ALL SUBJECTS

(QUICK REVISION TOOL FOR KCSE 2025 KENYA HIGH CANDIDATES)

This compilation of KCSE 2025-specific prediction questions is well structured,

thorough, and informative to our candidates.
Covers important themes and is made to resemble real exam formats, which improves
student readiness. It provides intelligent, test-oriented questions to boost self-
esteem, enhance performance, and guarantee academic achievement.

SUBJECTS COMPILED;
Mathematics, English, Kiswahili, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, CRE,
Geography, Business Studies, Agriculture, IRE, History and Government, Computer Studies,
French, Home-science & Drawing and Design.

For Marking Schemes

Mr Isaboke 0746-222-000 /0742-999-000

THE SECRET TO SUCCESS

 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
231/1

BIOLOGY
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided.
c) Answer all the questions in this question paper.
d) Answers must be written in the spaces provided
e) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
f) Candidates should answer all the questions in english.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

1 – 29 80

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1. The table below shows concentration of some minerals inside the cells of a water plant and in the
surrounding water.
Mineral Sodium Magnesium Calcium
Cell sap 631 202 318
Surrounding water 28 293 47

a) Name the process by which magnesium is taken up by the plant. (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain why maize plant take up calcium minerals quicker in well aerated soils than in water
logged soil. (3mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. Give a reason why a mature plant cell does not lose its shape even after losing water. 1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. i) State the function for co-factors in cell metabolism. (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Give one example of a metallic co – factor. (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Name the features that increase the surface area of the small intestines. (2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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5. a) Name three characteristics that are used to divide the members of phylum Arthropoda into
classes. (3mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) The diagram below represents a certain plant species.

i) State the class to which the plant belongs. (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)State one observable xerophytic characteristic seen in the diagram above?. (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. The chart below represents a simplified nitrogen cycle.

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What is represented by X, Y and Z. (3mrks)
X……………………………………………………………………………………………
Y……………………………………………………………………………………………
Z…………………………………………………………………………………………….

7. People can die when they inhale gases from aburning charcoal stove in a poorly ventilated room.
What compound is formed in the human body that lead to such deaths?. (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Explain why blood from a donor whose blood group is A cannot be transfused into a recipient
whose blood group is B. (2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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9. In an experiment, a student covered one of the leaves of a potted plant on both upper and lower
surfaces with blue cobalt chloride paper. The plant was exposed outside for 45 minutes.
Observation: The cobalt chloride on the undersurface of the leave changed into pink in the first 20
minutes only as the upper surface remained blue. However at the end of the experiment, after 45
minutes, the upper surface also turned pink.
i) State the aim of the experiment. (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Give one significance of the results obtained. (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. When transplanting seedlings, it is advisable to remove some leaves. Explain (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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11. a) Describe the path taken by carbon (IV)oxide released from the tissue of an insect to the
atmosphere. (3mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Name two structures for gaseous exchange in plants. (2mrks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) What is the effect of contraction of the diaphragm muscles during breathing in mammals?(2mks
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. The chart below shows the number of chromosomes before and after cell division and
fertilization in a mammal.

a). What type of cell division takes place at Z. (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Where in the female body of humans does process Z occur?. (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) Name the process that leads to addition or loss of one or more chromosomes. (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. State three benefits of polyploidy in plants to a farmer. (3mrks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. The diagram below represents human foetus.

a) Name the part labelled S (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Give the roles of structure P in; (2mrks)

i) Nutrition.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Protection.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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d) What is the function of the following in the human male reproductive system?. (2mrks)
i) Epididymis.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Scrotal sac.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. The diagram represents an experimental set up used by students to investigate a certain process.

Flower Q produced seeds, while P did not. Account for the results (3mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. Name any two branches of microbiology. (2mrks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. Which biological tool would a scientist require to collect rats to be used for study? (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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18. Distinguish between magnification and resolution as used in microscopy. (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. A group of students set up an experiment to investigate a certain physiological process.The set
up was as shown below.

a) Name the physiological process being investigated. (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Account for the formation and rise in the level of sugar solution at the end of the experiment.
(3mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. The scientific name of a blackjack is bidens pilosa. Identify two mistakes in the written name.
(2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

21. State two advantages of natural selection to organisms. (2mrks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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22. a) Give two ways in which sexual reproduction is important in the evolution of plants and
animals. (2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain why it is only mutations in genes of gametes that influence evolution (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. Give the role of the following hormones during menstrual cycle. (3mks)
a) Follicle stimulating hormone.

b) Oestrogen.

c) Luteinizing hormone.

24. The chart below represents the result of successive crosses, staring with red- flowered plants
and white flowed plants and in which both plants are pure breeding.
Parental genotypes: Red flowers x white flowers

First filial generation

Selfed

Second filial generation

3 red flowers: 1 white flower
Phenotypic ratio 3: 1

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(a) What were the parental genotypes? Use letter R to represent the gene for red colour and r for
white colour. (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) (i) What was the colour of the flowers in the first filial generation?. (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Give a reason for your answer in b (i) above. (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) What is a test- cross?. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

25. a) Name two tissues in plants which are thickened with lignin. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) How is support attained in herbaceous plants? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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26. The diagram below shows a stage of a certain type of cell division.

a) Identify the stage and type of the cell division the above cell is undergoing. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State two importance of the above type of cell division. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

27. The photograph below shows the effects of certain pollutant in Nairobi dam. Study it carefully
and use to answer the questions that follow.

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i) Suggest the main pollutant in the dam (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) What are the possible effects of pollution illustrated in the photograph (2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Suggest one possible pollution control measure that can be put in place to save aquatic
organisms in the dam. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

28. In a capture-recapture exercise to estimate population size of dragon flies on a stretch of rivers,
250flies were first caught and marked. Two days later 500 flies were caught in the second
capture and out of this, 50 flies had marks on their bodies. Estimate the population size of the
flies. (show your working) (3mks)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
231/2

BIOLOGY
PAPER 2 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
❖ Write your name, class, and Adm number in the spaces provided above.
❖ Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
❖ Answer all questions in Section A.
❖ In section B answer question 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or 8.
❖ Students should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicatedand that no questions are missing.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
A 1 -5 40
B 6 20
7/8 20
Total score 80

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1. a) State two adaptations of the amphibian’s skin to gaseous exchange. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain how the human nasal cavity is adapted to gaseous exchange. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Explain why the amoeba does not acquire an elaborate gaseous system. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Name the respiratory disease caused by Bordetella pertussis. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. A man experienced non-disjunction during meiosis. If the woman he married had normal gamete
formation process.
a) Work out the likely phenotypes of their off springs. (4mks)

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b) State two characteristics of individuals with Down’s syndrome. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Give two advantages of transgenic plants. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. The diagram below is a side view of the human male reproductive system.

a) Name the parts labelled D and G. (2mks)

D-…………………………………………………………………………….
G-…………………………………………………………………………….

b) How are parts labelled E and H adapted for their functions? (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Give the names of two accessory sex glands and state their functions. (2mks)
Accessory gland – ……………………………………………………………………………
Function - ……………………………………………………………………………………
Accessory gland - ……………………………………………………………………………
Function - …………………………………………………………………………………….

4. The set up in the figure below was used to investigate a certain process in plants. Study it and
answer the questions that follow.

a) Name the apparatus shown in the set up. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Name the process that was being investigated. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Explain what would happen to the air bubble in the capillary tube if the set up was placed in
windy conditions. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Other than wind, state four environmental factors that influence the process that was under
investigation. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. The diagram below represents a bone found on the lower part of the body.

a) Identify the bone. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Identify the parts labelled E and F. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Name and give the functions of the parts labelled A and C. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Name the material composing structure D. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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6. During germination and growth of cereal, dry weight of endosperm, embryo and total dry weight
were determined at 2 days intervals and results recorded as shown below.
a) Using same axes, draw graphs of dry weight of endosperm, embryo and total dry weight against
time. (7mks)

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b) What was the total dry weight on the 5th day? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Account for the:

i.Decrease in dry weight of endosperm from day 0 to 10. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii.Increase in dry weight of embryo from day 0 to 10th day. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii.Decrease in total dry weight from day 0 to 8. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv.Increase in total dry weight after the 8th day. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) State two factors within the seed and two outside the seed that causes dormancy.
i.Within the seed. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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ii.Outside the seed. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) What are the characteristics of meristematic cells? (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. How is the mammalian ear adapted to its functions? (20mks)

8. Describe how free nitrogen in the air is made available to plants and carnivorous animals and
finally circulated back into the atmosphere. (20mks)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
231/3

BIOLOGY
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 1¾ HOURS

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

CONFIDENTIAL INSTRUCTIONS TO SCHOOLS

The information contained in this paper is to enable the Head of the school and the teacher in charge
of Biology to make adequate preparations for the Biology practical examination.NO ONE ELSE
should have access to this paper or acquire knowledge of its contents. Great care MUST be taken
to ensure that the information herein does not reach the candidate either directly or indirectly. The
teacher in charge of Biology should NOT perform any of the experiments or give any information
related to these instructions to the candidates.
Each student will require:
• Ripe banana (Fruit labelled K)
• Benedict’s solution supplied with a dropper
• Sodium hydroxide solution supplied with a dropper
• Copper (II) sulphate solution supplied with a dropper
• Iodine solution supplied with a dropper
• Three test tubes
• Test tube holder
• Labels
• Means of heating
• Knife/Scalpels
• Beaker
• Distilled water in a wash bottle
• Mortar and pestle
• A ruler
• The photographs SHOULD BE COLOURED

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
231/3

BIOLOGY
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 1¾ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
• You are required to spend the first 15 minutes of 1¾ hours allowed for this paper reading the
whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
• Candidates may be penalized for recording irrelevant information and for incorrect spelling
especially of technical terms.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION MAX. SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1 13
2 12
3 15
TOTAL 40

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1. You are provided with a fruit labeled K. You are required to cut transversely through the middle
section of the fruit using the knife provided.
(a) Cut a 1cm slice from one half of the fruit and remove the peel. Place the soft part of the
fruit in a mortar and mash it into a fine paste using a pestle. Add 10ml of distilled water into the
paste and stir the mixture, then transfer it into a beaker.
(b) Using the reagents provided, carry out appropriate food tests on the mixture as you fill in
the table below. (11 marks)
Food substance Procedure Observation Conclusion

(c) Name the deficiency disease in children that may result from feeding them on specimen K alone
especially after weaning. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 (d) Identify the hormone responsible for ripening of the specimen K above. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. The photographs below show various types of fruits.

(a) (i) State the mode of dispersal of the fruit in photograph E. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Give a reason for your answer. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) (i) What type of fruit is shown in photograph F? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Give a reason for your answer. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Explain how this fruit is suited to its mode of dispersal (2 mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) (i) Name the type of fruit in photograph G. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Give two reasons for your answer. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(iii) Name the type of placentation in this fruit. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) State two ways in which the fruit is adapted to its mode of dispersal. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Study the photographs below and answer the questions that follow.

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(a) Name the type of structures shown by: [2marks]
i. X & Y ……………………………………………………………………………….
ii. W & Z ………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) State the structural difference between structures X and Y [2 marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Name the type of evolution shown by structures Q and R [1 mark]
Q……………………………………………………………………………………………………
R……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) State the adaptations of structures W and Z (2 marks)
W …………………………………………………………………………………………………
Z …………………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) Name the types of skeletons shown by structures X and Y [2mks]

X …………………………………………………………………………………………………
Y ……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(f) By comparing structures Q and R, predict the type of food being fed on by the animals and give a
reason in each case. [4 marks]
Q………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
R………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

(g) A part from structures X and Y, name two other examples of similar structures in animals.
[2 marks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
233/1

CHEMISTRY
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provide above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper
(d) KNEC Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used for calculations.
(e) All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.
(f) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY

Question Maximum Score Candidates’ Score
1 – 32 80

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
1. What is the difference between chromatography and chromatology? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. When dilute Sulphuric (VI) acid is connected in a circuit to test conduction of electricity, the
bulb lights while when concentrated Sulphuric (VI) acid is used in the same set-up, the bulb does
not light. Explain this observation. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Explain why Aluminium Chloride has PH 3 when dissolved in water? (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Below is a list of substances.

Soap solution, common salt, urine, lemon juice and baking powder.
Select:
(a) A substance that is likely to give a PH of 3.0 when tested? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) A substance (s) which is likely to resemble sodium hydrogen carbonate. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Two substances when reacted are likely to give the product with same PH as that of
common salt. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. Briefly explain the observation made when a small piece of sodium metal is dropped into a bowl
of water. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. (a) Define Le Chatelier’s principle. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) A fixed mass of a gas has a volume of 400cm2 at 20oC, what temperature rise would
produce a 10% increase in volume if the pressure remains constant. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Using Dots (.) and (x) diagram, show the number of electrons used in bonding of H3O+ (2marks)

8. Explain why a luminous flame appears yellow. (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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9. Some sodium chloride was found to be contaminated with copper (II) oxide. Describe how a dry
sample of sodium chloride can be separated from the mixture. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Hot platinum wire was lowered into a flask containing concentrated ammonia solutions
shown below.
Glass rod
Hot platinum wire

Concentrated Ammonia Solution

State and explain observations made (3marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Give three characteristics of gases according to Kinetic theory of matter. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. The formula below represents active ingredients of two cleansing agents A and B

CH3(CH2)6COO-Na+

Agent A Agent B

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Which one of the cleansing agents would be suitable to be used in water containing magnesium
hydrogen carbonate? Explain. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. The set-up below was used to obtain a sample of iron

Carbon Excess Iron (III) oxide

Write two equations for the reactions which occur in the combustion tube. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. The diagram below represents a set-up that can be used for the electrolysis of dilute Sulphuric
acid.

Dilute Sulphuric Acid

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(a) Name the electrodes A and B (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Write an equation for the reaction taking place at electrode B. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) What happens to the concentration of dilute sulphuric acid as the reaction continues? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. Describe one physical and one chemical test that can be used to identify Ethane gas. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. 15cm3of a solution containing 2.88g/dm3 of an alkali XOH completely reacts with 20cm3 of
0.045M sulphuric acid. Calculate the reactive atomic mass of X present in the alkali. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. Using equations, state and explain the changes in mass that occur when the following are heated
separately in open crucible. (3marks)
(i) Magnesium metal
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 (ii) Zinc carbonate
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. In the space provided below, draw a set-up that can be used to show the reaction between
nitrogen (I) oxide with copper to give Nitrogen gas. (3marks)

19. The flow chart below shows some process in extraction of lead metal. Study it and answer the
questions that follow;
SO2(S) Coke CO2

Unit I
Raw Roasting Unit II
Material Chamber PbO(s)
s

Pb
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(a) Name two raw materials that were fed into Unit I (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State one environment hazard associated with the process in Unit I. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) What is the function of Coke in Unit II (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. Sulphur exhibits as an allotropy.

(a) What is allotropy? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Name the two allotropes of sulphur. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Sulphur powder was placed in a deflagrating spoon and heated on a Bunsen burner.
(i) State the observation made. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) The product obtained was dissolved in water. Comment on the PH of the solution formed.
(1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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21. The set-up below was used to prepare a sample of an organic compound X.

(a) Identify gas X (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Write the equation for the reaction that produces gas X. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) 1 Mole of chlorine was reacted with gas X in presence of sunlight.
(i) State one observation made. (½ mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Name the major product formed. (½ mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

22. The apparatus shown below was used to investigate the effect of carbon (II) oxide on Copper (II)
oxide.

Sodium hydroxide solution

(a) State the observation that was made in the combustion tube at the end of the experiment.
(1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(b) Write an equation for the reaction that took place in the combustion tube. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Why is it necessary to burn the gas coming out of tube K? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. The equation below represents changes in the physical state of ions metal:
Fe(s) Fe(I) H= + 15.4Kjmol-1

Fe(1) Fe(g) H= +354Kjmol-1

Calculate the amount of heat energy required to change 10kg of solid iron to gaseous iron. (Fe = 56)
(3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

24. The section below represents part of the periodic table. Study it and answer the questions that
follow; the letters are not the actual symbol of the elements.

Q
X B H M T
Y A V
Z S

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(a) Explain why the atomic radius of T is smaller than that of M (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Compare the electrical conductivity of element X and B. (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

25. Read the following passage and answer the questions.

A salt X was heated with slaked lime (calcium hydroxide). A colorless gas R with a characteristic
smell that turns red litmus paper blue was evolved. A large quantity of this gas was passed
through an inverted filter funnel into Copper (II) sulphate solution, and a deep blue solution M
was obtained.
(a) Identify gas R (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) What is X most likely to be? (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Write an equation for the reaction between X and slaked lime. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

26. Consider the following reaction:

A2(g) + B2(g) 2AB(g), H = +75kj

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Sketch an energy level diagram showing the relative activation energies for the catalyzed and
uncatalyzed reactions using the axes below. (2marks)

Energy (kj)

Reaction path
27. The diagram below shows the radiations emitted by a radioactive sample.

(i) Identify radiation particles S and R (2marks)

S ……………………………………………………………………………….
R ………………………………………………………………………………

28. (a) Starting with red roses, describe how a solution containing the red pigments may be
prepared? (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) How can the solution be used as an indicator? (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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29. (a) Give one reason why some of the laboratory apparatus are made of ceramics. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Name the two apparatus that can be used to measure approximately 75cm 3 of dilute
sulphuric (VI acid. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

30. Dry chlorine was collected using the set-up below.

(a) Name a suitable drying agent for chlorine gas? (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State one property of chlorine gas which facilitates this method of collection. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) State one observation made on the moist blue litmus paper. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
233/2

CHEMISTRY
PAPER 2 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

Instructions to Candidates
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
d) KNEC Mathematical tables and silent non-programmable electronic calculators may be used.
e) All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary
f) Candidates must answer all the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 12
2 13
3 12
4 10
5 12
6 11
7 12
TOTAL 80

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1.a) The grid below represents a periodic table. Study it and answer the questions that
follow. The letters do not represent the actual symbols of the elements

i) Write the formula of the compound formed by element J and M. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Identify the least reactive element. Give a reason for your answer. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Compare the atomic size of K and O. Explain. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b)The following graph shows the reactivity of elements in period 3.

