DE-07/2025/002

Question Booklet Question Booklet

Alpha Code A Serial Number

Name: [Link]. Signature:

DEPARTMENTAL TEST — JULY, 2025

Total Number of Questions : 100 [Time : 1½ hours

(Maximum Marks : 100)

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Please see the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions/
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 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

DE-07/2025/002 2 A
DE-07/2025/002
Maximum : 100 marks
Time : 1½ hours

1. A written order addressed by a person called the “drawer” to a bank or treasury to pay a
specified sum of money to himself or a third-party is known as :
(A) Demand draft (B) Cash order
(C) Cheque (D) All the above
“ ” en k p n o o k k
o k n k k n e
n ut i a p n:

(A) (B)
(C) k (D)

2. A single payment made to a contractor in full settlement of accounts relating to a

contract which is completed is termed as :
(A) Intermediate payment
(B) Past payment
(C) First and final payment
(D) Secured advance
t o n p ak
p k o n o n i
kn:

(A) in n
(B) n
(C) t a t n
(D) k a

3. The documents required in connection with the giving out of a work on contract is :
(A) Contract (B) Contract documents
(C) Power of attorney (D) Indemnity bond
o n i :

(A) (B)
(C) a (D)

DE-07/2025/002 3 A
[P.T.O.]
4. The charges made for supplying water from Government sources for irrigation include
in :

(A) Local fund (B) Capital fund

(C) Government Revenue (D) None of the above

t k s n ll
y n ll i u p n :

(A) k (B)

(C) n (D) on

5. If some arrears still remain uncollected and the authority satisfied that any portion of
them is quite irrecoverable further action to be taken is :

(A) The authority can order to write off the arrear without sanction of the
competent authority

(B) The authority should take immediate step to obtain necessary sanction for
the irrecoverable arrears to be written off

(C) The competent authority issue order to recover the arrear through Revenue
Recovery procedure

(D) File civil suit against the debtor

i p c k a
c k t n a k
p k :

(A) ll a a
e tll a k ut

(B) c k t e tll n
a kn a u
k

(C) k t c k
ll a ut p kn

(D) k y

DE-07/2025/002 4 A
6. Which one of the following circumstances permit to remit the money collected at least
once in a week into treasury?

(A) The authority competent to sign the challan not at head quarters
(B) The money collected through postal money order
(C) The money collected by subordinate officers where they have no cash book
(D) The remittance from the next day of the receipt of money is not possible
owing to distance from treasury
o k c k a k
i p n a kn ?

(A) op a ll a s t
i p

(B) s kn

(C) k i t s kn

(D) n ll c n a t
n k

7. If a Government servant has been mislead or deceived in financial matters and thereby
caused any loss to Government, who will be responsible for the loss?

(A) The government servant misleaded or deceived

(B) The Government servant concerned who is misleaded and his immediate
supervisory officer
(C) Equal responsibility to all officers deal with the subjected file/financial matter
(D) If the misleaded or deceived employee is a newly recruitee, the loss will write
off
o k k mt d k p
k p , a k e n
c , t ut ?

(A) d k p a k p k k

(B) d p k p n n p k u s
a d t n a n u s

(C) / mt y n e
u s k ut t

(D) d k p a k p k
k p , e tll p

DE-07/2025/002 5 A
[P.T.O.]
8. All receipt of revenue should be noted in the departmental accounts at the time :
(A) After credited into Treasury
(B) Before being credited into Treasury
(C) To be noted in the department accounts once in a week
(D) To be noted in the department accounts once in a month
t n e e p p ak
p t ?

(A)
(B) y n m
(C) k p ak p t
(D) t k p ak p t

9. The chief controlling officers should get quarterly reports on the progress of ___________
in respect of departmental receipt from their subordinate controlling officers.
(A) Reconciliation work made with treasury
(B) Reconciliation made with the figures booked in the office of the District level
officers
(C) Reconciliation statement obtained from the Accountant General
(D) None of the above

k p n t
___________ n k c a s
n p k .

(A) t a t
(B) u s k
k t a t
(C) ak n n c a
(D) on

10. The selection of inspecting officers rest with :

(A) Government
(B) Finance Department of Government
(C) Head of departments/District officers
(D) Selection through PSC
u s p i n :

(A) k
(B) k p
(C) p / u s
(D) e ll p

DE-07/2025/002 6 A
11. Government buildings falls under _____________ categories.

(A) one (B) two

(C) three (D) four
k _____________ n.

(A) on (B)
(C) n (D)

12. When did the rent of a building owned by Government once fixed is revised?

(A) Once in every five year

(B) Once in every 10 year

(C) When there is a change in capital cost of the building
(D) After every periodical maintenance
k u s ll o t n o k
c e p k ?

