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ALL INDIA SCORE BOOSTER TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23

RBTS-02
TEST-ID : 803
DURATION : 200 Minutes DATE : 10-01-2023 MARKS : 720

Topic Covered
Physics : Unit Measurement & Semiconductor

Chemistry : Metallurgy, Biomolecules, Environmental Chemistry and Redox Reaction

Biology : Plant Kingdom, Animal Kingdom, Morphology in Flowering Plant and Reproductive Health

(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:

• The important points to note:

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Candidate ID : _________________________________________________________________________________
Candidate Signature : _____________________________ Invigilator's Signature : _______________________
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INSTRUCTION

• The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

• Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and no question is missing.

• Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.

• If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

• No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.

• The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.

• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

• The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall.
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.

u te
tit
• The candidates will write the Correct Test ID Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
s
t In
igh
L
w
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TOPIC : Unit Measurement & Semiconductor

SECTION-A SECTION-A

1. In N-type semiconductor : 1. N-
(1) Electrons are majority carriers while holes are
(1)
minority carriers

(2) Electrons are minority carriers while holes are (2)

majority carriers
(3)
(3) Both electrons as well as holes are majority carriers

(4) Both electrons as well as holes are minority carriers (4)

2. A hole in a p-type semiconductor is : 2. p-

(1) An excess electron (1)

(2) A missing electron (2)

(3) A missing atom (3)

(4) A donor level. (4)

3. If ne and nh represent the number of free electrons 3.

te nh
ne
and holes respectively in a semiconducing
titu n-
material, then for n-type semiconducing material: s
t In (1) ne << nh
gh (2) n >> n
(1) ne << nh

Li
(2) ne >> nh e h

ew
(3) ne = nh N (3) ne = nh

(4) ne = nh = 0. (4) ne = nh = 0.

4. Si and Cu are cooled to a temperature of 200 K , 4. Si Cu 200 K

then resistivity :

(1) For Si increases and for Cu decreases (1) Si Cu

(2) For Cu increases and for Si decrease (2) Cu Cu

(3) Decreases for both Si and Cu (3) Si Cu

(4) Si Cu
(4) Increases for both Si and Cu.
5. Which is correct relationship : 5.

(1) [Link] = ni2

(1) [Link] = ni2
ne
(2) n  ni
2
ne
(2) n  ni
2
h
h

(3) nenh = ni2

(3) nenh = ni2

(4) ne. nh2 = ni2 (4) ne. nh2 = ni2

NLI / 3
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6. What is difference between a P-type germanium 6. P–
crystal and ordinary germanium crystal :
(1) P –
(1) The P-type crystall is positively charged due to a
deficiency of electrons
(2) P –
(2) The P-type crystal is negatively charged due to a
surplus of electrons
(3) P –
(3) The P-type crystal contains impurity atoms of
higher valence electrons than germanium
(4) P –
(4) The P-type crystal contains impurity atoms of lower
valence electrons than germanium.

7. In the energy band diagram of a material shown 7.

below, the open circles and filled circles denote
holes electrons respectively. The material is a/an:

Ec
Ec

Eg u te Eg

stit
t In Ev
Ev
igh
L
ew (1) p-
(1) p-type semiconductor
N
(2) insulator (2)

(3) metal (3)

(4) n-type semiconductor (4) n-

8. The forbidden energy band gaps in conductors, 8.

semiconductors and insulators are EG1, EG2 and EG1, EG2 EG3
EG3 respectively. The relation among them is :
(1) EG1 = EG2 = EG3
(1) EG1 = EG2 = EG3
(2) EG1 < EG2 < EG3
(2) EG1 < EG2 < EG3

(3) EG1 > EG2 > EG3 (3) EG1 > EG2 > EG3

(4) EG1 < EG2 > EG3. (4) EG1 < EG2 > EG3.

9. A semiconductor is known to have an electron 9.

concentration of 8 × 10 13 per cm 3 and hole 8 × 1013 3 2 × 1014 3
concentration of 2 × 10 14 per cm 3 . The
semiconductor is :
(1) n- (2) p-
(1) n-type (2) p-type

(3) Intrinsic (4) None of these (3) (4)

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10. In an intrinsic semiconductor : 10.

(1) Number of holes in the conduction band equals (1)

the number of electron in valence band

(2) Number of holes in the conduction band equals (2)

the number of holes in valence band

(3) Number of electrons in the conduction band equals (3)

the number of holes in the valence band

(4) None of the above. (4)

11. An n-type semiconductor is formed by adding 11. n-
impurity materials :

(1) Aluminium, boron or selenium (1)

(2) Aluminium, boron or indium (2)

(3) Phosphorus, antimony or arsenic (3)

(4) Cobalt, aluminium or selenium. (4)

12. When a semiconductor is heated, its resistance : 12.

(1) Decreases (1)

(2) Increases u te (2)

(3) Remains the same s tit

(3)
t In
(4) None of these
g h (4)
13. Li 13.
In an N-type semiconductor, donor valence band N–
w
Ne
is:
(1)
(1) Above the conduction band of the host crystal
(2)
(2) Below the valence band of the host crystal
(3) Close to the valence band of the host crystal (3)

(4) Close to the conduction band of the host crystal (4)

14. Average ratio of doping pure to impure in 14.

semiconductor is :

(1) 106 : 1 (1) 106 : 1

(2) 103 : 1 (2) 103 : 1

(3) 102 : 1 (3) 102 : 1

(4) 105 : 1 (4) 105 : 1

15. Pure Si at 300 K has equal electron (ne) and hole 15. Si 300 K
(nh) concentrations of 1.5×1016 m–3 . Doping by 1.5×1016 m–3 .
indium increases hole to 4.5 ×1022 m–3 . Calculate 4.5 ×1022 m–3 ne
ne in the doped Si :

(1) 7.0×106 m –3 (2) 0.5×102 m –3 (1) 7.0×106 m –3 (2) 0.5×102 m –3

(3) 5.0×109 m –3 (4) 1.00×105 m–3 (3) 5.0×109 m –3 (4) 1.00×105 m–3
NLI / 5
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B B
16. If V = At + is dimensionaly correct then 16. V = At + A/B
t +C t +C
dimension of A/B :

(1) [LT–1] (1) [LT–1]

(2) [T–2] (2) [T–2]

(3) [LT–2] (3) [LT–2]

(4) [T–1] (4) [T–1] `

17. Displacement travel by a prartical in nth second is 17. nth

given by Sn = u + 1/2 a(2n–1) is : Sn = u + 1/2 a(2n–1)

(1) Dimensionaly correct (1)

(2)
(2) Dimensionaly incorrect
(3)
(3) Equation incorrect
(4)
(4) None of these
b  x2
18. Power P is related to distance x and time t as 18. P x t P=
at
b  x2
P=
at
. Find the dimensional formula for b
u te b a :
and a:
s tit
(1) [L], [M1L0T2]
(1) [L], [M1L0T2]
t In
gh (2) [L ],[M L T ]
2 –1 0 2
(2) [L2],[M–1L0T2]
Li
(3) [L2], [M1L1T–2] ew 2 1 1 –2
(3) [L ], [M L T ]
N
(4) [L2],[M–1L1T2] (4) [L2],[M–1L1T2]

19. The dimensions of permittivity 0 are : 19. 0

(1) A2T2M–1L3 (1) A2T2M–1L3

(2) A2T4M–1L–3 (2) A2T4M–1L–3

(3) A–2T–4ML3 (3) A–2T–4ML3

(4) A2T–4M–1L–3. (4) A2T–4M–1L–3.

20. If E, M, J and G are respectively energy, mass 20. E, M, J G

angular momentum and gravitational constant,
M6G2/EJ2
then the dimensions of M 6G2/ EJ2 are equivalent
in the dimesions of : (1)
(1) length
(2)
(2) mass
(3)
(3) angle

(4) time (4)

NLI / 6
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21. If the length of rod A is 3.25 ± 0.01 cm and that of 21. A 3.25 ± 0.01 cm B
B is 4.19 ± 0.01 cm, then the rod B is longer than 4.19 ± 0.01 cm B A
rod A by :
(1) 0.94 ± 0.02 cm
(1) 0.94 ± 0.02 cm
(2) 0.94 ± 0.01 cm
(2) 0.94 ± 0.01 cm

(3) 0.94 ± 0.00 cm (3) 0.94 ± 0.00 cm

(4) 0.94 ± 0.05 cm (4) 0.94 ± 0.05 cm

22. Dimension of Plank's constant is same as that of : 22.

(1) Momentum (1)

(2) Torque (2)

(3) Angular momentum (3)

(4) Moment of inertia (4)

23. If force between two particles at distance r is given 23. r

u te F = F0e–r
by F = F0e–r. Then dimension of  is :
s tit 

(1) [L–1]
t In (1) [L–1]
(2) [L0] igh (2) [L0]
L
ew
(3) [L]
N (3) [L]

(4) [MLT–1] (4) [MLT–1]

24. Match List–I with List–II 24. –I –II

List–I List–II –I –II

(a) h (Planck's constant) (i) [MLT–1] (a) h ( ) (i) [MLT–1]