Explain the Trend at D and E (1mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c)The table below gives information on the Melting Points of compounds of period 3
elements. The letters do not represent the actual symbols.

a. Write the formula of

(i) Chloride of T (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Oxide of U (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b. (a) Using the information above, suggest the type of bonding present in the chloride
of V. Explain. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii)The difference in melting point of chloride and oxide of U in terms of structure and
bonding. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii)Why there is no melting point in the chloride of T. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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2.(a) Give the systematic names of the compounds whose structural formulae are given below.
H H H O
i. H – C- C- C- C OH (½ mark)
H H H ……………………………………………….
H H H
ii. H– C- C C OH (½ mark)
H H H ……………………………………………

(b) Draw and name the structural formulae of the compound obtained when compounds in (a)
react. (1 mark)

c). Study the reaction scheme below and answer the questions that follow.

C5 H12 CH3COOH

C7 H16 Step I Polymer W Step VI

Step (V)

U Step IV CH3 CH2OH

Step II

C2H6 UV (Cl2) Step III

Light

(i) Name the process labeled Step I (½ mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(ii) Identify substance U (½ mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) State the name of the fifth member of the homologous series to which U belongs. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) Explain how acidified potassium manganite (VII) can be used to distinguish U from C2 H6.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(v) State one industrial application of the process in step II. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(vi) Write the equation for the reaction in step III. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(vii)Identify the reagent and condition required in step (IV) (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………
(viii) State one use of the polymer W. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………

(c) R - COO – Na+ (A) and R OSO3– Na + (B) represent two types of
cleaning agents
(i) Name the class of the cleaning agent to which A belongs. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………

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(ii) Which cleaning agent would be suitable to use with water containing Magnesium Chloride?
Explain (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3.a) In an experiment 50cm3 of 1M copper (II) Sulphate solution was placed in a 100cm 3 plastic
beaker. The temperature of the solution was measured. Excess metal A powder was added to the
solution, the mixture stirred and the maximum temperature recorded. The procedure was repeated
using powders of metal B and C. The results obtained were given in the table below.
Metal A B C
Maximum temperature(0C) 26.3 31.7 22.0
Initial temperature (oC) 22.0 22.0 22.0
(i) Arrange the metal A, B, C and Copper in ascending order of reactivity. (1mark)
C, Copper, A B is the Ionic bond
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) State one observation that was made when the most reactive metal than copper was added to the
copper (II) Sulphate solution. (1mk) Ion
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Other than temperature state two factors that affect rate of reaction 1mk
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b). The diagram below shows the extraction of sodium metal using the Down’s cell. Study it and
answer the questions that follow.

+
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(i) Explain why in this process sodium chloride is mixed with calcium chloride. (1 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Why is the anode made of graphite and not iron? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii)State two properties of sodium metal that make it possible for it to be collected as shown in the
diagram. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv)What is the function of the steel gauze cylinder? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(v)Write ionic equations for the reactions which take place at;
I Cathode (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

II Anode (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(v)Why is sodium metal stored under kerosene? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4.(a) Fractional distillation of liquid air is mainly used to obtain nitrogen and oxygen.
(i) Name one substance other than sodium hydroxide that is used to remove carbon (IV) oxide from
the air before it is changed into liquid. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(ii) Describe how nitrogen gas is obtained from the liquid air.
(Boiling points nitrogen = -1960C, Oxygen = -1830C ) (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.

Water Air

Electrolysis
Step I Step II

M N2 Conc. H2SO4

Step III

Ammonia

Step IV Air, platinum – rhodium catalyst

Colorless gas Q
Step V Air

Nitrogen (IV) oxide Ammonium

Sulphate
Step VI
Nitric (V) acid

Step (VII)

Compound Z
(i) Name substance M ………………………………………………………………. (1 mark)
(ii) Identify gas Q …………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)

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(iii) State one use of compound Z ………………………………………………….. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) A fertilizer manufacturing industry uses 1400dm3 of ammonia gas per hour to produce
ammonium sulphate. Calculate the amount of ammonium sulphate produced in kg for
one day if the factory operates for 18 hours. ( N = 14, H = 1, S = 32, O = 16, 1 mole of gas =
24dm3 ) (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5.a) Define the term Half -life (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Table 2 contains information from the measurements made of the radioactivity in counts per
minutes from a radioisotope iodine – 128.

Counts per min 240 204 180 156 138 122 108
Time (min) 0 5 10 15 20 25 30

Table 2
(i) Plot a graph of counts per minute against time. (3marks)

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(ii) Use the graph to determine the half-life of iodine – 128. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) What is the counts rate after 22 minutes? (½ mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) After how many minutes were the counts rate 160 counts per minute? (½ mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) Potassium has two isotopes 39 K and radioactive 40 K .
19 19
(i) State how the two isotopes differ. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) The half-life of 40 K is 1.3 x 109years. Determine how long it would take for 4g of the isotope
19
to decay to 1g. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) 39 K undergoes beta decay to form an isotope of calcium. Write the nuclear equation for this
19
decay. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Fig 2 shows how a radioactive material emitted radiations from its source. Study it and answer the
questions that follow as shown below.

I) Identify the radiation that: (2 marks)

i. Has no mass?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii. Contains Helium particles?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

II) State two applications of radioactivity in medicine (2 mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(6.a) State the Hess’s law (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

a) Use the information below to answer the questions that follow.

C(s) + O2(g) CO 2 H = -394KJmol-1
H2(g) + ½ O2(g) H2O(l) H = -286KJmol-1
C2 H2(g) +5O2(g) 2CO2 + H2O H = -1300KJmol-1

(i) Draw an energy cycle diagram that links the heat of formation of ethyne with its heat of
combustion and the heats of combustion of carbon and hydrogen. (2marks)

(ii) Calculate the standard ‘enthalpy of formation’ of ethyne. (2mark)

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(b) The diagram below represents a set-up that was used in determining the molar heat of
combustion of propanol. (C3H7OH)
Thermometer

Water
xxxxxxxxxxxx Stand
Lamp
Propanol

During the experiment the data given below was recorded.

Volume of water = 100cm3
Final temperature of water = 43.50c
Initial temperature of water = 20.50c
Mass of propanol + lamp before burning = 126.5g
Mass of propanol + lamp after burning = 124.7g
Calculate
(i) The molar heat of combustion of propanol (3marks)
(Density of water = 1g/cm3, specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 kJ/kg/k, C=12.0, O = 16.0, H =
1.0)

(ii) The heating value of propanol. (1 mark)

(iii) Give two disadvantages of using hydrogen as a source of fuel. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(d) Study the information given in the table below and answer the questions that follow.
Bond Bond energy in kJmol-1
C–H 414
Cl – Cl 244
C – Cl 326
H - Cl 431
Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction. (2mks)
CH4() + Cl2(g) H3Cl(g) +
CH4(g)……+……4Cl2(g)……………………CCl4(g)……+……4HCl(g)

7(a) Explain the meaning of the following in terms of oxidation numbers: (2mks)
i) Reduction

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Oxidation

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii)Determine the oxidation number of chlorine in the ion. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) The standard electrode potentials (E ø) of elements Dand G are-2.38Volts and -2.87

Volts respectively.
i) Identify the strongest oxidizing agent 1mk
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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ii) Draw a labeled diagram of the cell formed when the two are connected. (3mks)

iii) Determine the e.m.f of the cell formed above. (2mks)

c) During electrolysis of aqueous Copper(II) Sulphate using carbon electrodes a

current of 2.0A was passed for 3 hours.

i) Find the mass of copper metal deposited at the cathode (Cu=64;1F=96500) (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) State two factors that determine preferential discharge in electrolysis. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
233/3

CHEMISTRY
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2¼ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

CHEMISTRY PAPER 3 CONFIDENTIAL
INSTRUCTIONS
In additional to the apparatus and fittings common in a chemistry laboratory, each candidate will
require the following.
- About 150ml of solution labelled A.
- About 100ml solution labelled B.
- About 50ml of solution labelled C
- About 0.2g of sodium hydrogen carbonate in a stoppered container.
- About 0.5g of solid M in a stoppered container.
- About 0.5g of solid G in a stoppered container
- 0 – 50ml burette.
- 25ml pipette.
- Two 250ml conical flasks
- 250ml volumetric flask
- 10ml measuring cylinder.
- Six test tubes on a test tube rack.
- A boiling tube.
- test tube holder.

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- Complete stand.
- A white tile.
- One metallic spatula.
- Distilled water in a wash bottle.
- One label

Access to:
- Source of heat.
- Universal indicator paper and its pH chart.
- 2M aqueous ammonia supplied with a dropper.
- 2M aqueous sodium hydroxide supplied with a dropper.
- Pb(NO3)2 (aq) supplied with a dropper
- Acidified potassium manganate (VII) supplied with a dropper.
- Bromine water supplied with a dropper.
- 2M dilute nitric (V) acid.
- Methyl orange indicator with a dropper
- Phenolphthalein indicator with a dropper
- Sodium chloride solution

NB:
1. Solution A is prepared by dissolving 4.3 cm3 of concentrated HCl (1.18g/cm3) to 500 cm3 of
water and dilute to 1 litre.
2. Solution B is prepared by dissolving 1.2g of NaOH pellets in about 600ml of distilled water and
diluting to 1 litre.
3. Solution C is prepared by dissolving 62.9g of Na2CO3.10H2O in about 800ml of distilled water
and then topping up to 1 litre.
4. Acidified potassium permanganate is prepared by dissolving 3.5g of KMnO 4 (s) in 200cm3 of 2M
H2SO4(aq) and toping up to one litre solution.
5. 2M H2SO4 (aq) is prepared by diluting 110cm3 of concentrated Sulphuric (VI) acid to make one
litre of solution.
6. 2M NaOH(aq) is prepared by dissolving 80g of NaOH pellets in one litre of solution.
7. 2M HNO3 is prepared by adding 128 cm3 of Conc. HNO3 to about 500ml of water and dilute to 1
litre.
8. Sodium chloride solution is prepared dissolving 5.85g of NaCl in 1 litre of water
9. Lead (II) nitrate solution is prepared by dissolving 30g of Pb(NO3)2 in 1litre of water
10. Solid M is aluminium sulphate
11. Solid G is maleic acid.

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
233/3

CHEMISTRY
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2¼ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your name, admission number and class.
• Answer all the Questions in the spaces provided.
• You are not allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of the 2 ¼ hours
allowed for this paper. This time is to enable you to read the Question paper and make sure you
have all the chemicals and apparatus you need.
• All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
• Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 19
2 12
3 09
TOTAL 40

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Question 1
You are provided with the following:
• Solution A ; Hydrochloric acid
• Solution B; 0.03M sodium hydroxide
• Solution C, Containing 15.74g of Na2CO3. XH2O in 250ml of the solution.
You are required to determine: -
i) The concentration of solution A
ii) The value of X in the carbonate Na2CO3. XH2O

PROCEDURE A
➢ Fill the burette with solution A. Using clean pipette, place 25.0cm3 of solution B into a 250ml
conical flask.
➢ Add 2 drops of phenolphthalein indicator and titrate with solution A. Record your results in
table I below. Repeat the experiment two more times and complete the table.
Table I (4mks)
I II III
Final burette reading (cm3)
Initial burette reading (cm3)
Volume of solution A (cm3) used

a) Determine the :-
(i) Average volume of solution A used. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Number of moles of sodium hydroxide in 25 cm3 of solution B used. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(iii) Number of moles of acid in volume of solution A used. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) Concentration of solution A in moles per litre. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

PROCEDURE B
➢ Using a clean pipette, place 25.0 cm3 of solution C into a 250ml volumetric flask. Add about
100cm3 of distilled water. Shake well and add more distilled water to make up to the mark. Label
this solution D
➢ Fill the burette with solution A. Using a clean pipette, place 25 cm3 of solution D into a conical
flask. Add 2 drops of methyl orange indicator and titrate with solution A. Record your results in
the table II.
➢ Repeat the titration two more times and complete table II.
Table II (4mks)
I II III
Final burette reading (cm3)
Initial burette reading (cm3)
Volume of solution A (cm3) used

b) Determine the: -
(i) Average volume of solution A used. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(ii) Moles of the acid of solution A that reacted with the carbonate solution D. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Number of moles of the carbonate in 25 cm3 of solution D used. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) Number of moles of carbonate in 250cm3 of solution D (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(v) Concentration of carbonate solution C in moles per litre. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(vi) Concentration of the carbonate solution C in grams per litre. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(vii) Value of X in Na2CO3. XH2O (H=1.0, C=12.0, O=16.0 Na=23.0) (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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QUESTION 2
You are provided with solid M. Use it to carry out the tests below. Write the observations and
inferences in the space provided.
(i) Place solid M in a boiling tube and add about 10cm3 of distilled water. Divide the resulting
solution into five portions
Observation Inference

(1mk) (1mk)

(ii) To the first portion add sodium hydroxide solution dropwise till excess.
Observation Inference

(1mk)
(1mk)

(iii) To the second portion add aqueous ammonia solution dropwise till excess.
Observation Inference

(1mk) (1mk)

(iv) To the third portion add 3 drops of sodium chloride solution.

Observation Inference

(1mk)
(1mk)

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(v) To the fourth portion add about 2cm3 of HNO3 acid.
Observation Inference

(1mk) (1mk)
(vi) To the fifth portion add 3 drops of lead (II) nitrate solution and warm.
Observation Inference

(1mk) (1mk)

Question 3
You are provided with solid G. Use it to carry out the tests below. Write the observations and
inferences in the space provided.
(a) Using a clean metallic spatula, take one third of solid G and place on Bunsen burner flame.
Observation Inference

(1mk) (1mk)

(b) Place the remaining solid G in a boiling tube. Add 10cm3 of distilled water and shake the
mixture until all the solid dissolves. Divide the resulting solution into four portions.
To the first portion add 3 drops of acidified potassium manganate (vii)
Observation Inference

(1mk) (1mk)

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(c) To the second portion add 3drops of bromine water
Observation Inference

(1mk) (1mk)

(d) To the fourth portion dip universal indicator paper and determine the pH of the solution
Observation Inference

(1mk) (1mk)

(e) To the third portion add solid sodium hydrogen carbonate

Observation Inference

(½mk) (½mk)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
232/1

PHYSICS
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

Instructions to candidates
• This paper consists of two sections A and B.
• Answer all the questions in the two sections in the spaces provided after each question
• All working must be clearly shown.
• Electronic calculators, mathematical tables may be used.
• All numerical answers should be expressed in the decimal notations.
• You may use ‘g’ as 10m/s2

For Examiner use only

SECTION QUESTION MAX MARKS CANDIDATE’S
SCORE
A 1 – 13 25
14 13
B 15 13
16 14
17 07
18 08
TOTAL 80

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 SECTION A (25 MARKS)
1. Figure 1, shows a Vernier caliper of zero error 0.02 cm being used for measuring the diameter of a
cylindrical container of height 10 cm. The scale reading of the Vernier is as shown alongside.

cm
0 5 10

a. Determine the diameter of the container (2 marks)

b. Estimate the volume of a liquid which can completely fill the container (2 marks)

2. State one factor that affects the turning effect of a force on a body. (1 mark)

3. Figure 2 shows some air trapped by mercury in a glass tube. The tube is inverted in a dish containing mercury.

Given that the atmospheric pressure is 760 mmHg and the height of mercury column in the
tube is 600 mm, determine the pressure of the air trapped in the tube in mmHg. (2 marks)

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4. Figure 3 shows drops of mercury and water on a glass surface, Explain the difference in the
shapes of the drops. (2marks)
Mercury water
Glass surface

5. A ball is thrown from the top of a cliff 20m high with a horizontal velocity of 10ms -1. Calculate
the distance from the foot of the cliff to where the ball strikes the ground. (3 marks)

6. Explain one advantage of mercury over alcohol as a thermometric liquid. (1mark)

7. A body of mass M is allowed to slide down an inclined plane. State two factors that affect its final
velocity at the bottom of the inclined plane. (2marks)

8. A stopwatch reads 08:10:84 and 09:10: 90 before and after an experiment respectively.
Determine the duration of the event in SI units. (2marks)

9. Explain the meaning of thermodynamics as a branch of physics. (1 mark)

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10.
a. State the Hooke’s Law. (1mark)

b. Figure 4 shows identical spiral springs supporting a load of 90N. Each spring has a spring constant
k = 200N/m

springs

90N

Determine the total extension of the system (take the weight of the cross bars and springs to be
negligible) (2 marks)

11. Figure 5 shows a rectangular loop with a thin thread loosely tied and dipped into a soap
solution. Draw on the space provided what is observed when point A is
punctured. (1mark)
A

thread
B

Figure 1

12. Two horizontal strings are attached to a block, resting on a frictionless surface, as shown in
figure 6.

F
100 N
support

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A force of 100N pulls on one string. The block does not move. Find the value of the force, F on the
other string. (1 mark)

13. A wooden bench feels neither warm nor cold when touched by your bare hands. Explain this
observation. (2 marks)

SECTION B (55 MARKS)

14.
a) Explain why bodies in circular motion undergo acceleration even when their speed is constant.
(1mark)

b) A particle moving along a circular path of radius 5cm describes an arc of length 2cm every
second. Determine:
i. Its angular velocity. (1mark)

ii. Its periodic time. (2marks)

c) A stone of mass 150g is tied to the end of a string 80cm long and whirled in a vertical circle at
2rev/s. Determine the maximum tension in the string. (3marks)

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d) State one factor affecting centripetal force (1mark)

e) State the principle of conservation of linear momentum (1 mark)

f) A bullet of mass 60g is fired horizontally with a velocity of 200 m/s into a suspended stationary
wooden block of mass 2940g. Determine:
i.Common velocity of both the bullet and the block, if the bullet embedded into the block.
(2 marks)

ii.Height to which the block rises. (2 marks)

15.
a) State two factors that affect the boiling point of a liquid (2 marks)

b) 100g of a liquid at a temperature of 100 C is poured into a well lagged calorimeter. An electric
heater rated 50W is used to heat the liquid. The graph in figure 7 shows the variation of the
temperature of the liquid with time.