(A) a t k

(B) t t k

(C) t n m

(D) a p k

13. The head of office under whom the tenant working furnish to the Executive Engineer not
later than ______________ showing the details of the employees with salary details.

(A) Every 25th of the each month

(B) Not later than 15th of every month
(C) First working day of each month
(D) Last working day of each month
k y n ______________-
k m c e
e k p k .

(A) e 25-

(B) e 15-

(C) t

(D) a t

DE-07/2025/002 7 A
[P.T.O.]
14. Form No. 1(A) related with :

(A) Name and designation of the head of office

(B) Name of the treasury from where the salary drawn

(C) Total number of employees included in the bill

(D) The name, designation and emoluments etc., of Government servants who

occupy government quarters

m 1(A) i n p :

(A) s

(B) m e t

(C) u p t ll k e

(D) k kn k k

, , m

15. The demand statement of rent is in _____________ form.

(A) Form No. 1(A)

(B) Form No. 1(B)

(C) Form No. 1(C)

(D) Form No. 23(A)

s n _____________ .

(A) m 1(A)

(B) m 1(B)

(C) m 1(C)

(D) m 23(A)

DE-07/2025/002 8 A
16. When a tenant wish to apply for a revision of rent of the government building he
occupies, the application for such revision shall be before :

(A) The Head of department of the employee working

(B) The Executive Engineer concerned

(C) The District Collector

(D) Finance Department

o k kn k t n

k a k k k m , at

t ll a k i p n k m k :

(A) y n k n p

(B) n p e e

(C)

(D) p

17. When a government building is let to a person not in government service, the rent of
each month always be deducted?

(A) Rent shall be deducted from the 1st day of the succeeding month

(B) Rent shall be deducted in every last day of the respective month

(C) Rent shall be paid any working day of each month

(D) Rent shall be paid in advance

k i t o k o k k

m , t e p k ?

(A) n ll t on k

(B) a t a k

(C) t t

(D)

DE-07/2025/002 9 A
[P.T.O.]
18. How many remittance books are maintained at each courts?

(A) One (B) Two

(C) Three (D) None of the above

e k k k kn ?

(A) on (B)

(C) n (D) on

19. Pricing of stationery articles are governed by the rules and orders issued by –––––––––
from time to time.

(A) Government (B) Controller of stationery

(C) Director of printing (D) Government press

s k –––––––––
p kn ut a c n kn .

(A) k (B) s

(C) n (D) n s

20. The estimated amount of services to be rendered by government on account local bodies
should be ordinarily be required to be paid in :

(A) After the service done

(B) Paid in advance
(C) Half of the estimated amount be paid in advance and balance after
completion
(D) As decided by the service department
d s ak k
es :

(A) t k

(B)

(C) k k
t k k y

(D) p n a c

DE-07/2025/002 10 A
21. A refund of revenue where government have no legal obligation to refund it is called :

(A) Refund of revenue

(B) Compulsorily refund

(C) Exgratia refund

(D) None of the above

k y t t n

kn:

(A) t n

(B) n

(C) e

(D) on

22. The abandonment of claims of revenue (arising from taxation laws) without exhausting
all avenues of recovery is termed as :

(A) Remission of revenue

(B) Waiver of revenue

(C) Exemption of revenue

(D) All the above

k u k k ( n

u t ) k e k i :

(A)

(B)

(C) e

(D)

DE-07/2025/002 11 A
[P.T.O.]
23. The term ‘Standards of Financial Propriety’ mean :

(A) The expenditure should not be prima facie more than the occasion demand
(B) A Government servant should not exercise his powers of sanctioning
expenditure so as to pass an order directly or indirectly
(C) Public money should not be utilised for the benefit of a particular person as
per conditions there on
(D) All the above

‘ mt u s ’ en t n a t :

(A) t k

(B) o k k a o ut
p kn a kn ll n
a u k

(C) a s o k
t u k

(D)

24. Who have the power to incur any expenditure?

(A) Accountant General (B) Government

(C) Head of Department (D) Director of Treasuries

k k a ?

(A) ak n (B) k

(C) p (D)

25. Every order sanctioning expenditure should be forwarded to whom?

(A) Finance Department (B) Treasury Director

(C) Head of Department (D) Accountant General

a kn ll ut k ?

(A) p (B)
(C) p (D) ak n

DE-07/2025/002 12 A
26. Whose sanction is needed for the disbursement to pay and allowances of non gazetted
government servants whose names are not required to be shown in the pay bill?

(A) Government

(B) Accountant General

(C) Head of Department

(D) District Treasury Officer

m k t a t k

k m t a k ll n

a ?

