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CBSE EXAM 2026 30 Sets

Class : 10th
Sub : Science

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Disclaimer: These papers are based on the SQP released by CBSE and
published by a private organization just for the practice of the students.
CBSE has not released these papers and CBSE is not related to these papers
in any manner. Publisher of these papers clearly state that these paeprs
are only for practice of students and questions may not be come in main
exam.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 01 Page 1

Sample Paper 01
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events in the nutrition of Amoeba?
(a) Digestion ® Ingestion ® Absorption ® Assimilation ® Egestion
(b) Ingestion ® Digestion ® Absorption ® Assimilation ® Egestion
(c) Egestion ® Ingestion ® Digestion ® Absorption ® Assimilation
(d) Ingestion ® Assimilation ® Digestion ® Absorption ® Egestion

2. The nerve impulse is the signal transmitted along a nerve fibre. What is the correct pathway for the flow of
this impulse within a single neuron?
(a) Axon terminal ® Cell body ® Dendrite
(b) Cell body ® Axon ® Dendrite
(c) Dendrite ® Cell body ® Axon terminal
(d) Axon terminal ® Dendrite ® Cell body

3. There are various methods to prevent pregnancy. Which of the following contraceptive methods also provides
protection from acquiring sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
(a) Copper-T (b) Oral Pills
(c) Condom (d) Tubectomy

4. In a classic Mendelian monohybrid cross, when a heterozygous tall pea plant (Tt) from the F1 generation is
self-pollinated, what is the resulting phenotypic ratio of tall to dwarf plants in the F2 generation?
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2
(c) 3:1 (d) 2:1

5. In any ecosystem, certain organisms are responsible for breaking down complex organic substances from
dead plants and animals into simpler inorganic substances. What are these essential organisms called?
(a) Producers (b) Primary Consumers
(c) Carnivores (d) Decomposers

6. Consider the following statements about the human heart:

(i) The human heart is a four-chambered organ.
(ii) The right ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to the lungs.
(iii) The wall of the left ventricle is thicker than the wall of the right ventricle.
(iv) Valves ensure that blood flows in only one direction through the heart.
Page 2 Sample Paper 01 CBSE Science Class 10

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) (i), (iii), and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii) only
(c) (ii) and (iv) only (d) All are correct.

7. Fertilization in flowering plants is the fusion of male and female gametes. Where does this process typically
take place?
(a) On the surface of the stigma.
(b) Inside the growing pollen tube.
(c) Within the anther of the stamen.
(d) Inside the ovule, which is located within the ovary.

8. Assertion (A) : Abscisic acid is referred to as a “stress hormone” in plants.

Reason (R) : The production of abscisic acid in plants stimulates the closure of stomata, which helps to
reduce water loss during dry conditions.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion(A) : All variations that arise in a species have an equal chance of survival.
Reason (R) : Natural selection favors variations that provide a survival advantage in a particular environment.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. While plants generate oxygen during the day, they produce carbon dioxide at night. Justify this statement.

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. How is the process of breathing different in aquatic organisms compared to terrestrial organisms?
Explain why the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster.


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B. What is translocation in plants? Name the tissue responsible for it and the form in which the food is
transported.

12. In a grassland ecosystem, the following organisms are present:

Grass, Grasshopper, Hawk, Lizard, and Snake. Construct two distinct food chains from this ecosystem, each
starting with the producer.

13. Draw a neat diagram of a reflex arc showing the pathway of a reflex action when a person accidentally
touches a hot object. Label the key components involved.

14. In pea plants, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant (tt).
(i) What is the phenotype and genotype of the F1 generation?
(ii) If the F1 plants are self-pollinated, what will be the ratio of pure tall, hybrid tall, and dwarf plants
obtained in the F2 generation? Show the cross.

15. A student had a meal containing rice and lentils (dal). Refer to the figure of the human alimentary canal
to the following questions.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 01 Page 3

Human Alimentary canal

Attempt either subpart A or B.

A. Name the component in rice that is the primary source of energy. Where does its digestion begin and
which enzyme is responsible?


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B. Lentils are a rich source of protein. Describe the process of protein digestion that occurs in the stomach
(Part N) and the small intestine (Part O).
C. How is the small intestine (Part O) designed to maximize the absorption of digested food?

16. Attempt either option A or B

A. (i) A student observed a slice of bread with a cottony growth after leaving it in a moist, dark place.
Identify the organism and its mode of reproduction.
(ii) Explain how this mode of reproduction helps the organism to survive unfavourable conditions.
(iii) State one key advantage of sexual reproduction over this method.


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B. (i) Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower.
(ii) List any three changes that take place in a flower after fertilization which lead to the formation of
fruit and seed.
(iii) What is the function of the sepals and petals in a flower?

SECTION-B
17. Which of the following equations represent redox reactions and what are the values for ‘p’ and ‘q’ in these
equations?
Sunlight
Equation 1 : pAgCl (s) 2Ag (s) + Cl 2 (g)

Equation 2 : Zn (s) + qHCl (aq) " ZnCl 2 (aq) + H 2 (g)

(a) Only equation 1 is a redox reaction, p = 1 and q = 2
(b) Only equation 2 is a redox reaction, p = 2 and q = 1
(c) Both equations 1 and 2 are redox reactions, p = 2 and q = 2
(d) Neither equation is a redox reaction, p = 1 and q = 1

18. Four statements about the reactions of oxides are listed.

I. Lead(II) oxide reacts with both dilute hydrochloric acid and aqueous sodium hydroxide.
II. Magnesium oxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid but does not react with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
III. Copper(II) oxide reacts with both dilute hydrochloric acid and aqueous sodium hydroxide.
IV. Sodium oxide reacts with aqueous sodium hydroxide but not with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Which statements are correct?
(a) I and III (b) I and II
(c) II and IV (d) III and IV
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19. A strip of zinc is added to a test tube containing aqueous ferrous sulphate, and a copper wire is added to
another test tube containing aqueous zinc sulphate. Which of the following observations is correct?
(a) The green solution in the first test tube turns colourless, and the second test tube remains colourless
with no change.
(b) There is no reaction in the first test tube, but the blue solution in the second test tube turns colourless.
(c) A brown coating is observed on the zinc strip, and a grey coating is observed on the copper wire.
(d) The solution in both test tubes turns black, and a gas is evolved.

20. What change would you observe if you put blue litmus paper and red litmus paper into a sample of soap
solution?

Colour change on Blue Litmus Colour change on Red Litmus

a No change Turns blue
b Turns red No change
c Turns red Turns blue
d No change No change

21. Which of the following substances, when mixed with water, will result in a solution with the lowest pH
value?
(a) Milk of Magnesia (b) Human Blood
(c) Gastric juice from the stomach (d) Pure Water

22. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to solid sodium carbonate placed in a test tube, the observation is:
(a) A reddish-brown gas is evolved.
(b) The solution turns milky, and the test tube becomes hot.
(c) Brisk effervescence is seen due to the evolution of a colourless, odourless gas.
(d) A yellow precipitate is formed.

23. In the reaction of an aqueous solution of lead(II) nitrate with an aqueous solution of potassium iodide, the
insoluble substance formed is:
(a) KNO 3 (b) Pb (NO 3) 2
(c) KI (d) PbI 2

24. Assertion (A) : Soaps are not effective cleansing agents in hard water.
Reason (R) : Soaps form insoluble precipitates (scum) on reaction with calcium and magnesium ions present
in hard water.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Answer the following:

(a) School bells are designed to be sonorous. Why are they made of metals like brass or bronze and not
wood?
(b) Aluminium metal is highly malleable. How is this property utilized in the food industry?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 01 Page 5

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) An element ‘Y’ is the most abundant metal in the earth’s crust. It is extracted by the electrolytic
reduction of its molten oxide. This metal readily forms a thin, tough, and non-porous oxide layer on its
surface upon exposure to air.
(i) Identify the element ‘Y’.
(ii) Explain why electrolytic reduction is necessary for its extraction.
(iii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction that takes place at the cathode during its electrolysis.


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(B) Galvanisation is a common method used to protect iron articles from rusting.
(i) Name the metal used to provide the coating on iron during galvanisation.
(ii) Explain how this coating prevents rusting, even when the coating is scratched and the iron is
exposed.
(iii) Suggest one other method apart from galvanisation and painting that can be used to prevent the
rusting of iron.

27. A student sets up an apparatus for the reaction of zinc granules with dilute sulphuric acid as depicted.

(a) What would the student observe happening near the surface of the zinc granules?
(b) Name the gas evolved in this process. How can its presence be tested in the laboratory?
(c) If the student touches the bottom of the flask after the reaction starts, what change in temperature
would be felt? Justify your answer.

28. A farmer found that the soil in his fields was very acidic with a pH of around 4.5, resulting in poor crop
growth. An agricultural expert advised him to add either quick lime (calcium oxide), slaked lime (calcium
hydroxide), or chalk (calcium carbonate) to the soil.
(a) Why is highly acidic soil detrimental to crop growth?
(b) Explain why the addition of any of the three suggested substances can improve the soil quality.
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation showing the neutralisation of soil acid (assume sulphuric acid,
H2SO4) with slaked lime.


