CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(Academic Session : 2020- 2021)

PRE - MEDICAL : 2021

REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - ENTHUSIAST
Test Date : 09 - 12 - 2020 Test Pattern: NEET
Time : 3 Hours TEST - 1 Maximum Marks : 720

Instructions
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
1. This Question Paper contains 180 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in
any form are not allowed.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
5. Do not Tamper/ mutilate the ORS orthis booklet.
6. How to fill response on OMR (Assuming answer is (1))
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
Correct Method: Wrong Method:
7. Write your ALLEN Form Number, Student's Name, Father's Name and Class with pen in appropriate boxes.
Do not write these any where else.
8. Darken the appropriate bubbles on ORS with blue / black ball point pen only.
B. Question paper format and Marking scheme:
9. The question paper consists of 4 SUBJECTS (Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology). Each subject consists of
45 Multiple Choice Single Correct Questions.
10. For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

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 REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - XII

TEST - 1 DATE : 09 - 12 - 2020

SYLLABUS

PHYSICS : Rectilinear Motion

CHEMISTRY : Some basic concepts of Chemistry

BOTANY : Morphology of Flowering Plants

ZOOLOGY : Digestion and Absorption

 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 1/09-12-2020

1. If the initial velocity of a particle is u and the

acceleration at time t is given by at, where a is a 7. A particle passes through point A and B which
constant, then which of the following relation is are 90 m apart. It takes 6 s to cover this distance
valid? with uniform acceleration. Velocity of particle
(1) v = u + 5at (2) v u when it passes through B point is 20 m/s. What is
1 2 particle velocity at point A?
(3) v u at 2 (4) v u at
(1) 10 m/s (2) 30 m/s
2
2. A person travels along a straight road for half the (3) 15 m/s (4) 20 m/s
distance with velocity v1 and the remaining
8. A particle when thrown vertically upward,
half distance with velocity v2. The average velocity
moves such that it passes from same height at
is given by
t = 2 s and t = 10 s, the height is
v22 (1) g (2) 2g
(1) v1 v2 (2)
v12
(3) 5g (4) 10g
v1 v2 2v1v2
(3) (4) 9. A particle is thrown vertically upward. It is known
3 v1 v2 that distance travelled in 6th second and 7th
3. A stone dropped from the top of the tower touches second is same then (Take g = 10 m/s2)
the ground in 4 sec. The height of the t o w e r (1) The particle was thrown with 40 m/s
is about
(1) 78.4 m (2) 52.2 m (2) The particle was thrown with 70 m/s
(3) 24.0 m (4)12.8 m (3) Total vertical height is 245 m
4. If a particle is thrown with velocity more than
(4) Total vertical height is 180 m
10 m/s vertically upward, then the distance
10. Two cars are moving in the same direction with
travelled by the particle in last second of its
same speed 30 km/h. They are separated from
ascent is
each other by 5 km. A third car moving in the
g
(1) g (2) same direction meets the two cars after an interval
2
of 4 minutes. The speed of the third car is
g g
(3) (4) (1) 30 km/h (2) 105 km/h
4 8
5. A car starts from rest travelling with constant (3) 140 km/h (4) 45 km/h
acceleration. If distance covered by it in 10 th
11. A ball is dropped from a tower. In the last second
second of its journey is 19m, what will be the
acceleration of car? of its motion it travels a distance of 15m. Find the
2
height of the tower, [take g = 10 m/sec ]
(1) 4 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2
(1) 20 m (2) 40 m
(3)2 m/s2 (4) 1 m/s2 (3) 10 m (4) 50 m
6. A body is started from rest with acceleration 12. A particle is projected vertically upwards and it
2 m/s2 till it attains the maximum velocity then reaches the maximum height H in time T second.
retards to rest with 3 m/s2. If total time taken is The height of the particle at any time t will be
10 second then maximum speed attained is 2 1 2