(A) k

(B) ak n

(C) p

(D)

27. Pay and allowances of government servants become due for payment on :

(A) on the last working day of every month

(B) on expiry of the month to which the claim relates

(C) three days before the last day of every month in which the claim relate

(D) none of the above

k k m a i n

a k :

(A) e t n a t

(B) k n p a k m

(C) k n p t n a t

n m

(D) on

DE-07/2025/002 13 A
[P.T.O.]
28. The Administrative Department in the Secretariat may sanction an arrear claim if the
monetary value as per KFC Vol I does not exceed Rs. _____________ without consulting
Finance Department.
(A) Rs. 1,000 (B) Rs. 500
(C) Rs. 1,500 (D) Rs. 5,000
KFC I ll ________ n
p k
a p k a k n .

(A) 1,000 (B) 500

(C) 1,500 (D) 5,000

29. Who is responsible for the auditing of all expenditure charged against the government?
(A) Inspecting officers of all department
(B) Accountant General
(C) District Treasury Officers
(D) Head of department
k t e
ut ?

(A) e p u s
(B) ak n
(C)
(D) p

30. The word ‘Warning Slip’ related with which one of the following?
(A) If any item of expenditure is found to be irregular
(B) If any item of expenditure is found in excess
(C) An intimation issued by the Accountant General to Treasury officers to
recover the excess amount paid
(D) All the above
‘ n p s p’ en k i p n
n p kn?

(A) i n t
(B) i a t
(C) a a c c k u s k
ak n a p
(D)

DE-07/2025/002 14 A
31. Recoveries from a government servant should not be made at a rate :
(A) Should not be made at a rate exceeding one-third of his pay
(B) Should not be made at a rate exceeding half of his pay
(C) No such limitation
(D) None of the above

o k k n c kn
k k ?

(A) a m t n n n n k
k

(B) a m t n ll k
k

(C) at

(D) on

32. The serial number provided for each audit objections provided in the audit objection
register be entered in column no. _____________ of the audit objection register.

(A) Column No. 1 (B) Column No. 2

(C) Column No. 3 (D) Column No. 4
o k s kn
o k kn m o k
s n m _____________- .

(A) m 1 (B) m 2

(C) m 3 (D) m 4

33. A post created to accommodate the lien of an officer is called :

(A) Permanent post (B) Temporary post

(C) Tenure post (D) Supernumerary post
o u s n a tn kn o
i kn:

(A) s (B) k

(C) (D) p

DE-07/2025/002 15 A
[P.T.O.]
34. Under which situation, the counter signature is not necessary in RTC (Report of
Transfer of Charge)?
(A) The RTC are jointly signed by the relieving and relieved officer
(B) When a gazetted officer assumes charge of newly created post
(C) When a gazetted officer vacates a post for a short period and no formal
arrangement is made in the place of relieving officer
(D) All the above

t RTC ( p ) op
t ?

(A) , en k
op m

(B) o c
k m

(C) o o k o
o s t
t k y m

(D)

35. The pay and allowance of government servant on the date of death is admissible subject
to which one of the following circumstance?

(A) The salary for the date of death is eligible without considering the hour at
which the death-take place

(B) The salary is eligible if the death take place on the AN of the day of death
(C) The salary is eligible if the employee is on duty at the time of death
(D) None of the above

k k n m a
i p n t a ?

(A) n k m
a

(B) t n uc c m
a

(C) t k m a

(D) on

DE-07/2025/002 16 A
36. The amount of each Railway warrant should be noted in ___________ colour ink in the
traveling allowance register.
(A) Blue (B) Black
(C) Blue or Black (D) Red
n a s
___________ p t .

(A) (B) p

(C) a p (D) p

37. When Government Servants are transferred from one office to another office their
service books should be forwarded to the new office as soon as possible within __________
period.

(A) within two weeks

(B) within one month of the transfer
(C) within two months of the transfer
(D) no time limit prescribed

k k o n k s
m a k __________ ll
e k a k .

(A) k ll

(B) s o t ll

(C) s t ll

(D) c

38. The form of Attachment Register is :

(A) Form 4A (B) Form 23A

(C) Form 24A (D) Form 24

a c n s n i :

(A) 4A (B) 23A

(C) 24A (D) 24

DE-07/2025/002 17 A
[P.T.O.]
39. Advances granted to officers so as to meet unforeseen expenses often is called :
(A) Temporary advance (B) Permanent advance
(C) Advance on contingencies (D) None of the above

k k t n u s k
n a i kn:

(A) k a (B) s a

(C) a (D) on

40. The form of contingent register is in __________ form.

(A) Form 20 (B) Form 20A

(C) Form 17 (D) Form 10

n s n __________ .

(A) 20 (B) 20A

(C) 17 (D) 10

41. Who shall have authority to audit and report on the accounts of stores and stock kept in
any office or department of the union or of a state?

(A) Head of Department

(B) Officer incharge of store
(C) Every Divisional Officers
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

n s t n p
k c kn s s k n ak
y p y k a ?