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A baker prepared a cake batter and added baking soda. However, he forgot to add another key dry
ingredient, causing the final cake to have a bitter, soapy taste.
(a) What crucial ingredient, usually found mixed with baking soda in ‘baking powder’, did he likely forget?
Why is this ingredient necessary?
(b) What is the chemical name and formula of baking soda?
(c) Explain the role of baking soda in making the cake soft and spongy, and write the chemical equation for
the reaction that occurs when it is heated.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 01 CBSE Science Class 10

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) An organic compound ‘A’ has the molecular formula C2H6O and is a common solvent and the active
ingredient in alcoholic beverages. When ‘A’ is warmed with alkaline potassium permanganate solution,
it gets converted to an organic acid ‘B’. When ‘A’ and ‘B’ are heated together in the presence of a few
drops of concentrated sulphuric acid, a new compound ‘C’ with a fruity smell is formed.
(a) Identify the compounds ‘A’, ‘B’, and ‘C’.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the conversion of ‘A’ to ‘B’.
(c) What is the general name for the process of formation of ‘C’ ?
(d) Draw the electron dot structure for compound ‘A’.
(e) What is the role of concentrated sulphuric acid in the formation of ‘C’ ?


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(B) Carbon is an element that forms the basis for all life. It belongs to Group 14 of the periodic table and
exhibits unique properties.
(a) What is the valency of Carbon? Name the property of carbon which allows it to form long chains
with itself.
(b) Carbon exists in various forms with different physical properties but identical chemical properties.
What are these different forms called? Name one hard and one soft crystalline form.
(c) Draw the structure of the hard crystalline form you named in part (b).
(d) What type of bonds are present in compounds of carbon? Give a reason why these compounds are
generally poor conductors of electricity.
(e) Write the name and draw the electron dot structure of the simplest compound formed between
carbon and hydrogen.

SECTION-C
30. A student observed the reflection of light from different types of spherical mirrors and made the following
statements:
I. A concave mirror can form a magnified and real image of an object.
II. A convex mirror can only form a virtual image of an object.
III. The magnification produced by a concave mirror can be negative.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. Choose the correct option from the below which explains the reason for us to perceive the day sky as blue.
(a) As sunlight passes through the atmosphere, shorter wavelengths, such as blue are scattered more than
other colors.
(b) The sky appears blue because all colors are scattered equally, but blue light is stronger and more visible
to the human eye.
(c) The blue color of the sky is due to longer wavelengths like red and orange scattering more than shorter
wavelengths, making blue stand out.
(d) The atmosphere contains blue-colored particles that give the sky its blue appearance.

32. Assertion (A) : A point object is placed at a distance of 26 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 26 cm.
The image will not form at infinity.
Reason (R) : For above given system the equation 1/f = 1/v + 1/u gives v = 3.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 01 Page 7

33.

The above image shows the lens is placed on the axis

A. Which type of the lens is used in the above diagram ?
B. Complete the diagram in your answer book
C. Write the nature of the image formed.

34. Attempt either option A or B.

A. Two identical resistors of 24 Ω each are connected to a battery of 6 V. Calculate the ratio of the power
consumed by the resulting combinations with
(a) Minimum resistance and
(b) Maximum resistance.


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B. The current flowing through a resistor connected in a circuit and the potential difference developed
across its ends are as shown in the diagram by milliammeter and voltmeter readings respectively :
(a) What are the least counts of these meters?
(b) What is the resistance of the resistor?

35. Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow :

(i) Name the defect of vision represented in the diagram. Give reason for your answer.
(ii) List two causes of this defect.
(iii) With the help of a diagram show how this defect of vision is corrected.

36. A wire is cut into three equal parts and then connected in parallel. How will its :
(a) Resistance
(b) Resistivity get effected ?

37. The magnetic field lines are shown around a current-carrying straight conductor. A student claims that the
magnetic field strength at point P is stronger than at point Q.
Page 8 Sample Paper 01 CBSE Science Class 10

(i) Is the student’s claim correct? Give reason.

(ii) Redraw the diagram and mark the direction of magnetic field lines using right-hand thumb rule.

38. A multimedia projector is often used in classrooms and seminar halls to project enlarged images of slides or
digital content onto a distant screen. The arrangement generally consists of a powerful light source and a
convex lens, which is adjusted to obtain a sharp image on the screen. The clarity of the image depends on
the lens–screen distance, as well as the focal length of the convex lens used in the projector. The figure below
illustrates how the slide is kept between the focus and the lens to form a magnified real image on the screen.

A. Which type of lens is used in the projector?

B. What type of image is formed on the screen?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. The projector lens has focal length f = 10 cm . The sharp image is obtained on a screen 200 cm behind
the lens. Find the object (slide) distance u from the lens.


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D. If the slide height is 2.0 cm and the image distance is 200 cm (with the same lens as above), calculate
the image height.

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. A household uses the following electric appliances :
(i) refrigerator of rating 400 W for 10 hours each day.
(ii) two electric fans of rating 80 W each for 6 hours daily.
(iii) six electric tubes of rating 18 W each for 6 hours daily.
Calculate the electricity bill for the household for month of June, if cost of electrical energy is < 3.00
per unit.


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B. The values of current I flowing in a given resistor for the corresponding values of potential difference
V across the resistor are given below:

I (ampere) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0

V (volt) 1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2
Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of the resistor.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 02 Page 1

Sample Paper 02
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in somequestions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. Plants need to get rid of waste products just like animals. Through which of the following structures do
plants excrete gaseous waste products like oxygen?
(a) Stomata and Lenticels
(b) Xylem and Phloem
(c) Roots and Bark
(d) Flowers and Fruits

2. The rapid folding of the leaves of a ‘touch-me-not’ plant (Mimosa pudica) upon being touched is an example
of which type of plant movement?
(a) Phototropism
(b) Geotropism
(c) Nastic movement
(d) Chemotropism

3. In the human female reproductive system, the process of fertilization, where the sperm fuses with the ovum,
typically takes place in which specific location?
(a) Uterus
(b) Vagina
(c) Ovary
(d) Oviduct (Fallopian tube)

4. In the study of genetics, the term used to describe the observable physical traits of an organism, such as its
height, eye colour, or hair texture, is its:
(a) Genotype
(b) Phenotype
(c) Allele
(d) Chromosome

5. An ecosystem is composed of both living and non-living components. Which of the following lists contains
only the abiotic components of an ecosystem?
(a) Sunlight, Soil, Bacteria, Water
(b) Temperature, Fungi, Air, Soil
(c) Water, Air, Sunlight, Temperature
(d) Plants, Air, Water, Animals
Page 2 Sample Paper 02 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements regarding the process of human digestion:

(i) The digestion of starch begins in the mouth by the action of salivary amylase.
(ii) Pepsin is the primary enzyme in the stomach that digests proteins in an acidic medium.
(iii) Bile juice, produced by the liver, contains powerful enzymes for digesting fats.
(iv) Trypsin, found in the small intestine, acts on proteins and breaks them down.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iii) only
(b) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv) only
(d) All are correct.

7. The regulation of blood sugar levels is a classic example of a hormonal feedback mechanism. Which hormones
are responsible for lowering and raising blood sugar levels, respectively?
(a) Glucagon and Insulin
(b) Insulin and Glucagon
(c) Adrenaline and Thyroxine
(d) Thyroxine and Adrenaline

8. Assertion(A) : Decomposers play a critical role in every ecosystem.

Reason (R) : They are responsible for breaking down dead organic matter and returning essential nutrients
to the soil, which are then used by producers.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : A plant grown from a cutting will be genetically identical to the parent plant.
Reason (R) : This method of reproduction, known as vegetative propagation, involves the fusion of gametes
from two different parents.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. “The release of energy in aerobic respiration is much larger than in anaerobic respiration.” Provide two
reasons to justify this statement.

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. Differentiate between arteries and veins based on the thickness of their walls and the type of blood they
generally carry.


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B. Explain the role of kidneys in osmoregulation in the human body.

12. The overuse of fertilizers in agricultural fields often leads to the enrichment of nearby water bodies with
chemicals, a process called eutrophication. How does this process affect the aquatic life in the water body?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 02 Page 3

13. Draw a neat diagram of the human brain and label the following parts:
(i) Cerebrum
(ii) Cerebellum
(iii) Medulla

14. A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood group B, and they have a child with blood group O.
(i) What are the genotypes of the parents?
(ii) Show the possible genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring with a cross.
(iii) What is the probability of them having a child with blood group AB?

15. Observe the given diagram showing a part of the human excretory system. the questions that follow.

A. Identify the structural and functional unit of the part labelled ‘Kidney’. Draw its neat labelled diagram.


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B. Describe the process of urine formation in a human kidney, focusing on ultrafiltration and selective
reabsorption.
C. What happens to the glucose that enters the nephron along with the filtrate? What does the presence
of glucose in urine indicate?

16. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) Name the type of fission carried out by Leishmania. How is it different from the fission in Amoeba?
(ii) What is regeneration? Give an example of an organism that shows this ability. Can regeneration be
considered a mode of reproduction? Why?


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B. (i) Identify the male and female reproductive parts of a flower. State the function of each.
(ii) What is pollination? Differentiate between self-pollination and cross-pollination.
(iii) Mention one agent of cross-pollination.

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Page 4 Sample Paper 02 CBSE Science Class 10

SECTION-B
17. Analyze the following chemical equations and identify the correct values for ‘p’ and ‘q’.
Equation 1 : pMg (s) + O 2 (g) " 2MgO (s)
Equation 2 : 2Pb (NO 3) 2 (s)
Heat
qPbO (s) + 4NO 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
(a) p = 1, q = 1
(b) p = 2, q = 4
(c) p = 1, q = 2
(d) p = 2, q = 2

18. When dissolved in water, which of the following oxides is most likely to form a solution with a pH value
greater than 7?
(a) SO2 (Sulphur dioxide)
(b) CO2 (Carbon dioxide)
(c) K2O (Potassium oxide)
(d) N2O5 (Dinitrogen pentoxide)

19. A student places a clean strip of magnesium metal into a test tube containing a blue solution of copper(II)
sulphate. What is the expected observation after some time?
(a) The solution remains blue, and a greyish layer deposits on the strip.
(b) A colourless, odourless gas is evolved, and the strip dissolves completely.
(c) The blue colour of the solution fades, and a reddish-brown solid is deposited on the strip.
(d) No reaction occurs, and the appearance of the solution and the strip remains unchanged.

20. A few drops of phenolphthalein indicator are added separately to a solution of vinegar and a solution of
washing soda. What are the observed colours?

Colour in Vinegar Colour in Washing Soda Solution

A Pink Colourless
B Colourless Pink
C Orange Yellow
D Colourless Colourless

21. Arrange the following common substances in the increasing order of their pH values: Lemon Juice, Toothpaste,
Sodium Hydroxide Solution, Distilled Water.
(a) Lemon Juice < Toothpaste < Distilled Water < Sodium Hydroxide Solution
(b) Distilled Water < Lemon Juice < Toothpaste < Sodium Hydroxide Solution
(c) Lemon Juice < Distilled Water < Toothpaste < Sodium Hydroxide Solution
(d) Sodium Hydroxide Solution < Toothpaste < Distilled Water < Lemon Juice

22. Dilute sulphuric acid is added to sodium hydrogen carbonate. The gas evolved is then passed through freshly
prepared lime water. What is the final observation?
(a) A reddish-brown gas is seen, which turns lime water orange.
(b) No gas is evolved.
(c) Brisk effervescence occurs, and the gas turns lime water milky.
(d) The solution becomes hot, and the lime water remains clear.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 02 Page 5

23. Consider the reaction : CaO (s) + H 2 O (l) " Ca (OH) 2 (aq) + Heat This reaction can be classified as:
(i) Combination reaction
(ii) Exothermic reaction
(iii) Decomposition reaction
(iv) Endothermic reaction
(a) (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

24. Assertion (A) : Synthetic detergents can be used for washing clothes even in hard water.
Reason (R) : The charged ends of detergent molecules form soluble salts with the calcium and magnesium
ions present in hard water.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Answer the following based on the properties of metals:

(a) The electrical wiring in homes is typically made of copper or aluminium. Which property of these metals
makes them suitable for this purpose?
(b) Gold can be drawn into extremely thin wires, some just a few micrometers thick. Name the property
responsible for this characteristic.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) The chief ore of a metal ‘M’ is Cinnabar (HgS). This metal is placed low in the reactivity series.
(i) Identify the metal ‘M’.
(ii) Name the process used to convert the sulphide ore into its oxide and write the balanced chemical
equation for the reaction.
(iii) How is metal ‘M’ subsequently extracted from its oxide? Write the equation.


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(B) Alloys are prepared to enhance the properties of metals.
(i) Name the constituent elements of the alloy Brass.
(ii) State two reasons why stainless steel, an alloy of iron, is preferred over pure iron for making cooking
utensils.
(iii) What is an alloy containing mercury as one of its constituents called? Give an example.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 02 CBSE Science Class 10

27. A student performs an experiment to test the electrical conductivity of a dilute acid solution using a beaker,
two graphite rods, a battery, and a bulb.

(a) When a dilute solution of hydrochloric acid (HCl) is taken in the beaker and the switch is turned on,
what will the student observe? Give a reason for this observation.
(b) If the HCl solution is replaced with an aqueous solution of glucose (C6H12O6), will the observation
change? Explain why.
(c) Name a common base which, if used instead of HCl, would produce a similar observation as seen in part
(A).

28. While playing in a garden, Anjali was stung by a honeybee, which caused her immense pain and a burning
sensation. Her friend immediately advised her to rub the affected area with some toothpaste. Later that
evening, after having a spicy meal, her father complained of acidity. Anjali suggested he take a solution of
baking soda.
(a) Bee stings are acidic in nature. How does rubbing toothpaste on the sting provide relief?
(b) Why did Anjali suggest baking soda for her father’s acidity?
(c) Name the acid injected by the bee sting.


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A laboratory has three unlabelled beakers containing different liquids : (A) Rainwater with a pH of 5.2, (B)
Tap water with a pH of 7.1, and (C) Drain cleaner with a pH of 13.5.
(a) Classify each liquid as a weak acid, a weak base, or a strong base.
(b) What is acid rain? Explain why liquid (A) is an example of acid rain.
(c) Which of the three liquids will have the highest concentration of hydrogen (H+) ions?

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) The molecular formula of a saturated hydrocarbon is C4H10.
(a) Draw the structural formula of its straight-chain isomer and provide its IUPAC name.
(b) Draw the structural formula of its branched-chain isomer and provide its IUPAC name.
(c) What is the relationship between these two compounds called? Define this phenomenon.
(d) Explain why the boiling point of the straight-chain isomer is higher than that of the branched-chain
isomer.
(e) Write the balanced chemical equation for the complete combustion of this hydrocarbon.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 02 Page 7

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(B) Four organic compounds are given below:
(i) CH 3 –CH 2 –CHO
(ii) CH 3 –CO–CH 3
(iii) CH 3 –COOH
(iv) CH 3 –CH 2 –OH

(a) Identify and name the functional group present in compounds (iii) and (iv).
(b) Give the IUPAC names for compounds (i) and (ii).
(c) Which two compounds from the list are isomers of each other? Justify your answer.
(d) Which compound is commonly used as a solvent in nail polish removers?
(e) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction that occurs when compound (iv) reacts with
compound (iii) in the presence of an acid catalyst.

SECTION-C
30. A student is analyzing the behavior of light rays and makes the following observations:
I. A ray of light passing through the center of curvature of a concave mirror retraces its path.
II. A ray of light parallel to the principal axis of a convex mirror, after reflection appears to diverge from
the principal focus.
III. A ray of light incident obliquely at the pole of a concave mirror is reflected obliquely, making an equal
angle with the principal axis.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III

31. When a beam of white light passes through a glass prism, the light separates into its constituent colors.
Choose the correct option that explains this phenomenon.
(a) The different colors of light travel at the same speed inside the prism.
(b) The different colors of light are refracted at different angles due to their different speeds inside the
prism.
(c) The prism itself produces the colors and this effect is due to the scattering of light by the prism material.
(d) The angle of incidence is different for each color of light, leading to the separation of colors.

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Page 8 Sample Paper 02 CBSE Science Class 10

32. Assertion (A) : A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is placed in front of an object at 10 cm. The image
formed will be virtual and erect.
Reason (R) : For a convex lens, when the object is placed between the optical center and the principal focus,
it forms a virtual and erect image.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33.

The above image shows the formation of an image with an optical instruments.
A. Which type of the lens is used in the above diagram ?
B. What type image is formed in the above case?
C. What is the focal length of the lens

34. Attempt either option A or B.

A. The current flowing through a resistor connected in an electrical circuit and the potential difference
developed across its ends are shown in the given ammeter and voltmeter. Find the least count of the
voltmeter and ammeter. What is the voltage and the current across the given resistor?

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B. In the given circuit diagram suppose the resistors R1 , R2 and R3 have the values 5 Ω , 10 Ω, 30 Ω
respectively, which have been connected to a battery of 12 volt. Calculate
NODIA APP Sample Paper 02 Page 9

(a) The current through each resistor,

(b) The total current in the circuit and

35.

Study the diagram below and answer the following questions :

(i) Name the defect of vision depicted in the diagram.
(ii) List two causes of the above defect.
(iii) Draw a ray diagram for the correction of the above defect using an appropriate lens.

36. (a) What is the total resistance of n resistors each of resistance R connected in :
(i) Series,
(ii) Parallel.
(b) Calculate the resultant resistance of 3 resistors 3 Ω , 4 Ω and 12 Ω connected in parallel.