(1) 12 m/s (2) 8 m/s

(1) g t T (2) H g t T
2

(3) 6 m/s (4) 4 m/s 1 2

(3) g t T (4) H g t T
2

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 1/09-12-2020
13. The distance travelled by a body falling from rest in 17. The position x of a particle varies with time (r) as
the first, second and third seconds are In the ratio x at 2 bt 3 . The acceleration at time t of the
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 3 : 5 particle will be equal to zero
(3) 1 : 4 : 9 (4) None of these
2a a
14. A, B, C and D are points in a vertical line such that (1) (2)
3b b
AB = BC = CD. If a body falls from rest at A, then
the times of descent through AB, BC and CD are a
in the ratio (3) (4) Zero
3b
(1) 1: 2 : 3 18. A body starts from rest and moves with a uniform
acceleration. The ratio of the distance covered in
(2) 2 : 3 :1 the nth sec to the distance covered in n sec is
(3) 3 :1: 2 2 1 1 1
(1) (2)
n n2 n2 n
(4) 1: 2 1 : 3 2
2 1 2 1
15. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration ( ) (3) (4)
n2 n2 n n2
versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The
maximum speed of the particle will be 19. A body is projected with a velocity u upward. It
passes through a certain point above the ground after
a t1 sec. The time after which the body passes through
the same point during the return journey is
10m / s 2
u 2 u
(1) t1 (2) 2 t1
g g
11
t u2 u2
O t(s) (3) 3 t1 (4) 3 t1
g g2
(1) 110 m/s (2) 55 m/s
(3) 550 m/s (4) 660 m/s
20. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of 5
16. Shows the variation of velocity (v) of a
m/s. In 10 second, the velocity changes to 5 m/s
northwards. The average acceleration in this time is
1
v (1) m / s 2 towards north-west
2
(2) Zero

O 1
t (3) m / s2 towards north
2
body with time [t] from the origin O. Which of the
1
graphs shown in figure. correctly represents the (4) m / s 2 towards east
variation of the acceleration ( ) with time (t) ? 2
21. Balls are thrown vertically upwards in such a way
that the next ball is thrown when the previous one is
at the maximum height. If the maximum height is 5
(1) (2) m, the number of balls thrown per minute will be
O O t (take g =10 m/s2)
(1) 40 (2) 50
(3) 60 (4) 160
(3) O t (4) O t

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 1/09-12-2020

22. A stone is thrown upwards with a speed 'u' from the 28. Initially car A is 10.5 m ahead of car B. Both start
top of the tower reaches the ground with a velocity moving at time t = 0 in the same direction along a
'3u'. The height of the tower is : straight line. The velocity time graph of two cars is
shown in figure. The time when the car B will catch
3u 2 4u 2
(1) (2) the car A, will be
g g

6u 2 9u 2
(3) (4)
g g
23. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h
metre. It takes t second to reach the ground. What (1) t = 21 sec (2) t = 2 5 sec
is the position of the ball in t / 3 second ?
(3) 20 sec. (4) None of these
(1) h / 9 metre from the ground
29. A particle moves through the origin of an xy-cordinate
(2) 7h/9 metre from the ground system at t = 0 with initial velocity
(3) 8h/9 metre from the ground u = 4i – 5 j. The particle moves in the xy plane with
(4) 17 h/18 metre from the ground an acceleration a = 2i m/s2. Speed of the particle at
24. A particle is moving in a circle of radius R centred t = 4 second is :
at O with constant speed.
(1) 12 m/s (2) 8 2 m/s
v2 (3) 5 m/s (4) 13 m/s
Q 30. A point moves rectilinearly. Its position x at time t is
R v1
given by, x2 = t2 + 1. Its acceleration at time t is:
40°
O P 1 1 1
(1) 3
(2) –
x x x2
t
The change in velocity in moving from P to Q (3) – (4) None of these
x2
POQ 40 is 31. If v = x2 - 5 x + 4, find the acceleration of the particle
(1) 2 v cos 40° (2) 2 v sin 40° when velocity of the particle is zero.
(3) 2 v cos 20° (4) 2 v sin 20° (1) 0 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) None of these
25. The position vector of particle changes from 10 m
east to 10 m north in one second. What is the average 32. A lift starts from rest. Its acceleration is plotted against
time in the following graph. When it comes to rest its
velocity of the particle ?
height above its starting point is:
(1) ) 20 m/s (2) 5 m/s

(3) 10 2 m / s (4) 10 / 2 m / s
26. The velocity of the particle 6 m/s eastwards changes
to 8 m/s northwards in 10 s. What is the magnitude
of change in velocity during this interval of time ?
(1) 14 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) 2 m/s (4) None of the above (1) 20 m (2) 64 m
27. A truck travelling due north at 20 m/s turns west (3) 32 m (4) 36 m
and travels with same speed. What is the change in
velocity ?
(1) 20 2 m/s south-west
(2) 40 m/s south
(3) 20 2 m/s north
(4) 40 m/s north-west
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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 1/09-12-2020