(A) p

(B) s n ll u s

(C) e

(D) in

DE-07/2025/002 18 A
42. No one above the rank of ____________ is entitled to travel under railway warrants.
(A) Sub Inspector (B) Circle Inspector
(C) Deputy Superintendent (D) District Police Chief
____________ ll k k
y a .

(A) i (B) k i

(C) (D)

43. Who may issue the sanction for the purchase of chemicals and apparatus required for the
public health laboratory?

(A) Director of Health Services

(B) Deputy Director of Health Services
(C) District Medical Officer
(D) Director, Public Health Laboratory
k k u
n k a ?

(A)
(B)
(C) k

(D) , b t

44. The purchase of elephants requires the sanction of _______________ if it is met from
contingency fund.

(A) Chief Conservator of Forest

(B) Divisional Forest Officer
(C) Head of department of the respective department
(D) Government

n n
_______________ a .

(A) s

(B) s

(C) a p n p

(D) k

DE-07/2025/002 19 A
[P.T.O.]
45. Who may authorise payment of fees to pleaders engaged to defend accused under the
Criminal Rules of practice?
(A) High Court
(B) Sessions Judges
(C) District Judges
(D) High Court and Sessions Judges

k k
p kn kn k a k k a
?

(A) k

(B)
(C)
(D) k ,

46. The pay of subordinate Government Servants employed in out-of-the way places may be
remitted by money order at the expense of :

(A) Government (B) The employer

(C) (A) and (B) above (D) None of the above

s y n s k
k m i p n
a k n :

(A) k (B)
(C) (A)u (B)u (D) on

47. Statement of fines imposed and refunded in the court of the Session Judges is in
____________ form.

(A) KFC Form 2 (B) KFC Form 1

(C) KFC Form 1B (D) KFC Form 3

t
____________ .

(A) KFC 2 (B) KFC 1

(C) KFC 1B (D) KFC 3

DE-07/2025/002 20 A
48. The form prescribed for Register of objection slip from Accountant General is :
(A) KFC Form 5 (B) KFC Form 4B
(C) KFC Form 4A (D) KFC Form 4

ak n n ll e p s s p
d c kn :

(A) KFC 5 (B) KFC 4B

(C) KFC 4A (D) KFC 4

49. Register of special advance is in form :

(A) KFC Form 5 (B) KFC Form 7

(C) KFC Form 8A (D) KFC Form 9

a n s ___________ .

(A) KFC 5 (B) KFC 7

(C) KFC 8A (D) KFC 9

50. Acknowledgement of permanent advance, stock of books and furniture etc are in form :

(A) KFC Form 8 (B) KFC Form 8A

(C) KFC Form 9 (D) KFC Form 9A

s a , s k, c
___________ .

(A) KFC 8 (B) KFC 8A

(C) KFC 9 (D) KFC 9A

51. The register of increment will be in form :

(A) Form 9 (B) Form 9A

(C) Form 1A (D) Form 5

i n n s i p n k :

(A) 9 (B) 9A

(C) 1A (D) 5

DE-07/2025/002 21 A
[P.T.O.]
52. Washing allowances paid to class IV employees shall be classified under :
(A) Contingent charges (B) Office expense
(C) Salaries (D) Temporary advance

k IV k k n a i
k :

(A) n (B)

(C) m (D) k a

53. The word ‘Budget’ is derived from the French word :

(A) Brunette (B) Ballet

(C) Merci (D) Bougette

‘ ’ en k t n u t ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

54. Who will present the Annual Finance Statement to the Legislature every year?

(A) Governor (B) Chief Minister

(C) Finance Minister (D) Revenue Minister

e
a p k ?

(A) (B) n

(C) n (D) n

55. The departmental officers submitted budget documents direct to :

(A) Administrative Department (B) Finance Department

(C) Finance Minister (D) P&ARD

p u s ___________ p c .

(A) a p (B) p

(C) n (D) P&ARD

DE-07/2025/002 22 A
56. The time prescribed for presenting the budget in the legislature is :
(A) 1st January
(B) 1st day of February
(C) End of February or beginning of March
(D) Between 1st of January and 15th of February

a p kn ll :

(A) 1
(B) 1
(C) a a c

(D) 1 15 i

57. A request from the executive to the legislature for a specified sum of money to finance a
particular service during the year is called :

(A) Demand for Grant

(B) Appropriation bill
(C) Budget document
(D) Supplementary demand for grant

t o t n
e n k ll o
a t i kn:

(A) n ll

(B)
(C)
(D) n ll a n

58. Which stage of the budget marks the conclusion of second stage of the budgetary cycle?

(A) Preparation of the budget (B) Passing of the budget

(C) Execution of the budget (D) Review of the budget

n t n t n
a p tn ?