(b) E (Kinetic energy) (ii) [ML2T–1]

(b) E ( ) (ii) [ML2T–1]
(c) V (Electric potential) (iii) [ML2T–2]
(c) V ( ) (iii) [ML2T–2]
(d) P(Linear momentum) (iv) [ML2I–1T–3]
(d) P( ) (iv) [ML2I–1T–3]
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
(1) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i

(2) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i (2) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i

(3) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii (3) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii

(4) a–iii, b–ii, C–iv, D–i (4) a–iii, b–ii, C–iv, D–i

NLI / 7
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25. Choose the incorrect statement out of the 25.
following:
(1)
(1) Every measurement by any measuring instrument
has some error (2)

(2) Every calculated physical quantity that is based

on measured values has some error
(3)
(3) A measurement can have more accuracy but less
precision and vice versa

(4) The precentage error is different from relative error (4)

26. Assertion: When we change the unit of 26. :

measurement of a quantity, its numerical value
changes

Reason: Smaller the unit of measurement smaller :

is its numerical value

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason (1)
is the correct explanation of the assertion

(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is u te

tit
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion s
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false t In
g h (3)
(4) It the assertion and reason both are false Li (4)
ew
27. If force (F) work (W) and velocity (v) are taken as
N 27. (F), (W) (v)
fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula
(T)
of time (T) is :
(1) [W 1F–1v–1]
(1) [W 1F–1v–1]

(2) [W –1F2v–1] (2) [W –1F2v–1]

(3) [W 1F1v–2] (3) [W 1F1v–2]

(4) [W 1F1v1] (4) [W 1F1v1]

28. Which of the following is incorrect? 28.

(1) All derived quantities may be represented (1)

dimensionally terms of the base quantities

(2) A base quantity cannot be represented (2)

dimensionally in terms of other base quantities

(3) The dimension of a derived quantity is never zero (3)

in any base quantity

(4) The dimension of a base quantity in other base (4)

quantities is always zero.

NLI / 8
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29. Assertion: The error in the measurement of radius 29. : 0.3%

of the sphere is 0.3%. The permissible error in its 0.6%
surface area is 0.6%.
A 2r
: =
Reason: The permissible error is calculated by the A r
A 2r
formula = .
A r
(1)
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2)
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion

(3) If assertion is true but reason is false (3)

(4) It the assertion and reason both are false (4)

30. The equation of the stationary wave is 30.

 2ct 
y  2A sin  
 2x 
cos   u te  2ct 
y  2A sin 
 2x 
 cos   
tit
          
s
t In
gh
Which of the following statements is wrong :

Li
(1) The unit of ct is same as that of  (1) ct 
w
(2) The unit of x is same as that of 
Ne (2) x 

(3) The unit of 2 c / is same as that of 2 x/t (3) 2 c / 2 x/t

(4) The unit of c /  is same as that of x /  (4) c /  x / 

31. A physical quantity X is represented by 31. X X = (Mx L–y T–z)

X = (Mx L–y T–z). The maximum percentage errors M, L T

a%, b% c% X
in the measurement of M, L and T, respectively,

are a%, b% and c%. The maximum percentage

error in the measurement of X will be : (1) (ax + by – cz)%

(1) (ax + by – cz)% (2) (ax – by – cz)%

(2) (ax – by – cz)%

(3) (ax + by + cz)%
(3) (ax + by + cz)%

(4) (ax – by + cz)% (4) (ax – by + cz)%

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32. If R is resistance, L is inductance,C is capacitance, 32. R ,L ,C ,H
H is latent heat and s is specific heat, then match s I
the quantity given in column I with the dimensions
II
given in column II :

Column I Column II I II

(i) LC (a) L2T–2 (i) LC (a) L2T–2

(ii) LR (b) L2T–2K–1 (ii) LR (b) L2T–2K–1

(iii) H (c) T–2 (iii) H (c) T–2

(iv) s (d) M2T4T–5A–4 (iv) s (d) M2T4T–5A–4

(1) i  c, ii  d, iii  a, iv  b (1) i  c, ii  d, iii  a, iv  b

(2) i  a, ii  c, iii  b, iv  d (2) i  a, ii  c, iii  b, iv  d

(3) i  c, ii  d, iii  b, iv  a (3) i  c, ii  d, iii  b, iv  a

(4) i  d, ii  a, iii  b, iv  c (4) i  d, ii  a, iii  b, iv  c

33. Using significant figures, match the following 33.

Column I Column II
I II
(i) 0.12345 (a) 5
u te
(i) t0.12345 (a) 5
(ii) 0.12100 cm (b) 4 s ti
t In (ii) 0.12100 cm (b) 4

gh (iii) 47.23  2.3

(iii) 47.23  2.3 (c) 1
Li (c) 1
(iv) 3 × 108 (d) 2 w (iv) 3 × 108 (d) 2
N e
(1) i  a, ii  a, iii  d, iv  c (1) i  a, ii  a, iii  d, iv  c

(2) i  d, ii  c, iii  a, iv  b (2) i  d, ii  c, iii  a, iv  b

(3) i  c, ii  a, iii  d, iv  b (3) i  c, ii  a, iii  d, iv  b

(4) i  c, ii  b, iii  a, iv  a (4) i  c, ii  b, iii  a, iv  a

34. Parsec is a unit of : 34.

(1) Distance (1)

(2) Velocity (2)

(3) Time (3)

(4) Angle (4)

35. The dimension of quantity (L/RCV) is : 35. (L/RCV)

(1) [A] (1) [A]

(2) [A2] (2) [A2]

(3) [A–1] (3) [A–1]

(4) None of these (4)

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SECTION-B SECTION-B
36. The dimensions of Planck's constant and angular 36.
mementum are, respectively :
(1) ML2T–1 MLT–1
(1) ML2T–1 and MLT–1

(2) ML2T–1 and ML2T–1 (2) ML2T–1 ML2T–1

(3) MLT–1 and ML2T–1 (3) MLT–1 ML2T–1

(4) MLT–1 and ML2T–2 (4) MLT–1 ML2T–2

37. Which physical quantities have the same 37.

dimensions :
(1)
(1) Couple of force and work
(2)
(2) Force and power

(3) Latent heat and specific heat (3)

(4) Work and power (4)

38. Two quantities A and B have different dimensions. 38. A B

Which mathematical operation given below is
physically meaningful :
Ae
A (1)
u t
(1)
B ti t B
s
(2) A + B
t In A + B
(2)

(3) A – B
g h (3) A – B
(4) None of these Li (4)

ew 39. x, y z
39. A physical quantity x depends on quantities y and
N
z as follows ; x = Ay + B tan Cz, where A, B and C x = Ay + B tan Cz A, B C
are constant. Which of the following do not have
the same dimensions :
(1) x B
(1) x and B
(2) C z–1
(2) C and z–1
(3) y B/A
(3) y and B/A

(4) x and A (4) x A

40. The mean time period of second's pendulum is 2s 40. 2

and mean absolute error in the time period is 0.05s. 0.05
To express maximum estimate of error, the time
period shoud be written as :
(1) (2.00 ± 0.01) s
(1) (2.00 ± 0.01) s

(2) (2.00 ± 0.025) s (2) (2.00 ± 0.025) s

(3) (2.00 ± 0.05) s (3) (2.00 ± 0.05) s

(4) (2.00 ± 0.10) s (4) (2.00 ± 0.10) s

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41. The radius of a sphere is (5.3 ± 0.1) cm. The 41. (5.3 ± 0.1) cm
percentage error in its volume is :

0.1 0.1
(1)  100 (1)  100
5.3 5.3

0.1 0.1
(2) 3   100 (2) 3   100
5.3 5.3

0.1 100 0.1 100

(3) (3)
3.53 3.53

0.1 0.1
(4) 3   100 (4) 3   100
5.3 5.3

42. A physical parameter a can be determined by 42. (Physical parameter) a

measuring the parameters b, c, d and e using the a = babb/dged b, c, d e
relation a = babb/dged. If the maximum error in b, c, d e
the measurement of b, c, d and e are b1%, c1%,
b1%, c1%, d1% e1%
d1% and e1%, then the maximum error in the value
of a determined by the experiment is : tea
u
it(b
(1) (b1 + c1 + d1 + e1)%
t
s 1 + c1 + d1 + e1)%
(1)
n
ht I (2) (b + c – d – e )%
(2) (b1 + c1 – d1 – e1)% g 1 1 1 1
Li
(3) (b1 + c1 – d1 – e1)%
ew (3) (b1 + c1 – d1 – e1)%
N
(4) (b1 + c1 + d1 + e1)% (4) (b1 + c1 + d1 + e1)%

V V
43. The resistance R  where V = 100 ± 5 volts and 43. R V = 100 ± 5 i = 10
i i
i = 10 ± 0.2 amperes. What is the total error in R : ± 0.2 R
(1) 5% (1) 5%
(2) 7% (2) 7%

(3) 5.2% (3) 5.2%

5 5
(4) % (4) %
2 2

44. If L = 2.331 cm, B = 2.1 cm, then L + B = 44. L = 2.331 cm, B = 2.1 cm L+B=

(1) 4.431 cm (1) 4.431 cm

(2) 4.43 cm (2) 4.43 cm

(3) 4.4 cm (3) 4.4 cm

(4) 4 cm (4) 4 cm

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45. Dimensions of 1/ (0 0 ) where symbols have their 45. 1/ (0 0 )

usual meaning are :

(1) L2T–2 (1) L2T–2

(2) L–1T (2) L–1T

(3) L2T2 (3) L2T2

(4) L–1T (4) L–1T

46. If n is a number and u is the unit of a physical 46.

quantity then which of the following is correct for m, u n
the measurement of "n" :

(1) n  size of u (1) n  u

(2) n  u2 (2) n  u2

(3) n  u (3) n  u

1 1
(4) n  (4) n 
u u

 a   a 
47. In the equation  P  2  (v  b)  RT , dimensions 47.  P  2  (v  b)  RT a
 V   V 
of a are :
te
(1) ML4T–2
u
(1) ML4T–2
s tit
(2) ML–5T2
(2) ML–5T2
t In
(3) M–1L4T2 h (3) M–1L4T2
g
(4) ML5T–2 Li (4) ML5T–2
ew
48. The dimensional formula for Boltzmann constant
is : N 48.