33. The acceleration time graph of a particle moving 37. A thief is running away on a straight road in jeep
along a straight line is as shown in the figure. At moving with a speed of 9ms–1. A police man chases
what time does the particle acquires its initial him on a motor cycle moving at a speed of
speed ? 10 ms–1. If the instantaneous separation of the jeep
from the motorcycle is 100 m, how long will it take
for the police to catch the thief
(1) 1 s (2) 19 s
(3) 90 s (4) 100 s
38. A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east.
After 10 seconds its velocity becomes 40 m/s towards
north. The magnitude of average acceleration of the
(1) 12 sec (2) 5 sec body is:-
(3) 8 sec (4) None of these (1) 1m / s2 (2) 7m / s2
34. A man moves on his motorbike with 54 km/h and (3) 7m / s 2 (4) 5m / s2
then takes a u turn (180°) and continues to move
with same speed. The time of u turn is 10 s. Find the 39. A particle has an initial velocity of 3iˆ 4ˆj and an
average acceleration during u turn. acceleration of 0.4iˆ 0.3jˆ . Its speed after 10 s is :
(1) 0 (2) 3 ms–2
(1) 7 2 units (2) 7 units
(3) 1.5 2 ms–2 (4) None of these
(3) 8.5 units (4) 10 units
35. For which of the following graphs the average
velocity of a particle moving along a straight line for 40. Figure shows the velocity time graph of a particle.
time interval (0, t) must be negative - Its average velocity in 20 seconds will be

v (m/s)
(1) (2) 10
5

t (s)
5 10 15 20
(3) (4)
(1) 10 m/s (2) 0 m/s
(3) 3.75 m/s (4) 15 m/s
41. Acceleration–time graph of a particle moving in a
36. The displacement time graphs of two bodies A and
straight line is shown in the figure. If velocity of
B are shown in figure. The ratio of velocity of A, vA
particle at t = 0 is 1 m/s, then its velocity at the end
to velocity of B, vB is :
of 10 s will be :

a (m/s2)
4

2
1 t(in s)
(1) (2) 3 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3
1 (1) 18 m/s opposite to the initial direction.
(3) (4) 3
3 (2) 23 m/s along the initial direction.
(3) 18 m/s along the initial direction .
(4) 23 m/s in the opposite direction.

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 1/09-12-2020

42. If a man has a velocity varying with time given as 49. The atomic mass of two elements A and B are
v = 3t2, then find out his displacement after 2 sec 20 and 40 respectively if xg of A contains y
of his start : atoms then 2x g of B contains :
(1) 10 m (2) 6 m (1) 2y atom (2) y atom
(3) 12 m (4) 8 m
y
43. A particle moves along a path ABCD as shown in (3) atom (4) 3y atom
the figure. Then the magnitude of net displacement 2
of the particle from position A to D is : 50. How many g-atoms in 60g carbon.
(1) 3 × 1022 (2) 5 × 1023
D (3) 30 (4) 5
5m
51. The wt. of 2 × 1023 atoms of element which has
37°
C atomic mass 30 is :
4m (1) 1 g (2) 10g
(3) 100 g (4) None
A 3m B 52. % wt of C in glucose is :
(1) 20% (2) 40% (3) 60% (4) 80%
(1) 10 m (2) 5 2 m
53. A compound contains 7.5% wt Ca, calculate min
(3) 9 m (4) 7 2 m mol. wt of compound :
44. A body is projected vertically up with a velocity v (1) 233.33 (2) 333.33
and after some time it returns to the point from which (3) 433.33 (4) 533.33
it was projected. The average velocity and average 54. No. of atoms in 6.4 g of SO3
speed of the body for the total time of flight are (1) 4.8 × 1022 (2) 4.8 × 1021
(1) v / 2 and v / 2 (2) 0 and v/2 (3) 1.92 × 10 23
(4) 1.92 × 10 22
(3) 0 and 0 (4) v / 2 and 0 55. Volume of 1.12 mole of a gas at STP
45. A stone projected from the ground level falls on the (1) 25 L (2) .05 L (3) 2.5 L (4) 0.5 L
ground after 4 second. Then the height of the stone 56. No. of moles of a gas in 1.12 ml at STP
1 second after the projection (1) 5 × 10–5 (2) 5 × 10–4
–3
(1) 5 m (2) 10 m (3) 5 × 10 (4) 25 × 10–3
(3) 15 m (4) 20 m 57. Equal no. of moles of SO2 and O2 reacts to form
46. How many g-atoms are there in 1 amu of Mg SO3. Which one is the limiting reactant.
(1) 3.4 × 10–26 (2) 6.9 × 10–26 (1) O2 (2) SO2
(3) 9.6 × 10–24 (4) 3.4 × 10–24 (3) SO3 (4) None
47. How many atoms of O are present in 0.5 mole 58. The volume of a 1 mol gas at 1 atm pressure and
of Na2CO3 1
K temp is :
(1) NA (2) NA/2 R
(1) 22.4 L (2) 2.24 L
2N A (3) 1L (4) 0.1 L
3N A
(3) (4) 3 59. 3
No. of moles of 1m of air at STP is :
2
(1) 4.46 (2) 44.6 (3) .446 (4) None
48. What is the mass of H2O in 1000 kg of 60. 10 mol CH4 reacts with 21 mol of O2 at STP. The
CuSO4· 5H2O no. of moles remains unreacted after the
(1) 500 kg (2) 249.5 kg reaction.
(3) 100 kg (4) 360.5 kg (1) 1 mole CH4 (2) 1 mole O2
(3) 2 mole O2 (4) 2 mole CH4