37. What is a compass needle ? What happens when a compass needle is placed
(a) in a region having no magnetic field,
(b) near a bar magnet ?

38. Every car today is fitted with rear-view mirrors for safety purposes. The outside rear-view mirror is specially
designed to give a wider field of view so that the driver can see vehicles coming from behind. These mirrors
are made slightly curved outward and provide an image that looks smaller than the actual object, but helps
cover a larger portion of the road. That is why the message “Objects in the mirror are closer than they
appear” is written on such mirrors. This practical application is based on the principle of image formation
by spherical mirrors.

A. Which type of spherical mirror is used here—concave or convex?

B. State two characteristics of the image formed in such a mirror for distant objects.
Attempt either subpart C or D.
Page 10 Sample Paper 02 CBSE Science Class 10

C. For a convex mirror of focal length f = − 30 cm , a vehicle is u = − 500 cm from the mirror. Find the
image distance v .


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D. For the situation in (C), find the magnification m and comment on the image size.

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. A student named Riya is conducting an experiment using a coil wound around a long, hollow cardboard
tube connected to a battery to demonstrate the concept of electromagnetism. Copy the diagram

(i) Show the polarity acquired by each face of the solenoid.

(ii) Draw the magnetic field lines of force inside the coil and also show their direction.
(iii) Mention two methods to increase the strength of the magnetic field inside the coil.


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B. State the factors on which the resistance of a cylindrical conductor depends. How will resistance of a
conductor change if it is stretched so that its length is doubled ?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 03 Page 1

Sample Paper 03
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants prepare their own food. Which of the following are the
essential raw materials for this process?
(a) Oxygen, Water, and Sunlight
(b) Carbon Dioxide, Oxygen, and Water
(c) Sunlight, Chlorophyll, and Oxygen
(d) Carbon Dioxide, Water, and Sunlight

2. Hormones regulate various functions in the human body. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the
development of secondary sexual characteristics in males?
(a) Oestrogen
(b) Testosterone
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Insulin

3. Organisms reproduce either sexually or asexually. What is the most significant difference between these two
methods?
(a) Asexual reproduction is a very slow process compared to sexual reproduction.
(b) Asexual reproduction results in genetic variation, while sexual reproduction produces clones.
(c) Asexual reproduction involves one parent, while sexual reproduction typically involves two parents.
(d) Asexual reproduction occurs only in unicellular organisms, and sexual reproduction only in multicellular
ones.

4. In genetics, a single gene can exist in different variations or forms. What is the term for these alternative
forms of a gene?
(a) Alleles
(b) Phenotype
(c) Zygote
(d) Chromosome

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Page 2 Sample Paper 03 CBSE Science Class 10

5. Energy flows through an ecosystem from one trophic level to the next. What is considered the ultimate
source of energy for nearly all food chains on Earth?
(a) Green plants
(b) Geothermal vents
(c) The Sun
(d) Decomposers

6. Consider the following statements about cellular respiration:

(i) Aerobic respiration occurs in the mitochondria and requires oxygen.
(ii) Anaerobic respiration in human muscles produces ethanol and energy.
(iii) Aerobic respiration yields a much larger amount of ATP than anaerobic respiration.
(iv) The final step in anaerobic respiration is the breakdown of pyruvate into water and carbon dioxide.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(d) All are correct.

7. The different parts of a flower are specialized for various roles in reproduction. What are the primary
functions of the sepals and petals?
(a) Produce eggs and produce pollen.
(b) Protect the bud and attract pollinators.
(c) Attract pollinators and protect the bud.
(d) Develop into a seed and develop into a fruit.

8. Assertion (A) : Arteries are blood vessels with thick and elastic walls.
Reason (R) : The blood emerges from the heart under high pressure and flows through the arteries
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion(A) : The concentration of harmful, non-biodegradable chemicals increases at higher trophic levels
in a food chain.
Reason (R) : These chemicals are easily broken down and metabolized by the organisms at each trophic
level.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. In the human heart, the wall of the left ventricle is significantly thicker than the wall of the right ventricle.
Provide a reason for this structural difference.

11. Attempt either option A or B.

A. Differentiate between autotrophic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition by giving one key difference and
one example for each.


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B. What is lymph? State two major functions of the lymphatic system in the human body.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 03 Page 3

12. If a pesticide like DDT is sprayed on a field, it enters the food chain: Grass ® Goat ® Human. In which
organism will the concentration of this pesticide be the highest? Name the phenomenon and explain why.

13. Draw a diagram showing the location of the major endocrine glands in the human body and label the
following:
(i) Thyroid Gland
(ii) Adrenal Gland
(iii) Pituitary Gland

14. Explain the mechanism of sex determination in human beings. With the help of a cross, show why the
statistical probability of a baby being a boy or a girl is 50%.

15. A person ate a piece of buttered toast. Refer to the figure of the human alimentary canal to the questions.
Page 4 Sample Paper 03 CBSE Science Class 10

A. The butter is rich in fats. Explain the role of the organ labelled ‘N’ (Liver) and its secretion in the
digestion of fats.


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B. The toast is rich in carbohydrates. Where does its digestion start and which enzyme from the gland
labelled as part of ‘N’ (Pancreas) helps in its further digestion in the small intestine?
C. Explain the process of peristalsis and its role in the part labelled ‘M’ (Oesophagus).

16. Attempt either option A or B

A. (i) What are the male and female gametes in flowering plants? Where are they produced?
(ii) Differentiate between unisexual and bisexual flowers with one example of each.
(iii) Why is it advantageous for a plant to be cross-pollinated?


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B. (i) Define puberty. List two changes observed in girls and two in boys during this time.
(ii) What is the function of the testes and ovaries in the human reproductive system, apart from
producing gametes?
(iii) Name two barrier methods of contraception.

SECTION-B
17. Analyze the following equations. Which statement correctly identifies the redox reaction and the values of
‘p’ and ‘q’ ?
Equation 1:
pCuSO 4 (aq) + Fe (s) " FeSO 4 (aq) + Cu (s)
Equation 2:
Heat
CaCO 3 (s) CaO (s) + qCO 2 (g)
(a) Both are redox reactions; p = 1, q = 1
(b) Only Equation 1 is a redox reaction; p = 1, q = 1
(c) Only Equation 2 is a redox reaction; p = 1, q = 2
(d) Both are redox reactions; p = 2, q = 1

18. Most non-metal oxides are acidic in nature, but some are neutral. Which of the following is a neutral oxide?
(a) SO2 (Sulphur dioxide)
(b) CO2 (Carbon dioxide)
(c) P2O5 (Phosphorus pentoxide)
(d) CO (Carbon monoxide)

19. A student performs experiments with four unknown metals A, B, C, and D. The observations are as follows:
1. Metal A displaces Metal B from its salt solution.
2. Metal B displaces Metal C from its salt solution.
3. Metal C displaces Metal D from its salt solution.
Based on these results, what is the correct order of decreasing reactivity?
(a) D C B A
(b) A B C D
(c) C B A D
(d) B A D C

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 03 Page 5

20. A curry stain on a white cloth is yellow in colour. When soap is scrubbed on it, the stain turns reddish-
brown. What is the nature of soap and why does the colour change?
(a) Soap is acidic, and it reacts with the stain.
(b) Soap is neutral, and it cleans the stain.
(c) Soap is basic, and the turmeric in the curry acts as a natural indicator.
(d) Soap is acidic, and it bleaches the colour of the stain.

21. A student takes 10 mL of a hydrochloric acid solution (pH = 2) in a beaker and adds 90 mL of distilled
water to it. What will be the effect on the pH of the final solution?
(a) The pH will decrease.
(b) The pH will increase.
(c) The pH will remain unchanged.
(d) The pH will become 1.

22. A student mixes a solution of dilute hydrochloric acid with a solution of sodium hydroxide. Which of the
following correctly represents the products of this reaction?
(a) Sodium chloride and hydrogen gas
(b) Sodium chloride, water, and chlorine gas
(c) Sodium oxide and water
(d) Sodium chloride and water

23. A pale yellow powder, silver bromide, is kept in a china dish in the open. After some time, its colour changes
to grey. This change is an example of a:
(a) Combination reaction
(b) Photolytic decomposition reaction
(c) Displacement reaction
(d) Precipitation reaction

24. Assertion (A) : Covalent compounds, like methane and ethanol, generally have low melting and boiling
points.
Reason (R) : The intermolecular forces of attraction between the molecules of covalent compounds are very
weak.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Answer the following based on the physical properties of metals:

(a) Why are metals like gold and platinum, which are described as ‘noble metals’, exceptionally suitable for
making jewellery? Give a reason based on their chemical property.
(b) Sodium is a metal, yet it is stored in kerosene and can be easily cut with a knife. What does this indicate
about the physical hardness and chemical reactivity of sodium?