(1) [M L2 T–2 –1]

(1) [M L2 T–2 –1]
(2) [M L2 T–2] (2) [M L2 T–2]

(3) [M L0 T–2 –1] (3) [M L0 T–2 –1]

(4) [M L–2 T–1 –1] (4) [M L–2 T–1 –1]

49. Match the following - 49.

(a) Angular momentum (i) M –1L3T–2 (a) (i) M–1L3T–2

(b) Torque (ii) M1T–2 (b) (ii) M1T–2

(c) Gravitational constant (iii) M1L2T–2 (c) (iii) M1L2T–2

(d) Tension (iv) M1L2T–1 (d) (iv) M1L2T–1

(1) (c)  (ii), (d)  (i) (2) (a)  (iv), (b)  (iii) (1) (c)  (ii), (d)  (i) (2) (a)  (iv), (b)  (iii)

(3) (a)  (iii), (c)  (ii) (4) (b)  (ii), (a)  (i) (3) (a)  (iii), (c)  (ii) (4) (b)  (ii), (a)  (i)

50. The dimensions of PV are equivalent to those of : 50. PV

(1) Work (2) Force (1) (2)
(3) Pressure (4) Volume (3) (4)
NLI / 13
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TOPIC : Metallurgy, Biomolecules, Environmental Chemistry and Redox Reaction

Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197, Pb=207

SECTION-A SECTION-A

51. Which method of purification is represented by 51.

the following equation :

[Impure  Ti]  2I2 (s) 

523 K
 TiI4 (g) 
1700 K
 Ti(s)  2I2 (g) [Impure  Ti]  2I2 (s) 
523 K
 TiI4 (g) 
1700 K
 Ti(s)  2I2 (g)
Sample
Sample

(1) Cupellation (1)

(2) Poling (2)
(3) Van Arkel (3)
(4) Zone refining (4)

52. Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a by 52. X

product. This is a colourless gas with choking X
nature and smell of burnt sulphur and causes great
damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid
X
rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic, acts as a
reducing agent. The gas X is :
u te
(1) SO3 s titSO
(1)
In (2) H S
3

t
gh (3) SO
(2) H2S 2

(3) SO2 Li
2

ew
(4) CO2
(4) CO2 N
53. Which one of the following reactions is an 53.
example for calcination process :
(1) 2Ag+2HCl +[O]  2AgCl + H2O (1) 2Ag+2HCl +[O]  2AgCl + H2O
(2) 2Zn + O2  2ZnO (2) 2Zn + O2  2ZnO
(3) 2ZnS + 3O2  2ZnO + 2SO2 (3) 2ZnS + 3O2  2ZnO + 2SO2
(4) MgCO3  MgO + CO2 (4) MgCO3  MgO + CO2
54. Which of the follwoing statement are correct : 54.
A. Generally reactions occuring during A.
calcination are example of non redox.
B. Depressants and activator are used to separate B.
two or more sulphide ores.
C. Ca is the fourth most abundant element in the
earth crust. C. Ca

D. During roasting oxidation occurs. D.

(1) A, B, C and D (1) A, B, C D

(2) B, C and D (2) B, C D
(3) B and D (3) B D
(4) A, B and D (4) A, B D
NLI / 14
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55. Purification of silicon element used in 55.
semiconductors is done by :
(1) Zone refining (1)
(2) Heating (2)
(3) Froth floatation (3)
(4) Heating in vaccum (4)

56. NaCN is sometimes added in the froth floatation 56. ZnS PbS
process as a depressant when ZnS and PbS NaCN
minerals are extracted because

(1) ZnS form soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4] while PbS (1) ZnS Na2[Zn(CN)4]
forms froth. PbS
(2) Pb(CN)2 ZnS
(2) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS.

(3) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4] while ZnS

(3) PbS Na2[Pb(CN)4]
forms froth.
ZnS
(4) NaCN is never added in froth floatation process. (4) NaCN
57. Which of the following is not a mineral of iron : 57.
u te
(1) Siderite (1)it
s t
(2) Magnetite
t In (2)
(3) Carnallite igh (3)
L
(4) Haematite ew (4)
N
58. Match List-I and List-II. 58. -I -II.

List-I List-II -I -II

A- Siderite i. Cu A- i. Cu
B- Calamine ii. Ca
B- ii. Ca
C- Malachite iii. Fe
C- iii. Fe
D- Cryolite iv. Al
D- iv. Al
v. Zn
v. Zn
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.

A B C D A B C D

(1) (iii) (i) (v) (ii) (1) (iii) (i) (v) (ii)

(2) (i) (ii) (v) (iii) (2) (i) (ii) (v) (iii)

(3) (iii) (v) (i) (iv) (3) (iii) (v) (i) (iv)

(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

NLI / 15
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59. With respect to an ore, Ellingham diagram helps 59.

to predict the feasibility of its: :

(1) electrolysis (1)

(2) zone refining (2)

(3) vapour phase refining (3)

(4) thermal reduction (4)

60. The alloy used in the construction of aircrafts is: 60. :

(1) Mg-Zn (1) Mg-Zn

(2) Mg-Mn (2) Mg-Mn

(3) Mg-Sn (3) Mg-Sn

(4) Mg-Al (4) Mg-Al

61. In the leaching of alumina from bauxite, the ore 61. NaOH
expected to leach out in the process by reacting :
with NaOH is:
(1) TiO2
(1) TiO2
(2) Fe2O3
u te
(2) Fe2O3

(3) ZnO
st(3)it ZnO
(4) SiO2 t In (4) SiO
gh62.
2

62. Cast iron is used for the manufacture of : Li

ew :
(1) wrought iron and pig iron N (1)
(2) pig iron, scrap iron and steel (2)

(3) wrought iron, pig iron and steel (3)

(4) wrought iron and steel (4)

63. The refining method used when the metal and 63.
the impurities have low and high melting :
temperatures, respectively, is :
(1)
(1) distillation
(2)
(2) zone refining
(3)
(3) liquation

(4) vapour phase refining (4)

64. The sweetest sugar is : 64.

(1) Sucrose (1)

(2) Lactose (2)
(3) Galactose (3)
(4) Fructose (4)
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65. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate : 65.

(1) C2(H2O)2 (1) C2(H2O)2

(2) C5(H2O)5 (2) C5(H2O)5

(3) C6(H2O)6 (3) C6(H2O)6

(4) C12(H2O)11 (4) C12(H2O)11

66. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives : 66.

(1) L-Glucose and L-Fructose (1) L- L-

(2) L-Glucose and L-Glucose (2) L- L-

(3) D-Glucose and D-Fructose (3) D- D-

(4) D-Glucose and L-Fructose (4) D- L-

Ag2O HNO3 Ag2O HNO3

67. (B)   Glucose  
( A ) 67. (B)   Glucose  
( A )

(A) and (B) respectively are ; (A) e

t(B)
u
(1) Saccharic acid and Gluconic acid s
(1)
tit
t In
(2) Gluconic acid and Saccharic acid
igh (2)
L
(3) Both Saccharic acid ew (3)
N
(4) Both Gluconic acid (4)

68. D-glucose reacts with phenyl-hydrazine to give (A) 68. D- (A)

and with excess of phenyl-hydrazine gives (B). (B)
Structure of (B) is :
(B)

CH=NNHC6H5 CH=NNHC6H5 CH=NNHC6H5

| CH=NNHC6H5
| | |
H–C–OH C=NNHC6H5 C=NNHC6H5
| H–C–OH
| | |
(1) (CHOH)3 (2) (CHOH)3 (1) (2) (CHOH)3
(CHOH)3
| | | |
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH

CHO CHO
| |
C=NNHC6H5 CHO CHO
| C=NNHC6H5 |
| |
(C=NNHC6H5)3 (C=NNHC6H5)3
(3) (CHOH)3 (4) | (3) (CHOH)3 (4)
| |
CH2OH | CH2OH
CH2OH CH2OH

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69. Which one of the following compounds contain 69. -C1––C4

-C1––C4 glycosidic linkage?