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 1/09-12-2020

61. Mass of 0.1 mol of a gas is 10g its V.D. is : 71. If 0.5 g of metal on oxidation formed 0.79 g of
(1) 100 (2) 10 (3) 50 (4) 5 its oxide, then equivalent weight of the metal is:-
62. Volume of 0.01 mol of CH4 at STP is : (1) 10 (2) 14 (3) 18 (4) 22
(1) 0.224 L (2) 224 ml
–1 3
72. In the reaction: NaOH + H3PO4 NaH2PO4 +
(3) 2240 × 10 cm (4) All of these
H2O, the equivalent weight of phosphoric acid
63. Which one of the following is correct
(1) 1 mol = 6.023 × 1023 (H3PO4) is:-
(2) 1 mol = Gram molecular mass (1) 25 (2) 49
(3) 1 mol = no. of C atoms in 12 g C 12 (3) 59 (4) 98
(4) All of the above
73. If one gram of a metal carbonate gave 0.56 g
64. 2.8 g of iron displaces 3.2 g of copper from
a solution of copper sulphate. If the of its oxide on heating, then equivalent weight
equivalent mass of iron is 28, the equivalent of the metal will be:-
mass of copper will be :- (1) 30 (2) 40
(1) 16 (2) 32 (3) 48 (4) 64 (3) 25 (4) 20
65. Atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5. It has two
74. An organic compound contains 28.5% Na, 40% S,
isotopes of atomic mass 35 and 37. The
31.5% O and its vapour density is 79. What is
percentage of heavier isotope is :
(1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 25 its molecular formula:-
66. 22
4.6 × 10 atoms of an elements weight 13.8 g. (1) NaS 2O 2 (2) Na2S2O2
The atomic mass of the element is :- (3) Na2S2O3 (4) Na2S3O2
(1) 290 (2) 180 75. The number of gram equivalents present in 60
(3) 34.4 (4) 10.4 ml of 4 N solution is:-
67. Calcium pyrophosphate is represented by the (1) 0.24 (2) 0.40
formula Ca 2P 2O 7. The molecular formula of (3) 0.60 (4) 2.4
ferric pyrophosphate is :-
76. How much of NaOH is required to neutralise
(1) Fe2P 2O7 (2) FeP 2O7
1500 ml of 0.1 N HCl ?
(3) Fe(P 2O7)3 (4) Fe4(P 2O7)3
68. The density of a liquid is 1.2 g/mL. There are (At. wt. of Na = 23):-
35 drops in 2 mL. The number of molecules in (1) 4 g (2) 6 g
one drop (molar mass of liquid = 70) is :- (3) 40 g (4) 60 g
2 77. How many gram of CH3OH would have to be
1.2 1
(1) NA (2) NA added to water to prepare 150 ml of a 2 M
35 35
CH3OH solution:-
1.2 (1) 19.6 g (2) 14.6 g
(3) NA (4) 1.2 NA
(35)2 (3) 9.6 g (4) 2.4 g
69. Which of the following compounds illustrates 78. The molality of a solute having 18 g of glucose
the law of multiple proportions:- (mol. wt. = 180) dissolved in 500 g of water is:-
(1) CO and CO2 (2) NaCl and NaBr (1) 0.1 m (2) 0.2 m
(3) NaOH and KOH (4) ZnCO3 and PbCO3 (3) 0.5 m (4) 2.2 m
79. The mole fraction of the solute in one molal
70. The equivalent weight of an element is 4. Its
aqueous solution is
chloride has a vapour density of 60.
(1) 0.027 (2) 0.036
The valency of the element is:-
(3) 0.018 (4) 0.009
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 9