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) A highly exothermic reaction between aluminium powder and iron(III) oxide is used for welding purposes
on site.
(i) Give the common name of this reaction.
(ii) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction, indicating the physical states of the reactants
and products.
(iii) Explain why the product of this reaction is useful for welding.
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(B) Ionic compounds exhibit a unique set of physical properties due to the nature of the ionic bond.
(i) Explain why ionic compounds are generally hard, crystalline solids with high melting points.
(ii) Why do ionic compounds conduct electricity when dissolved in water or in the molten state, but not
in the solid state?
(iii) Are ionic compounds typically soluble in an organic solvent like kerosene? Give a reason.

27. A student places a clean iron nail in a test tube containing a blue solution of copper sulphate. In another
test tube, she places a copper wire in a freshly prepared pale green solution of ferrous sulphate.

(a) What changes would she observe in the first test tube containing the iron nail after 30 minutes?
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the chemical reaction that occurred in the first test tube.
(c) Would she observe any reaction in the second test tube? Justify your answer based on the reactivity
series.

28. Attempt either the main question or the OR option.

A white chemical compound ‘P’ has the formula CaSO 4 $ 12 H 2 O . It is prepared by carefully heating another
calcium compound, Gypsum. This powder ‘P’ is widely used in hospitals and for making decorative items.
(a) Identify the compound ‘P’ and write its common name.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the preparation of ‘P’ from Gypsum.
(c) Explain why ‘P’ must be stored in a moisture-proof container. Write the chemical equation for the
change that occurs if it is not.


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Bleaching powder is a yellowish-white solid used for various purposes, including disinfecting drinking water
supplies and as a bleaching agent for cotton in the textile industry. It is produced by the action of a specific
gas on dry slaked lime.
(a) What is the chemical name and formula for bleaching powder?
(b) Name the gas used in its preparation and write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction.
(c) What happens when bleaching powder is exposed to air for a long time? Explain why it loses its
effectiveness.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 03 Page 7

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) Soaps are molecules that have two ends with different properties. This unique structure is key to their
cleansing action.
(a) What are the two distinct parts of a soap molecule called? Describe their affinity towards water.
(b) With the help of a labelled diagram, show the formation of a micelle when soap is dissolved in water.
(c) Explain how these micelles help in washing away oily dirt from clothes.
(d) Why are detergents considered more effective cleansing agents than soaps, especially in hard water?


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(B) Hydrocarbons are classified as saturated or unsaturated, and they undergo characteristic chemical
reactions.
(a) Differentiate between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons. Give one example for each class.
(b) What type of reaction converts vegetable oils into solid fats (vanaspati ghee)? Name the catalyst
used in this process.
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation showing the conversion of ethene (C2H4) to ethane (C2H6).
(d) Saturated hydrocarbons are relatively unreactive but undergo substitution reactions. What is a
substitution reaction?
(e) Give one reason why the reaction between methane and chlorine (CH 4 + Cl 2 " CH 3 Cl + HCl ) is
considered a substitution reaction.

SECTION-C
30. A student is studying about magnification produced by spherical mirrors and makes the following statements:
I. The magnification produced by a convex mirror is always positive and less than one.
II. The magnification produced by a concave mirror can be positive, negative, or one.
III. A magnification of -2 means the image is real, inverted, and twice the size of the object.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III

31. During a laboratory experiment, a student observes that the path of light through a rectangular glass slab
is bent twice. Choose the correct option that describes this phenomenon.
(a) Light undergoes two refractions: at the entry surface and at the exit surface.
(b) Light undergoes one reflection and one refraction.
(c) The bending of light is due to scattering by the glass molecules.
(d) The path of light is bent due to dispersion and reflection.

32. Assertion (A) : A convex lens always produces a real image of an object.
Reason (R) : A convex lens converges parallel rays of light to a single point, forming a real image.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

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Page 8 Sample Paper 03 CBSE Science Class 10

33. The diagram shows a concave mirror reflecting rays of light.

A. Explain what is meant by the principal focus of a concave mirror.

B. State the mathematical relationship between the radius of curvature and focal length of a spherical
mirror.
C. Draw a ray diagram for image formation when the object is placed at infinity.

34. Attempt either option A or B

A. Three 2 Ω resistors A, B and C are connected as shown in figure. Each of them dissipates energy and
can withstand a maximum power of 18 W without melting. Find the maximum current that can flow
through the three resistors.

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B. A wire is cut into three equal parts and then connected in parallel. How will its :
(a) Resistance
(b) Resistivity get effected ?

35. A person wears spectacles of power - 2.5 D . Name the defect of vision he is suffering from. Draw the ray
diagram for (i) the defective eye, (ii) its correction after using a suitable lens.

36. Two resistors of resistances 3 Ω and 6 Ω respectively are connected to a battery of 6 V so as to have :
(a) Maximum resistance,
(b) Maximum current.
(i) How will you connect the resistances in each case ?
(ii) Calculate the strength of the current in the circuit in both cases.

37. Magnetic field lines are shown in the given diagram for a current-carrying solenoid.
A student makes a statement that the magnetic field at point P (inside the solenoid) is stronger than at
point Q (outside the solenoid).
NODIA APP Sample Paper 03 Page 9

(i) Explain with reason if the student’s claim is correct.

(ii) Also redraw the diagram and mark the direction of magnetic field lines.

38. The diagram shows a simple periscope used in submarines. A periscope is an optical device that allows
sailors to see objects above the water surface while remaining underwater. It consists of two plane mirrors
fixed at 45° to the vertical, placed parallel to each other inside a tube. Light from an object on the surface
strikes the upper mirror, reflects downward to the lower mirror, and then reflects again into the observer’s
eye. The principle of reflection of light is used here. This device is also applied in some tanks and other
defense instruments for observation.

A. Which law of reflection is followed by the plane mirrors in the periscope?

B. State two uses of periscopes apart from submarines.
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. An object is placed 2.0 m in front of the upper mirror of a periscope. Find the distance of the final image
from the observer’s eye inside the periscope, if the two mirrors are separated by 50 cm vertically.


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D. A ray of light strikes the upper mirror at an angle of incidence 45°. Draw the path of the ray through
the periscope, marking all angles clearly. Also, state the final direction of the ray emerging towards the
observer.

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Page 10 Sample Paper 03 CBSE Science Class 10

39. Attempt either option A or B

A. (i) How will you infer with the help of an experiment that the same current flows through every part
of the circuit containing three resistors R1, R2 and R3 in series connected to a battery of V volts?
(ii) Study the following circuit and find out:
(a) Current in 12Ω resistor.
(b) Difference in the readings of Al and A2, if any.

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B. (i) List two disadvantages of using a series circuit in homes.
(ii) Calculate the effective resistance between A and B in the circuit given below:

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 04 Page 1

Sample Paper 04
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. Transpiration is the process of water movement through a plant and its evaporation from aerial parts. What
is the most significant function of this process for the plant?
(a) To release excess energy absorbed from the sun.
(b) To create a suction force that pulls water up from the roots.
(c) To store water in the leaves for use during dry conditions.
(d) To provide water as a reactant for cellular respiration.

2. Plant hormones, or phytohormones, control various growth responses. Which hormone is responsible for the
bending of a plant tendril when it comes in contact with a support?
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) Auxin

3. The exchange of materials between the mother and the developing foetus is crucial for a healthy pregnancy.
This exchange occurs through which specialized tissue?
(a) Ovary
(b) Uterus
(c) Fallopian tube
(d) Placenta

4. A normal human somatic (body) cell contains 46 chromosomes. How many of these are classified as autosomes
(non-sex chromosomes)?
(a) 46 (b) 44
(c) 23 (d) 2

5. The ozone layer is a region of Earth’s stratosphere. What is its primary importance for the survival of life
on Earth?
(a) It maintains the planet’s temperature through the greenhouse effect.
(b) It absorbs most of the Sun’s harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
(c) It is the primary source of atmospheric oxygen needed for respiration.
(d) It creates the Earth’s magnetic field, deflecting solar wind.
Page 2 Sample Paper 04 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements about the human excretory system: (i) The kidneys are the main organs
of excretion, filtering waste from the blood. (ii) The nephron is the structural and functional unit of
the kidney. (iii) Urine is temporarily stored in the ureters before being passed out. (iv) The removal of
nitrogenous wastes like urea from the body is called excretion.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) All are correct.

7. The common bread mould, Rhizopus, spreads rapidly under moist and warm conditions. How does it
primarily reproduce asexually?
(a) Through budding
(b) Through fragmentation
(c) Through vegetative propagation
(d) Through spore formation

8. Assertion (A) : The transmission of a nerve impulse across a synapse is a chemical process.
Reason (R) : When an impulse reaches an axon terminal, it triggers the release of neurotransmitters that
diffuse across the synaptic gap.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : The genetic makeup of the father’s gamete determines the sex of a human child.
Reason (R): Human males have one X and one Y sex chromosome, while females have two X chromosomes.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. During hemodialysis, the dialysis fluid is continuously replaced with fresh fluid. Justify why this is a
necessary step in the procedure for a patient with kidney failure.