(A) y k (B) k

(C) v (D) a

DE-07/2025/002 23 A
[P.T.O.]
59. Which documents specify the maximum amount that may be spent during the year on
each service?
(A) Budget document
(B) Demand for grant
(C) Appropriation bill
(D) Supplementary demand for grant

t t k n
k k kn ?

(A)
(B) n ll
(C)
(D) n ll a n

60. Government accounts are kept in ___________ parts.

(A) Two (B) Three
(C) Four (D) Five

k ak ___________ k kn.

(A) (B) n
(C) (D) a

61. The first tier classification of transaction is :

(A) Sector (B) Major head
(C) Minor head (D) Sub major head

i n g i :

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

62. The third tier classification in Government account is :

(A) Major head (B) Minor head
(C) Sub head (D) Detailed head

n ak n g i :

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

DE-07/2025/002 24 A
63. The introduction of any new major head or minor head will require the approval of :
(A) Finance department
(B) Head of department
(C) Director of Treasuries
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

a
a p kn i p n a :

(A) p
(B) p
(C)
(D) in

64. A document which the Government present to the legislature by way of asking for a sum
over and above the sum already granted during the current year for a particular service
is called :
(A) Excess grant
(B) Supplementary demand for grant
(C) Additional fund
(D) Sinking fund

o t p t i a c
k ll p k
a p kn o i kn:

(A) a n

(B) n ll a n
(C) a
(D)

65. Expenditure which is subject to the vote of legislative assembly is termed as :

(A) Charged expenditure (B) Voted expenditure
(C) Vote on account (D) New service

i kn:

(A) j (B)
(C) ak (D)

DE-07/2025/002 25 A
[P.T.O.]
66. The first attempt at performance budgeting was made in ____________ year.

(A) 1970-71 (B) 1969-70

(C) 1971-72 (D) 1975-76

n ____________ t t .

(A) 1970-71 (B) 1969-70

(C) 1971-72 (D) 1975-76

67. The indent prepared for the purchase of articles should be in Form No. :

(A) Form No. 13 (B) Form No. 12

(C) Form No. 15 (D) Form No. 16

n y k i n m :

(A) m 13 (B) m 12

(C) m 15 (D) m 16

68. All purchase proposals which do not fall within the powers of head of department will be
considered by :

(A) Government

(B) Departmental purchase committee

(C) Director General of supplies and disposals

(D) None of the above

p a t t e d

___________ k .

(A) k

(B) p c m

(C) p

(D) on

DE-07/2025/002 26 A
69. From the following which one is exempted from tender systems?

(A) Purchase of office furniture

(B) Purchase of tools and plants
(C) Purchase of machineries
(D) Purchase of uniform for all nursing sisters in the hospitals in the state

n n
o k kn ?

(A) c

(B) u p n

(C) n

(D) s t e s k

70. A contract entered for the supply of an approximate quantity of stores at a rate specified
price during a certain period is called ____________ contract.

(A) A rate contract (B) Running contract

(C) Quotation system (D) Limited tender

o o k o
a ll s y n p t
____________ en kn.

(A) o k (B)
(C) (D)

71. A work related with reconstruction of entire-structure are included in ____________

work.

(A) Original work (B) Repair work

(C) Ordinary repair (D) Special repair

m n p
____________ u p n.

(A) t (B) a p

(C) a p (D) a p

DE-07/2025/002 27 A
[P.T.O.]
72. Which department is responsible for the execution of all works which the Government
have not specially allotted to other department?

(A) Irrigation Department

(B) Public Works Department

(C) Housing Board

(D) Kerala State Construction Corporation

k p k a c t e

v t p ut ?

(A) p

(B) t p

(C) m

(D) s m p

73. If the Chief Conservator of Forest wishes to entrust to any of their work to Public Works
Department, he should address _______ in the matter.

(A) Asst. Exe. Engineer

(B) Executive Engineer

(C) Chief Engineer

(D) Superintending Engineer

s t p a

p k kn , a d

t k ?

(A) a sn e e

(B) e e

(C) e

(D) e

DE-07/2025/002 28 A
74. Where no contractors are available or where for other reasons ___________ system of
work is introduced.

(A) Lump sum contract (B) Departmental execution

(C) Piece-work agreement (D) Percentage rate contract

t t a ___________

n.

(A) (B) p v

(C) - k (D) k

75. The initial record of labour employed each day of work when work is executed
departmentally is :

(A) M. Book (B) Field Book

(C) Bin Card (D) Muster Roll

p t k m t

y n :

(A) e . k (B) k

(C) (D) s

76. While executing a work departmentally all wages not claimed within ___________ period
should, as a rule be forfeited.

(A) One month (B) Two month

(C) Three month (D) Six month

p t o y m ___________ ll

k y t e o p .