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80. If 107 g of an aqueous solution contains 39.5 6.023 10 54

g of a solute (mol. weight = 158), then mole % (3)
9.108
of the solute is:-
(1) 2.25% (2) 4.25% 1
(4) 108
(3) 6.25% (4) 8.25% 9.108 6.023
81. The density of the gas is 1.25 gm per litre. The 90. Which sample contains the largest number of
possible gas is :- atoms?
(1) CO2 (2) SO2 (1) 1 mg of C 4 H1 0 (2) 1 mg of N 2
(3) N2 (4) O2 (3) 1 mg of Na (4) 1 mL of water
82. Eq. wt of the compound NaH2PO2 is:- 91. The arrangement of papilionaceous petals in fabaceae
(1) 48 (2) 44 family
(3) 88 (4) 120 (1) 2+1+1 (2) 1+2+(2)
83. The molality of 3M. NaOH solution is if density (3) 2+1+2 (4) 1+1+2
is 1.2 g/ml:- 92. Identify the correct family for following floral
(1) 2.77 (2) 3.77 diagram.
(3) 2.27 (4) 3
84. In m1 g of a metal A displaces m2 g of another
metal B from its salt solution and if their
equivalent masses are E1 and E2 respectively, then
the equivalent mass of A can be expressed as :-

m 2 E2 m1
(1) E1 (2) E1 E2
m1 m2

m1 (1) Brassicaceae (2) Solanaceae

m1 m 2
(3) E1 (4) E1 E2 (3) Fabaceae (4) Liliaceae
E2 m2
93. Endospermic seeds are found in :-
85. The specific heat of a bivalent metal is 0.16. The (1) Maize (2) Pea
approximate equivalent mass of the metal will (3) Wheat (4) Both (1) and (3)
be:- 94. The three diagrams (A, B, C) given below represent
(1) 40 (2) 20 (3) 80 (4) 10 types of flower. Which one of these is correctly
86. 8 litre of CO at NTP will require for complete identified in the option given ?
oxidation, the volume of O2 at NTP :-
(1) 8 litre (2) 16 litre
(3) 4 litre (4) 2 litre
22
87. 4.6 × 10 atoms of an element weigh 13.8 g.
The atomic mass of the element is :-
(1) 290 (2) 180 (3) 34.4 (4) 10.4
88. What is the number of valence electrons present (A) (C)
in 4.2 gms of N3– ion? (B)
(1) 2.4 NA (2) 4.2 NA (3) 1.6 NA (4) 3.2 NA A B C
89. How many moles of electron weigh one (1) Hypogynous Perigynous Epigynous
kilogram? (2) Hypogynous Epigynous Perigynous
(3) Perigynous Epigynous Hypogynous
1 (4) Epigynous Perigynous Hypogynous
(1) 6.023 × 1023 (2) 1031
9.108

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 TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL-2021/ENTHU/REVISION PLAN TEST SERIES - 1/09-12-2020
(1) Fabaceae (2) Liliaceae
95. Coconut fruit develops from :-
(1) Monocarpellary Superior ovary (3) Solanaceae (4) Brassicaceae
(2) Monocarpellary Inferior ovary 102. The examples of inferior ovary containing
(3) Multicarpellary Superior ovary flowers are :-
(4) Multicarpellary Inferior ovary (1) Guava, Cucumber and Ray florets of
96. The fruit of Lemon is :- Sunflower
(1) Hypanthodium (2) Hesperidium (2) Guava, Cucumber and Peach
(3) Aggregate (4) Berry (3) Plum, Peach & Rose
97. Canna is example of :-
(4) Mustard' Chinarose, brinjal and mango
(1) Zygomorphic (2) Actinomorphic
(3) Asymmetric (4) Bilateral symmetry 103. Br O P 3 3 A 3 3 G 3 is the floral formula of :-
+
98. The floral formula of the given floral diagram is (1) Cruciferae (2) Leguminosae
(3) Solanaceae (4) Liliacae
104. The floral formula of Pea is represented as :-

(1) Br % O K 5 C1 2 2
A 9 1G1
+

(2) Br O K 5 C5 A1 9
G1
+

(3) Br % O K 5 C1 2 2
A 9 1G 1
+
(4) Ebr or Br % K 5 C1 2 2
A10 G 1
(1) K(5) C(5) A(5) G(2) 105. Which one of the floral formula is correct for
given floral diagram ?
(2) K(5) C (5) A5 G(2)

(3) K(5) C(5) A5 G(2)

(4) K5 C(5) A(5) G(2)

99. The pappus is a modification of the :-

(1) Calyx (2) Corolla
(3) Gynoecium (4) Bracts
100. Blue dye is obtained from the leaves of (1) + K (5)C 1+2+(2)A (9+1) G (2)
(1) Indigofera tinctoria (2) Opium
(3) Aloe (4) Delbergia sissoo (2) + K (5)C 1+2+(2)A (9+1) G (2)
101. The given floral diagram belongs to the which (3) + K 2+2C 4A 2+4G(2)
family. Identify the
(4) + K 2 2C 4x A 2 4G 2