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(i) From the graph, determine the boiling point of the liquid (1 mark)

(ii) Determine the heat given out the by the heater between the times t = 0.5 minutes and t = 5.0
minutes (3 marks)

c) From the graph determine the temperature change between the times t = 0.5 minutes and t = 5.0
minutes, hence determine the specific heat capacity of the liquid (3 marks)

d) 1.8 g of vapor was collected from above the liquid between the times t= 3.5 minutes and t= 4.5
minutes. Determine the specific latent heat of vaporization of the liquid (4 marks)

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16.
a) State the law of floatation (1 mark)

b) Figure 8 below shows a simple hydrometer

A ……………………………………………

B ……………………………………………………

i. Identify the parts labelled A and B (2 marks)

ii. State the purpose of the part labelled B (1 mark)

c) How would the hydrometer be made more sensitive? (1 mark)

d) Describe how the hydrometer is calibrated to measure relative density (3 marks)

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e) Figure 9 shows a cork floating on water and held to the bottom of the beaker by a thin thread.
i. Name the forces acting on the cork (3 marks)

ii. Describe how each of the forces mentioned in (i) above changes when water is added until the
container is completely filled (3 marks)

17.
a) Figure 10 shows a graph of pressure against volume for a fixed mass of a gas at constant
temperature.
Pressure, p

Volume, v

1
In the space provided, sketch a graph of pressure, p against (1 mark)
𝑣

b) Explain the pressure law using the kinetic theory of matter (3 marks)

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c) 20cm3 of a gas exerts a pressure of 760mmHg at 250C. Determine the temperature of the gas when
the pressure increases to 900mmHg and the volume decreases to 15 cm 3. (3 marks)

18.
a) Define the term velocity ratio of a machine (1 mark)

b) The figure 11, below shows part of the hydraulic lift system. State any one property of the liquid
under which the hydraulic system works (1 mark)

c) The hydraulic lift machine above has velocity ratio 45 and it overcomes a load of 4500 N when an
effort of 135 N is applied. Determine:
i.The mechanical advantage of the machine (2 marks)

ii.Efficiency of the machine (3 marks)

iii.The percentage of work that goes to waste (1 mark)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
232/2

PHYSICS
PAPER 2 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

Instructions to Candidates
− Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
− Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above
− This paper consists of two sections A and B.
− Answer all the questions in section A and B in the spaces provided
− All working MUST be clearly shown in the spaces provided in this booklet.
− Non programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used
except where stated otherwise.
Take: Speed of light in vacuum C = 3.0 x 108m/s Acceleration due to gravity g = 10N/S2

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section Question (s) Max. Score Candidates Score
A 1 – 12 25
13 12
14 8
15 11
16 12
17 12
B
Total 80

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
1. Figure 1 below shows a ray of light incident to the first of the two mirrors placed at an angle of
600

fig 1

Complete the path of the ray after reflection from the mirrors. (1mk)
2. Figure 2 below shows a positive charge near a plate carrying negative charge.

fig 2

Draw the electric field between them. (2mks)

3. Two pins are hanging from a magnet as shown in the diagram below (figure 3)

fig 3
Explain why they do not hang vertically downwards. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. Draw the diagrams to illustrate what happens when plane waves are incident on a slit.
i) When the width of the slit is large compared with the wavelengths of the waves. (2mks)

ii) When the width of the slit is small compared with wavelength of the waves. (2mks)

5. What energy conversion occurs in a photocell? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. i) Arrange the following waves in order of decreasing wavelength; infrared, X-rays, micro-
waves and visible light (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) State one application of visible light. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. State two advantages of an alkaline battery over lead acid battery. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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8. A girl shouts and ears an echo after 0.6 seconds later from a cliff. If velocity of sound is 330m/s,
calculate the distance between her and the cliff. (3mks)

9. What is dispersion of light? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Determine the reading of an ammeter in figure 4 below (2mks)

fig 4

11.A ray of light is incident on a glass oil interface as shown in figure 5 below. Determine the
value of r (Take refractive index of glass and oil as 3/2 and 6/3 respectively) (3mks)

fig 5

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12.State two factors that affect the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitors. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (55 MARKS)

13.(a)State Ohm’s law. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) You are provided with the following apparatus:

− Connecting wires
− An ammeter
− Fixed resistor
− A voltmeter
− A variable resistor
− Switch
− 2 dry cells in a cell holder
(i) In the spaces below, draw the circuit that can be used using the apparatus above to verify Ohm’s
Law. (3 marks)

(ii)Briefly explain how you can obtain the results to verify Ohm’s law. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 (c)Study the circuit diagram below and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Calculate the effective resistance of the circuit. (3marks)

(ii) Find the voltmeter reading. (2marks)

14. (a) A Girl stands some distance from a high wall and claps her hands
(i) What two measurements would need to be made in order to determine the speed of sound?
2mks
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Describe how you would make use of these measurements (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(iii) The speed of sound in air is 330m\s.How far from the wall would you stand? Choose an answer
from the following distances .10m, 200m, 500m.
Give reasons why you did not choose each of the other two distances (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) The frequency of the sound emitted by the loud speaker is 1020Hz. Calculate the wavelength
of the sound wave in air where its velocity is 340m\s (2mks)

b) Figure 15 shows the set up used to demonstrate interference of sound

i) An observer O, moves along XY.

State the observation(s) made. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) State what would be observed if a cathode ray oscilloscope is moved along line XY. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(iii) What will a student hear if he moves along the line OC? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. (a) State the conditions to be satisfied for total internal reflection to occur. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) A ray of light traveling in the direction EO in air enters a rectangular block as shown in the
diagram. The resulting angle of refraction is 18°.

18o
Find:
(i) The refractive index of the block. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) The critical angle C of the block. (3marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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16.(a) The figure below shows an object in front of lens.

(i) Using rays locate the image as seen by observer, E. (2 marks)

(ii) Give one application of such a lens as used above. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)Figure below shows a diagram of the human eye. Sketch a ray diagram showing how lens is
used to correct long sightedness. (2 marks)

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(c)An object of height 10.5cm stands before a diverging lens of focal length 20cm and a distance of
10cm from the lens. Determine;
(i) image distance. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) height of the image. (3mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) magnification. (2 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. (a) State the Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) A bar magnet is moved into a coil of an insulated copper wire connected to a zero centre
galvanometer as shown below

N S

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(i) Show on the figure above the direction of the induced current in the coil (1 mark)

(ii) State and explain what is observed on the galvanometer when the south pole of the magnet is
moved into and then withdrawn from the coil. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) A transformer has 800 turns in the primary and 40 turns in the secondary winding.
The alternating voltage connected to the primary is 240V and current of 0.5.A. If 10% of the power
is dissipated as heat within the transformer, determine the current in the secondary coil.
(3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
232/3

PHYSICS
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2½ HOURS

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

CONFIDENTIAL
Question 1
Each candidate to have the following apparatus
• 2 new dry cells
• Cell holder
• Ammeter (0-1A)
• Voltmeter
• 6 connecting wires (at least 3 with crocodile clips)
• Nichrome wire SWG 28 (d=0.38mm) mounted on a mm scale with the ends labeled (A and B)
• A switch
• Micrometer screw gauge (may be shared)
• Jockey key.

Question 2
PART A
Each candidate to have the following apparatus
• Retort stand, clamp and boss
• A piece of thread (1.2 metre)
• Two small pieces of wood blocks
• Pendulum bob
• Meter rule
• Stop watch

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PART B
Each candidate to have the following apparatus
• A concave mirror (Focal length = 16 cm)
• Mirror holder
• White screen
• Metre rule
• A candle

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
232/3

PHYSICS
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2½ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

Instructions
• Write your name, admission number, class and signature in the spaces provided at the top of the
page.
• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in this paper.
• You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2 ½ hours allowed for this paper reading
the whole paper carefully before your start.
• Marks will be given for clear record of observations actually made, for their suitability and
accuracy, and the use made of them.
• Candidates are advised to record their observations as soon as they are made.
• Electronic calculators and mathematical tables may be used.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question(s) Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 20
A 11
2
B 9

TOTAL 40

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 QUESTION ONE.
You are provided with the following;
• 2 new dry cells
• Cell holder
• Ammeter (0-1A)
• Voltmeter
• 6 connecting wires (at least 3 with crocodile clips)
• Nichrome wire mounted on millimeter scale
• Micrometer screw gauge (may be shared)
• Jockey .

Proceed as follows;
a) Using micrometer screw gauge, measure the diameter, D of the nichrome wire.
i) D = __________________________ mm

ii) D = __________________________ m (1mark)

iii) The cross sectional area A is obtained by;

𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2 Where r = D/2

Determine the cross sectional area (A) in SI units. (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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b) Set up the apparatus as shown below.

c) Record the e.m.f across the terminals of the dry cells when the switch is open.

Emf = _______________________
d) Adjust the position of jockey key such that length AX= 10cm.
Close the switch and record the voltmeter and ammeter reading on the table given.
e) Repeat step d) above for the other lengths shown on the table.
f) Complete the table. (5 marks)
Length, L AX 10 20 30 50 70 80
(cm)
Voltage (V)

Current (A)

Resistance(V/I)
(Ω)

g) Plot a graph of resistance (Ω) against Length (cm) on the graph provided below.(5 marks)

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h) i) Determine the slope of your graph. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 ⍴𝑳
ii) The relationship between L and R is given by the equation; 𝑹 = , determine the value of ⍴.
𝑨

(2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Suggest what constant ⍴ represents. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

QUESTION TWO (A)

You are provided with the following apparatus;
• Retort stand, clamp and boss
• A piece of thread
• Two small pieces of wood blocks
• Pendulum bob
• Meter rule
• Stop watch

Procedure;
Tie the bob to one end 20cm length of the thread and suspend it from the retort stand with the help
of the wooden blocks as shown in the diagram.
Wooden pieces
blockssblocksMetere rul

20 cm

Retort Bob

stand
Meter rule

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Displace the bob by a small angle say 100; start the stopwatch simultaneously and allow it to swing
to make ten oscillations. Stop the clock and record the time taken in the table below.
Length L (m) 0.20 0.40 0.60 0.80

Time t for 10 oscillations (s)

Period T (s)

T2 (s2)

Q = 4π2 L
T2

Repeat the same procedure for different lengths of thread 40cm, 60cm, 80cm and record the
corresponding times t taken in the table above.
Fill in the table above by determining the various values of T, T2 and Q as stated in the table.
(8marks)

Determine the average value of quantity Q and state its SI units (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Name the physical quantity represented by Q (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 QUESTION TWO (B)
You are provided with the following apparatus.
• A concave mirror
• Mirror holder
• White screen
• Meter rule
• A candle
Procedure
i) Set the apparatus as shown in the diagram below

Screen

Candle

Concave mirror

Metre rule

x u

ii) Place a candle at a distance of x = 10 cm from the screen. Move the mirror to and fro to focus a
clear, sharp image of the candle flame on the screen.
iii) Measure the distance u between the mirror and the candle and the distance v between the candle
and the screen.
iv) Repeat the experiment for x = 15 cm and 20 cm. Complete the table below. (6 marks)

X (cm) 10 15 20 25
u(cm)
V =( u + x)(cm)
𝑢𝑣
𝑍= (cm)
𝑢+𝑣

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v) Determine the average value of Z. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

vi) What is the significance of Z? (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
443/1

AGRICULTURE
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS:
a) -This paper has three sections A,B and C.
b) Answer all questions in sections A and B.
c) -Answer any two questions in section C.
For Examiners use:
SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM STUDENTS SCORE
SCORE
A 1-17 30
B 18-21 20
C 22 20
23 20
24 20
TOTAL 90

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 SECTION A: 30 MARKS
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided
1. Give four reasons why farmers are encouraged to practice organic farming (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Distinguish between GDP and GNP (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. What is meant by the following terms (2marks)

(i) Seed inoculation
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)Seed dressing
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Name four types of terraces (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Name the routine field practice done by;

(a)Removal of extra suckers in a banana stool (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(b)Removal of old stems down to level of top foliage in pyrethrum (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c)Removal of suckers from coffee bushes (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. State three characteristics of phosphatic fertilizers (1.5marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Explain the relationship between scarcity and choice as used in agricultural economics(1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Outline four ways by which crop pests are classified (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. State four advantages of land consolidation (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10.Outline three benefits derived from trees used in agroforestry (1½marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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11.State four practices which improve light intensity in crop production (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12.Give four factors that influence the quality of hay (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13.Outline two other methods of conserving forage in the farm (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14.State four factors that determine the demand of a commodity in a free market (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15.Give four varieties of tomatoes grown for processing (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16.State two advantages of mixed farming (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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17.Name any two land tenure systems practiced in Kenya (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B: 20 MARKS
Answer all questions in the spaces provided
18.Illustrated below is a method of turning compost. Study the method and answer the questions
that follow.

(a) Identify the method (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Using arrows in the diagram, show how the turning is done before the manure can be taken
to the field (2marks)

(c) After how long should the compost be ready for use (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Apart from the above named type of organic manure, name any other two types of organic
manure (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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19. Below is a diagram of a tertiary operation. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Name the operation (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Explain the process of performing the operation (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Name the implement that can be used to achieve the operation (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) State the importance of carrying out the operation (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20.Below is the diagram of a planting material. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

(a)Label the parts labelled i, ii and iii (3marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(b) State two factors that determine seed rate (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

21.Below is the set up of three different types of soil.

(a)State the aim of the experiment (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)State two ways of improving the soil structure labelled Z (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c)Name three processes of rock weathering (3marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 SECTION C: 40 MARKS
Answer any two questions from this section.
22.Study the following information which was extracted from Mr Kibui’s farm records on 30 th
November 2023 and answer the questions that follow.
Loans payable to bank Ksh.300,000
Five milking cows Ksh.250,000
400 layers Ksh.80,000
20 goats Ksh.30,000
Debts payable to cooperative Ksh.20,000
Buildings and structures Ksh.600,000
Bonus payable to workers Ksh.19,000
Cattle feed in store Ksh.10,000
Animals drugs in store Ksh.4,000
Breakages to repair Ksh.30,000
Cash at hand Ksh.20,000
Cash in bank Ksh.30,000
Spray equipment Ksh.12,000
Debts receivable Ksh.18,000
(a)Prepare a balance sheet for Mr Kibui’s farm using the information above (8marks)
(b)Was Mr Kibui’s business concern solvent or insolvent (1mark)
(c)Name any other financial statement that can be found in Mr Kibui’s farm (1mark)
(d)Describe five factors to consider in siting farm structures (10marks)

23.(a) Describe the procedure of silage making (5marks)

(b)State five effects of wind on crop production (5marks)
(c)State five precautions that should be observed when harvesting cotton (5marks)
(d)Why should it be advisable to use a nursery in crop production (5marks)

24.State five ways through which a farmer can adjust to risks and uncertainties in farming
(5marks)
(b)Describe the marketing functions in agricultural economics (5marks)
(c)Describe the safety precautions a farmer should take when using herbicides (5marks)
(d)Explain five physical methods of pest control (5marks)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
443/2

AGRICULTURE
PAPER 2 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index in the spaces provided above
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above
c) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
d) Answer all the questions in sections A and B.
e) Answer any two questions in section C

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
A 1 – 29 40
B 30 - 35 30
C 36 - 38 20
Total Score 90

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 SECTION A (30 Marks)
Answer ALL questions from this section
1. What is apiculture? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Name one livestock disease that is transmitted by the following parasites.
(a) Brown ear tick (½ mark)

(b) Tsetse fly (½ mark)

3. State the intermediate host for liver fluke Fasciola spp. (½ mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. State four breeds of rabbits. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. State two functions of a crop in a digestive system of chicken. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. State three ways of restraining cattle (1½ marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. State two livestock diseases caused by virus. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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8. State two types of selection practiced by livestock farmers (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. State three ways of preventing predation in a fish pond (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. State four functions of feed additives in livestock production. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. State two types of calf pens. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. State advantages of embryo transplant. (2 marks).
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. State two roles of testis in male reproductive system. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. Differentiate between mothering ability and prolificacy (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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15. State three ways in which feeding contributes to disease control. (1½ marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. State two functional differences between rumen and abomasums. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. Name four practices carried out in the crush (2 mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. Give three dual purpose cattle breeds (1½ mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. Give three terms used to describe the following: - (1½ mks)
(i) Mature male pig........................................................................................................
(ii) Sterilised birds ....................................................................................................
(iii) Mature female goat .................................................................................................
20. State four reasons for identifying farm animals (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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21. State two factors that determine the quality of honey (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

22. Give four categories of livestock diseases (2 mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. Name three tools used for plumbing (1½ mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

24. State two maintenance practices carried out on an ox-drawn plough (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

25. List two sources of farm’s power which are environmental friendly (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

26. State four functions of the lubricating system in a tractor (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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27. State two conditions under which a farmer would prefer to use an ox-cart instead of a tractor-
drawn trailer (1mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

28. State four qualities considered when selecting a heifer for dairy purposes (1mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

29. Give one role of a damp proof course in the foundation of a farm building (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (30MKS)
30. The illustrations below represents the stages of development of a three –host tick. Study it
carefully and then answer the questions that follow:

(a) Briefly explain what is happening in the following stages (4 marks)

1…………………………………………………..………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4…………………………………………………..………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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5…………………………………………………..………………….……………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7…………………………………………………..………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Why do you think that tick control is difficult using acaricides? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Name the most common sites the tick can be found on the body of an animal. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Give two examples of a three host tick (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

31. The diagram below illustrates a certain practice carried out in sheep management. Study
carefully and answer the questions that follow

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(i) Identify the practice illustrated above (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) State two precautions a farmer should put into consideration when carrying out this practice.
(2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) How often should the practice be carried out? (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

32. Below in an activity carried out in poultry production. Study it carefully then answer the
questions that follow.

a) Identify the practice being carried out...................................................................... (1 mk)

b) State three defects that can be detected by this practice (3 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) State two disadvantages of artificial incubation. (2 mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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33. Use the above diagram of a calf pen to answer the questions that follow.

a) How high should the calf pen be raised from the ground (1mk)

b) Give any two reasons why calves are housed singly (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Why should the calf pen be near the milking parlour? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

34. Study the diagram below of a diesel fuel system then answer the questions that follow.

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a) Identify the parts labelled (3 mks)
A.....................................................................................................................................................
B.....................................................................................................................................................
C.....................................................................................................................................................

b) State three maintenance practices carried out on the system (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

35. Outline the procedure of proper milking technique (3 mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION C (20MKS)
36. a) Outline five signs of heat in a cow (5 mks)
b) Outline five causes of stress in poultry and describe their control (10mks)
c) Using Pearson’s square compute a ration with 20% DCP from oats which contains 10% DCP
and simsim seedcake containing 60% DCP. (show your working) (5mks)

37. a) Outline the daily maintenance practices that should be carried out on a farm tractor (8 mks)
b) Outline twelve general symptoms of endoparasite attack in livestock. (12 mks)

38. a) State four advantages of using a sub soiler in seedbed preparation (4mks)
b) Give five advantages of artificial insemination in cattle management (5mks)
c) State five function of water in animal’s body (5mks)
d) Describe control measures for tape worm in livestock (6mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
565/1

BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS
❖ Write your name, Index No. , signature and date in the spaces provided above.
❖ This paper consists of twenty five questions.
❖ Answer All the questions.
❖ All answers must be written within the provided space.
❖ Write your answers in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Score

Question 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Score

GRAND TOTAL

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 Answer All the questions
1. State four reasons why itinerant traders are becoming increasingly popular in Kenya. (4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. State four factors that lead to ineffective services in a warehouse. 4marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Classify the following factors as either internal or external business environment. (4marks)
Factors Business
(a) Political factor
(b) Economic recession
(c) Business structure
(d) Employees

4. State four reasons why one would prefer partnership instead of sole proprietorship.(4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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5. Highlight four ways in which a monopolistic competition differs from a pure monopoly.(4mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. The following balances were obtained from the books of Omweri traders.
Sales - 360,000
Opening stock - 50,000
Gross profit - 25% of sales
Closing stock - 70,000
Calculate:
(a) Cost of goods sold. (2marks)

(b) Rate of stock turnover (2marks)

7. State four ways a country may benefit from high population (4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Outline four advantages of transporting oil by pipeline rather than by road. (4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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9. State four reasons why consumers find it difficult to satisfy their needs. (4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Using the diagram drawn below state the effect of shift in supply as indicated. (4marks)
D So
Price (Kshs) S1

D
So S1
Quality
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. State four sources of government revenue. (4marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. Secretarial bureaus are usually found in urban centres. State four reasons that may account
this type of location. (4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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13. Name the insurance policy a school can take to cover the following risks. (4marks)
Risk Insurance policy
(a) Losses arising from debtors failure to pay their
debts
(b) Injury caused by a school dog to a passer-by
(c) Loss of cash when being transported to the bank
(d) Loss of goods through dishonesty of an employee

14. Record the following transactions in the general journal of Velma Traders. (4marks)
(a) On 2nd January 2009 sold office equipment to Faith Traders on credit for sh. 20,000
(b) On 5th January 2009 bought motor vehicle sh. 300,000 on credit from Sarah enterprises.
(c) On 10th January 2009, bought lawnmower on credit for sh. 70,000 from Veronica.
(d) Wrote off a debt of sh. 50,000 due from Mueke on 12 th January 2009.