(A) o (B)

(C) n (D)

DE-07/2025/002 29 A
[P.T.O.]
77. The original record of actual measurement of work done or count is __________, except
the work done through departmental execution.

(A) Muster Roll (B) M. Book

(C) Cash Book (D) Contractors ledger

p v t o ,
e n t a p n t
__________ .

(A) s

(B) e . k

(C) k

(D)

78. The completion report of a work is in __________ form.

(A) Form 21 (B) Form 24

(C) Form 25 (D) None of the above

o t p __________ .

(A) 21 (B) 24

(C) 25 (D) on

79. As per KFC Vol I, a sum amounting to Rs. ________ is payable annually to her highness
the Senior-Maharani of Travancore from the date of termination of the Regency.

(A) 75,000 (B) 1,00,000

(C) 2,00,000 (D) 2,50,000

e I , a p c
- k ________
.

(A) 75,000 (B) 1,00,000

(C) 2,00,000 (D) 2,50,000

DE-07/2025/002 30 A
80. The allowances paid in lieu of the rights enjoyed by some former Rajas and Chieftains
are known as

(A) Malikhana (B) Family pension

(C) Beris deductions (D) Karathilchilavu

kn kn a c n a k
n a ___________ en p n.

(A) (B)

(C) (D) t c

81. Which one of the following not related with the allowances paid to some jenmis and other
persons on the state?

(A) Jenmibhogam (B) Karathilchilavu

(C) Arthapalisa (D) Tasdic allowances

n n k s t
k k n a n t ?

(A) (B) t

(C) a (D) a

82. Discretionary grants may be sanctioned by

(A) Governor
(B) Officers of the Revenue department
(C) Governor/Officers of Revenue Department
(D) None of the above

n ___________ a ck .

(A)

(B) p u s

(C) p n /u s

(D) on

DE-07/2025/002 31 A
[P.T.O.]
83. The scheme ‘Famine Relief’ related with
(A) Contributions towards relief of poor people whose house have been destroyed
by fire

(B) Contributions towards relief to poor people who are suffering from the effects
of flood

(C) Contributions towards relief of poor people suffering from sudden calamity

(D) All the above

'k ' en d n p kn :

(A) c c p t ll

(B) ll p kt n t kn p

k n

(C) n ll nt kn p

t ll

(D)

84. The time limit prescribed to utilize the Grant-in-aid is

(A) one year from the date of sanction

(B) six months from the date of sanction

(C) nine months from the date of sanction

(D) no time limit prescribed

n-i -e kn d c kn

(A) a c o

(B) a c

(C) a c om

(D) c

DE-07/2025/002 32 A
85. Before the grant is released to a public body or institution, the grantee should execute a
bond in _____________ form.
(A) Form No. 55 without sureties
(B) Form No. 55 with sureties
(C) Form No. 50
(D) Form No. 51

o s t i s n a kn
m, n kn _________ o y k .

(A) k m 55
(B) k ll m 55
(C) m 50
(D) m 51

86. From the following advances which are interest free advance :

(A) House building advance

(B) Marriage advance
(C) Advance for the purchase of motor conveyance
(D) Permanent advance

p n a a ?

(A) n ll a

(B) a

(C) n ll a

(D) s a

87. Application for advance for the purchase of motor conveyance is in ________ form.

(A) Form 26 (B) Form 25A

(C) Form 26A (D) Form 10

n ll a ll a k ________
.

(A) 26 (B) 25A

(C) 26A (D) 10

DE-07/2025/002 33 A
[P.T.O.]
88. The maximum number of instalment of repayment of motor cycle/scooter advance is

(A) 60 instalment (B) 100 instalment

(C) 116 instalment (D) 144 instalment

k / a n c k
e

(A) 60 (B) 100

(C) 116 (D) 144

89. From the following who are ineligible for getting house building advance?

(A) Employees having less than five years of service

(B) Employees having 5 year and less than 6 years of service
(C) Employees having 5 year and less than 7 years of service
(D) None of the above

n m a k
t ?

(A) a t ll k

(B) 5 6 t ll k

(C) 5 7 t ll k

(D) on

90. The application for additional advance should be submitted within ______ period.

(A) After two year from the date of first advance

(B) After five years from the date of drawel of first advance
(C) Within one year from the date of disbursement of the original loan
(D) None of the above

a a ll a k ______ ll p k .