(d)

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106. Few names of families are given here. In how many

families superior ovary and hypogynous flower is
found ?
(A) Fabaceae
(B) Brassicaceae
(C) Liliaceae
(D) Solanaceae (1) Solanaceae - Monoadelphous
(1) Two (2) Three
(2) Papilionoideae - Diadelphous
(3) Four (4) One
(3) Papilionoideae - didynamous
107. Which of the following is a characteristic feature
of ovary of Brassicaceae :- (4) Cruciferae - Tetradynamous
(1) Presence of (false septum) replum 113. Find out the correct sequence of labelling A, B, C
(2) Axile placentation and D in give diagram.
(3) Basal placentation
(4) Swollen placenta A
B
108. Aestivation of petals in the flower of china rose, lady's
C
finger (Malvaceae) is correctly shown in :- D

(1) (2) A B C D
(1) Pericarp Epicarp Endocarp Seed
(2) Epicarp Mesocarp Endocrap Seed
(3) Epicarp Mesocarp Seed Endocarp
(3) (4) (4) Mesocarp Endocarp Epicarp Seed
114. Match the Column-I and Column-II :-
109. Pepo fruit is found in :-
Column-I Column-II
(1) Cruciferae (2) Cucurbitaceae
(3) Liliaceae (4) Solanaceae
110. Which of the following is non - endospermous seeds (A) Pea (I)
(1) Bean, gram, pea
(2) Wheat, Rice
(3) Maize, coconut
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(B) Lemon (II)
111. The hardest part of drupe fruit is :-
(1) Mesocarp
(2) Endocarp
(3) Pericarp
(4) Epicarp
112. Identify the family from the below given floral (C) Mustard (III)
diagram and which technical term used for
androecium :-

(D) Primrose (IV)

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123. Modified petioles performing the function of

photosynthesis are called:
(1) Cladode (2) Phyllode
(E) Sunflower (V) (3) Phylloclade (4) Tuber
124. When root is swollen in middle and tappers at both
(1) A – V, B – II, C – I, D – III, E – IV the ends it is,
(2) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E – V (1) Tuberous root (2) Fusiform root
(3) Napiform root (4) Conical root
(3) A – V, B – II, C – III, D – I, E – IV
125. Verticillaster is characteristic of which family ?
(4) A – V, B – III, C – II, D – I, E – IV
(1) Lamiaceae (2) Euphorbiaceae
115. If the margins of sepals and petals overlap one
(3) Asteraceae (4) Liliaceae
another but not in any particular direction, the
126. Most reduced stem can be seen in:
aestivation is called :-
(1) Rhizome (2) Corms
(1) Valvate (2) Twisted
(3) Tubers (4) Bulb
(3) Imbricate (4) Vexillary
127. The bladders of Utricularia and pitcher of
116. Stilt roots are found in Nepenthes are modification of:
(1) Banyan (2) Pothos (1) Stem (2) Leaves
(3) Cuscuta (4) Maize (3) Roots (4) Flowers
117. Parallel venation is found in 128. Hypanthodium inflorescence is found in:
(1) Mango (2) Wheat (1) Ficus (2) Brassica
(3) Shoe flower (4) Pea (3) Ocimum (4) Euphorbia
118. Leaves of which of the plants became fleshy and is 129. Inflorescence of compositae is:
modified for storage of food.
(1) Perianth (2) Hypanthodium
(1) Onion (2) Garlic
(3) Capitulum (4) Lodicules
(3) Australian Acacia (4) Both (1) and (2)
130. The lenticel pores of respiratory roots in
119. Whorled phyllotaxy are found in Mangroves are called
(1) Mustard and sunflower plants (1) Pneumatophores (2) Pneumatothodes
(2) Alstonia and Nerium (3) Respiratory channels (4) Radicle pores
(3) Calotropis and Guava 131. The edible part of turnip is-
(4) China rose and Rose (1) Modified Adventitious roots.
120. Flattened phylloclade for photosynthesis is present (2) Modified tap root.
in
(3) Stem
(1) Australian Acacia (2) Asparagus
(4) Underground stem.
(3) Euphorbia (4) Opuntia
132. A dicot plant showing parallel venation is
121. Cladode is modification of:
(1) Smilax (2) Calophyllum
(1) Leaf
(3) Cotton (4) Mango
(2) Petiole
133. The most advanced type of inflorescence
(3) Branches of limited growth
(1) Capitulum (2) Umbel
(4) Stem of many internodes
(3) Verticillaster (4) Catkin
122. Which of the following is not a modification of leaf ?
134. An inflorescence in which peduncle is limited in
(1) Thorns of Bougainvillea growth and terminates in a flower and flowers show
(2) Tendrils in Wild peas basipetal succession ?
(3) Spines of Opuntia (1) Racemose (2) Cymose
(4) Fleshy leaves of Onion (3) Umbel (4) Both (1) and (3)