11. Attempt either option A or B

A. List the three key events that occur during the process of photosynthesis in the chloroplasts of a leaf.


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B. State the primary function of platelets and plasma in human blood.

12. What would be the consequences for an ecosystem if all decomposers, such as bacteria and fungi, were to
vanish? Provide two reasons.

13. Explain the phenomenon of phototropism in plants. Name the plant hormone responsible for this movement
and describe its mechanism of action that causes a plant shoot to bend towards a light source.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 04 Page 3

14. In a monohybrid cross, Mendel observed that crossing a pure-breeding tall pea plant with a pure-breeding
dwarf pea plant resulted in all tall plants in the F1 generation.
(i) What principle of inheritance is demonstrated by the results of the F1 generation?
(ii) When the F1 plants were self-crossed, what was the phenotypic ratio of tall to dwarf plants observed in
the F2 generation?
(iii) State the law that explains the reappearance of the dwarf trait in the F2 generation.

15. The diagram below shows the human respiratory system. the questions that follow.

A. Identify the balloon-like structures at the end of the bronchioles. Describe two features that make them
ideal for efficient gaseous exchange.


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B. Explain the mechanism of inhalation, detailing the roles of the diaphragm and rib muscles.
C. Name the respiratory pigment in human blood. Explain its role in the transportation of oxygen.

16. Attempt either option A or B

A. (i) Differentiate between regeneration and fragmentation as modes of asexual reproduction.
(ii) Explain how Plasmodium reproduces asexually. Name this process.
(iii) List two reasons why offspring produced by asexual reproduction are often called clones.


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B. (i) Draw a labelled diagram of the human female reproductive system.
(ii) State the site of fertilization and the site of implantation of the embryo in the human female.
(iii) What is menopause?

SECTION-B
17. In the reaction :
MnO 2 + 4HCl " MnCl 2 + Cl 2 + 2H 2 O
Which statement is correct?
(a) MnO2 is oxidized to MnCl2.
(b) HCl is oxidized to Cl2.
(c) MnO2 is the reducing agent.
(d) HCl is the oxidizing agent.
Page 4 Sample Paper 04 CBSE Science Class 10

18. Acetic acid (CH3COOH) is classified as a weak acid because it:

(a) is an organic compound.
(b) is highly corrosive.
(c) has a very low pH.
(d) dissociates only partially in an aqueous solution.

19. A food manufacturer wants to store a new line of acidic fruit preserves. Which of the following metals would
be the most unsuitable to use for making the storage containers?
(a) Tin
(b) Silver
(c) Zinc
(d) Copper

20. A student takes a strip of dry blue litmus paper and brings it near the mouth of a test tube releasing dry
hydrogen chloride (HCl) gas. What will be the observed colour change?
(a) The litmus paper will turn red.
(b) The litmus paper will turn pink.
(c) The litmus paper will be bleached.
(d) There will be no change in colour.

21. Sodium acetate (CH3COONa) is a salt. An aqueous solution of this salt will have a pH value:
(a) less than 7.
(b) exactly 7.
(c) more than 7.
(d) close to 0.

22. An aqueous solution of sodium sulphate is mixed with an aqueous solution of barium chloride in a test tube.
The result is:
(a) A yellow precipitate is formed.
(b) A clear solution is formed.
(c) A white precipitate is formed.
(d) A colourless gas is evolved.

23. When a zinc strip is dipped into a blue solution of copper(II) sulphate, the solution turns colourless after
some time. This reaction is an example of a:
(a) Combination reaction
(b) Double displacement reaction
(c) Decomposition reaction
(d) Displacement reaction

24. Assertion (A) : Diamond is used as an abrasive for cutting glass, while graphite is used as a lubricant.
Reason (R) : Diamond has a rigid three-dimensional tetrahedral structure, while graphite has a hexagonal
layered structure where layers can slide over each other.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 04 Page 5

25. Answer the following based on the reaction of metals with water:
(a) When a piece of calcium metal is dropped into a beaker of water, it starts floating on the surface after
some time. Provide a scientific reason for this observation.
(b) Noble metals like gold, silver, and platinum do not react even with steam. What conclusion can be
drawn about their position in the reactivity series?

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) The corrosion of iron, commonly known as rusting, is a major problem.
(i) Give the chemical name of rust.
(ii) State the two essential conditions required for the rusting of iron.
(iii) Explain how applying a coat of paint to an iron grill prevents it from rusting.


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(B) Corrosion affects different metals in different ways, leading to the formation of various compounds on
their surfaces.
(i) When silver articles are exposed to air, they gradually turn black. Name the black substance
formed.
(ii) A copper vessel develops a green coating on its surface over time. What is the chemical composition
of this green layer?
(iii) Explain why aluminium is considered a corrosion-resistant metal despite being highly reactive.

27. A student takes four test tubes containing equal volumes of dilute hydrochloric acid and adds pieces of
Magnesium, Zinc, Iron, and Copper to each, respectively.

(a) In which test tube would the rate of effervescence (bubble formation) be the highest? Give a reason for
your answer.
(b) Based on the expected rate of reaction, arrange the four metals in decreasing order of reactivity.
(c) What would you expect to observe in the test tube containing the piece of copper? Justify your
observation.
Page 6 Sample Paper 04 CBSE Science Class 10

28. Tooth enamel, the hardest substance in the human body, is made of calcium phosphate. It does not dissolve
in water but is corroded when the pH in the mouth is below 5.5. Bacteria present in the mouth produce
acids by the degradation of sugar and food particles.

(a) What is the chemical nature of the substance responsible for tooth decay?
(b) Explain why tooth enamel, which is a salt, begins to corrode in an acidic medium.
(c) How does the regular use of a good quality toothpaste help in preventing this decay?


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A student is given three aqueous solutions labelled P, Q, and R. Upon testing with a universal indicator
paper, the pH values are found to be 1, 7, and 13, respectively.
(a) Identify the solution that is (i) strongly acidic, (ii) neutral, and (iii) strongly alkaline.
(b) Arrange the three solutions in increasing order of their hydrogen ion (H+) concentration.
(c) What colour would the universal indicator show in each of the three solutions?

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) Ethanol and Ethanoic acid are two commercially important organic compounds. While both are soluble
in water, their chemical properties differ significantly.
(a) Describe a chemical test involving a reaction with a metal carbonate to distinguish between ethanol
and ethanoic acid. State the expected observations.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction occurring in the test described in part (a).
(c) What is observed when a few drops of alkaline KMnO4 solution are added to warm ethanol in a test
tube? Name this type of reaction.
(d) What happens when ethanol is heated with excess concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K? Name the
major product formed.
(e) What is the role of concentrated sulphuric acid in the reaction mentioned in part (d)?


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(B) The process of making soap from fats or oils is known as sanctification.
(a) Define saponification.
(b) Name the two primary raw materials needed to prepare soap in a school laboratory.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 04 Page 7

(c) Explain the purpose of adding common salt (NaCl) to the reaction mixture after the soap is formed.
What is this process called?
(d) Besides soap, what is the other important by-product formed during this process?
(e) How would you confirm that the resulting soap solution is alkaline in nature?

SECTION-C
30. While studying the laws of reflection, a student writes down the following statements:
I. The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal all lie in the same plane.
II. The angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection.
III. The laws of reflection are not applicable to spherical mirrors.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III

31. A person standing in a room sees a sharp image of a window on a wall. What optical phenomenon is
responsible for this?
(a) Refraction of light
(b) Diffraction of light
(c) Pin-hole camera effect
(d) Reflection from the window

32. Assertion (A) : The sun appears reddish at sunrise and sunset.
Reason (R) : At sunrise and sunset, light from the sun travels a longer path through the atmosphere, and
the longer wavelength red light scatters less.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. A spherical mirror has a radius of curvature of 20 cm which is below in the diagram

A. Find its focal length.

B. Identify the type of mirror that always forms diminished, erect, and virtual images.
C. State one use of this mirror.
Page 8 Sample Paper 04 CBSE Science Class 10

34. Attempt either option A or B

A.

1. Find out the equivalent resistance of the circuit

2. Whai the current flow through this combination ?


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B.

In the above circuit diagram calculate :

(a) the value of current through each resistor.
(b) the total current in the circuit.

35. A person can read the number plate of a distant bus clearly but he finds difficulty in reading a book. What
type of defect of vision he is suffering from? Name the type of lens he needs to correct this defect. Write the
causes of this defect.

36. An electric heater connected to a 220 V line has two resistance coils of 22 Ohms each.
Calculate the current if these coils are used
(a) Separately
(b) In series
(c) In parallel.

37. Draw a figure of current carrying solenoid and show magnetic field lines inside and outside it. Compare the
pattern of the field with the magnetic field around a bar magnet.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 04 Page 9

38. A concave mirror is often used by barbers and in shaving mirrors to obtain an enlarged image of the face.
When the face is held close to the mirror, the reflected rays converge to form a magnified, erect image.
However, if the face is moved far away, the mirror no longer produces an erect enlarged image but instead
gives a diminished inverted one. This practical application shows how the nature of the image depends on
the distance of the object from the pole of the mirror. The diagram represents the situation when the object
is placed between the pole and the focus of the mirror.