(A) a t

(B) a e t a t

(C) t o
t ll

(D) on

DE-07/2025/002 34 A
91. The recovery of additional advance on HBA will commence immediately on the expiry of :

(A) Expiry of six months from the month in which the additional loan is
disbursed
(B) Within one year from the date of disbursement
(C) After one year from the date of disbursement
(D) After the recovery of 1st advance in full

HBA a a n k i p n
k :

(A) a t

(B) o t ll

(C) o t

(D) a c c

92. The application for cycle advance in

(A) Form 26 (B) Form 29

(C) Form 40 (D) Form 24

k a ll a k

(A) 26 (B) 29
(C) 40 (D) 24

93. The due date of marriage advance in second time is :

(A) On completion of the first advance

(B) While the first recovery is continuing
(C) After three years from the first loan
(D) After five years from the first advance

a n a :

(A) a t m

(B) k m

(C) n n t

(D) a a t

DE-07/2025/002 35 A
[P.T.O.]
94. Which among the following is not a civil advance?
(A) Advance for Thiruvonam festival
(B) Other festival advances
(C) Advances on transfer
(D) GPF temporary advance

i p n a a t ?

(A) ut t ll a

(B) ut a

(C) ll a

(D) e k a

95. Transfer TA advance is limit to __________ percentage of the probable amount.

(A) 50% (B) 60%

(C) 90% (D) 75%

e a ll ____________
p t kn.

(A) 50% (B) 60%

(C) 90% (D) 75%

96. All deposit unclaimed for more than _____________ year should be credited to
government account.

(A) more than three complete financial year

(B) more than five complete financial year
(C) more than two complete financial year
(D) none of the above

____________ t ll k y t e k
k ak k y .

(A) n mt t

(B) a mt t

(C) mt t

(D) on

DE-07/2025/002 36 A
97. Who will issue policies on fidelity insurance?

(A) District Insurance Officers

(B) State Insurance Officer

(C) Secretary, Finance

(D) None of the above

i n ?

(A) i

(B) s i

(C) ,

(D) on

98. The maximum recovery period of House Building advance with principal and interest is

(A) 144 monthly instalment

(B) 100 monthly instalment

(C) 200 monthly instalment

(D) 216 monthly instalment

m a n

c :

(A) 144

(B) 100

(C) 200

(D) 216

DE-07/2025/002 37 A
[P.T.O.]
99. When any fact indicating the defalcation or loss of public money to the notice of any
Government servant, he should inform the matter to

(A) Section head

(B) Head of office

(C) Nearest police station

(D) All the above

t n p kn

k k n d p , a d ak

a k ?

(A) k

(B)

(C) a t ll s

(D)

100. The secretary to savings bank is

(A) Finance Secretary

(B) Treasury Director

(C) Joint Director of Treasury

(D) District Treasury Officers

n :

(A)

(B)

(C) n

(D)