15. Outline four services that facilitate communication. (4marks)

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16. Highlight four limitations of adopting a new technology in business. (4marks)

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17. Record the following transactions in the relevant ledger accounts. (4marks)
2020
June 1: Ochieng started a business with sh. 50,000 cash
June 4: Bought office equipment for sh. 2,000
June 6: Deposited sh. 12,000 into the business bank account.
June 8: Bought stock worth sh. 10,000 by cheque.

18. State four factors that influence the amount of money held by an individual for
precautionary motive. (4marks)
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19. Below is a two column cash book.

Date Details L.f Cash Bank Date Details l.f Cash Bank
1/2/2022 Bal b/d 5,000 1/2/2022 Bal b/d 3,000
4/2/2022 Sales 7,000 3/2/2022 Equipment 2,000
6/2/2022 Juma 1,000

Describe the transactions that took place on the dates

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(ii) 3/2/2022 ………………………………………………………………………
(iii) 4/2/2022 ………………………………………………………………………
(iv) 6/2/2022 ………………………………………………………………………

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20. Outline four circumstances under which a manufacturer would prefer to sell his product
directly to customers instead of selling through intermediaries. (4marks)
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21. State four factors that may cause the capital of a business to change and how. (4marks)
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22. State four benefits a producer is likely to experience from using shows, trade fairs and
exhibitions to promote his/her products. (4marks)
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23. State four uses of a business plan. (4marks)

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24. State demerits of government involvement in business. (4marks)
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25. Outline four characteristics of under-developed countries. (4marks)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
565/2

BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS
❖ Write your name, Index No. , signature and date in the spaces provided above.
❖ Answer any five questions in the foolscaps provided.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

1a b 2a b 3a b 4a b 5a b 6a b

TOTAL

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 Answer any five questions
1. (a) Explain any five accounting documents used in home trade. (10marks)
(b) Discuss five negative effects of inflation in the economy of Kenya. (10marks)
2. (a) Discuss five factors that will make two people wishing to take a life assurance policy to pay
different premiums. (10marks)
(b) Explain five reasons why small firms continue to exist in an economy dominated by large
scale firms. (10marks)
3. (a) Alukumu would wish to import a V8 car from Japan discuss five possible channels of
distributing the car. (10marks)
(b) The following balances were extracted from Wakasungula’s traders. Cash at hand sh.
180,000and cash at Bank sh. 67,000 at 1st January.
Jan. 2: Cash sales directly banked sh. 34,500
3: Cash taking of sh. 20,000
4: Purchased goods on credit from Sagini sh. 30,000 Pesh. Sh. 25,000 and
Cosmo sh. 38,000
5: Sagini and Pesh returned faulty goods worth sh. 10,000 each.
6: Sharlet a debtor paid cash sh. 30,000 in full settlement of the debt after
being allowed a 10% discount.
8: Paid the following accounts by cheque after deducting 5% in each case:
Sagini sh. 15,000, Pesh sh. 10,000 and Cosmo sh. 30,000
9: Received a cheque from debtor sh. 20,000
10: Too cash to the bank sh. 32,000.
12: Paid salaries sh. 10,000 in cash and sh. 37,000 by cheque.
20: The cheque received on 9th was dishonored and there were bank charges
of sh. 2,200.
29: Withdrew sh. 20,000 from bank for her daughter’s medication.
30: Deposited all the cash to the bank except sh. 2,000
Required:
Prepare a duly balanced three column cash book. (10marks)

4. (a) Explain any five roles of the Nairobi securities exchange market. (10marks)
(b) Explain five factors why the National income statistics

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5. (a) Explain five ways in which the utility of maize can be increased. (10marks)
(b) The following trial balance relates to Nyamira traders Ltd. As at 31 st March 2015.
Nyamira Traders
Trial balance
As at 31st March 2015
Detail Dr. Cr.
Capital 400,000
Sales 560,000
Purchase 100,000
Returns 500 1,000
Carriages 15,000 6,000
Opening stock 50,000
Discounts 2,000 4,000
Rent 16,000
Insurance 8,000
Machinery 560,000
Transport 1,000
Wages 10,000
Debtors 400,000
Creditors 60,000
5 year loan 200,000
1 year loan 75,000
Furniture 60,000
Premises 40,000
Overdraft 37,000
Cash 500,000
Bank 100,000
1,353,000 1,353,000

The closing stock was valued at sh. 60,000.

Required:
(i) Prepare a trading, profit and loss account.
(ii) Prepare a balance sheet as at 31st March 2015.
6. (a) There has been an increase in demand for pork at Funyula market. Discuss any five factors
that may have contributed for this situation. (10marks)
(b) Discuss how the introduction of money eliminates problems faced in Butter trade.
(10marks)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
101/1

ENGLISH
PAPER 1(Functional Skills)
TIME: 2 HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

Instructions to Candidates
a)Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b)Answer all the questions in this paper
c) All answers must be written in the spaces provided in the question paper.
d)Candidates must answer answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
1 20
2 10
3 30
TOTAL SCHOOL 60

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1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20MKS)
You are the patron of the Drama Club in Fanikiwa High School. Following the recent meeting that
was held at the end of term 1, members of the club suggested to visit Nairobi National Theatre
where the famous Sultana play will be staged. The theatre coordinator, Mr. Juma Harris says that
the Club can visit them on 2nd August,2023. Write a memo to the principal reminding him of the
planned visit, the purpose of the visit and the need to arrange for the members’ meals and means
of transport before the scheduled date. Remember to send a copy to the bursar.
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For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
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2. CLOZE TEST (10MKS)
Read the passage below and fill in each blank space with the most appropriate word. (10mks)
Are leaders born or they are created out of circumstance and experience? The debate (1)
______________ this topic has gone on as the chicken- and -egg (2) ____________________.
There are strong points for (3) _______________ side. For our purpose, we will say that the
answer is a little bit of (4) ________________. Some individuals such as royalty are born and
bred to (5) ____________________ on leadership roles in later life. Other people develop into
leaders over a sustained (6) _____________ of time. This is the type of leader (7)
__________________ should all strive to become. All too (8) ____________________people find
themselves in awe of great leaders wondering where do beings like these come from? What these
same individuals fail to recognize is that (9) _____________________ personality and luck can
(10) __________________ to a leader’s success, those things are not the essence of what makes
an exceptional leader.
(Adapted by Mwalimu Cosultancy Ltd from: Everything Leadership Book by Bob Adams)

3. ORAL SKILLS (30MKS)

a) Read the poem and answer the questions that follow.
A NIGHT MAIL
This is the night mail crossing the border
Bringing the cheque and the postal order.
Letter for the rich, letter for the poor
The shop at the corner the right girl next door
Pulling out the beat lock a steady climb
The gradient’s against her”, but she’s on time
Past cotton grass and moorland boulder
Shoveling white steam over her shoulder
Snorting noisy, she passes
Silent miles of miles of wind-bent grass

i) Describe the rhyme scheme of the poem. (2mks)

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ii) Identify any 3 pairs of rhyming words in the poem. (3mks)
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iii) Which words will you stress in line two of the poem and why? (2mks)
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iv) Which intonation will you use for the last line of the poem? why? (1mk)
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b) Provide homophones for the following words (5mks)

i) Key ………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Kernel……………………………………………………………………………..
iii) Gate………………………………………………………………………………..
iv) Won…………………………………………………………………………………
v) Soot………………………………………………………………………………….

c) Underline the silent letters in the following words. (3mks)

i) Parliament
ii) Weapon
iii) Honour

d) Identify the odd one out according to the underlined sound. (3mks)
i) Visual Pleasure Passion
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ii) Religion Respect Referee
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iii) Gestures Games Jugs
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e) Underline the stressed syllable in the following words. (3mks)
i) Chal-lenge

ii) Ad-vice

iii) Dis-like

f) Your class had invited a former student, now employed by a top company to give a talk on
“Succeeding in the corporate world”. However, during the talk, you realized that most of your
classmates are not concentrating. List four things on the part of the speaker that contributed to
this. (4mks)
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g) On your way home from school, you meet a lady who tells you that she is lost. She requests you
to give her directions to the nearest hospital. How would you ensure that the directions you give
enable her to reach her destination? (4mks)
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For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
101/2

ENGLISH
PAPER 2
(Comprehension, Literary appreciation and Grammar)
TIME: 2½ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index number in the space provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the space provided above.
c) Answer all the questions in this paper.
d) All your answer must be written in the space provided in this question paper.

For Examiner`s Use Only

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1. 20
2. 25
3. 20
4. 15
TOTAL SCORE 80

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1. COMPREHENSION (20 MARKS)
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow.
Africa is undoubtedly a very enduring race and has the capacity to utilize the available natural
resources for the betterment of life. The biggest challenge, however, is to identify ways and means
of creating an environment that is likely to encourage development in Africa. Perhaps the greatest
strategy would be to develop political structures and government institutions that have the capacity
to formulate and implement genuine poverty alleviation strategies’. Administrative arrangements
that no longer serve our needs should be overhauled or discarded altogether. Government should
foster exploitation and management of natural resources by providing an enabling environment.
Having stable government may not be effective if we don’t fight corruption. We should ensure that
leaders and government agents become answerable to the tax payer. The public should be educated
on the ills of corruption. Those who have stolen public funds must be made to return them and face
the full force of the law. Again, people known to have stashed money in foreign banks should be
forced to repatriate that money so as to improve cash flow in our economies.

Apart from this, Africa must find a way of solving their internal conflicts without involving the
international community. After all, we are all brothers with a common cause. The need to unite and
exist as unitary state should be stressed as this over rides clan and tribal rights or sentiments that
fuel animosity. TheAfrican union should be strengthened to enable it to arbitrate intra and inter-
state disputes. The resulting peace will provide a suitable environment for economic growth and
set us on the road to recovery and prosperity. Another solution would be to develop rural-based
economies, since the bulk of our population live in the rural areas. Industries that process farm
produce and those that manufacture farm inputs, machinery and implements should be located in
the rural areas. Similarly, mining concerns should establish processing plants near the mines. Such
industries will naturally recruit man power from the locality and consequently, reduce the incidence
of rural-urban migration. Setting up industries in the rural areas will necessitate development of
infrastructures which will open up rural areas for business. This will further encourage expansion
and increase food production to counter perennial food shortage in Africa. For instance,
development of dairy and beef processing industry in the rural areas will encourage sustainable
livestock keeping and probably bring to an end loss of cattle to drought. A rural based economy
will basically raise the income of the rural people and bridge the disparity between the rich and
the poor.
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We should also introduce appropriate technology in exploitation of natural resources and in wealth
creation. Since imported technologies are expensive to maintain, Africa should tap local expertise
to develop technologies appropriate to our needs. Home grown technology should enable us
alleviate Africa’s food security by utilizing river and lake water for irrigation and by harnessing
wind and solar energy.

Lastly, our economic units such as ECOWAS, SADC, and EAC should be transformed into common
markets by removing unnecessary tariffs on goods at various entry points so as to realize the
benefits of a common market. The people of Africa should continually seek a better life. We have
the resources; we have the manpower, and the capacity to make things move.

a) What should African countries do to fight corruption based on the information contained in the
passage? (2 marks)
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b) Explain how Africans can open up rural areas. (2 marks)

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c) What do you understand by the term ‘genuine poverty alleviation strategies’? (2marks)
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d) How can we reduce the incidence of rural– urban migration? (2marks)

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e) Why is appropriate technology useful? (1 mark)
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f) In not more than fifty words, write a summary on the various ways of fostering development in
African countries. (5 marks)
Rough copy
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g) What is the tone of the last paragraph of this passage concerning future Africa? (3 marks)
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h) The public should be educated on the ills of corruption. (Add a question tag) (1 mark)
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i) Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the passage. (2 marks)
i.Stashed…………………………………………………………………………………

ii.Disparity……………………………………………………………………………….

2. EXCERPT (25MKS)
Read the excerpt below and answer the questions that follow (25marks)
Jaden: (Wearing his glasses and peering pensively above the rim) I am looking at
it in an entirely different way. The idea is not to make convictions. The
idea is to initiate prosecutions in order to pre-empt any legal moves against
us from other quarters. I believe you understand the principle of double
jeopardy. (There is silence as parties look at one another, suspiciously.)
Harvester: That sounds workable for
me! Ramdaye: It sounds quite
brilliant.
Bembe: (Swinging his head in objection) I being prosecuted? I am jittery
about it! Ted: So am I.
Jaden: (To Bembe and Ted) Look at it as friendly prosecution.
Seymour: (Fiddling with his goatee) How do you initiate the
prosecutions?
Jaden: The idea is to identify the crimes we will be accused of, then get people –
friendly people – and pay them to lodge cases against us. From there, we
will have several options; can determine the cases in our favour, or buy
time through endless adjournments. We have been dealing with many
issues this way anyway.
Seymour: But that puts all of us at your mercy in court?
Jaden: There is no harm in that. We are all in the same boat. You can
trust me. Ted:Supposing you die?
Mossi: (Frowning at Ted) I am dead sure Justice Jaden will outlive you!
Bembe: (Scratching his head) Having a matter in court still gives me the
willies!
Seymour: I am not sure this is not a trap you are setting for us. I don’t think I will
buy that idea.
Ted: Me neither. (There is silence, and a tense atmosphere in the room.)
Jaden: (Breaking the silence) I have another idea. (They all look at Justice Jaden)
We can temporarily halt the use of the Samaritan.
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Harvester: How?
Jaden: Again, we can have someone lodge a case and argue that the App is
infringing on the right to privacy. You appreciate, essentially, that The
Samaritan is really intrusive. It is divulging information about people’s
private lives in the public domain. It is encouraging undue prodding into
the person – in contravention of the law.
Questions
a. Place the excerpt into its immediate context (4 marks)
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b. Explain the legal principle of "double jeopardy" and how Jaden intends to use
it to the group’s advantage. (3 marks)
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c. What mood is created at the end of this excerpt? (3 marks)

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d. Explain any one social issue raised in the excerpt that affects the justice system of
Maracus Municipality.(3marks)
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 e. From your knowledge of the play THE SAMARITAN, what is the
resolution of this meeting?(3 marks)
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f. Identify and comment on any one ironical situation evident in the excerpt.(3 marks)
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g. How is Justice Jaden portrayed in the excerpt? (4 marks)

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h. Explain the meaning of the following words and phrases as used in the excerpt.(2mks)
i. Pre-empt…………………………………………………………………………..
ii. Gives me the willies……………………………………………………………....

3. ORAL NARRATIVE (20 MARKS)

Read the oral narrative below and answer the questions that follow.
A long, long time ago, The Moon sent an insect to men, saying,” Go tell men and tell them,’ As I die,
and dying live, so you shall also die and dying live’”
Theinsectstartedwiththe message,butwhileonhisway, wasovertakenbyhare, whoasked,
“Onwhaterrand areyoubound?”

The insect answered, I am sent by the Moon to men, to tell them that as she dies and dying lives, so
shall they also die and dying live.”

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The hare said, “As you are an awkward runner, let me go.” With these words, she ran off, and when
he reached men, said, “I am sent by the Moon to tell you, ‘As I die and dying perish, in the same
manner you also shall die and come wholly to an end.’”

The hare then returned to the Moon and told her what he had said to men. The Moon reproached him
angrily saying, “Do you dare tell the people a thing which I have not said?”