(1) Lactose (1)

(2) Sucrose (2)

(3)
(3) Maltose
(4)
(4) Amylose

70. Given below are two statements: 70.

One is labelled as

Assertion(A): (A):
Sucrose is a disaccharide and a non-reducing
sugar.
(R) :
Reason (R)

Sucrose involves glycosidic linkage between C1 of C1 - C2 -

-glucose and C2 of -fructose.

u te
tit
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below: s
In(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct ht
g
explanation of (A)
Li
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct e w (2) (A) (R)
N (3) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)

71. Match List-I and List-II. 71. -I -II

List-I List-II -I -II

A- Sucrose i. -D-galactose and -D- A- i. -D- -D-

glucose

B- Lactose ii. -D-glucose and -D- B- ii. -D- -D-

fructose

C- Maltose iii. -D-glucose and -D-

C- iii. -D- -D-
glucose

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below.

(1) A  (i), B  (iii), C  (ii) (1) A  (i), B  (iii), C  (ii)

(2) A  (iii), B  (i), C  (iii) (2) A  (iii), B  (i), C  (iii)

(3) A  (ii), B  (i), C  (iii) (3) A  (ii), B  (i), C  (iii)

(4) A  (iii), B  (ii), C  (i) (4) A  (iii), B  (ii), C  (i)

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72. Number of stereo-centers present in linear and 72.

cyclic structure of glucose are respectively:

(1) 4 and 5 (1) 4 5

(2) 4 and 4 (2) 4 4

(3) 5 and 4 (3) 5 4

(4) 5 and 5 (4) 5 5

73. Which of the following is not an example of fibrous 73.

protein?
(1)
(1) Keratin
(2)
(2) Albumin

(3) Collagen (3)

(4) Myosin (4)

74. The secondary structure of protein is stabilised by: 74.

(1) peptide bond (1)

(2) glycosidic bond (2)

u te
(3)t
it
(3) hydrogen bonding s
t In(4)
gh75. -I
(4) van der Waals' forces

75. Match List-I and List-II. Li -II

List-I List-II ew
N -I -II
A- Riboflavin i. Beriberi
A- i.
B- Thiamine ii. Scurvy
B- ii.
C- Pyridoxine iii. Chellosis
C- iii.
D- Ascorbic acid iv. Convulsions
D- iv.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.

(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii) (1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(2) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii) (2) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(3) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii) (3) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(4) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii) (4) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
76. The two strong acids present in the acid rain are : 76.
(1) HNO2 and HNO3 (1) HNO2 HNO3
(2) H2SO4 and HNO3 (2) H2SO4 HNO3
(3) H2SO3 and H2SO4 (3) H2SO3 H2SO4
(4) H2CO3 and HCI. (4) H2CO3 HCI.

NLI / 19
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77. Which of the following reactions is taking place 77.
resulting in discolouration of marble of the
buildings like Taj Mahal :
(1) CaCO3 + H2SO4  CaSO4 + H2O + CO2
(1) CaCO3 + H2SO4  CaSO4 + H2O + CO2
(2) CaCO3 + 2HCl  CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
(2) CaCO3 + 2HCl  CaCl2 + H2O + CO2

(3) CaCO3 + H2O  Ca(OH)2 + CO2 (3) CaCO3 + H2O  Ca(OH)2 + CO2

(4) CaCO3  CaO + CO2 (4) CaCO3  CaO + CO2

78. Smog is a common pollutant in places which have: 78.

(1) high altitudes (1)

(2) high temperature (2)

(3) high concentration of SO2 in air (3) SO2

(4) high concentration of NH3 in air. (4) NH3

79. Which of the following is not a common component 79.

of photochemical smog :

(1) Peroxyacetyl nitrate (1)

(2) Acrolein (2)
u te
(3) Formaldehyde (3)it
s t
(4) Carbon dioxide
t In (4)
80. Photochemical smog is formed in :
igh80.
L
(1) summer during day time
ew (1)

(2) summer during morning time N (2)

(3) winter during morning time (3)

(4) winter during day time. (4)
81. The secondary precursors of photochemical smog 81.
are :
(1) SO2 NO2
(1) SO2 and NO2

(2) NO2 and hydrocarbons (2) NO2

(3) O3 and PAN (3) O3 PAN

(4) CO2 and O2 (4) CO2 O2

82. The dissolution of ozone layer causes ozone hole 82.

in the blanket surrounding the atmosphere. What
are the ill effects of ozone hole :
(1)
(1) Greenhouse effect
(2)
(2) Global warming

(3) Acid rain (3)

(4) UV rays reaching the earth. (4) UV

NLI / 20
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83. Which of the following free radicals is responsible 83. CFCs
for causing break down of ozone into oxygen due
to use of CFCs :

(1) (1) O
O

(2) Cl (2) Cl

(3) CH 3 (3) CH 3

(4) OH (4) OH

84. Few pollutants and their effects are listed below. 84.
Mark the incorrect match.

(1) Phosphate fertilizers in water - Eutrophication (1)

(2) Hydrogen released in air - Global warming (2)

(3) Sewage disposed in water - Increase in BOD level (3) BOD

(4) Carbon dioxide in air - Acid rain (4)

85. Match the compounds given in column I with 85. I

oxidation states of carbon given in column II and
mark the appropriate choice II

u te Column I Column II
tit (A) C H O
Column I Column II
(A) C6H 12O 6 (i) +3 s (i) +3
In
6 12 6

(B) CHCl 3 (ii) –3 ht (B) CHCl 3

(ii) –3
g
(C) CH3CH 3 (iii) +2 Li (C) CH CH 3 3 (iii) +2

(D) (COOH) 2 (iv) 0 ew (D) (COOH) 2 (iv) 0

N
(1) ( A)  (iv ),( B)  (iii ),(C )  (ii ),( D )  (i ) (1) ( A)  (iv ),( B)  (iii ),(C )  (ii ),( D )  (i )

(2) ( A)  (i),( B)  (ii ), (C )  (iii ),( D )  (iv )

(2) ( A)  (i),( B)  (ii ), (C )  (iii ),( D )  (iv )
(3) ( A)  (ii ),( B)  (iii ), (C )  (iv),( D )  (i )
(3) ( A)  (ii ), ( B)  (iii ), (C )  (iv),( D )  (i )
(4) ( A)  (iv ),( B)  (iii ),(C )  (i ), ( D)  (ii)
(4) ( A)  (iv ),( B)  (iii ),(C )  (i ), ( D)  (ii)

SECTION-B SECTION-B

86. Eutrophication causes : 86.

(1) increase in nutrients (1)
(2) increase in dissolved salts (2)
(3) reduction in dissolved oxygen (3)
(4) reduction in water pollution. (4)
87. Mark the incorrect choice of ill effects caused by 87.
the pollutant :
(1)
(1) Lead - Kidney, Liver, Reproductive system
(2) Fluoride - Bones and teeth (2)

(3) Nitrate - Blue baby's syndrome (3)

(4) Sulphur dioxide - Nervous system diseases (4)

NLI / 21
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88. Match the upper limit concentrations of the 88. -I -
pollutants given in column I with column II and
II
mark the appropriate choice :

Column I Column II
(A) Lead (i) 500 ppm
(B) Sulphate (ii) 10 ppm
(C) Nitrate (iii) 50 ppb
(D) Fluoride (iv) 50 ppm

(1) (A)  (ii), (B)  (iii), (C)  (i), (D)  (iv)

(1) (A)  (ii), (B)  (iii), (C)  (i), (D)  (iv)
(2) (A)  (iii), (B)  (i), (C)  (iv), (D)  (ii)
(2) (A)  (iii), (B)  (i), (C)  (iv), (D)  (ii)

(3) (A)  (i), (B)  (iv), (C)  (iii), (D)  (ii) (3) (A)  (i), (B)  (iv), (C)  (iii), (D)  (ii)

(4) (A)  (iv), (B)  (ii), (C)  (iii), (D)  (i) (4) (A)  (iv), (B)  (ii), (C)  (iii), (D)  (i)

89. Various oxidation state of few elements are 89.

mentioned. Which of the options is not correctly
matched
(1) : +3 to +5
(1) Phosphorus: +3 to +5
(2) Nitrogen: –3 to +5
u te : –3 to +5
(2)

(3) Iodine : -1 to +7
s tit
(3) : -1 to +7

(4) Chromium : -3 to +6 t In (4) : -3 to +6

h
ig 90. fuEu esa ls dkSu& lk nh xbZ jsMkWDl
90. Which of the following is true about hte given
L vfHkfdz;k ds ckjs
redox reaction ?
w esa lgh gSA
N e SnCl  2 FeCl  SnCl  2 FeCl
SnCl2  2 FeCl3  SnCl4  2 FeCl2 2 3 4 2

(1) SnCl2 FeCl3

(1) SnCl2 is oxidised and FeCl3 acts as oxidising agent
(2) FeCl3
(2) FeCl3 is oxidised and acts as oxidising agent