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135. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched 143. Wharton's duct is associated with
while the remaining three are correct? (1) Brunner's gland
(1) Agave - Bulbils (2) Sublingual salivary gland
(2) Oxalis - Runner (3) Submaxillary salivary gland
(3) Water Hyacinth - Runner (4) Parotid salivary gland
(4) Bryophyllum - Leaf buds 144. Thecodont, diphyodont and heterodont teeth are the
136. When each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw characteristic of
bone, then this type of attachment is called (1) Reptiles (2) Aves
(1) Thecodont (2) Lophodont (3) Amphibians (4) Mammals
(3) Secodont (4) Solenodont 145. Adenoids are
137. Oral cavity leads into a short pharynx which serves (1) Tubal tonsils (2) Palatine tonsils
as a common passage for (3) Lingual tonsils (4) Pharyngeal tonsils
(1) Food only (2) Air only
146. Stomach has three major portions. In which portion
(3) Food and air (4) Digestive juices of stomach does the oesophagus open?
138. Arrangement of teeth in each half of the upper and (1) Fundic (2) Pyloric
lower jaw in the order I, C, PM, M is represented by
(3) Cardiac (4) Fundic and Pyloric
a dental formula which in humans is
147. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.
2132 2123 histology of alimentary canal?
(1) (2)
2132 2123 (1) Serosa is the outermost layer made up of
white fibrous connective tissue
2312 3212
(3) (4) (2) Muscularis layer is formed by smooth
2312 3212 muscles usually arranged into an inner
139. Which of the following prevents the entry of food longitudinal layer and outer circular layer
into the wind pipe? (3) Submucosal layer is formed of loose
(1) Glottis (2) Pharynx connective tissue
(3) Epiglottis (4) Both(1)&(2) (4) An oblique muscle layer present in stomach
140. Frenulum is/are 148. Brush border columnar epithelium is the lining of
(1) Adenoid present on pharyngeal wall (1) Stomach
(2) Tonsils found on lateral walls of soft palate (2) Oesophagus
(3) V-shaped sulcus dividing tongue into (3) Proximal convoluted tubules
pharyngeal and oral parts (4) Small intestine
(4) Fold attaching tongue to the floor of oral 149. Duct of the gall bladder is called
cavity
(1) Hepatic duct
141. Chewing is required for
(2) Common bile duct
(1) Solubilisation of food
(3) Cystic duct
(2) Enjoying the taste of food
(4) Stenson's duct
(3) Decreasing the surface area of food
150. Opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum
(4) Increasing the surface area of food is guarded by
142. Hard chewing surface of teeth, made up of____, (1) Pyloric sphincter
helps in the mastication of food
(2) Sphincter of boyden
(1) Dentine (2) Cementum
(3) Sphincter of oddi
(3) Enamel (4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Cardiac sphincter