Withthese words theMoontook upapieceofwoodandstruckthe hareonthe nose.Since thatdaythe

hare’snose hasbeenslitbutmenbelievewhathare hadtoldthem. My story ends there.
(Taken from African Folk tales; edited by Paul Radin)

QUESTIONS
a) Classify this oral narrative. (2mks)
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b) What evidence is there in the story to show that it is a translation? (2mks)

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c) Identify and illustrate any two features of oral narratives evident in this narrative. (2mks)
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d) Describe the character of men as evident in the above narrative. (2mks)

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e) What does this story reveal about death? (2mks)
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f) How different is the Moon’s message from the one delivered by the hare? (2mks)
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g) Describe one social activity of the society portrayed in the story? (2mks)
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h) Describe the tone projected in this narrative? (2marks)

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i) Explain the moral of this story. (2 mark)

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j) Give the functions of the formulae used at the beginning and the end of the story respectively.
(2mks)
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3. GRAMMAR (15 MARKS)
a) Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given (3 marks)
(i) I like Nairobi more than Machakos. (Use prefer)
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(ii) The army has rounded all the bandits (Begin All the bandits….)
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(iii) We employed the young man in place of his late father. (Begin: In place of…)
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b) Use the correct form of the word in brackets to fill in the blanks. (3 marks)
(i) There was enough………………………(prove)that examination had leaked.
(ii) Origi is the………………………………...…(clever)of the three.
(iii) The painting was……………………………(steal)from the museum.

c) Replace the underlined words with appropriate phrasal verbs. (3mks)

(i) I was completely deceived by the thief.
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(ii) The teacher ordered the students to submit their scripts at the end of exam.
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(iii) After several warnings, the county government finally demolished all the structures on
government land.
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d) Fill in the blank spaces in the following sentences with the most appropriate preposition. (4mks)
(i) Inoculation gives protection______________infection.
(ii) We agreed_________________the general procedure.
(iii) It has been the same old story ever________________he was a small boy.
(iv) Every member is entitled_______________one acre of land.

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e) Explain the difference in meaning in the sentences below. (2marks)
(i) He stopped to dance
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(ii) He stopped dancing

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
101/3

ENGLISH
PAPER 3
(Creative Composition and Essay Based on Set Text)
TIME: 2½ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
1. Write your details in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
2. Answer three questions only.
3. Questions one and two are compulsory.
4. In question three choose only one of the optional texts you have prepared for.
5. Where a candidate presents work on more than one optional text, only the first one to appear will
be marked.
6. Each of your essays must not exceed 450 words.
7. Candidates should check to ascertain that no questions are missing.
8. Candidates must answer the questions in English.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score
1 20
2 20
3 20
Total 60

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 QUESTIONS
1. IMAGINATIVE COMPOSITION
Either
a). Write a composition describing an experience you would wish to erase from your
memory. (20 marks)
Or
b) Write a story involving the following items(20 marks)
- A sachet of drugs
- A school bag
- The principal
- A punishment

2. THE COMPULSORY TEXT(20 marks)

Novel. Paul. B.vitta. Fathers of Nation
“Leaders in pursuit of selfish interest become insensitive to the citizens feeling causing
untold suffering to them.” Using the African leaders in Paul Vittas novel Fathers of
Nation, write an essay to validate the truth of this statement.

3. THE OPTIONAL TEXT

Either
a). The short story: A Silent Song and other stories
“The horrifying memories of war brings pain to our lives" with close reference to
Chimamanda Adichie's story Ghosts write an essay to show the veracity of this
statement.
Or
b) Play: Adipo Sidiang .The parliament of owls
“Individuals who are hypocritical end up oppressing others causing pain and agony in
lives.” Using the character money Bag, write an essay to show the truth of this
statement.
Or
c). Novel Kazuo Ishiguro - An Artist of the floating world.
Despite having some shortcomings in life, some people are great mentors and influential in
other
people’s lives. Closely referring to Ono Masuji in Kazuo Ishiguro's an Artist of the
floating world, write a composition to support this assertion.
(20 marks)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
102/1

KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 1
INSHA
MUDA: SAA 1¾

JINA…………………………………………………………………………………………

SHULE……………………………………………… SAHIHI……………………….

NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………………………… MKONDO……………………..

Cheti cha Kuhitimu Kisomo cha Sekondari (KCSE)

Maagizo
a) Andika insha mbili. Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima
b) Kisha chagua insha nyingine moja kati ya hizo tatu zilizobakia
c) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400
d) Kila insha ina alama 20

Kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee.

Swali Upeo Alama
1 20
2 20
Jumla 40

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1. LAZIMA

Wewe ndiwe mhariri wa jarida la MSINGI IMARA litakalochapishwa shuleni mwishoni mwa

mwaka. Andika tahariri juu ya vyanzo vya mikasa ya moto katika shule za sekondari, kisha

upendekeze hatua zinazoweza kuchukuliwa ili kuzuia visa hivyo. (alama 20)

2. Wananchi ndio wa kulaumiwa kwa sababu ya kudorora kwa usalama nchini Kenya. Jadili.

(alama 20)

3. Andika kisa kitakachoafiki maana ya methali: Kidole kimoja hakivunji chawa. (alama 20)

4. Andika insha itakayokamilika kwa maneno yafuatayo:

….tangu siku hiyo nikaamini kuwa kila jinsia ina umuhimu wake. (alama 20)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
102/2

KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 2
LUGHA
MUDA: SAA 2½

JINA…………………………………………………………………………………………

SHULE……………………………………………… SAHIHI……………………….

NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………………………… MKONDO……………………..

Cheti cha Kuhitimu Kisomo cha Sekondari (KCSE)

MAAGIZO
• Andika jina lakonanamba yako katika nafasi ulioachiwa hapo juu.
• Jibu maswali yote.
• Andika majibu yako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE.

SWALI UPEO ALAMA
1. Ufahamu 15

2. Ufupisho 15
3. Matumizi ya lugha 40

4. Isimujamii 10
Jumla 80

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UFAHAMU (ALAMA 15)
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali .
Gari lake kuukuu lilikuwa linapambana na barabara yenye mashimo yaliyoshiba na kutapika
maji ya mvua ambayo sasa ilikuwa inaanza kupusa . Japo daima alipambana na usukani
kunako mashimo haya yaliyotosha kuitwa magenge , alishukuru kwa hali hii. Vipi angeweza
kulidhibiti gari lake hili kwenye barabara iliyosakafiwa nayo ikahitimu . Magurudumu haya
yaliyong’ara kama upara wa shaibu aliyekula chumvi hadi iikamwogopa yangeyii uelekezi
wake . Mara ngapi gari hili limetaka kumwasi barabarani . Haya yalikuwa baadhi ya
maswali yaliyompitikia akilini . Hakujitakilifu kutaka kuyapa mji maana mara ile mawazo
yake yalitekwa na kubwagwa katika nchi ya mbali - nchi ambayo sasa aliiona kama sinema
akilini mwake .
Alipofika nyumbani aliliegesha gari lake na kufululiza ndani . Siku mbili zilikuwa zimepita
akiwa pale kazini . Madaktari kama yeye hawakuwa wengi . Alikuwa miongoni mwa
madktari wenye ujuzi katika hospitali hii ya kitaifa . Wenzake wengi walikuwa wamehamia
ughaibuni walikokwenda kutafuta maisha . Mshahara wao wa mkia wa mbuzi uliwasukuma
na kuwatema nje ya nchi yao . Wengi wa waliohamia ng’ambo waliona vigumu kubaki
katika ajira ambayo kivuno chake kilishindwa kumvusha mtu hata nusu ya kwanza ya
mwezi . Malalamishi ya kulilia ujira wa heshima yaligonga kwenye masikio yaliyotiwa
zege . Na kweli wanavyosema , mwenye macho haambiwi tazama . Basi walitazama hapa
na pale wakaona penye mianya ya matumaini , nao wakaiandama .
Hadi leo hii hamna la mno lililofanyika . Ndiyo maana Daktari Tabibu anarudi nyumbani
tangu kuingia kazini hiyo juzi alfajiri . Hafanyi kwa kuwa katosheka , maana pia yeye ana
dukuduku . Ana shaka ya mustakabali wake ikiwa mazingira ni haya ya kumsoza , maana
umri nao unazidi kumla . Japo anatia na kutoa , mizani ya hesabu yake imeasi ulinganifu
.
Daktari Tabibu waama ni mfungwa . Ametekwa na kuzuiwa katika kupenda na kuchukia
mambo .
Ni kama mti uliodumaa . Anatamani barabara nzuri za lami . Anatamani mshahara wa
kumwezesha kukidhi mahitaji yake na kutimiza majukumu yake ya kimsingi . Jana amesema
na rafiki yake aliye ng’ambo kwa simu ambayo sasa imetulia mkabala naye . Ingawaje
mwenzake huyu alikuwa mchangamfu na kumdokolea hali ya maisha ya kuridhisha kule
ugenini kama vile wanataaluma kuenziwa , yapo vilevile yaliyomtia unyonge moyoni .
Upweke ndio uliomtia fukuto kuu . Licha ya hela zote hizo za kupigiwa mfano , watu
hawana muda wa kutembeleana na kujuliana hali au hata kukutana tu mkahawani wakashiriki
mlo . Eti ni kila mtu na hamsini zake . Halafu ipo changamoto ya hali ya hewa . Baridi
ya ng’ambo haifanyi mzaha katika kumtafuna mtu . Ni hali tofauti na ile aliyoizoea .
Daktari Tabibu alizitia kauli za rafiki yake kwenye mizani ya moyo wake . Akawaza ikiwa
kweli si bora kulemazwa na mzizimo ugenini badala ya kuishi katika kinamasi cha
kuumbuliwa nyumbani . Kisha punde lilimjia wazo la marehemu nyanyake na wengine

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kama yeye waliofadhili masomo yake kupitia kwa serikali na njia ya kodi . Je , si usaliti
huu . Vipi aikimbie nchi kabla ya kuihudumia ilhali imemjenga hadi kuwa daktari . Na je
, wafanyakazi wake wa nyumbani watakwenda wapi . Atawaambia kuwa sasa hahitaji
huduma zao kwa kuwa anakimbia nchi yake .
Mawazo yake yalikatizwa na simu iliyolia na kumshtua . Alipoitazama aliiona imeng’ara kwa
mwangaza ulioweka wazi jina la mpigaji . Alifahamu kuwa leo hii tena dharura nyingine
ilikuwa inamwalika hospitalini . Mwili wake ulimsaliti ingawa moyo wake ulimkumbusha
kuwa lisilo budi hutendwa . Hapo ndipo alipoiinua ile simu tayari kusema na mwenzake
upande wa pili .
“Haloo ! ‘ Sauti nyororo kutoka upande wa pili iliita .
“ Haloo ! “
“Naam ! Dharura nyingine tena daktari . Unaombwa kuokoa maisha mengine tena ! “
“ Haya . Ila mwanzo nitahitaji kujimwagia maji ,’ na pale pale akaikata ile simu .
Daktari Tabibu aliingia hamamuni huku kajifunga taulo kiunoni tayari kuoga . Aliyafungulia
maji lakini ule mfereji uligoma kutapika maji . Ulikuwa umekauka kabisa . Daktari Tabibu
aliduwaa pale . Aliufunga ule mfereji kabla ya kuiaga bafu .

Maswali
(a) Eleza sababu nne zinazowafanya wataalamu kuhamia nchi za nje .( alama 4 )
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[b] ‘Hakuna masika yasiyokuwa na mbu” . Thibitisha kauli hii kwa kurejelea hali ya
waliohamia ng’ambo . [alama 3]
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[c] Fafanua athari tatu zinazoikumba nchi ya msimulizi kutokana na uhamiaji wa wataalamu.
[alama 3]
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[d] Eleza mchango wa teknologia kwa kurejelea kifungu . [alama 3]

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[e] Eleza maana ya msamiati ufuatao kulingana na taarifa . [alama 2]

[I ] kuyapa mji ------------------------------------------------

[ ii] fukuto ------------------------------------------------------

UFUPISHO (ALAMA 15)

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kasha ujibu maswali.
Kila msanii anacho kifaa chake ambacho anakitumia, ambacho kinakuwa alama ya usanii wake.
Mchoraji anategemea sana kalamu au rangi zake na mchongaji anao ubao au mti wake.
Vivyo hivyo mwanafasihi naye anategemea lugha katika usanii wake. Matumizi ya lugha ni
miongoni mwa mambo muhimu yanayotofautisha kazi ya fasihi na kazi isiyo ya fasihi. Jinsi
ambavyo mwandishi anavyoitumia lugha yake na kiwango cha usanii anachofuraia ndivyo alama
muhimu inayomtofautisha na mwandishi mwingine wa fasihi.
Katika uhakiki wa kazi za fasihi za hivi karibuni, hasa katika Kiswahili, kumekuwa na msisitizo
mkubwa katika maudhui ya kazi hizo au kwa lugha rahisi, ujumbe unaotolewa na mwandishi.
Hivyo maswali yanayoulizwa ni kama kazi hii ina umuhimu gani katika jamii ya leo? Inajengaje
tabia, mwenendo na mwelekeo wa jamii? Ina maadili gani?
Mara nyingi, wahakiki hawaulizi mwandishi alivyofaulu kisanaa isipokuwa kama jambo la ziada tu
mwishoni uhakiki wa namna hii hasa umehusu kazi za fasihi zisizo za ushauri kwa sababu
imekubalika kwa muda mrefu kuwa mshauri lazima aitawale lugha yake vizuri ndipo aweze kuleta
ule mvuto maalum unaotakiwa na kufikia viwango vinavyokubalika katika fani hii.
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Haiwezekani kutenganisha maudhui na usanii katika kazi yoyote ile ya fasihi ujumbe unaoletwa
katika kazi ya fasihi unaweza kutolewa na mtu mwingine yeyote kwa njia nyingine. Ujumbe huo
unaweza kutolewa kwa njia ya hotuba, vitabu au maongezi ya kawaida.
Katika isimu ya lugha , tunaposema ya kwamba mwanadamu anajua lugha yake, tuna maana kuwa
“amemeza” mfumo wa lugha yake wa matamshi, muundo wa maneno, muundo wa sentensi na
maana zinazokusudiwa. Ujuzi alio nao mwanadamu huyu ni sawa, na ujuzi walionao wanadamu
wengine wa jamii yake wanaozungumza lugha moja. Hivyo tukisema kuwa mwanadamu aongee
lugha hatuna maana tu ya kule kumeza mfumo wake wa lugha bali ni uwezo wake wa kuitumia
katika mahusiano yake na wanajamii wengine. Katika lugha yoyote ile kuna mitindo mingi
inayotumika kutegemea kile kinachozungumziwa.Hivyo, tunaweza kuwa na mtindo wa siasa,
sheria dini na kadhalalika pia upo mtindo wa kawaida unaotumika.
Katika mawasiliano ya kila siku ya wanajamii moja Katika mtindo huu kuna matumizi ya aina
mbalimbali kihusiana na nyanja tofauti za maisha. Matumizi haya yanaitwa rejesta kwa lugha ya
kitaalam. Rejesta yoyote ile inategemea nani anazungumza nini na nani, wapi kuhusu nini na kwa
sababu gani.
Mtu anayejua lugha yake vizuri tunategemea aweze kuitumia katika mitindo iliyobadilika na aweze
kujua mazingira anayopaswa kutumia mtindo mmoja badala ya mwingine katika mahusiano ya
kawaida, mtumiaji wa lugha anapaswa kujua ni rejesta gani anapaswa kutumia kila wakati.
Mwandishi wa habari lazima awe “amefuzu” kuliko kuweka haya matumizi tofauti ya lugha.
Mwandishi huyu anatakiwa kuwa mtafiti ili ajue Yale matumizi ambayo yeye hana haja nayo katika
mahusiano yake ya kawaida na huyo aweze kuchora jamii yake inayostahili katika kazi yake.
Sababu kubwa ya kumtaka mwanafasihi kuyajua kinaganaga matumizi tofauti ni ule ukweli kuwa
kazi ya fasihi haina mpaka na utumizi wa lugha.
Maswali.
(a) Eleza vipengele muhimu vya lugha katika uwasilishaji wa fasihi (maneno 70-80) (al.8)
MATAYARISHO
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JIBU
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(b) Fupisha aya tatu za mwisho(maneno 75-85) (al.7)

MATAYARISHO
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JIBU
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MATUMIZI YA LUGHA ( al 40)

a. Andika tofauti moja kati ya sauti zifuatazo: ( al 2)
i. /ny/ na /y/
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ii. /d/ na /t/

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iii. /mb/ na /nd/

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iv./s/ na /z/
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b. Onyesha muundo wa silabi katika maneno yafuatayo ( al 2)
i. Mtu
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ii. Ngoma
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iii. Embe
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iv.Chai
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c. Tunga sentensi mbili kuonyesha matumizi mawili ya kiambishi a ( al 2)

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d. Tumia neno ngali katika sentensi kuonyesha : ( al 3)

i. Tendo halikutendeka na hakuna uwezekano
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ii. Kitenzi kishirikishi kikamilifu
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iii. Kitenzi kisaidizi
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e. Onyesha miundo miwili ya nomino katika ngeli ya LI-YA (al 2)
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f. Tunga sentensi katika wakati uliopita hali timilifu ( al 1)

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g. Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika hali ya ukubwa (al 2)

Viti vingine huundwa kwa vijijiti vinene
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h. Akifisha sentensi ifuatayo ( al 3)

halima aliamka akiwa na joto jingi mwilini Pamela nenda busia ukamununulie dawa alimwambia
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i. Kando na kuonyesha urejeshi katika sentensi , eleza matumizi mengine matatu ya kiambishi ji
(al 3)
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j. Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika usemi wa taarifa (al 2)

“Tutakapofuata maagizo ya wizara, janga la korona litasahaulika kabla ya mwaka ujao.” Waziri wa
afya aliahidi.
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k. Tunga sentensi zifuatazo: ( al 2)
i. Amrishi
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ii. Changamano
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l. Tunga sentensi iliyo na kirai kihusishi kisha ukibadilishe kiwe kielezi kimoja (al 2)
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m. Ainisha vishazi katika sentensi ifuatayo ( al 2)

Iwapo utapita mtihani utaenda chuo kikuu.
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n. Bainisha shamirisho na chagizo katika sentensi ifuatayo: (al 3)

Sabina alimnunulia Nyaboke nguo nzuri kwa senti zake.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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o. Andika sentensi ifuatayo upya kulingana na maagizo (al 1)

Kasisi alikariri sala ya Bwana baada ya waumini.
Anza kwa:
Waumini
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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p. Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa kielelezo cha visaduku (al 4)
Halima atamtembelea shangazi Nakuru kisha ampelekee mama mahindi.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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q. Andika sentensi ifuatayo upya ukitumia kinyume cha sehemu iliyopigiwa mstari : (al 1)
Wanajeshi watapiga kambi juma lijalo.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

r. Andika sentensi yenye muundo ufuatayo (al 2)

KN( V+N+V)+KT(Ts+T+E)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

s. Bainisha maana mbili zinazojitokeza katika sentensi ifuatayo: (al 2)

Mwalimu alimsomesha mwanafunzi
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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t. Chakula ni kwa mlo, barabara ni kwa………………………….na afya ni kwa…………( al 2)

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ISIMUJAMII ( al 10)
Mirima : Sasa Mangwasha
Mangwasha : Poa
Mirima : Kesho utakuja kunitembelea ?
Mangwasha : Naam ! Nitajaribu
Mirima : Wewe acha. Kujaribu kwako kila mara. Jana uliniambia hivyo tena. Utasema ukweli
when?
Mangwasha: Usoichukulie vibaya my dear , ninajiandaa kwa birthday ya bro wangu.
Mirima: Ukikosa hata mimi…
Mangwasha: La! La si hivyo buddy…

Maswali
a. Haya ni mazungumzo ya aina gani ? ( al 2)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b. Tambua sifa za lugha hii kama zinavyojitokeza katika mazungumzo haya (al 4)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c. Taja sifa zingine zinazohusishwa na sajili (al 4)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
102/3

KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 3 (FASIHI)
MUDA: SAA 2½

JINA…………………………………………………………………………………………

SHULE……………………………………………… SAHIHI……………………….

NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………………………… MKONDO……………………..

Cheti cha Kuhitimu Kisomo cha Sekondari (KCSE)

Maagizo
a) Jibu maswali manne pekee.
b) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
c) Maswali hayo mengine matatu yachanguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki, yaani Riwaya,
Hadithi Fupi, Tamthilia na Ushairi.
d) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.
e) Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya kiswahili.
f) Karatasi hii ina kurasa nne zilizopigwa chapa.

Kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee.

Swali Upeo Alama
1 20
2 20
3 20
4 20
Jumla 80

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 SEHEMU YA ‘A’ - FASIHI SIMULIZI.
Swali la lazima
1. Soma kifungu hiki kisha ujibu maswali.
Ndimi kisoa,dume wa ukoo mtukufu
Uliojipambanua kwa mabingwa
Wachezaji hatari wa ngoma
Ndimi dume lililoingia nyanjani
Makoo yakatetemka
Yakang’ang’ania ,gozi kusakata nami

Kijiji kizima kilinijua

Wazee walinienzi
Wakamiminika kiamboni
Mabuti kunikabidhi
Maswali
a. Bainisha kipera hiki. {alama2]
b. Eleza sifa zozote tano zinazotambulisha kipera hiki. [alama5]
c. Fafanua shughuli mbili za kijamii wanayoshiriki jamii hii. [alama4]
d. Tambua toni inayojitokeza katika utungo huu. [alama2]
e. Eleza namna wanajamii wanavyoweza kutunza utungo huu miongoni mwa tungo nyingine za
fasihi hii zisififie. [alama7]

SEHEMU YA ‘B’ – RIWAYA.

Nguu Za Jadi – Clara Momanyi
Jibu ama swali la 2 au la 3
2. “Mimi ni mwanamume .Ninaweza kuoa wakati wowote na idadi yoyote ya wanawake.
Mwanamke akishaolewa, basi yake yamekwisha hapo. Azae na kuitumikia jamaa yake bila
kuulizauliza maswali.
Maswali
a. Weka dondoo hili katika muktadha wake. [alama 4]
b. Eleza sifa nne za msemewa wa maneno haya. [alama 4]
c. Eleza jinsi mnenewa alivyoitumikia jamii yake. [alama 6]
d. Jadili maudhui matatu yanayojitokeza kwenye dondoo hili. [alama 6]

3. (a) Changanua mitindo katika kifungu hiki. [alama10]

Toka mbele yangu. Kwenda! Waketwa ni watu wasio na akili hata ya kuchagua wachumba. Ndivyo
maana daima mnabaki nyuma kama makoti.Hata sijui kwa nini nilikuajiri. Umenivunjia heshima
kumkataa rafiki yangu. Toka! Chifu Mshabaha alimfukuza Mngwasha kutoka afisini mwake.
Kwa muda, Mangwasha hakujua kwa nini chifu mshabaha alimkaripia kiasi hicho. Alifululiza
hadi kwake nyumbani. Alijifungia chumbani akalia kwa kwikwi. Alidhani chifu yule tayari
alikwisha kumpiga kalamu. Hangeweza kumfukuza vile kisha amtake kurudi kazini. Alihisi

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 kwamba Maisha ya uchochole sasa yanamkodolea macho. Aende wapi kwingine? Kazi hiyo
ilimkidhia lishe na mavazi. Sasa angeshika mti gani?
(b) Wakati jamii inapojitahidi na kupiga hatua,kuna watu ambao huwaendea wenzao
kinyume. Jadili kwa hoja kumi ukerejelea riwaya nguu za jadi. {alama 10]

SEHEMU YA ‘C’ - TAMTHILIA

Bembea ya maisha – Arege Timothy.
Jibu ama swali la 4 au la 5
4. Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali.
Hakuna kizuri kijacho kwa urahisi. Mazuri hutoka mbali na wakati mwingine yana hadithi ya
kutisha. Maisha yetu ni mfano wa mbegu iliyopandwa. Mbegu hiyo haina budi kuoza kwanza
ndipo ioteshe mche upendezao. Mche huo wa asili ya mbegu iliyooza, hatimaye hutoa zao la
mbegu nyingi ajabu. Ukitazama vizuri, mbegu ile haifi bali huchukua mkondo mwingine wa
Maisha.Huchukua umbo jipya lipendelezalo hasa ikiwa itakuwa imeangukia ardhi nzuri.Hapa
kijijini japo yapo mawili matatu ya kusinya, ardhi yake si mbaya.

Maswali
(a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. [alama 4]
(b) Fafanua ukweli wa kauli iliyopigiwa mstari kwa kurejelea hoja kumi kwenye tamthilia nzima.
[alama10]
(c) Bainisha mbinu za kimtindo zinazojitokeza katika kifungu hiki. [alama 6]

5. Jadili namna maudhui ya usaliti yanavyojitokeza katika tamthilia bembea ya Maisha.

[alama20]

SEHEMU YA ‘D’ - HADITHI FUPI

Jibu ama swali la 6 au la 7.
6. ”Nitafanyaje nifike shuleni kabla ya saa mbili asubuhi? Kitafanyika nini nikifika katika ukumbi
huu baada ya mtihani kuanza?
(a) Fafanua muktadha wa dondoo. [alama 4]
(b) Fafanua sifa za msemaji wa maneno haya. [alama 4]
(c) Bainisha toni inayojitokeza katika dondoo hili. [alama 2]
(d) Eleza maudhui ya elimu yalivyoshughulikiwa katika hadithi hii. [alama10]

7. “Wafanya nini hapa wewe?”

“Sikujua nilihitaji miadi kumwona mume wangu”
Maswali
(a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. [alama 4]
(b) Bainisha umuhimu wa anayeulizwa swali katika dondoo hili. [alama 6]
(c) Taja toni inayojitokeza katika dondoo hili. [alama 2]
(d) Jadili namna ‘uvundo”unavyojitokeza katika jamii ukirejelea hadithi hii. [alama 8]

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 SEHEMU YA ‘D’ – USHAIRI
8. Soma shairi hili kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata.
Pana jambo inatukiya, kwangu hilo ni muhali
Kitenda naona haya, kujishusha yangu hali
Sipendi unupe hidaya, sipendi kutenda hili
Sipendi mimi kucheka

Sipendi mimi kucheka, kucheka mawi

Sipendi na ya dhihaka, kwangu nyemi hiwi
Sipendi kwa hakika, mwovu kistawika

Halufaye ninacheka!
Maskini akiteswa
Yatima akinyanyaswa
Mnyonge naye akinyonywa
Sipendi hata ikiwa
Unazo nguvu ikiwa
Unazo nguvu najuwa
Na hili sitatekezwa

Mbona lakini nicheke,kwayo furaha?

Na wewe ukajiweke, uli na siha?
Na yatima ali pweke, uli na siha?
Amenywima haki yake, hanayo raha!
Na moyo wangu ucheke, kwa ha. ha, ha, ha!
Kucheka kwa kucheka
Mimi katu sitacheka

Maswali
1. Taja na ueleze shairi hili ni la aina gani? [alama2]
2. Taja sababu zozote tano zinazomfanya mwandishi wa shairi hili asitake kucheka. [alama5]
3. Chambua shairi hili kimtindo. [alama4]
4. Andika ubeti wa pili kwa lugha ya nathari. [alama4]
5. Tambua nafsineni katika shairi. [alama2]
6. Bainisha mbinu tatu za kimtindo zinazojitokeza kwenye shairi hili. [alama3]

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
313/1
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• This paper consists of SIX questions
• Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided
• Each question carried 20 marks

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Candidate’s
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 Total
Score
Candidate’s
Score

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 Answer any five questions in the answer sheets provided
1. a) Identify five law books in the Bible (5 marks)
b) From the story of the fall of human beings in Genesis Chapter 3, state the effects of sin.
(7 marks)
c) Outline eight ways in which the Bible is misused in Kenya today. (8 marks)

2. a) Identify eight conditions that God gave to the Israelites during the renewal of the Sinai
Covenant (8 marks)
b) Describe the call of Abraham (6 marks)
c) Explain the importance of Circumcision to Abraham and his descendants. (6 marks)

3. a) Identify the activities of King Jeroboam that contributed to religious schism between Judah
and Israel. (6 marks)
b) Outline the failures of King Saul (6 marks)
c) State lessons Christians learn from the failures of King Saul. (8 marks)

4. a) Outline differences between Traditional African Prophets and the Old Testament Prophets.
(7 marks)
b) Outline the social injustices condemned by Prophet Amos in Israel. (7 marks)
c) State ways in which God would punish Israel for her evil according to Prophet Amos.
(6 marks)

5. a) Describe the political background to Nehemiah. (5 marks)

b) Identify problems experienced by Nehemiah during the rebuilding of the wall of Jerusalem.
(7 marks)
c) State the leadership qualities demonstrated by Nehemiah. (8 marks)

6. a) Identify rituals performed after the death of a person in Traditional African Communities.
(6 marks)
b) List moral values promoted during funeral ceremonies in Traditional African Communities.
(7 marks)
c) Name seven places of worship in which sacrifices were carried out in Traditional African
Communities. (7 marks)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
313/2
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• This paper consists of SIX questions
• Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided
• Each question carried 20 marks

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Candidate’s
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 Total
Score
Candidate’s
Score

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 Answer any five questions in the answer sheets provided
1. a) Basing your answer on the infancy narratives, (Luke 1:5-56), describe what took place
when Mary visited Elizabeth. (7 marks)
b) Explain what the magnificat reveals about the nature of God. (6 marks)
c) Give six ways in which a Christian couple should respond to the challenge of being childless
(7 marks)

2. a) Describe the incident when Jesus was baptized in River Jordan by John the Baptist.
(7mks)
b) What are the teachings of John the Baptist as the forerunner of Jesus Christ? (8mks)
c) Give five reasons why Christians undergo baptism today. (5mks)

3. a) Outline the events which took place on Mount Olives before the arrest of Jesus. (7 marks)
b) Identify the reasons that made Judas Iscariot to betray Jesus. (6marks)
c) Why is the death of Jesus important to Christians? (7 marks)

4. a) Describe the events that took place on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:1- 41) (8mks)
b) Identify ways in which Christians can identify those who are led by the Holy Spirit among
themselves. (5mks)
c) How are the gifts of the Holy Spirit manifested in the church today? (7mks)

5. a) Outline the importance of professional code of ethics. (6 marks)

b) Identify eight Christian teachings on work. (8 marks)
c) Identify six ways in which the church is helping to solve the issue of unemployment in Kenya
today. (6 marks)

6. a) Explain ways in which science and technology has improved human life. (8 marks)
b) Give six reasons why Christians are opposed to euthanasia. (6 marks)
c) Identify ways through which Christians can help to control desertification. (6 marks)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
311/1
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
i Write your Name, Admission number and stream.
ii Answer ALL questions in the answer sheets provided.
iii Answer ALL questions in section A, Three questions in the section B and Two questions in
section C.
iv Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION A B C TOTAL
1--17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

SCORE

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 SECTION A-25 MARKS
Answer all questions from this section
1. State two disadvantages of relying on oral traditions as a source of History of Kenya.(2 marks)
2. Identify one theory that explains the origin of man. (1 mark)
3. Name two Bantu communities in Kenya whose ancestors settled in the Mount Elgon area before
migrating to their present homeland. (2 marks)
4. Why did the Mijikenda live in kayas? (1 mark)
5. State two social functions of Orkoiyot among the Nandi during the pre-colonial period.(2 mrks)
6. Identify two factors that led to the spread of Islam along the Kenyan coast by 16 th Century.
(2 marks)
7. Give one economic responsibility of a Kenyan citizen. (1 mark)
8. What is the difference between a civil and criminal dispute? (1 mark)
9. State two recommendations of the Lyttleton constitution of 1954 (2 marks)
10. Identify two development rights of children. (2 marks)
11. Name the treaty, which marked the colonial spheres of influence in East Africa in 1886.(1 mk)
12. Give the main reason why the local government was established in Kenya during the colonial
period. (1 mark)
13. State two ways through which the colonial land policies in Kenya undermined African farming.
(2 marks)
14. Who declared the state of Emergency in Kenya in 1952? (1 mark)
15. Give two special courts of Kenya. (2 marks)
16. Give the main role of opposition parties in Kenya. (1 mark)
17. Which body is mandated to collect taxes for the national government? (1 mark)

SECTION B (45 MARKS)

Answer any three questions
18. a) State three economic activities of the Borana during pre-colonial period (3 marks)
b) Describe the social organization of the Maasai during the pre-colonial period. (12 marks)

19. a)Give five reasons for the Portuguese success in the conquest of the Kenyan Coast.(5 marks)
b) Explain five factors that contributed to the spread of Christianity up to the 19 th Century.
(10 marks)

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20. a) State three methods used by the British to establish colonial rule in Kenya (3 marks)
b) Explain six problems experienced by the white settlers in Kenya. (12 marks)

21. a) State five reasons why Africans opposed to British colonial rule between 1920 – 1939
(5 marks)
b) Discuss five factors that have facilitated industrialization in Kenya since independence.
(10 marks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section
22. a)State three circumstances in which one’s right to life may be taken away in Kenya.(3 marks)
b) Discuss six rights guaranteed to arrested persons in Kenya according to the bill of rights.
(12 marks)

23. a) Outline five features of the new constitution of Kenya (2010) (5 marks)
b) Explain five ways how the concept of the independence of the Judiciary applies in Kenya.
(10 marks)

24. a) State five objectives of devolution of government in Kenya. (5 marks)

b) Discuss five ways how both levels of government in Kenya’s devolution system relate.
(10 marks)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
311/2
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• This paper consists of THREE sections A, B and C.
• Answer ALL the questions in section A, THREE questions from section B and TWO questions
from section C.
• Answers to all questions MUST be written in the answer booklet provided.

FOR OFFICIAL USE, ONLY

SECTION A B C TOTAL

QUESTION 1-17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

TOTAL
SCORE

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 SECTION A: (25 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section.
1. State two ways in which archaeologists obtain information on History & Government.(2 marks)
2. Identify one disadvantage of hunting as an economic activity. (1 mark)
3. Give two methods of irrigation used in ancient Egypt during early agriculture. (2 marks)
4. Identify the main disadvantage of barter trade in pre-colonial period. (1 mark)
5. Outline two disadvantages of motor-vehicle transport. (2 marks)
6. Identify two forms of print media. (2 marks)
7. List the main source of energy during industrial revolution in Britain. (1 mark)
8. Give two factors that led to the growth of ancient Kilwa. (2 marks)
9. Name the main symbol of unity of the Asante Kingdom in pre-colonial period. (1 mark)
10. Name one English – speaking nation in West Africa (1 mark)
11. Identify the main method used by French in administration in Senegal. (1 mark)
12. Define the term ‘Apartheid Policy’ as used in South Africa during colonial period.(1 mark)
13. Name two members of central powers during the First World War. (2 marks)
14. Identify two types of weapons used during the Cold War. (2 marks)
15. Name one financial institution established by African Union. (AU) (1 mark)
16. Identify one political party that merged to form Chama Cha Mapinduzi in Tanzania.(1 mark)
17. Give two houses of Parliament in India. (2 marks)

SECTION B: (45 MARKS)

Answer any three questions from this section.
18. (a)Highlight five benefits of an upright posture to early man. (5 marks)
(b) Describe five factors for the development of Trans-Saharan Trade. (10 marks)

19. (a) State three uses of Gold in ancient Africa. (3 marks)

(b) Explain six results of scientific inventions in medicine. (12 marks)

20. (a)Idenfity five reforms introduced by the Germans after Majimaji rebellion of 1905(5 marks)
(b) Explain five reasons why indirect rule failed in Southern Nigeria? (10 marks)

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21. (a) Give three principles of the Arusha declaration in Tanzania. (3 marks)
(b) Explain six political challenges that have faced Congo since independence. (12 marks)

SECTION C: (30 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section.
22. (a) State three functions of the ‘Lukiiko’ in Buganda during the pre-colonial period.(3 marks)
(b) Explain the political organization of the Asante Empire in pre-colonial Africa.(12 marks)

23. (a) State five differences between OAU and African Union. (5 marks)
(b) Discuss five achievements of the Economic community of West African States (ECOWAS)
(10 marks)

24. (a) State three functions of the state governments in USA. (3 marks)
(b) Explain six functions of monarch in Britain. (12 marks)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
312/1

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
TIME: 2¾ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(b) This paper has two sections: A and B
(c) Answer all the questions in section A
(d) Answer question 6 and any other two questions from section B
(e) All answers must be written in the answer sheets provided.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MAX SCORE SCORE
A 1–5 25
B 6 25
25
25
TOTAL SCORE

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 SECTION A.
Answer all the questions in this section
1. a) What is the relationship between Geography and Mathematics. (2mks)
b) State four reasons why it is important to study Geography. (4mks)

2. a) The diagram below shows an eclipse. Name the features marked V and W. (2mks)
V EARTH W

XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX
XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX

b) State four proofs that the shape of the earth is spherical. (4mks)
3. a) Name two forms of precipitation that commonly occur on Kenya highlands. (2mks)
b) What is a Stevenson screen? (2mks)
4. a) Give four proofs that support the theory of continental drift. (4mks)
5. a) State the two causes of vertical movement of the ocean water. (2mks)
b) List three types of ocean tides (3mks)

SECTION B
Answer Question 6 And Any Other Two Questions From This Section.
6. Use the map of Tambach 1: 50,0000 to answer question 6.
(a) (i) Locate the north western corner of the map using longitudes and latitudes. (2 marks)
(ii) In which hemisphere is the area covered by the map. (1 mark)
(iii) Name two human features found in grid square 8459. (2 marks)
(b) Describe how relief has influenced the distribution of settlement. (6 marks)
(c) (i) Reduce by a half the area east of easting 97 and north of northing 79. On it mark and
label the following.(6 marks)
• River Yeptos.
• Ridges
• Gentle slopes
(ii) Calculate the new scale.(2 marks)
(d) Citing evidence from the map, explain three physical factors which have favoured
growth of forest in Tambach.(6 marks)

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7. a) i) What is a mineral? (2mks)
ii) Describe the following characteristics of minerals.
a) Lustre (2mks)
b) Colour (2mks)
c) Density (2mks)
b) i) Name two examples of extrusive igneous rocks. (2mks)
ii) Describe three ways in which sedimentary rocks are formed. (6mks)

c) Explain the significance of rocks to the economy of Kenya under the following:
i) Tourism (2mks)
ii) Energy (2mks)
iii) Water (2mks)
d) For each of the following sedimentary rocks, name the resultant rock that forms after
metamorphism. (3mks)
i) Sandstone-
ii) Limestone
iii) Clay

8. a) i) Apart from Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), list four physical factors that
influence climate. (4mks)
ii) Give four characteristics of the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) (4mks)
b) i) Name the three equatorial climatic regions of Kenya. (3mks)
ii) Describe the characteristics of Tundra climate. (6mks)
c) Explain four human causes of desertification. (8mks)

9. a) The diagram below represents some coastal features.

i) Name the features marked P, Q and R (3mks)

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ii) State three conditions necessary for the formation of a beach. (3mks)
b) i) Apart from Bird’s foot delta, name two other types of coastal deltas. (2mks)
ii) Draw a diagram to show a Bird’s foot delta. (3mks)
iii) Describe how a Bird’s foot delta is formed. (4mks)
c) i) Differentiate between a barrier reef and a fringing reef. (2mks)
ii) Explain four factors that influence the development of coasts (8mks)

10. a) i) What is an ice sheet? (2mks)

ii) Give two reasons why there are no ice sheets in Kenya. (2mks)
iii) Explain three factors that influence the movement of ice from the place of accumulation.
(6mks)
b) Describe how an Arete is formed. (4mks)
c) i) Name three types of Moraine. (3mks)
ii) Explain four positive effects of glaciations in lowland areas. (8mks)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
312/2

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 2
TIME: 2¾ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
▪ This paper has two sections: A and B.
▪ Answer all questions in section A.
▪ Answer question 6 (compulsory) and any other two questions from section B.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY.

SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S
SCORE SCORE
A 1-5 25
B 6
7
8
9
10
TOTAL 100

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 SECTION A
Answer ALL questions in section A.
1. (a) State two factors that determine the mode of occurrence of minerals. (2mks)
(b) Give three ways in which mining causes land derelictions. (3mks)

2. (a) State two reasons why marine fisheries in Kenya are undeveloped (2mks)
(b) State three ways through which fish farming contributes to the economy of Kenya (3mks)

3. (a) State three ways in which the government policy influences location of industries in
Kenya (3mks)
(b)Give two reasons that led to the growth of steel industry in the Ruhr region of Germany
(2mks)

4. (a) Give two trading blocks in Africa (2mks)

(b) Identify three political problems facing regional trading blocks in Africa (3mks)

5. (a) State two ways in which communication contributes to economic development in Kenya
(2mks)
(b) Highlight three problems facing railway transport in Africa (3mks)

SECTION B
Answer question 6 (compulsory) and any other two questions from this section
6. Use the table below to answer the following questions.
Kenya’s agricultural production in 000 tonnes between 2014 -2017
Items/year 2014 2015 2016 2017
Horticulture 57,965 49,352 40,170 68,123
Tea 55,383 64,684 87,960 10,045
Coffee 6,859 9,563 15,449 17,826
Dairy products 8,368 11,496 11,346 15,548

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 a) Apart from comparative line graph, name four other methods that can be used to represent thee
above data. (4mks)
b) (i) Using a vertical scale of 1cm represents 20,000 tons, draw a comparative line graph to
represent the above data. (8mks)
(ii) State three advantages of using comparative line graph to represent statistical data. (3mks)
(iii) Give reasons that may have led to the low production between 2016-2017 (6mks)
c) Give four physical conditions that favor dairy farming in Kenya (4mks)

7. a) (i) What is forestry? (2mks)

(ii) Apart from tropical hardwood forests, name two other types of natural forests (2mks)
(iii) State the problems experienced in exploitation of tropical hardwood forests (3mks)
b) List five characteristics of planted forests in Kenya (5mks)
c) Explain three factors that favor forestry in Canada (6mks)
d) Explain five measures that the government has taken to conserve and manage forests in Kenya
(10mks)

8. a) Apart from irrigation give four methods of land reclamation in Kenya (4mks)
b) Explain four physical factors which influenced the location of Mwea irrigation scheme (8mks)
c) (i) Name three crops grown in polders in Netherlands (3mks)
(ii) Describe the stages of reclamation of land from sea in the Netherlands (6mks)
d) State four benefits of land reclamation in the Netherlands (4mks)

9. a)Differentiate between a national park and a game reserve (2mks)

b) (i) State four reasons for establishing national parks in Kenya (4mks)
(ii) Identify two examples of game sanctuaries in Kenya (2mks)
c) (i) Define domestic tourism (2mks)
(ii) State four factors that hinder domestic tourism in Kenya (4mks)
(iii) State three problems associated with tourism in Kenya (3mks)
d) Explain four factors that make Switzerland receive more tourists than Kenya . (8mks)

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10. a)Define the following terms
(i) Urban sprawl (2mks)
(ii) Conurbation (2mks)
b) Use the sketch map below to answer Questions

(i) Name the settlement pattern marked P, Q and R (3mks)

(ii) Explain four factors that favour the development of the settlement pattern marked R
(8mks)
c) State factors which led to the growth of Eldoret town as an agricultural center. (4mks)
d) State the differences in functions between the cities of New York and Nairobi. (6mks)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
121/1

MATHEMATICS
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

Instructions to candidates.
a) Write your name, index number, admission number and name of your school in the spaces provided
above
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above
c) This paper consists of two sections: Section I and Section II.
d) Answer all the questions in Section I and only five questions from Section II
e) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answer at each stage in the spaces provided
below each question
f) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used,
except where stated otherwise.

For Examiner’s use only.

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

Section II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total
Grand
Total

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 SECTION 1 (50 MARKS)
Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
1. A sum of money is divided between three men x, y and z in the ratio 5:3:1. If y has Shs. 700/=
more than z, calculate how much x has. (3 marks)

12𝑥 2 + ax−6ax2
2. Simplify the expression (3 marks)
9𝑥 2 − 4𝑎2

3. Find the integral values of x of which (3 marks)

5 ≤ 3x + 2
3x – 14 ≤ -2

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4. The figure below shows triangle PQR in which PQ = 7cm, angle QPR = 100o and angle PRQ =
35o. Calculate to 2 decimal places the length of PR hence the area of triangle PQR.

100o

35o
Q R

5. Evaluate without using a calculator (3 marks)

23.4−2(5.2+5.3)
3.2 𝑥 1.2

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6. The figure below represents a kite ABCD. Use a pair of compasses and ruler only to rotate it
through -60o about point P. (2 marks)

D
B

1 1
7. Find the inverse of the matrix hence determine the point of intersection of the lines.
3 1

y +x=7
3x + y = 15 (4 marks)

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8. A trader had a bag of rice, when he packed the rice in 6kg packets, he had 1 kg left over, when
he packed the rice in 8kg packets, again he had 1kg left over. When he packed the rice in 9kg
packets, he had 1kg left over. What is the smallest amount of rice that he must have had.
(3 marks)

9. A Histogram is drawn from the se of data given below. Complete the missing bars.(3 marks)
Marks 6 - 10 11 - 20 21 - 35 36 - 55 56 - 65
Frequency 8 14 18 24 10

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10. Kinyua marked an article at Kshs. 1200 and sold it to a customer at a discount of 15%. Find the
percentage profit he made if he had bought the article at Kshs. 900/=. (3 marks)

22
11. The diagram below represents a solid of a conical frustrum. (Use 𝜋 = )
7

2.1cm

4 cm

4.9cm

Calculate the volume of the solid. (4 marks)

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 −2 −6 −4
12. Given that a = ,b= and c = and given that = =4a – 8b + 6c, find /P/(3 marks)
8 4 2

13. Evaluate using tables of reciprocals (3 marks)

5 1
+
807 0.0591

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14. Solve for x in the following equation (3 marks)
𝑥−2
1
= 2 𝑋+2
4

15. Each interior angle of a regular polygon is four times greater than the exterior angle. How many
sides does this polygon have? (3 marks)

16. A boat is at point P, a distance of 100km from the bottom of a hill. The angle of elevation of the
top of the hill is 30o from P. The boat sails straight towards the hill to a point Q from where the
angle of elevation to the top of the hill is now 60o. Calculate the distance PQ (3 marks)

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 SECTION II (50 MARKS)
Answer only five question from this section in the spaces provided.
17. Given that a line L1 passes through the points A(-1, 5) and B (3, -1), find
a) The equation of line L1 in the form y = mx + c (2 marks)

b) The equation of a line L2, which is a perpendicular bisector of L1 . Leave your answer in the
form ax + by = c where a, b, c are integers (3 marks)

c) Given that another line L3 is parallel to L2 and passes through point (-3, -5) and intersects lines
L1 at point P. Find the equation of L3 in the form ax + by +c = 0 (2 marks)

d) The coordinates of the point of intersection of lines L1 and L3 (3 marks)

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18. Four towns P, R, T and S are such that R is 70km directly to the north of P and T is on a bearing
of 280o from P at a distance of 75km. S is on a bearing of 320 o from T and a distance of 45km.
a) Using a scale of 1cm to represent 10km, make an accurate scale drawing to show the relative
position of the towns. (4 marks)

b) Using your diagram above, find the distance in km of (3 marks)

(i) R from T
(ii) S from R
c) From your diagram, what is the compasses bearing of (3 marks)
(i) R from T
(ii) P from S

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19. Nyaugenya bus leaves Port Victoria for Eldoret at 7:00 a.m. at an average speed of 80km/h.
Climax bus leaves Eldoret towards Port Victoria at 7:30 a.m on the same day using the same
route at an average speed of 60km/h. The distance from Eldoret to Port Victoria is 450km. After
travelling for one hour and a half, climax bus developed a mechanical problem which took 45
minutes to repair before continuing at its speed in the same direction.
a) Determine the time when the two buses met. (4 marks)

b) Calculate the distance from Eldoret at the time of the two buses meeting. (3 marks)

c) For how long did the Nyaugenya bus stay in Eldoret before Climax bus arrived at Port Victoria.
(3 marks)

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20. (a) On the grid provided draw triangle ABC with vertices A(0, -1), B(4, 3) and C(2, 2) (1 mark)

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b) Draw triangle A1B1C1, the image of ABC under a translation defined by the translation vector T
1
= Write down the coordinates A1B1C1.
−2
(3 marks)

c) A11B11C11 is the image of A1B1C1 under an enlargement, scale factor -2, centre (3, 1). On the
same grid draw A11B11C11 and write down its coordinates. (4 marks)

d) Draw A111B111C111, the image of A11B11C1,1 under reflection on the line x = 0 (2 marks)

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21. The motion of a particle P moving along a straight line is described by the equation S = (8 +10t)t
– t3
Calculate;
a) The distance when t = 3 sec. (2 marks)

b) The maximum velocity of the motion. (4 marks)

c) The acceleration of motion after 4 seconds. (2 marks)

d) The time at which the velocity is zero. (2 marks)

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22. a) Use the trapezium rule with 8 ordinates to approximate the area under the curve
y = x 2 + x + 3 and the x-axis between lines x = -3 and x = 4 (5 marks)

b) Use the mid-ordinate rule with 5 strips to calculate the area under the curve y = 3x2 + 8 and
bounded by lines y = 0, x = 1 and x = 6. (5 marks)

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23. Three people; A, B and C work together to make a certain number of tins. It person C was to
4
work alone he will take 4 hours to complete the job. If all working together they will take 1
9
hour 40 min. to complete the job. They all started working together however person B left after
the first 40 minutes, while person C left 20 minutes later. Person A took a further 1hr 46mins.
Calculate how long it would take if all the tins were made by;
a) Person A alone (6 marks)

b) Person B alone (2 marks)

c) Person A and C alone (2 marks)

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24. In Busia County, a tailor bought a number of suits at a cost of Shs. 57,600/= from a wholesaler.
Had he bought the same number of suits from a supermarket, it would have cost him Shs. 480/=
less per unit. This would have enabled him to buy four extra suits for the same amount of
money.
a) By letting the number of suits that the tailor bought to be n, write an expression in n for cost
of a suit from;
(i) The wholesaler (1 mark)

(ii) The supermarket (1 mark)

b) Find the number of suits that the trailer bought (4 marks)

c) The tailor later sold each suit for Shs. 720/= more than he paid for it. Determine the
percentage profit he made. (4 marks)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
121/2

MATHEMATICS
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

Instructions to candidates.
a) Write your name, index number, admission number and name of your school in the spaces
provided above
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above
c) This paper consists of two sections: Section I and Section II.
d) Answer all the questions in Section I and only five questions from Section II
e) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answer at each stage in the spaces provided
below each question
f) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used,
except where stated otherwise.

For Examiner’s use only.

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

Section II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total
Grand
Total

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 SECTION 1 (50 MARKS)
Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
1. Use logarithms to evaluate. (4marks)
(𝟎.𝟎𝟖𝟐𝟗𝟒)𝟐×𝟑𝟗.𝟐𝟒𝟑
√
𝟖𝟒𝟓𝟖

2. Make x the subject of the formula. (3 marks)

𝒙
y=√
𝒙+𝒉

𝟖
3. Given that = 𝒂 + 𝒃√𝟑 and that a and b are rational numbers, find the values of a and b.
𝟒−𝟐√𝟑

(3 marks)

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 𝟏 𝟓 𝟕 𝟑
4. Given that A = ( ) and B = ( ) and that C = AB, find C-1 (3 marks)
𝟑 𝟕 −𝟒 −𝟐

5. (a) Expand and simplify (𝟏 + 𝟐𝒙)𝟕 up to the term in x³ (2 marks)

b) Use the expansion in (a) above to estimate the value of (1.02)7 correct to four decimal places.
(2 marks)

6. Solve for x in: log (7x + 2) – log (x – 1) = 0 (3 marks)

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7. Find the quartile deviation for the following set of data (3 marks)
16, 42, 41, 6, 20, 28, 19, 23, 15

8. The radius and height of a cylindrical tank rounded to 1cm are 105cm and 300cm respectively.
Calculate the percentage error in its volume. (to 4 s.f) (3 marks)

9. Given that 25x − 20 x + k is a perfect square. Find the value of k.

2
(2 marks)

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10. Solve for X in the equation:
2 Sin2x – 1 = Cos2x + Sin x, for 00 ≤ x ≤ 3600 (3mks)

11. P and Q are two points on the earth’s surface. Their positions are P (600S, 300E) and
Q (600S, 900 W).Find the distance between P and Q along the parallel of latitude in km (Take
22
radius of earth = 6370 km and  = ) [to 1 decimal place.) (3 marks)
7

12. a) The sum of the fifth and sixth term of an AP is 30. If the third is 5, find the first term.
(2 marks)

b) The sum of the first 10 terms of the AP (2 marks)

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13. In the figure below, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral. Point O is the centre of the circle.
Angle ABO = 30° and angle ADO=40°

Calculate the size of angle BCD. (2 marks)

14. Obtain the Centre and radius of the circle represented by the equation.
𝒙𝟐 + 𝒚𝟐 − 𝟏𝟎𝒚 + 𝟏𝟔 = 𝟎 (3 marks)

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15. John bought 3 brands of tea A, B and C. The cost price of the three brands was sh.25,
sh.30 and sh.45 per kilogram respectively. He mixed the three brands in the ratio 5:2:1
respectively. After selling the mixture he made a profit of 20%. How much profit did he make
per kilogram of the mixture? (4mks)

16. Draw a line 𝐷𝐹 = 4. 6𝑐𝑚.Construct the locus of point K above DF such that angle
𝐷𝐾𝐹 = 700. (3 marks)

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 SECTION II (50 MARKS)
(Answer ONLY FIVE questions in the spaces provided)
17. In the figure below, E is the midpoint of BC. AD : DC = 3:2 and F is the meeting point
of BD and AE.