(3) SnCl2
(3) SnCl2 is reduced and acts as oxidising agent

(4) FeCl3 SnCl2

(4) FeCl3 is oxidised and SnCl2 acts as a oxidising agent

91. The values of coefficients to balance the 91.

following reaction are

Cr (OH )3  ClO   OH   CrO42  Cl   H 2O Cr (OH )3  ClO   OH   CrO42  Cl   H 2O

Cr (OH )3 ClO  CrO42 Cl 
Cr (OH )3 ClO  CrO42 Cl 
(1) 2 3 3 2
(1) 2 3 3 2
(2) 2 4 3 2 (2) 2 4 3 2

(3) 2 4 4 2 (3) 2 4 4 2

(4) 2 3 2 3 (4) 2 3 2 3

NLI / 22
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92. Match the colum I with column II with the type of 92. –I –II
reaction and mark the appropriate choice

Column I Column II Column I Column II

  (i)
(A) 3Mg(s) + N2(g) (i) Displacement (A) 3Mg(s) + N2(g)
Mg 3N2(s) Mg3N2(s)

 
(B) NaH(s) + H2 O(l) (ii) Decomposition (B) NaH (s) + H2 O(l) (ii)
NaOH + H2(g) NaOH + H2(g)
 
2Cl (aq) + (iii)
– –
–
(C) 3ClO (aq) 2Cl (aq) + (iii) Combination
–
(C) 3ClO (aq)
–
–
ClO3 (aq) ClO3 (aq)
 
(D) 2KClO3(s) 2KCl(s) (iv) Disproportionation (D) 2KClO3(s) 2KCl(s) (iv)
+ 3O2(g) + 3O2(g)

(1) ( A)  (i),( B)  (iii ), (C )  (ii),( D )  (iv ) (1) ( A)  (i),( B)  (iii ),(C )  (ii),( D )  (iv )
(2) ( A)  (iv ),( B)  (iii ),(C )  (ii ),( D )  (i ) (2) ( A)  (iv ),( B)  (iii ),(C )  (ii ),( D )  (i )
(3) ( A)  (ii ), ( B)  (i ), (C )  (iii ),( D )  (iv) (3) ( A)  (ii ),( B)  (i ), (C )  (iii ),( D )  (iv)
(4) ( A)  (iii),( B )  (i), (C )  (iv), ( D)  (ii ) (4) ( A)  (iii),( B )  (i), (C )  (iv), ( D)  (ii )
93. Which of the following statement is correct : 93.
i. Addition of electronegative element is
u te i.
oxidation.
s tit
ii.
ii. Addition of electropositive element is oxidation
t In
iii. Addition of Hg to mercuric chloride andg h
iii. Hg
chloride to SnCl is a redox reaction together. L
2
i SnCl 2

(1) i and ii e w (1) i ii

N (2) i, ii iii
(2) i, ii and iii
(3) i, iii (3) i, iii

(4) only iii (4) iii

94. Which of the following is not a redox reaction : 94.

(1) CuSO4(aq) + Zn  Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq) (1) CuSO4(aq) + Zn  Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq)

 
(2) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g) (2) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)

(3) 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l)  2NaOH(aq) + H2(g) (3) 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l)  2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)

(4) Cl2(g) + 2Br–(aq)  2Cl–(aq) + Br2(l) (4) Cl2(g) + 2Br–(aq)  2Cl–(aq) + Br2(l)

95. Which reaction is decomposition reaction : 95.

 
(1) 2H2O(l)  2H2(g) + O2(g) (1) 2H2O(l)  2H2(g) + O2(g)

 
(2) CH4(g) + 2O2(g)  CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) (2) CH4(g) + 2O2(g)  CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)

 
(3) Cr2O3(s) + 2Al(s)  Al2O3(s)+2Cr(s) (3) Cr2O3(s) + 2Al(s)  Al2O3(s)+2Cr(s)

(4) Ca(s) + 2H2O(l)  Ca(OH)2(aq) + H2(g) (4) Ca(s) + 2H2O(l)  Ca(OH)2(aq) + H2(g)

NLI / 23
 AIM FREE EDUCATION TO ALL (APUL)
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96. When KMnO 4 acts as an oxidising agent and 96. KMnO4 MnO42,
ultimately forms MnO42–, MnO2, Mn2O3 and Mn2+, MnO2, Mn2O3 Mn2+
then the number of electrons transferred in each
case is:
(1) 4, 3, 1, 5
(1) 4, 3, 1, 5
(2) 1, 5, 3, 7
(2) 1, 5, 3, 7
(3) 1, 3, 4, 5
(3) 1, 3, 4, 5
(4) 3, 5, 7, 1
(4) 3, 5, 7, 1
97. For the redox reactions 97.

MnO4– + C2O42– + H+  Mn2+ + CO2+ H2O, MnO4– + C2O42– + H+  Mn2+ + CO2+ H2O,

the correct co-efficient of the reactants for the

balanced reactions are :
MnO4– C2O42– H+
MnO4– C2O42– H+
(1) 2 5 16
(1) 2 5 16
(2) 16 5 2
(2) 16 5 2
(3) 5 16 2 (3) 5 16 2

(4) 2 16 5 (4) 2 16 5

98. Equivalent weight of SnC2O4 (molecular weight = M) 98. SnC2O4 SnC2O4  Sn4+ + CO2
in the change SnC2O4  Sn4+ + CO2 is :
u te =M
(1) M/4 s tit
(2) M/6 t In (1) M/4
igh (2) M/6
(3) M/2 L (3) M/2
(4) M/1. ew (4) M/1.
N
99. Match column I wtih column II and mark the 99. -I -II
appropriate choice :

Column I Column II
(A) Biodegradable (i) DDT
pollutants
(B) Non-biodegradable (ii) SO2
pollutants
(C) Primary pollutants (iii) PAN
(D) Secondary pollutants (iv) Sewage
(1) (A)  (iii), (B)  (iv), (C)  (ii), (D)  (i)
(1) (A)  (iii), (B)  (iv), (C)  (ii), (D)  (i)
(2) (A)  (ii), (B)  (iii), (C)  (iv), (D)  (i)
(2) (A)  (ii), (B)  (iii), (C)  (iv), (D)  (i)
(3) (A)  (i), (B)  (ii), (C)  (iii), (D)  (iv) (3) (A)  (i), (B)  (ii), (C)  (iii), (D)  (iv)

(4) (A)  (iv), (B)  (i), (C)  (ii), (D)  (iii) (4) (A)  (iv), (B)  (i), (C)  (ii), (D)  (iii)

100. A, B, C are three element forming a compound in 100. A, B, C

oxidation state of +1, +6, and -2 respectively. the
+1, +6, –2
compound is :
(1) A2BC (2) AB2C4
(1) A2BC (2) AB2C4
(3) A2BC4 (4) ABC4
(3) A2BC4 (4) ABC4
NLI / 24
 AIM FREE EDUCATION TO ALL (APUL)
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TOPIC : Plant Kingdom, Animal Kingdom, Morphology in Flowering Plant and Reproductive Health

PART–1–[SECTION–A] PART–1–[SECTION–A]

101. Ectocarpus is which form of algae 101.

(1) Unicellular (1)

(2) Colonial (2)

(3) Filamentous (3)

(4) All of these (4)

102. Porphyra is 102.

(1) Green algae (1)
(2) Brown algae (2)
(3) Red algae (3)

(4) Golden algae (4)

103. Primary producers of all aquatic animal 103.

(1) Pteridophyte (1)

(2) Gymnosperm (2)

u
(3)te
tit
(3) Algae
(4) Angiosperm s
(4)
t In
104.
gh (1)
104. Hydrocolloids are obtained by
(1) Brown and green algae Li
(2) Green and red algae ew (2)
N (3)
(3) Brown and red algae
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (1) (2)

105. Chlorella is a 105.

(a) Multicellular algae (a)

(b) Unicellular algae (b)

(c) Protein rich algae (c)

(d) Used as food supplement (d)

(1) a and d (1) a d

(2) a and c (2) a c

(3) b and d (3) b d

(4) b, c and d (4) b, c d

106. In class rhodophyceae sexual reproduction is of 106.

which type
(1)
(1) Isogamous
(2)
(2) Anisogamous
(3)
(3) Advance Oogamous
(4) All of these (4)

NLI / 25
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107. Which of the following is a green algae 107.