A. Which type of mirror is used as a shaving mirror and why?

B. What kind of image (real or virtual, erect or inverted, magnified or diminished) is seen when the face is
kept very close to the mirror?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. A concave mirror has focal length 15 cm. If the face is placed 10 cm from the mirror, calculate the image
distance.


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D. For the above situation, calculate the magnification and state the size of the image compared to the
object.

39. Attempt either option A or B

A. What is meant by magnetic force ? Name and explain the rule to determine the direction of force
experienced by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field. How does this force gets affected on :
(i) doubling the magnitude of current.
(ii) reversing the direction of current flow and
(iii) reversing the direction of magnetic field?


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B. Two electric lamps rated 100 W, 220 V and 25 W, 220 V are connected in parallel. Calculate the total
electric current in the circuit.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 05 Page 1

Sample Paper 05
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. Stomata, the tiny pores on the surface of leaves, are crucial for a plant’s survival. What is the specific
function of the guard cells that surround each stoma?
(a) To manufacture chlorophyll for photosynthesis.
(b) To regulate the opening and closing of the stomatal pore.
(c) To absorb water directly from the atmosphere.
(d) To provide physical strength to the leaf structure.

2. The human nervous system is a complex network responsible for coordination and control. It is primarily
divided into which two major parts?
(a) The Sensory System and the Motor System
(b) The Brain and the Spinal Cord
(c) The Central Nervous System (CNS) and the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
(d) The Voluntary System and the Involuntary System

3. The human female menstrual cycle is a series of natural changes that occurs approximately every 28 days.
What is the term for the event where a mature egg is released from the ovary?
(a) Menstruation (b) Fertilization
(c) Implantation (d) Ovulation

4. Fossils provide a window into the past. What is the primary way in which the fossil record supports the
theory of evolution?
(a) It proves that all organisms from the past are identical to modern organisms.
(b) It shows a chronological sequence of how life forms have changed and diversified over time.
(c) It demonstrates that all species appeared on Earth at the exact same time.
(d) It contains the complete genetic information of all extinct species.

5. In a simple aquatic food chain where algae are eaten by small fish, which are then eaten by a large bird,
which organism occupies the trophic level of a producer?
(a) Algae (b) Small fish
(c) Large bird (d) Water

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Page 2 Sample Paper 05 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements about reproduction in flowering plants:

(i) Pollination is the process of transferring pollen from an anther to a stigma.
(ii) Cross-pollination involves the transfer of pollen between flowers of two different plants.
(iii) Fertilization is the fusion of a male gamete with a female gamete.
(iv) After fertilization, the ovule develops into the fruit.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i), (ii), and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) only
(c) (i) and (iv) only (d) All are correct.

7. The circulatory system contains different types of blood vessels. Which of the following is a correct distinction
between arteries and veins?
(a) Arteries always carry deoxygenated blood, while veins always carry oxygenated blood.
(b) Arteries have thin, non-elastic walls, while veins have thick, elastic walls.
(c) Arteries carry blood away from the heart, while veins carry blood towards the heart.
(d) Arteries are wide-lumened and have valves, while veins are narrow-lumened and do not.

8. Assertion (A) : In a pea plant heterozygous for height (Tt), the plant appears tall.
Reason (R) : An allele is called dominant if it expresses its trait even in the presence of an alternative allele.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : The length and complexity of food chains in an ecosystem are generally limited.
Reason (R) : According to the 10% law, only about 10% of the energy is transferred from one trophic level
to the next.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. The stomach produces highly corrosive hydrochloric acid, yet its own wall is not digested. Give a biological
reason for this.

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. What is meant by ‘double circulation’ in the human heart? State one reason why it is a more efficient
system of circulation.


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B. Explain the mechanism by which guard cells regulate the opening and closing of stomatal pores.

12. In a food chain consisting of Grass ® Deer ® Lion, 20,000 J of energy was available to the grass. How much
energy would be available to the deer? State the law that governs the transfer of energy in a food chain.

13. What is geotropism? Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a potted plant placed horizontally to illustrate the
response of its shoot and root to gravity.

14. Differentiate between inherited traits and acquired traits by giving two key differences. State which of the
two can be passed on to the next generation and why.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 05 Page 3

15. Observe the given sectional view of the human heart and the questions that follow.

A. What is the function of the muscular wall called the septum that divides the heart?


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B. What is the role of valves in the heart? What would happen if they did not function correctly?
C. Trace the path of oxygenated blood starting from the lungs and ending at the body tissues.

16. Attempt either sub part A or B

A. (i) Define vegetative propagation and list two natural methods of this type of reproduction in plants.
(ii) State two advantages of using vegetative propagation for growing certain types of plants.
(iii) Can plants like rose and jasmine grown by this method produce fruits and seeds? Give a reason.


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B. (i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the human male reproductive system.
(ii) What is the composition of semen?
(iii) State the function of the vas deferens.

SECTION-B
17. For the reaction of iron with steam, what are the correct values for the stoichiometric coefficients ‘p’ and
‘q’ ?
Equation :
Heat
pFe (s) + qH 2 O (g) Fe 3 O 4 (s) + 4H 2 (g)
(a) p = 1, q = 4 (b) p = 3, q = 1
(c) p = 3, q = 4 (d) p = 2, q = 4

18. Some hydrated salts, like washing soda (Na 2 CO 3 $ 10H 2 O ), lose their water of crystallisation when exposed
to open air. This property is known as:
(a) Deliquescence (b) Efflorescence
(c) Corrosion (d) Hydration

19. Which of the following non-metals is known to be lustrous, a property typically characteristic of metals?
(a) Sulphur (b) Phosphorus
(c) Bromine (d) Iodine

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Page 4 Sample Paper 05 CBSE Science Class 10

20. A farmer finds her soil to be too acidic (low pH). She decides to treat the soil with slaked lime (Ca(OH)2).
What will be the effect of this action on the soil’s pH?
(a) The pH will decrease further. (b) The pH will remain unchanged.
(c) The pH will increase. (d) The soil will become water-logged.

21. An aqueous solution of ammonium chloride (NH4Cl) is tested with litmus paper. The expected observation
is that:
(a) Blue litmus turns red. (b) Red litmus turns blue.
(c) There is no change in either litmus paper. (d) Both litmus papers are bleached.

22. When an active metal like zinc reacts with a dilute strong acid like HCl, the gas produced is:
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Oxygen
(c) Chlorine (d) Hydrogen

23. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a sodium sulphide solution, a gas with the smell of rotten eggs is
evolved. This reaction is an example of:
(a) Combination (b) Decomposition
(c) Displacement (d) Double displacement

24. Assertion (A) : An aqueous solution of ethene (C2H4) will decolorize bromine water.
Reason (R) : Ethene is an unsaturated hydrocarbon and readily undergoes an addition reaction with
bromine.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Answer the following based on the physical states of elements:

(a) Name the only metal that is known to exist as a liquid at standard room temperature (25°C).
(b) Name the only non-metal that is known to exist as a liquid at standard room temperature (25°C).

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) The method used to extract a metal from its ore is primarily determined by its position in the reactivity
series.
(i) Describe the general process used to extract metals of low reactivity (e.g., Mercury) from their
sulphide ores.
(ii) Which single process is employed to extract highly reactive metals like Sodium, Calcium, and
Aluminium?
(iii) Name the chemical substance most commonly used as a reducing agent for extracting moderately
reactive metals like Zinc and Iron.


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(B) Electrolytic refining is a widely used method for obtaining metals of very high purity. Consider the
electrolytic refining of copper.
(i) What materials are chosen for the anode and the cathode in this process?
(ii) Name a suitable electrolyte that should be used.
(iii) During the process, impurities settle down below the anode. What is this layer of impurities called?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 05 Page 5

27. In a laboratory activity, a student takes a small amount of green-coloured ferrous sulphate heptahydrate (
FeSO 4 $ 7H 2 O ) crystals in a dry boiling tube and heats it over a flame.

(a) What is the first observable change in the colour of the crystals? What does this change indicate?
(b) Upon stronger heating, which two gases are evolved? Describe the characteristic smell of one of these
gases.
(c) What is the colour and chemical name of the solid compound left behind in the boiling tube after strong
heating?

28. Industrial pollution releases gases like sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide. These dissolve in atmospheric
water droplets to form acid rain, which has harmful effects on the environment, including historical
monuments like the Taj Mahal, which is made of marble.
(a) Name the two main acids present in acid rain.
(b) What is the chemical name of marble? Explain with a reason why it is susceptible to damage from acid
rain.
(c) Briefly explain how acid rain can harm aquatic ecosystems.


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A farmer finds that due to continuous use of certain fertilizers, the soil in his field has become basic (pH
8.5), which is unsuitable for the crop he wants to grow.
(a) To improve the soil quality, should he add a substance that is acidic or basic in nature?
(b) Suggest a common organic substance that can be added to the soil to remedy this situation. Explain
how it works.
(c) Why is it important for farmers to maintain the soil at an optimal pH?