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151. Ileum is characterised by the presence of 159. Which of the following is mismatched regarding the
(1) Brunner's glands and villi cells of gastric glands and their functions?
(2) Brunner's gland and Peyer's patches (1) Mucus neck cells - Secrete mucus
(3) Peyer's patches and villi (2) Chief cells - Secrete proenzyme
(4) Brunner's gland and Taeniae coli (pepsinogen)
152. In which layer of stomach are the gastric glands (3) Parietal cells - Secrete intrinsic
located? factor for the absorption of vitamin B12
(1) Serosa (4) Peptic cells - Secrete HCl
(2) Mucosa 160. Choose the correct answer among the following :
(3) Submucosa Gastric juice contains
(4) Muscularis mucosa (1) Pepsin, rennin, lipase
153. The toxic substances in the diet are detoxified in (2) Trypsin, renin, pepsin
human body by (3) Pepsin, rennin, amylase
(1) Liver (2) Kidney (4) Pepsin, lipase, trypsin
(3) Lungs (4) Stomach 161. Succus entericus is the name given to
154. Which of the following does not produce any digestive (1) A junction between ileum and large intestine
enzyme? (2) Intestinal juice
(1) Pancreas (2) Colon (3) Swelling in gut
(3) Stomach (4) Duodenum (4) Appendix
155. Which of the following structure controls the 162. Match Column I with Column II
peristaltic movement of alimentary canal? Column I Column II
(1) Myenteric plexus (2) Auerbach plexus a. Pancreatic juice (i) Bilirubin and
(3) Meissner's plexus (4) Both(1)&(2) biliverdin
156. Which of the following sphincter controls the passage b. Intestinal juice (ii) Maltase
of food into the stomach? c. Bile juice (iii) Trypsin,
(1) Upper oesophageal sphincter Carboxypeptidase
(2) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter d. Succus entericus (iv) Enterokinase
(3) Pyloric sphincter (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Oesophageal sphincter (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
157. Which of the following is not a component of saliva? (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(1) Electrolytes Na+, K+, Cl– and HCO3 ions (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
163. Which of the following reaction is not catalysed by
(2) Ptyalin / -salivary amylase
brush border enzymes?
(3) Mucin, lysozyme and thiocyanate ions
Maltase
(4) Antibody (IgG) (1) Maltose glu cose glu cose
158. Tick mark the false statement. (2) Lactose Lactase
glu cose gala c t os e
(1) About 60% starch is hydrolysed in buccal
cavity by the enzyme salivary amylase (3) Nucleotides Nucleotidase
Nucleosides
(2) Salivary amylase acts on starch and is (4) Nucleicacids Nucleases
Nucleotides
converted into maltose
164. The enzymes of which of the following juice acts on
(3) Salivary amylase acts at optimum pH 6.8
the end products of reactions to form simple
(4) Stomach stores the food for 4-5 hours absorbable forms?
(1) Pancreatic juice (2) Succus entericus
(3) Saliva (4) Bile juice

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165. Which of the following is not a function of large 172. Which of the following can cause indigestion?
intestine? (1) Inadequate enzyme secretion
(1) Absorption of water, minerals and certain (2) Food poisoning and spicy food
drugs
(3) Anxiety and over eating
(2) Secretion of mucus which helps in adhering
(4) All of these
the waste particles together and lubricating
it for an easy passage 173. In which of the following disorder the faeces are
retained within the rectum as the bowel movements
(3) Faeces enters into the caecum of the large
occur irregularly?
intestine through ileocaecal valve
(1) Constipation (2) Vomiting
(4) Significant digestive activity occurs in large
intestine (3) Diarrhoea (4) Jaundice
166. Which of the following are absorbed by the 174. When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food,
mechanism of facilitated transport with the help of low in proteins and calories; the infants below the
the carrier ions like Na+? age of one year are likely to suffer from
(1) Glucose and fructose (1) Pellagra (2) Marasmus
(2) Fructose and some amino acids (3) Rickets (4) Kwashiorker
(3) Fats and glucose 175. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(4) Fats and amino acids (1) Vitamin B12 - Pernicious anaemia
167. Protein coated fat globules are called _(i)__ , which (2) Vitamin B6 - Loss of appetite
are transported into _(ii)__ in villi. Select the option (3) Vitamin B1 - Beri-beri
which correctly fills up both the blanks . (4) Vitamin B1 - Pellagra
(1) Cholesterol, capillaries 176. Lower molars in human dentition have:
(2) Chylomicrons, lacteals (1) Four roots (2)Three roots
(3) Chylomicrons, capillaries (3) Two roots (4)Single root
(4) Phospholipids, lacteals 177. Enamel part of tooth is secreted by:
168. Which of the following nutrient(s) is/are absorbed in (1) Odontoblast, mesodermal
stomach? (2) Ameloblast, mesodermal
(1) Water (2)Simple sugar (3) Odontoblast, ectodermal
(3) Alcohol (4) All of these (4) Ameloblast, ectodermal
169. In jaundice, skin and eyes turn yellow due to the 178. Which of the following salivary glands are absent in
deposition of bile pigments. This disease is due to man but present in rabbit ?
malfunctioning of which organ?
(1) Sublingual (2)Sub-mandibular
(1) Liver (2) Intestine
(3) Parotid (4)Infraorbital
(3) Brain (4) Pancreas
179. Common passage of bile and pancreatic juice is :
170. Vomiting is a reflex action and is controlled by the
(1) Ampulla of Vater
vomit centre. This is present in___
(2) Ductus choledochus
(1) Cerebrum (2) Hypothalamus
(3) Duct of Wirsung
(3) Medulla (4) Cerebellum
(4) Duct of Santorini
171. In which of the following disorder of digestive system
there is abnormal frequency of bowel movement and 180. Wisdom teeth in human is :
increased liquidity of the faecal discharge? (1) 3rd molar and 4 in number
(1) Vomiting (2) Diarrhoea (2) 3rd molar and 2 in number
(3) Constipation (4) Indigestion (3) 2nd molar and 4 in number
(4) 2nd molar and 2 in number

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