(1) Volvox (1)

(2) Ulothrix (2)

(3) Chara (3)

(4) All of these (4)

108. Chara belongs to which class of algae 108.

(1) Clorophyceae (1)

(2) Phaeophyceae (2)
(3) Rhodophyceae (3)
(4) All of these (4)
109. Red algae reproduce asexually by 109.
(1) Zoospore (1)

(2) Aplanospore (2)

(3) Zygospore (3)

(4) Ascospore (4)

u te
110. Polytrichum is a 110. it
s t
(1) Liver wort
t In (1)

(2) Mosses
igh (2)
(3) Rred algae
L (3)
ew
(4) Green algae N (4)

111. In Bryophytes zygote produce 111.

(1) Spore (1)

(2) Gametophytes (2)

(3) Sporophyte (3)

(4) All of these (4)

112. The gametophyte stage of funaria consist of how 112.

many stages
(1)
(1) One
(2)
(2) Three
(3) Two (3)

(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) (1) (3)

113. Multicellular branched rhizoids are present in 113.

(1) Funaria (1)
(2) Sphagnum (2)
(3) Polytrichum (3)
(4) All of these (4)
NLI / 26
 AIM FREE EDUCATION TO ALL (APUL)
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114. Which one of the following is an exmple of 114.
chlorophyllous thallophyte
(1)
(1) Pisum
(2) Spirogyra (2)

(3) Adiantum (3)

(4) Gnetum (4)

115. The members of Rhodophycae are commonly 115.
called
(1)
(1) Green algae
(2) Brown algae (2)

(3) Red algae (3)

(4) Blue green algae (4)

116. In pteridophytes the photosynthetic thalloid is the 116.

(1) sporophyte (1)
(2) Prothallus (2)
(3) both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) Protonema
u te(4)
117. In cycas megaspore mother cell is differentiated 117. tit
from one of the cells of
Ins
(1) sporophyll ht (1)
g
(2) nucellus Li (2)
w
(3) egg cell
Ne (3)
(4) microspore (4)
118. Pollen grains are known as 118.
(1) Megaspore (1)

(2) Aplanospore (2)

(3) Microspore (3)

(4) Zygospore (4)

119. Diplontic life cycle is present in 119.

(1) Wolfia (1)

(2) Red wood (2)

(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)

(4) Spirogyra (4)

120. Which one of the following is not the Pteridophyte 120.

(1) Selaginella (1)

(2) Equisetum (2)

(3) Salvinia (3)

(4) Polytrichum (4)

NLI / 27
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121. Given below are two statements : 121.
Statement I : I:
Both the male and the female condoms are disposable,
can be self-inserted and thereby gives privacy to the
user.

Statement II : II :
Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are also barriers
made of rubber that are inserted into the female
reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus.

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

122. The tallest tree species of the gymnosperms is 122.

(1) Eucalyptus te
(1)
u
(2) Pinus
s tit
(2)

(3) Cedrus t In (3)

igh (4)
(4) Sequoia L
123. The sporophyte is the dominant phase in : ew 123.
N
(1) Pteridophytes (1)

(2) Gymnosperms (2)

(3) angiosperms (3)

(4) All of these (4)

124. Which of the following is incorrectly matched ? 124.

(1) Non-medicated IUDs – Lippes loop (1) IUDs –

(2) Copper releasing IUDs – Multiload 375 (2) IUDs – 375

(3) Hormone releasing IUDs – Progestasert (3) IUDs –

(4) Hormone releasing IUDs – CuT (4) IUDs – T

125. Natural classification system was given by which 125.
scientist
(1)
(1) George dalton hooker and Joseph Bentham
(2)
(2) George Bentham and Joseph Dalton Hooker

(3) Dalton Bentham and George Hooker (3)

(4) Joseph Hooker and Dalton Bentham (4)

NLI / 28
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126. Which is not the respiratory organ of arthropoda : 126.

(1) Gills (1)

(2) Tracheal system (2)

(3) Book lungs (3)
(4) Lungs (4)
127. Which is the correct matching set : 127.
Column – I Column – II I II
(a) Compound eye (i) Arthropoda (a) (i)
(b) Parapodia (ii) Mollusca (b) (ii)
(c) Gills (iii) Nereis (c) (iii)
(d) Mantle cavity (iv) Pisces (d) (iv)
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii (4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii

128. u te
t(1)it
128. Which of the following is incorrect.
s IUDs,
(1) Hormone releasing IUDs, in addition, make the
t In
uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix g h
hostile to the sperms.
Li
e w (2)
N
(2) Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are reusable.
(3)
(3) ‘Nirodh’ is a popular brand of condom for the male.

(4) Use of condoms has decrease in recent years (4)

129. In which phylum only sexual reproduction occurs 129.
:
(1)
(1) Porifera
(2) Coelenterata (2)

(3) Ctenophora (3)

(4) Platyhelminthes (4)

130. Which of the following is not considered as a comb 130.

Jellies :
(1)
(1) Pleurobrachia
(2)
(2) Ctenoplana
(3)
(3) Liver fluke

(4) All of these (4)

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 AIM FREE EDUCATION TO ALL (APUL)
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131. Separate opening for mouth and anus is found in: 131.

(1) Frog (1)

(2) Ascaris (2)

(3) Fasciola (3)

(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (1) (2)

132. Sycon place in : 132.

(1) Porifera (1)

(2) Coelenterata (2)

(3) Platyhelminthes (3)

(4) Aschelminthes (4)

133. Another name of Pila : 133.

(1) Sea pen (1)

(2) Sea pan (2)

(3) Apple snail (3)

(4) Brain coral

u te
(4)

134. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 134. st

it (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
t In (R)
(R)
igh
Assertion (A) L (A)

e w IUDs
IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms withinNthe uterus
(R)
Reason (R)

Cu ions releasing IUDs suppress sperm motility and Cu

increases fertilising capacity of sperms

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below :
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) (R)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct (4) (A) (R) (R), (A)
explanation of (A)

135. Mantle and visceral hump are present in : 135.

(1) Star fish (1)

(2) Octopus (2)

(3) Balanoglossus (3)

(4) Hydra (4)

NLI / 30
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PART–1–[SECTION–B] PART–1–[SECTION–B]

136. Water vascular system not help in : 136.

(1) locomotion (1)

(2) Transport of food (2)
(3) Respiration (3)
(4) Defense (4)
137. Myxine is place in : 137.
(1) Cyclostomata (1)
(2) Osteichthyes (2)
(3) Amphibia (3)

(4) Reptilia (4)

138. Gills without operculum are not found in : 138.

(1) Dog fish (1)

(2) Torpedo (2)

(3) Trygon (3)

(4) Exocoetus u te (4)

139. Which is the second largest phylum of animal 139. s

tit
kingdom: t In
igh (1)
(1) Arthropoda L
(2) Mollusca ew (2)
N (3)
(3) Chordata

(4) Porifera (4)

140. Given below are two statements : 140.

Statement I : I:

Solanaceae is very small family commonly called as

the ‘potato family’

Statement II : II :

Solanaceae is widely distributed family in tropics,

subtropic and even termperate zones.

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

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141. Which animal is called as limbless amphibian : 141.
(1) Salamander (1)

(2) Tree frog (2)

(3) Toad (3)

(4) Ichthyophis (4)

142. Which is a common chamber for alimentary canal, 142.

urinary and reproductive tracts in amphibia :
(1) Anus (1)

(2) Vulva (2)

(3) Cloaca (3)

(4) Male genital pore (4)

143. Which is not a mammal : 143.

(1) Camelus (1)

(2) Elephas (2)

(3) Balaenoptera (3)

(4) Calotes (4)

144. Radial symmetry is present in : 144. u te

(1) Platyhelminthes s tit
(1)
t In (2)
gh (3)
(2) Coelenterates and Ctenophores
(3) Adult echinoderms Li
ew (4) (2) (3)
(4) Both (2) and (3)
N
145. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 145. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
(R)

Assertion (A) (A)

Plants of solanaceae are mostly herbs. shrubs and

rarely small trees
(R)
Reason (R)

Stem are solid or hollow, hairy or glabrous (free from

hairs)

Choose the correct answer from the options given

(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) (2) (A) (R)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)

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146. Select the Triploblastic animal: 146.

(1) Amoeba (1)

(2) Nereis (2)

(3) Hydra (3)

(4) Euspongia (4)

147. Which of the following is a bath sponge 147.

(1) Sycon (1)

(2) Sea Anemon (2)

(3) Euspongia (3)

(4) Spongilla (4)

148. Ctenophores are commonly known as 148.

(a) Sea anemone (a)

(b) Sea walnuts (b)

u te
(c) Comb jellies
s tit
(c)

(d) Cnidaria t In (d)

igh (1)
(1) Only b L b

(2) b and d ew (2) b d

N
(3) b and c (3) b c

(4) a and b (4) a b

149. Fasciola is 149.

(1) Tape worm (1)

(2) Round worm (2)

(3) Sea anemone (3)

(4) Liver fluke (4)

150. In which of the following more than one carpel is 150.

present and that are free

(1) Dianthus (1)

(2) Tomato (2)

(3) Mustard (3)

(4) None (4)

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PART–2–[SECTION–A] PART–2–[SECTION–A]

151. Find out the correct statements 151.

a. The roots which store food in Turnip are adventitious a.
roots

b. Stems of maize & sugarcane have stilt roots coming b.

out from upper nodes
c.
c. In Monstera, roots arise from parts other than
radicle
d.
d. Colocasia has organ of perennation

(1) c, d (1) c, d

(2) a, c, d (2) a, c, d

(3) b, c, d (3) b, c, d

(4) a, b (4) a, b

152. Match the following columns 152.

Column I Column II I II
(Types of roots) (Examples)
u te
a. Tap root i. Wheat a. it i.
s t
b. Fibrous root ii. Mustard
t In b. ii.

c. Adventitious root iii. Monstera igh c. iii.