(a) Express the following vectors in terms of b and c

(i) ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵𝐷 (2 marks)

(ii) ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐴𝐸 (2 marks)

(b) If BF= tBD and AF=nAE, find the value of t and n (5 marks)

(c) State the ratio in which F divides BD and AE (1 mark)

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 𝟏 𝟏
18. The probability that a boy goes to school by bus is and by matatu is . If he uses a bus the
𝟑 𝟐
𝟏
probability that he is late to school is and if he uses a matatu the probability of being late is
𝟓
𝟑 𝟏
. If he uses other means of transport, the probability of being late is .
𝟏𝟎 𝟐𝟎
(a) Represent this information on a tree diagram. (2 marks)

(b) What is the probability that;

(i) He will be late to school (2 marks)

(ii) He will not be late to school (2 marks)

(iii) He will be late to school if he does not use a matatu. (2 marks)

(iv) He neither uses a bus nor matatu but arrives to school early. (2 marks)

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19. The diagram below represents a cuboid ABCDEFGH in which FG= 4.5 cm,
GH = 8cm and HC = 6 cm

Calculate:
(a) The length of FC (2 mks)

(b) (i) the size of the angle between the line FC and the plane FGHE (2 mks)

(ii) The size of the angle between the lines AB and FH (2 mks)

(iii) The size of the angle between the lines AC and GE (2mks)

(c) The size of the angle between the planes ABHE and the plane FGHE (2 mks)

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20. The table below shows the income tax rates
Income per annum Rate in Sh per K£
in K£
1-1980 2
1981-3960 3
3961-5940 5
5941-7920 7
7921-9920 9
Over 9920 10
Juma is a salaried employee with a basic salary of Ksh. 15,710 per month and house allowance of
sh1,350 monthly. He is also entitled to a monthly tax relief of Ksh1320.
Calculate:
(a) Juma’s annual salary in K£. (2 marks)

(b) The monthly tax paid by Juma in Ksh. (6 marks)

(c) Find his net pay per month in Ksh. (2 marks)

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 2 1 
21. A transformation represented by the matrix   maps the points A(0, 0), B(2, 0), C(2, 3
1 − 2 
and D(0, 3) onto A¹B¹C¹D¹ respectively.
a. Find the co-ordinates of A¹B¹C¹D¹. (2 mks)

b. Draw the quadrilateral ABCD and its image A¹B¹C¹D¹. (2mks)

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c. Hence or otherwise, determine the area of A¹B¹C¹D¹. (2mks)

0 −1 
d. Another transformation represented by the matrix   maps A¹B¹C¹D¹ onto
 − 1 0 
A¹¹B¹¹C¹¹D¹¹.Draw the image A¹¹B¹¹C¹¹D¹¹. (2mks)

e. Determine the single matrix, which maps A¹¹B¹¹C¹¹D¹¹ back to ABCD. (2mks)

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22. A particle starts from rest at a point A and moves along a straight line coming to rest at another
point B. During the motion, its velocity v(m/s) after time t (sec) is given by v=9t2 -2t3.
Calculate:
a) The time taken for the particle to reach B. (2 marks)

b) The distance traveled during the first two seconds. (3 marks)

c) The time taken for the particle to attain its maximum velocity. (3 marks)

d) The maximum velocity attained (2 marks)

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23. Complete the table below for y=sin 2x and y=sin ( 2x + 30) giving values to 2d.p
X0 0 15 30 45 60 75 90 105 120 135 150 165 180
Sin 2x 0 0.87 -0.87 0
Sin ( 2x + 0.5 0.5 -1 0.5
30)
(2 marks)
b) Draw the graphs of y=sin 2x and y = sin (2x + 30) on the axis. (5 marks)

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c) Use the graph to solve (1 mark)

d) State the period and amplitude of (2marks)

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24. A trader makes chairs and tables. The cost of each chair is shs.300 while each table costs
shs.700. He is prepared to spend not more than shs. 21,000. It is not viable for him to make less
than 20 items. chairs must be less than twice the tables but more than 15. By taking the number
of chairs as x and tables as y:
(a) Write down all the inequalities in x and y. (4marks)

(b) Draw the inequalities on the grid provided. (4marks)

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(c) He sells tables at a profit of shs.140 while chairs at a profit of shs.120;
Determine the maximum possible profit he makes. (2 marks)

“END”

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
451/1

COMPUTER STUDIES
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2½ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and Admission number in the spaces provided above
2. Answer all questions in section A
3. In section B, answer question 16(compulsory) and any other three questions
4. Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION CANDIDATE’S
SCORE
A 1-15
B 16

TOTAL SCORE

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 SECTION A (40 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section
1. Identify the computer generation that is associated with each of the following characteristics.
i) Use of computers that imitate human intelligence……………………………………… (1 mark)
ii) Used of punched cards for data input ………………………………………. (1 mark)
iii) Use of Large Scale integrated circuits ………………………………………. (1 mark)
iv) Use of cloud storage ………………………………………. (1 mark)

2. Distinguish between line spacing and character spacing as used in word processors. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............

3. Although super computers have greater processing capabilities than main frame computers, large
communications companies prefer main frame computers for management of their data and
operations. State two reasons for this preference. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............

4. After purchasing a laptop, Mary realized that it could not connect to the internet through a wireless
access point. State three possible causes for the failure in connection (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............

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5. Aisha found one of her favourite movies on a youtube channel. State three advantages of
downloading the movie to the computer hard disk and watching it from there instead of streaming
it live from the youtube channel. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............

6. State two circumstances that necessitate encryption of data in computer systems (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............

7. A student saved a document in a memory card. Later on the memory card crashed and therefore
the work got lost. State three precautions that the student should have taken to ensure that the
work was not lost. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............

8. Purity inserted a picture labelled S in a publication she designed as shown in the figure below.

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She applied different transformations to achieve the results labelled W, X and Y

Y
X
W
State the transformation applied in each case
W………………………………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)
X……………………………………………………………………………………....... (1 mark)
Y……………………………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)

9. Kennedy inserted a flash disk in a computer to print out a document stored in it but the error
message “USB not recognized” appeared on the screen of the computer. State two possible
causes of the error message. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
………………………………………………………………………………………………............

10. a) Ben noticed that a USB mouse in one of the desktop computers in the computer lab could
not move the pointer on the screen. State two ways he could solve that problem (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
………………………………………………………………………………………………............

b) Suzzie, a secretary at Achievers secondary school carries out her daily duties using computers
and suffers repetitive strain injury. State two ways she would use to reduce repetitive strain
injury. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
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11. Sarah, a system analyst in Excel Company has decided to use document review in order to
collect data necessary for developing a new information system for the company. State three
reasons that could have influenced her decision to use this method. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............

12. Explain two ways in which growth of the internet has contributed to an increase in
computer crimes. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............

13. When constructing a school’s database, Mark set the data type “number” for the field
“marks”. Name three field properties that he can set for this data type in order to limit values
entered in the field. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............

14. State two ways in which errors that occur during data processing are threat to data integrity.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............

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15. Wireless Fidelity (WiFi) has become one of the most popular modes of internet connection
in recent days. State two reasons for this trend. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
………………………………………………………………………………………………............

SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer question 16 (Compulsory) and any other three questions
16. a) State three characteristics of third generation languages that distinguish them from all other
high level programming languages. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............

b) Program documentation is categorized as either technical documentation or user –oriented

documentation. Classify each of the following documentation components as either technical or
user oriented.
i) Program flowchart (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Error handling procedures (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………............

iii) Source code (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) The figure below shows a flowchart. Use it to answer the questions that follow:

No

i) Name the control structure used in the flowchart (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………............
ii) Determine all the outputs of the flowchart if the input is the number is five (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………............

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iii) Write a pseudocode for the flowchart above (5 marks)

17. a) The table below shows items extracted from Computer Studies subject score calculations
spreadsheet. Use it to answer questions (i) to (ii)
A B C D
1 Paper Weight Score Weighted Score
2 Paper one 0.3 80 24
3 Paper two 0.4 70 28
4 Paper three 0.3 60 18
5
6 Average Weighted Score22.66

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Using cell references only, write a function that may have been used to compute the following:
i) the weighted score in D3 (2 marks)
ii) Average weighted score in cell D6. (2 marks)
b) Explain how social engineering is a threat to data security (2 marks)
c) State the function of each of the following parts of a spreadsheet window
i) Formula bar (1 mark)
ii) Name box (1 mark)
d) State two functions of a select query in a database (2 marks)
e) State two characteristics of command line operating systems that make them suitable for
configuring computer networks (2 marks)
f) When purchasing a word processing software, Atieno was advised to consider its user
friendliness. State three features that the software should have for her to conclude that it is user
friendly: (3 marks)

18. a) State two characteristics of open systems that make them better than closed systems(2 mrks)
b) State the function of each of the following during system construction:
i) Programming language (1 mark)
ii) Invalid data (1 mark)
c) Explain two reasons an organization may change an existing information system (4 marks)
d) A school decided to change from a manual examination processing system to an online
examination processing system using parallel change over strategy. State three challenges they
are likely to face when using this changeover strategy. (3 marks)
e) Peter was assigned the responsibility of designing the school magazine. State two reasons why he
would prefer to use DTP software and not a word processor. (2 marks)
f) The use of ICT has affected every aspect of human life either negatively or positively. State two
ways in which ICT has negatively affected the music industry. (2 marks)

19. a) A bank with many networked branches uses a data processing mode whereby each branch
does its processing independently and then forwards the results to a central computer at the
headquarters for final processing.
i) Identify this data processing mode (1 mark)
ii) State two advantages of this data processing mode (2 marks)

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b) State two reasons why accumulation of dust should be avoided in the computer lab.(2 marks)
c) For each of the following, identify the most appropriate internet service:
i) Real time exchange of text messages (1 mark)
ii) Personal website for sharing personal opinions on a particular subject (1 mark)
iii) Enable people in different geographical locations to hold live meetings (1 mark)
d) Tom a network designer was tasked to set up a local area network for Mwangaza Technical
institute. He was provided with 4 computers, coaxial cables, 1 printer and 2 terminators. With aid
of a well labelled diagram, design the most appropriate network topology that could have been set
up by Tom. (3 marks)
e) State two circumstances that may necessitate a network administrator to use a bridge in LAN
(2 marks
f) Explain a reason why single mode fibre optic cable is preferred for long distance transmission of
data signals (2 marks)

20. a) One of the characteristics of solid state drives (SSD) is the use of electronic circuits to store
data. Explain how binary logic is used to represent data in these devices. (2 marks)
b) Convert 17.0510 to its binary equivalent (3 marks)
c) Using twos complements and 8 bit notation, perform the following subtraction:
2910 – 1510 (4 marks)
d) Perform the following binary arithmetic
11101.011 – 100.110 + 10100.111
leave your answer in decimal notation (4 marks)
e) State two challenges associated with the use of voice input for securing computer systems
(2 marks)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
451/2

COMPUTER STUDIES
PAPER 2 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2½ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
(a)Indicate your name and Admission number at the top right-hand corner of each printout.
(b)Write your name and admission number on the CD/Removable storage medium provided.
(c) Write the name and version of the software used for each question attempted in the answer sheet
provided.
(d)Answer all the questions.
(e) All questions carry equal marks.
(f) Passwords should not be used while saving in the CD/Removable storage medium.
(g)All answers must be saved in your CD/Removable storage medium.
(h)Make a printout of the answers on the answer sheet.
(i) Arrange your printouts and tie/staple them together.
(j) Hand in all the printouts and the CD/Removable storage medium used.
(k)Candidates should answer the questions in English.

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1. Rembo Company Ltd deals with sales of three types of electronic goods namely television sets,
radio systems and smart watches. Below is a table showing details of June 2022 sales.
Rembo Company L t d. S a l e s
a s p e r 3 0 t h June 2022
Category Type Item Description Unit Sold Total Tax Net
Code Price Amount
TV001 TV 32” Vitron TV 16000 8
TV002 TV 42” Hisense TV 60000 2
RD001 Radio Panda Radio 21000 12
SW001 Watch Oraimo Watch 7500 15
TV003 TV 21” LG TV 11000 22
SW002 Watch Asorock Watch 6200 18
TV004 TV 21” Sony TV 15800 14
SW003 Watch Apple watch 4500 20
RD002 Radio Sundar Radio 3200 30
RD003 Radio Revo Radio 4700 8
TV005 TV 14” Samsung TV 8200 4
SW004 Watch Xiaomi Watch 6500 16

TV 15%
Tax Rates Watch 12%
Radio 8%
Required:
(a)i) Type the following data in a spreadsheet and save it as Rembo Company (14marks)
ii) Copy the entire worksheet to sheet2 and rename it as Rembo New (2marks)
(b)Format Rembo new worksheet as follows:
(i) Center the Title across columns. (2marks)
(ii) The text should be Cambria, 18 points, bold and centered within a cell. (2marks)
(iii) Column Headings to be wrapped within the cells and centered (2marks)
(c) The Unit Price to be in two decimals and currency symbol Ksh. (3marks)
(d)Use appropriate cell references to calculate:
(i) The total, rounded to two decimals places. (3marks)
(ii) The TAX is based on the type of the item. Use the rates given in the table above to calculate tax
payable on each item sold. (3marks)
(iii) The Net Amount, which is the total less tax. (3marks)
(e) Sort the worksheet in ascending order according to category. (2marks)
(f) Calculate the subtotals and grand total for the three types of electronic goods. (6marks)

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(g)On a separate sheet, create a bar graph that compares sales for the three types of electronic goods.
Label it appropriately. (6marks)
(h)Print the Rembo new and the bar graph (2marks)

2. i) Open a desktop publishing program and set the page layout in inches as follows.(5marks)
a) Paper size : 2.6” width by 3.2” height
b) Portrait: orientation
c) Margins: 0.25” all round
d) Layout type : multiple pages per sheet
e) Target paper size; A4

Thanks
All!!
Together with
Their families
Marcos
&
Andrea
Invite you to celebrate

June 14 2023

Mystic Flower Garden

8937 Hall Street, Las Vegas,
Nevada NV 84949

ii) Designs the card as it appears ensuring that the card covers all the space in the page. (42marks)
iii) Save the publication as anniversary card (1mark)
iv) Print out 8 copies of the card on a single A4 page (2marks)

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
441/1

HOME SCIENCE
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2½ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

Instructions to Candidates
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examinations in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
d) Answer all the questions in section A and B and any other two questions from section C.
e) Answers must be written in the spaces provided.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM CANDIDATES
SCORE SCORE
A 1- 21 40
B 22 20
20
C 20
100

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 SECTION A 40MKS
Instructions: Answer ALL questions in this section in the spaces provided
1. Define the term control of fullness (1mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Identify two ways of meeting the social needs of the sick at home (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Highlight one reason for washing woolen garments when immersed in water (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. State two ways in which a neglected kitchen bin could lead to infections 2mks
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Differentiate between needs and wants (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6.State two conditions that can make breastfeeding difficult (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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7. Identify two types of knives used in the kitchen and their functions (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. State one characteristic of persuasive advertising (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Give two reasons for food fortification (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Maroke Girls High school is doing a laundry practical. The following is noticed by one of the
students after drying the clothes: stains on the clothes, discoloration on some parts of the
garments and a bad smell.
i) State the possible reason for the above observation (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Suggest two suitable solutions for the above observation (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. State two qualities of a good stitch (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. Mention four ways of neatening an open seam (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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13. State two factors to consider in the choice of a tracing wheel (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. List four body measurements required when making a pair of trousers. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. Highlight two ways of preventing poisoning at home. (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. Differentiate between corns and bunions (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. Name 2 nutritional disorders associated with lack of calcium in the body (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18.Give two ways of preventing tooth decay (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. State two advantages of budgeting (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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20. Identify four clothes improvised facilities (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

21. State two factors to consider when choosing a zip (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (20MKS) COMPULSORY

Answer the following questions in the spaces provided.
20) You are taking care of your aunt who is suffering from scabies.
a) Giving reasons explain how you will launder her pair of white cotton bed sheets (8mks)
b) Outline the procedure you will follow to clean your own pair of plastic shoes (7mks)
c) Explain how you will clean her porcelain plate (5mks)

SECTION C 40MKS
Choose TWO questions from this section and answer in the spaces provide below
23. a) Explain three precautions to observe when managing a burn at home (6mks)
b) Discuss three ways of ventilating a house using windows (6mks)
c) Explain four principles of food preservation. (8mks)

24. a) Explain four reasons for appropriate lighting in a house (8mks)

b) Describe three ways of improvising cleaning materials at home (6mks)
c) Explain three points you would consider when planning a meal for an invalid (6mks

25 a)George a Form four candidate has been failing his examination due to poor laying out of
patterns and cutting. Explain three points that he should observe (6mks)
b) Explain three advantages of stewing as a method of cooking (6mks)
c) Discuss four activities that take place at the antenatal clinic (8mks)
END

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
441/2

HOME SCIENCE
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

(CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION)

(PRACTICAL)CONFIDENTIAL
2½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
The school should provide the following items:
✓ Poplin light coloured fabric 56cm long and 90cm wide
✓ Matching sewing thread
✓ Pressing tools
✓ Sewing machines
✓ 2014 pattern
✓ Large envelopes
✓ Buttons 1cm wide

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 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
441/2

HOME SCIENCE
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

441\2
HOMESCIENCE
PAPER 2
CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION
TIME: 2 ½ HRS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. The paper consists of three pages
2. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.

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GIRL’S SKIRT
A pattern of a girl’s skirt is provided. You are advised to study the sketches, instructions and layout
carefully before you begin the test.

MATERIALS PROVIDED
1. Pattern pieces
A. Skirt back
B. Yoke (front)
C. Lower skirt (front)
D. Front waistband
E. Back waistband
F. Frill
2. Plain lightweight cotton fabric 56cm long and 90cm wide.
3. Sewing thread to match the fabric.
4. One large envelop
5. Button 1cm wide

THE TEST
Using the materials provided, cut out and make the LEFT HALF of the SKIRT to show the
following processes:
(a) Cutting out. (16marks)
(b) Making the dart at the back skirt. (6 ½ marks)
(c) Joining of the yoke front to the lower skirt front using an overlaid seam.
Neaten half the seam using loop stitches. (12marks)
(d) Attaching of the frill to the lower skirt front using a plain seam. Do not neaten (8mks)
(e) Making of the skirt side seam from the yoke to the hemline using an open
Seam. (7marks)
(f) Attaching of the front and back waistbands and holding the back in place using even tacking
stitches (20marks)
(g) Making of the worked buttonhole. (9marks)
(h) Working on a button. (5marks)
(i) OMIT
The management of the skirt hem.
(j) Overall presentation. (6 ½ marks)
At the end of the examination, firmly sew onto your work, on a single fabric, a label bearing your
name and admission number. Remove the needle, pins and loose threads from your work. Fold
your work neatly and place it in the envelope provided.
Do not put scraps of fabric in the envelope. Do not seal the envelope.

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For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KENYA HIGH 2025 PREDICTION
KCSE TEST EXAM
441/3

HOME SCIENCE
PAPER 3
TIME: 3¼ HOURS

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education)

[FOOD AND NUTRITION] Practical

Time: 3 1/4 Hours

Planning session: 30 minutes
Practical session 1 ¼ hours

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Read the test carefully.
• Textbooks and recipes may be used during planning session as reference materials
• You will be expected to keep to your order of work during the practical session.
• You are not allowed to bring additional notes to the practical session.

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THE TEST
Your cousin is convalescing at your home after an abdominal operation. Using the ingredients listed
below, prepare, cook and serve a one-course meal for the two of you. Include a nutritious
drink

Ingredients
- Maize flour/Rice
- Liver/minced beef
- Tomatoes
- Onions
- Dhania
- Kales/cabbages
- Tea leaves/cocoa
- Sugar
- carrots
- milk
- Fat/oil
- Salt
- Spice of your choice

Planning Session.
Use separate sheets of paper for each task listed below and a carbon paper to make duplicate copies
and proceed as follows: -
(i). Identify the dishes and write down their recipes
(ii). Write down your order of work.
(iii). Make a list of the food stuff, equipment and materials you would require.

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 CALL/TEXT/WHATSAPP

0746-222-000

0742-999-000

[email protected]

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Consultancy Ltd.

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