 3.5
hours and returns to the same place in 1.5 hours ,find the speed of Ravi’s boat in still water.

22. Solve the inequality |3x-5|≥ 4. Also represent its solution on the number line.
23. If y = (a +bx ) , prove that:- y2 -2cy1 +c2y =0 .
OR
#$
!= , find f’’ !.
#
If

24. What sum of money is needed to invest now , so as to get Rs. 5000 at the beginning of every
month forever ,if the money is worth 6% per annum compounded monthly?
OR
A loan of Rs. 250000 at the interest rate of 6 % p.a. compounded monthly is to be amortized by
equal payments at the end of each month for 5 years, find the size of each monthly payment
and the principal outstanding at beginning of 40th month.
( Given (1.005)60 = 1.3489 , (1.005)21 = 1.1104 ).

25. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank together in 8 hours. After working at it together for 2
hours, B is closed and A and C can fill the remaining part in 9 hours. Find the time in which B
alone can fill the tank.

SECTION -C (3 X 6 = 18 Marks)
26. Find the remainder when 987 + 876 +765 +654 +543 +432 +321 +210 is divided by 6.

27. If the equations x = cy + bz , y = az +cx , z = bx +ay are consistent ,

prove that:- a2 +b2 +c2 +2abc =1 .
OR
Find the real value(s) of ‘a’ for which the system of equations
x +ay = 0 , y + az = 0 , z+ax = 0 has infinitely many solutions .

28. If ey ( x + 1 ) = 1 , show that ( )=% & .

29. Show that the curves x = y2 and xy = k cut orthogonally if 8k2 = 1 .

OR
Find the intervals in which f(x) = (x + 2 ) ' is strictly increasing or decreasing.

4
30. In a normal distribution 31% of the articles are under 45 and 8% are over 64. Calculate the
mean and standard deviation of the distribution.
OR
Two cards are drawn simultaneously from a well – shuffled deck of 52 [Link] the mean
and variance of the number of red cards.

31. Given that X 2 x n , Y 3 x k , Z 2 x p , W n x 3 and P p x k are matrices of specified order. What are the
conditions:
(a) for n , k and p so that 3 PY + 2WY is defined?
(b) for the order of the matrix 2X – 3 Z ?

SECTION -D ( 5 x 4 = 20 Marks )

32. Discuss the consistency of the given system of equations. If consistent , solve them using
Cramer’s rule.
2x + y - 2z = 4
x - 2y + z = - 2
5x - 5y +z = - 2.
OR
The sum of three numbers is 20. If we multiply the first number by 2 and add the second
number to the result and subtract the third number, we get [Link] adding second and third
numbers to three times the first number, we get 46. Represent the above problem algebraically
and use Matrix method to find the numbers from these equations.

33. Find a point on the curve y2 =2x which is nearest to the point (1,4).
OR
Find the equation of the normal to the curve = 4( which passes through the point (1,2). Also
find the equation of the corresponding tangent.
+/
)$#% & *
34. If (x-a)2 + (y-b)2 =c2 , for some c > 0 ,prove that is a constant independent of
- .

‘a’ and ‘b’.

OR
$ $
If = + ' !, ( = − ' !, 0ℎ23 4ℎ 4 ( + − ( = 0.

35. A factory manufactures tennis rackets and cricket bats. A tennis racket takes 1.5 hours of
machine time and 3 hours of craftsmanship in its making while a cricket bat takes 3 hours of
machine time and 1 hour of craftsmanship. In a day, the factory has the availability of not more
than 42 hours of machine time and 24 hours of craftsmanship. If the profit on a racket and a bat
is Rs. 20 and Rs.10 respectively, find the number of tennis rackets and cricket bats that the
factory must manufacture to earn the maximum profit .Design a linear programming problem
and solve it graphically.

5
 SECTION – E( 4 X 3 =12 Marks )
This section comprises 3 case study based questions of 4 marks each.
Case Study -1
36. The demand function for a certain product is represented by the equation : p = ax2 +bx +c,
where x is the number of units demanded and p is the price per unit.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

a) Find the revenue function. [1]

b) Find the marginal revenue. [1]
c) Find the values of x , for which marginal revenue increases. [2]
OR
Find the values of x , for which marginal revenue decreases.

Case Study -2

37. There are 500 persons of age 55 years in a town. The chance that a person aged 55 years will die
within next 5 years is 1%.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
a) Find the probability that exactly 4 persons of age 55 years will die within next 5 years. [1]
b) Find the probability that at most 3 persons of age 55 years will die within next 5 years. [1]
c) Find the probability that at least 3 persons of age 55 years will die within next 5 years. [2]
OR
Find the probability that more than 3 persons of age 55 years will die in next 5 years.

Case Study -3

38. On his birthday, Ravi decided to donate some money to children of an orphanage home. If
there were 8 children less, every one would have got Rs. 10 more. However, if there were 16
children more, every one would have got Rs. 10 less . Let the number of children be x and
amount distributed by Ravi to each child be Rs.y .
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

a) Write the matrix equation representing the above information. [1]

b) If A is the coefficient matrix of above situation, then what is adj (A)? [1]
c) Find the number of children and amount donated by Ravi. [2]
OR
If the coefficient matrix A satisfy the following matrix equation A2 – kA +20I =0, find ‘k’.