L
d. Prop root iv. Banyan
ew d. iv.

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

N (1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

153. Which among the following statement regarding 153.

‘Leaf’ is incorrect :
(a)
(a) These are lateral generally flattened structure borne
on stem (b)
(b) It orginates from shoot axillary parenchyma
(c)
(c) These are arranged basipetally
(d)
(d) The leaf is attached to stem by lamina
(1) a, b c
(1) a, b and c

(2) b, c, and d (2) b, c d

(3) a, c, and d (3) a, c d

(4) a, b and d (4) a, b d

NLI / 34
 AIM FREE EDUCATION TO ALL (APUL)
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154. When a flower which can be divided into two equal 154.
vertical halves only in one particular vertical
plane:
(1) Actinomorphic (1)

(2) Zygomorphic (2)

(3) Heteromorphic (3)

(4) Cyclic (4)

155. Match the following with column I & column II and 155.
choose the correct answer
I II
Column I Column II
(Aestivation) (Example)
a. i.
a. Valvate i. Calotropis
b. ii.
b. Twisted ii. China rose
c. iii.
c. Imbricate iii. Cassia
d. iv.
d. Vexillary iv. Pea
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

u te (3) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii

(3) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
tit
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv s
n a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(4)
t I
156. In which plant, initially the ovary is one - h156.
g
chambered but it becomes two chambered due Li
to the formation of the false septum :
ew
(1) Dianthus N (1)

(2) Tomato (2)

(3) Primrose (3)

(4) Argemone (4)

157. Given below are two statements : 157.

Statement I : I:

Chlorella and Spirullina are unicellular algae, rich in

proteins and are used as food supplements even by
space travellers.
Statement II : II :
Agar, one of the commercial products obtained from
red algae Gelidium and Gracilaria
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

NLI / 35
 AIM FREE EDUCATION TO ALL (APUL)
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158. Ovules in pea form how many rows in ovary 158.

(1) 1 (1) 1

(2) 2 (2) 2

(3) 3 (3) 3

(4) 4 (4) 4

159. A scar in seed through which seeds are attached 159.

to the fruit is known as
(1)
(1) Micropyle
(2)
(2) Radicle
(3)
(3) Plumule

(4) None (4)

160. Food is stored in turnip in : 160.

(1) Primary root (1)

(2) Adventitious root (2)

(3) Stilt root u

(3) te
(4) Cylindrical roots s tit
(4)
n
tI
161. What is correct regarding plant with flower having h161.
g
this floral diagram
Li
ew
N

(1)
(1) Fruit rarely berry
(2)
(2) Seed non endospermous
(3)
(3) Bisexual zygomorphic flowers
(4)
(4) Rarely actinomorphic flowers
162.
162. Tepal is found in

(1) Belladona (1)

(2) Ashwagandha (2)

(3) Asparagus (3)

(4) Lupin (4)

163. Ovary is half inferior in the flowers of : 163.

(1) Cucumber (2) Guava (1) (2)

(3) Plum (4) Brinjal (3) (4)

NLI / 36
 AIM FREE EDUCATION TO ALL (APUL)
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164. Keel is characteristic of the flowers of: 164.
(1) Bean (1)

(2) Glumohur (2)

(3) Cassia (3)

(4) Calotropis (4)

165. Match the following 165.

Column I Column II I II

(Placentation) (Example)

a. Marginal i. Lemon a. i.

b. Axile ii. Dianthus b. ii.

c. Parietal iii. Sunflower c. iii.

d. Free central iv. Pea d. iv.

e. Basal v. Mustard e. v.

(1) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-ii, e-iii te

(1) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-ii, e-iii
u
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-iii, e-ii stit
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-iii, e-ii
t In
(3) a-i, b-iv, c-v, d-ii, e-iii
g h (3) a-i, b-iv, c-v, d-ii, e-iii
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-v, d-i, e-iii Li (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-v, d-i, e-iii
ew
Ncoconut
166. The coconut water and the edible part of 166.
are equivalent to :
(1)
(1) Mesocarp
(2)
(2) Embryo

(3) Endosperm (3)

(4) Endocarp (4)

167. Following characters are given of a family, identify 167.

the family :
(A)  10
(A) Androecium  10, diadelphous, anther dithecous
(B)
(B) Ovary superior, monocarpellary, unilocular with
many ovules, style single
(1)
(1) Fabaceae

(2) Solanaceae (2)

(3) Lilaceae (3)

(4) Graminae (4)

NLI / 37
 AIM FREE EDUCATION TO ALL (APUL)
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168. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 168. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R)
(A)
Assertion (A)

Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in their

immediate environment

Reason (R) (R)

Being green algae carry through photosynthesis.

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below :
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) (R)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (3) (A) (R)

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct (4) (A) (R) (R), (A)
explanation of (A)

169. Root bears : 169.

(1) Nodes only u

(1)te
(2) Internodes only s tit
(2)
t In
(3) Both nodes and internode
g h (3)
(4) None of the above Li (4)
ew
170. Which is not a modified root : N 170.

(1) Carrot (1)

(2) Sugarbeet (2)

(3) Radish (3)

(4) Potato (4)

171. A root that never develops from radicle is : 171.

(1) Fibrous roots of grasses (1)

(2) Stilt roots of maize (2)

(3) Prop roots of banyan (3)

(4) All of the above (4)

172. Stem in Opuntia is modified into: 172.

(1) Thorns (1)

(2) Flattened stem (2)
(3) Flowers (3)

(4) Bristles (4)

NLI / 38
 AIM FREE EDUCATION TO ALL (APUL)
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173. GIFT is : 173.

(1) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (1)

(2) Genome intra fallopian transfer (2)

(3) GnRH intra fallopian transfer (3)

(4) Other name of MIF (4)

174. Given below are two statements : 174.

Statement I : I:
Most algal genera are haplontic, but some shows haplo-
diplontic and diplointic types of life cycle.

Statement II :
II :
Multicellular, saprophytic/autotrophic, independent but
short-lived haploid gametophyte phase found in
gymnosperm

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
u te
(2)it I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
s t
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
t In (3) I II
h
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct ig (4) I II
L
175. Which of the following is a hormone releasing
e w 175.
Intra-Uterine Device? N
(1) Lippes loop (1)
(2) Cu7 (2) Cu7
(3) LNG-20 (3) LNG-20
(4) Multiload 375 (4) 375
176. An ideal contraceptive should be 176.
(1) User-friendly (1) -
(2) Easily effective (2)
(3) Reversible with no or least side-effects (3)
(4) All of the above (4)
177. Hepatitis-B can be transmitted by- 177. -B

(1) Sexual intercourse with the infected person (1)

(2) Sharing of infected needles or surgical instruments (2)

with infected person

(3) From an infected mother to the foetus (3)

(4) Any of the above (4)
NLI / 39
 AIM FREE EDUCATION TO ALL (APUL)
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178. Which is a possible aspect of reproductive health 178.

formulated by WHO :

(1) Physical (1)

(2) Emotional (2)

(3) Social (3)

(4) All (4)

179. Which STD is almost incurable till now : 179.

(1) Hepatitis B (1)

(2) Genital herpes (2)

(3) HIV (3)

(4) All (4)

180. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 180. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
(R)

u te (A)
tit
Assertion (A)
s
There are no free-living sporophytes in the organisms
t In
showing zygotic meiosis.
igh
Reason (R) L (R)
w
Ne
In haplontic life cycle, sporophytic generation is
represented only by one-celled zygote.

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below :
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) (R)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (3) (A) (R)

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct (4) (A) (R) (R), (A)
explanation of (A)

181. Which is not a STD : 181.

(1) Hepatitis B (1)

(2) Genital herpes (2)

(3) HIV infection (3)

(4) Hepatitis-A (4)

NLI / 40
 AIM FREE EDUCATION TO ALL (APUL)
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182. Which is an incorrect statement : 182.