————————

DE-07/2025/002 38 A
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

DE-07/2025/002 39 A
[P.T.O.]
 7. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check that the question
booklet supplied contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question booklet does not have
unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so the fact should be brought to the notice of the Invigilator
and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important.
ekvz `J[°WjGmJ[¢ BNbuGTG¡ÀW `dW¨Q mhWVÿWkW¨JÐ NVGbu eJñR¾W¤ 100 NVGbu°nJP
IRiiGjW BNºG DÐQ ekWNqGcWN¨º`G_Q. NVGbu eJñR¾W¤ ?Vÿ[W¨G¾N`G, RvlWjN`G,
pWŸJNeGjN`G @j NeXJR¥ BºGRWmæ; ?apG BMºËW¤ ?¨GkuP A¢pWXWNmãlJM[
èÈjW¤ MRGºJpkWRjJP ?N` ?zk NRG]WmJç eK¡¹iGj NVGbu eJñRP iGãW
pG°JRjJP MVNáº`G_Q. A`Q EãpJP IecGdMÕŸ`G_Q.
8. A blank sheet of paper is attached to the question booklet. This may be used for rough work.
NVGbu eJñR¾WM£ ?psGdP FÐJP DoJ`G¾ FkJ R[mGsQ NV¡¾WŸJºQ. A`Q B¾kP
RºJeW[W¨JÐ`WdJç RJlWÕJR¥¨GjW BeNjGTW¨GpJÐ`G_Q.
9. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking your
answers.
B¾k°¥ NkSMÕ[J¾G¢ @kPhW¨JÐ`WdQ iJÒQ B¾k¨[mGsWM£ ilJeJl¾Jç dW¡NÇq°¥
èÈGeK¡pÿP pGjW¨JR.
10. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choose the
correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black Ball-
Point Pen in the OMR Answer Sheet.
qkWjJ¾kP B¥MÕM[ FGNkG NVGbu¾WdJP (A), (B), (C), (D) DÐ dGmQ B¾k°¥ `ÐWkW¨JP.
qkWjJ¾kP M`kM´[J¾Q [Link].@¡. B¾k¨[mGsW¤ gÌMÕŸ NVGbu dÒlWdQ NdMkjJç
qkWjJ¾kP sKVWÕW¨JÐ RJiWn (ggW¥) iGI`P dvmNjG RlJNÕG gG¥ NeGjW£Q Ned BeNjGTWVÿQ
RlJÕW¨JR.
11. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1 3 mark will be deducted.
No negative marks for unattended questions.
FGNkG qkWjJ¾k¾WdJP FkJ iG¡¨Q mhW¨JRjJP FGNkG M`ãJ¾k¾WdJP 1 3 iG¡¨Q
dìiGpJRjJP MVáJP. B¾kP NkSMÕ[J¾G¾ NVGbu°¥¨Q iG¡¨Q dìiGpJR-jWmæ.
12. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without
handing over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has
verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her
signature in the space provided.
ekvzGsijP RoWjJÐ`WdQ iJNÒG, B¾k¨[mGsQ A¢pWXWNmãMl E¤ÕW¨GM`NjG FkJ
BNbuGTG¡ÀWjJP ekvzGtG¥ pW-ŸQ eJl¾JNeGRG¢ eG[Wmæ. q^]ð¡ jÒ¡ SWLc]UYV x}ã]Rs
IsæL I¢Na]WtOU C¢v]^]Ssã¡ kq]SwLi]\ÿ]ŸORºÐOU j¤W]p]q]¨OÐ òs¾V C¢v]^]Ssã¡
AvR£SpL/AvtOSaSpL KÕV kf]Õ]\ÿ]ŸORºÐOU DSh|LYL¡À]W¥ DrÕL¨eU.
13. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of
malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate.
dW¡NÇq°¥ R¡qdiGjW eGmWN¨º`G_Q. ekvz-jW¤ IRiN¨[Q d[¾JRNjG ?`WdJç èiP
d[¾JRNjG MVáJÐ BNbuGTG¡ÀWRMn ?NjGTukGjW IeSuGeW¨JÐ`G_Q.
14. If any candidates make a marking of answer in the question paper and exchange with other
candidate during the course of the examination, the answer script will be invalidated and
the candidates will be debarred for a minimum period of 2 years from appearing the
Departmental Tests.
kq}ƒLyop¾V JRfË]sOU DSh|LYL¡À]W¥ S\Lh|SkÕr]¤ D¾qU SqXRÕaO¾] oãV
DSh|LYL¡À]W¥¨V RRWoLrOWpLReË]¤ B DSh|LYL¡À]WtORa D¾q¨asLyV
AyLiOvL¨OÐfOU AvRq JãvOU WOr´fV qºV v¡xS¾àV vWOÕOfs kq}ƒp]¤
kRËaO¨OÐf]¤ j]ÐOU v]s¨V J¡RÕaO¾OÐfOoLp]q]¨OU.
15. The questions in English version alone will be taken as authentic though questions are given in
Malayalam language for the convenience of the candidates.
S\Lh|°¥ CUYæ}-x]sOU ospLt¾]sOU RWLaO-¾]-ŸOºV. NkLSh-w]W nLxp]¤ fÐ]-q]-¨O-ÐfV
DSh|LYL¡À]W¥¨V oj-ô]-sL-¨O-Ð-f]-jO-Sv-º]- oLNf-oLeV. CUYæ}xV nLxp]¤ RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ
S\Lh|°-tLeV Bi]WLq]WU.
————————

DE-07/2025/002 40 A
 DEPARTMENTAL TESTS JULY 2025
Provisional Answer Key
PAPER CODE : 006002 / 007002 DATE OF TEST : 08.10.2025
Account Test (Lower) – Paper II – KFC
QUESTION BOOKLET ALPHA CODE - A
[Link]. Q No.
1 C 51 B
2 C 52 C
3 B 53 D
4 C 54 C
5 B 55 B
6 D 56 C
7 A 57 A
8 B 58 B
9 A 59 C
10 C 60 B
11 B 61 A
12 C 62 B
13 B 63 D
14 D 64 B
15 B 65 B
16 B 66 A
17 D 67 A
18 B 68 B
19 A 69 D
20 B 70 B
21 C 71 A
22 A 72 B
23 D 73 C
24 B 74 B
25 D 75 D
26 A 76 C
27 B 77 B
28 B 78 B
29 B 79 A
30 D 80 A
31 A 81 D
32 A 82 C
33 D 83 D
34 D 84 A
35 A 85 B
36 D 86 D
37 B 87 B
38 A 88 B
39 B 89 A
40 D 90 C
41 D 91 A
42 B 92 C
43 B 93 A
44 D 94 D
45 D 95 D
46 A 96 A
47 A 97 B
48 D 98 D
49 A 99 B
50 B 100 B

Note : Complaints regarding this provisional answer key should be submitted through the candidate's profile only.
Complaints in any other form will not be entertained. Candidate's should compare their question paper (in
case of B,C,D Version) with the A Version Question Paper, which is uploaded in the official website of KPSC.
Complaints should be registered against the question number in the A version Question paper only.