(a) ZIFT technique is unuseful for the women who (a)

cannot produce ovum

(b)
(b) Low sperm count can be tackled by artificial

insimination
(c)
(c) MTPs are relatively safe during the third trimester
(d) 1971
(d) Government of U.P. legalised MTP in 1971

(1) a and b
(1) a b

(2) b and c (2) b c

(3) Only c (3) c

(4) a, c and d (4) a, c d

183. Which is a method of birth control : 183.

u te
(1) GIFT s tit
t In (1)

(2) IUD
igh (2)
L
(3) IVF ew (3)
N
(4) All (4)

184. Which is a medicated IUD : 184.

(1) Lippes loop (1)

(2) LNG-20 (2)

(3) Progestasert (3)

(4) Both 2 and 3 (4)

185. A contraceptive pill causes : 185.

(1) Inhibition of ovulation (1)

(2) Inhibition of implantation (2)

(3) Alteration of quality of cervical mucus (3)

(4) All (4)

NLI / 41
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PART–2–[SECTION–B] PART–2–[SECTION–B]

186. Given below are two statements : 186.

Statement I : I:
In Urochordata, notochord is present only in larval
tail.
Statement II : II :

In Cephalochordata, It extends from head to tail region

and is persistent throughout their life.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

187. What is the popular name of IVF : 187.

(1) Amniocentesis (1)

u te
tit
(2) Tubectomy (2)
s
(3) Test tube baby
t In (3)
(4) All igh (4)
L
188. In which one of the following procedure sperm is ew 188.
directly injected into an ovum to form a zygote : N
(1) GIFT (1)

(2) ZIFT (2)

(3) ICSI (3)

(4) IUI (4)

189. Which is a correct matching set : 189.

Column I Column II I II

a- Curable STD i- MTP a- i-

b- Incurable STD ii- GIFT
b- ii-
c- Infertility removal iii- AIDS
c- iii-
d- Unwanted iv- Syphilis
d- iv-
pregnancy

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

NLI / 42
 AIM FREE EDUCATION TO ALL (APUL)
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190. Cervical caps and vaults are made up of : 190.
(1) Rubber (1)
(2) Plastic (2)
(3) Steel (3)

(4) All (4)

191. Which is the correct matching 191.
Column I Column II I II
a. CDRI i. Periodic abstinence a. i.
b. STD ii. Foetal sex
b. ii.
determination
c. iii.
c. Amniocentesis iii. AIDS
d. iv.
d. Contraceptive iv. Lucknow
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
192. Given below are two statements : 192.
u te
Statement I :
stit I :
The digestive tract of birds has additional chambers,
t In
gh
the crop and gizzard.
Statement II : L i II :
w
Snakes and lizards shed their scales as skinecast.
N
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

193. Which is not a method of birth control : 193.
(1) Pills (1) Pills
(2) IVF (2) IVF
(3) IUD (3) IUD
(4) All (4)
194. Cu ions released from copper releasing 194.
intrauterine devices :
(1) Increase life of sperms (1)
(2) Suppress sperm motality (2)
(3) Prevent ovulation (3)
(4) Destroy uterine endometrium (4)

NLI / 43
 AIM FREE EDUCATION TO ALL (APUL)
All India RBTS–02 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / Rank Booster Test Series / 10-Jan.-2023
195. Which is the correct matching : 195.
Column I Column II I II
a- Saheli i- Amniocentesis
a- i-
b- Reproductive ii- MTP
b- ii-
health programme
c- iii-
c- Legal abortion iii- RCH
d- iv-
d- Prenatal sex iv- CDRI
determination
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv

196. Which of the following medical facilities and care 196.

is not an important aspect of the reproductive and
child health care programmes :
(a)
(a) M.T.P.

(b) Menstrual irregularities

(b)
u te
(c) Birth control s tit
(c)

t In (d)
gh (e)
(d) Infertility

(e) Post natal child management Li

ew (1) 1
(1) Only 1 of the above
N
(2) Only 2 of the above (2) 2

(3) Only 3 of the above (3) 3

(4) None of these (4)

197. Given below are two statements : 197.

Statement I : I:
The stem is the ascending part of the axis bearing
branches, leaves, flowers and fruits.

Statement II :
II :
Stem develops from the plumule of the embryo of a
germinating seed.

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

NLI / 44
 AIM FREE EDUCATION TO ALL (APUL)
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198. Contraceptive devices : 198.

(1) Are devised to reduce unwanted pregnancies (1)

(2) Help in bringing down the increased birth rate (2)

(3) Help in checking population explosion (3)

(4) All of these (4)

199. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 199. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
(R)
(A)
Assertion (A)

Thorns protect plants from browsing animals.

(R)
Reason (R)

Axillary buds of stems may get modified into woody,

straight and pointed thorns.

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below :
u te(A)
tit
(1) (R) (R), (A)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
s
correct explanation of (A)
t In
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct igh (2) (A) (R)
L
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct ew (3) (A) (R)
N (4) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)

200. Given below are two statements : 200.

Statement I : I:
Reduced leaf found at the base of the pedicel is called
stipule
II :
Statement II :

Bracteate flowers with bracts

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

NLI / 45
 AIM FREE
NEW EDUCATION
LIG H T INSTITUTE TO
TEST AND INFO ALL
RM ATIO (APUL)
N C ENTRES
Sr . No. DIS T. NEW LIGHT TES T & INFORM ATION CENTRES ADD. CONTACT NO.
2 n d FL OOR C H ITR AH AR B U IL D IN G,
8317018795,
1 L U C KN OW N AW AL KISH OR E R OAD , H AZR ATGAN J,
0 5 2 2 -4 2 4 1 8 1 3
L U C KN OW- 2 2 6 0 0 1
N E W L IGH T IN STITU TE
2 VAR AN ASI B-2 6 /9 3 -A N EAR BL OC K N O. 1 3 K AB EER N AGAR 8810783726
D U R GAKU N D VAR AN ASI.
3 9 /7 /4 0 , C H U R C H L AN E (OPP. H OL Y TR IN ITY SC H OOL ) 9415646604,
PR AYAGR AJ
PR AYAG R AJ 9335145683
SH ASW AT C AR E ER IN STITU TE
8528299723,
4 FAIZABAD , AYOD H YA SH AN K AR GAR H BAZAR , D EVK AL I B YPASS
9565140705
AMBED KAR N AGAR R OAD , FAIZABAD
A-2 8 , R AJEN D R A N AGAR ,
5 BAR EIL L Y 8630161846
N E AR S H R E E BAN KE Y BIH AR I MAN D IR , BAR EIL L Y
GE N IU S IN S TITU TE, R AH U L C H AU R AH A,
6 SU L TAN PU R N ABIPU R R OAD N EAR PE TR OL PU MP. 7860121717
SU L TAN PU R
N E W L IGH T IN STITU TE
8810783723
7 GOR AKH PU R U GF-3 -MU K H AR JEE TOW ER N EAR BOB IN A H OTE L
8810783724
BOBIN A R OAD , GOR AKH P U R
N E ET/JEE IN STITU TE
8 D EOR IA PAR MAR TH I POK H AR A SAKET N AGAR N EW C OL ON Y 7309390572
D E OR IA – 7 2 4 8 0 7
VIR AT C OAC H IN G C E N TR E 8299107199,
9 L AK H IMPU R KH E R I
N E AR Y.D . C OL L EGE , L AK H IMP U R KH E R I 7398400822
OP P. OPD GATE N O.2
8004242662,
10 BAN D A R AJKEYA AL L OP ATH IC ME D IC AL C OL L E GE,
8299486837
N AR AIN I R OAD , BAN D A-2 1 0 0 0 1
GAYATR I C L ASS ES
11 MEE R U T N E AR K AC H EH R I, OP P. S AGAR C OMPU TEX 9319965050
PL -SH AR MA R OAD MEER U T
SAC H IN C OAC H IN G C L AS SES
12 MOR AD ABAD 9258164797
OP P. MATA MAN D IR L IN E PAR , MOR AD ABAD
PR ATIGYA C OAC H IN G IN S TITU TE N AR AU L I TIR AH A, 8858798709,
13 AZAMGH AR H FIR ST FL OOR (N EAR H .P. PTE R OL PU MP), 8858650140,
AZAMGH AR H 9452481000
SK Y L IGH T AC AD EMY
N E AR H ATH KAR GH A OFFIC E, MAD H U H OTE L 9236123531,
14 MAU
D C SK P G C OL L E GE R OAD , 79055187601
MAU N ATH B H AN JAN MAU U P-2 7 5 1 0 1
H OU SE N O. 1 4 9
8574955958,
15 JAU N PU R IN FR ON T OF R OAD W AYS BU S STAN D ,
9452061465
KAC H E H AR I R OAD , JAU N PU R -2 2 2 0 0 2
SAN SH IKSH A AC AD E MY, 2 N D FL OOR ,
7705002074,
16 R AE BAR EL I ZAMEE R C OMPOU N D ABOVE SBI C ITY B R AN C H FL OOR ,
7705002075
C AN AL R OAD , R AEBAR EL I
FR IEN D S C OL ON Y, 9670236078,
17 ETAW AH
IN FR ON T OF R E L IAN C E S MAR T POIN T ETAW AH -2 0 6 0 0 1 8126670494
IS L AMIA IN TER C OL L EGE JAL E SAR R OAD
18 FIR OZAB AD 9219148213
FIR OZABAD -2 8 3 2 0 3
N E W L IGH T IN STITU TE
19 AGR A 7011186515
N E AR B H AGWAN TAL KIES PETR OL PU MP AGR A
N E W TOPPE R S AC AD EMY
9540591160
20 D EL H I A-1 /1 7 FIR S T FL OOR JAN AKPU R I W EST N EAR AK ASH
8447788084
C OAC H IN G, N EW D E L H I 1 1 0 0 5 8
GL OBAL IN S TITU TE OF C OMMER C E
21 KOTA R AJSTH AN C -1 0 0 S U W AL AL KAC H OR I L AN E TAL W AN D I 8852916556
KOTA 3 2 4 0 0 5
VIS ION KOTA C L ASSE S B AZAR SAMITI S AKETPU R I, 7903420077
22 PATN A B IH AR N E AR N MC H R AIL W AY C R OSS IN G, PATN A 8 0 0 0 1 6 7549783828
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