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) Alkanes, Alkenes, and Alkynes are the three main classes of aliphatic hydrocarbons.
(a) What is meant by a homologous series? List any two characteristics of the members of such a series.
(b) Write the general formula for alkanes and alkynes.
(c) To which homologous series does the hydrocarbon with the formula C4H8 belong? Draw the structure
of one of its isomers.
(d) Explain why alkanes generally burn with a clean flame while alkenes and alkynes burn with a sooty
flame.


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(B) Ethanol (C2H5OH) is a very useful industrial chemical.
(a) What is denatured alcohol, and what is its main purpose?
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between ethanol and sodium metal.
(c) Ethanol is sometimes used as an additive in petrol. What is this mixture of petrol and ethanol
called?
Page 6 Sample Paper 05 CBSE Science Class 10

(d) Describe the chemical principle behind the breathalyzer test used by police to detect drunk driving,
which involves the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid.
(e) Draw the electron dot structure for the ethanol molecule.

SECTION-C
30. A student makes the following statements about the power of a lens:
I. The power of a lens is a measure of its degree of convergence or divergence.
II. A lens with a short focal length has a low power.
III. The S.I. unit of power of a lens is the dioptre (D).
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. A ray of light strikes a plane mirror at an angle of 30° with the normal. What is the angle between the
reflected ray and the plane mirror?
(a) 30° (b) 60°
(c) 90° (d) 120°

32. Assertion (A) : A person with hypermetropia cannot see nearby objects clearly.
Reason (R) : The eyeball is too long and the focal length of the eye lens is too short.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. An object is placed at 27 cm in front of a concave mirror as shown in the figure of focal length 18 cm.

A. Find the position of the image using the mirror formula.

B. Calculate the magnification produced.
C. State the nature of the image.

34. Attempt either option A or B

A. Two resistors of resistances 3 Ω and 6 Ω respectively are connected to a battery of 6 V so as to have :
(a) Maximum resistance,
(b) Maximum current.
(i) How will you connect the resistances in each case ?
(ii) Calculate the strength of the current in the circuit in both cases.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 05 Page 7

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B. Calculate the equivalent resistance from the following combination of resistors.

35. (a) State two main causes of developing far-sightedness.

(b) How can this defect of vision be corrected ?

36. Study the following circuit and answer the following questions :
(a) State the type of combination of the two resistors in the circuit.
(b) How much current is flowing through :
(i) 10 Ω and through,
(ii) 15 Ω resistors.
(c) What is the ammeter reading ?

37. Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow :

(a) Why do the iron filings arrange in such a pattern?

(b) What does this pattern demonstrate ?
(c) Why do the iron filings near the bar magnet seem to align in the shape of closed curves ?

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Page 8 Sample Paper 05 CBSE Science Class 10

38. A glass slab is a rectangular block of glass with parallel opposite faces. When a ray of light enters the slab
from air, it bends towards the normal because it passes from a rarer medium to a denser medium. On
emerging from the slab back into air, the ray bends away from the normal. Although the incident ray and
the emergent ray are parallel to each other, they are shifted sideways by a certain distance called lateral
displacement. This phenomenon is a simple demonstration of refraction of light through a transparent
medium with parallel boundaries.

A. What causes the bending of light when it enters from air to glass?
B. State the relationship between the incident ray and the emergent ray in a glass slab.
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. A ray of light enters a glass slab at an angle of incidence of 30° and is refracted at 20°. Using Snell’s
law, calculate the refractive index of glass with respect to air.


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D. Explain why the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray but not in the same straight line.

39. Attempt either option A or B

A. (i) Suppose your parents have constructed a two room house and you want that in the living room
there should be a provision of one electric bulb, one electric fan, a refrigerator and a plug point for
appliances of power up to 2 kW. Draw a circuit diagram showing electric fuse and earthing as safety
devices.
(ii) The given magnet is divided into three parts A, B and C.

A B C

Name the parts where the strength of magnetic field is:

(a) maximum
(b) minimum
How will the density of magnetic field lines differ at these parts?


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B. (i) What is the meaning of electric power of an electrical device? Write its S.I. unit.
(ii) An electric kettle of 2 kW is used for 2h. Calculate the energy consumed in (a) kilowatt hour and
(b) joules.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 06 Page 1

Sample Paper 06
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. In the human circulatory system, besides blood, there is another fluid called lymph. What is a key function
of lymph?
(a) To transport oxygen from the lungs to the tissues.
(b) To carry digested fats and return fluid from tissues to the blood.
(c) To produce hormones for the endocrine system.
(d) To initiate the process of blood clotting at a wound.

2. Plants respond to environmental stimuli like gravity. The downward growth of roots and the upward growth
of the shoot are known respectively as:
(a) Positive phototropism and negative phototropism
(b) Positive geotropism and negative geotropism
(c) Negative geotropism and positive geotropism
(d) Thigmotropism and hydrotropism

3. The onset of puberty in human females is marked by the development of secondary sexual characteristics.
Which hormone is primarily responsible for these changes?
(a) Testosterone
(b) Insulin
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Oestrogen

4. The process by which characteristics or traits are passed on from parents to their offspring through genes
is known as:
(a) Heredity
(b) Variation
(c) Evolution
(d) Adaptation

5. In a typical food chain, organisms are grouped into different trophic levels. The third trophic level is always
occupied by:
(a) Producers (b) Herbivores
(c) Carnivores (d) Decomposers

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Page 2 Sample Paper 06 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements describing the events of photosynthesis:

(i) The process is initiated by the absorption of light energy by chlorophyll molecules.
(ii) Light energy is converted into chemical energy.
(iii) Water molecules are split into hydrogen and oxygen.
(iv) Carbon dioxide is reduced by hydrogen to form proteins as the final product.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iv) only
(b) (ii), (iii), and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(d) All are correct.

7. The cerebrum is the largest and most prominent part of the human brain. What is its primary function?
(a) To control posture and balance.
(b) To regulate involuntary actions like heartbeat and breathing.
(c) To act as a relay center for sensory information.
(d) To be the center for intelligence, memory, and voluntary actions.

8. Assertion (A) : Cross-pollination leads to greater genetic variation in the offspring.

Reason (R) : Pollen grains are transferred between flowers of genetically different plants during cross-
pollination.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : The inner lining of the small intestine has numerous finger-like projections called villi.
Reason (R) : The villi decrease the internal surface area for the absorption of food.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. Despite being a single-celled organism without a dedicated mouth or digestive system, Amoeba exhibits a
holozoic mode of nutrition. Justify this statement.

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. Differentiate between breathing and respiration on the basis of
(i) energy release and
(ii) the nature of the process (physical/biochemical).


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B. What is transpiration? List any two external factors that can increase the rate of transpiration in plants.

12. What is ozone, and how is it formed in the stratosphere? Explain why the depletion of the ozone layer is a
major environmental concern.

13. What is a feedback mechanism in the endocrine system? Using the example of blood sugar regulation,
explain how this mechanism controls the secretion of insulin.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 06 Page 3

14. A pea plant with round yellow seeds (RRYY) was crossed with a plant having wrinkled green seeds (rryy).
(i) Write the genotype and phenotype of the F1 generation plants.
(ii) If the F1 plants are allowed to self-pollinate, list the four different types of gametes that would be
produced.
(iii) What is this type of cross known as?

15. The diagram provided shows the structure of a nephron. the questions based on it.

A. Identify the part labelled as ‘glomerulus’ and ‘Bowman’s capsule’. What is the primary function
occurring in this region?
B. What is selective reabsorption? Name two substances that are almost completely reabsorbed from the
initial filtrate.
C. A person is suffering from complete kidney failure. Name the life-support procedure they would need to
undergo regularly and briefly state its principle.

16. A. (i) Define fertilization. Differentiate it from pollination.

(ii) What is double fertilization in flowering plants?
(iii) After fertilization, which part of the flower develops into the (a) seed and (b) fruit?


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B. (i) What is the placenta? Describe its structure.
(ii) List any three functions of the placenta during the development of the embryo.
(iii) What is the gestation period in humans?

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Page 4 Sample Paper 06 CBSE Science Class 10

SECTION-B
17. For the Haber’s process shown, identify the correct values for ‘p’ and ‘q’ and the substance that acts as the
reducing agent.
Equation: pN 2 (g) + qH 2 (g) ? 2NH 3 (g)
(a) p = 1, q = 3; Reducing agent is N2
(b) p = 1, q = 3; Reducing agent is H2
(c) p = 1, q = 2; Reducing agent is N2
(d) p = 3, q = 1; Reducing agent is H2

18. Which of the following common chemical compounds does not contain water of crystallisation?
(a) Blue Vitriol (CuSO 4 $ 5H 2 O ) (b) Gypsum (CaSO 4 $ 2H 2 O )
(c) Washing Soda (Na 2 CO 3 $ 10H 2 O ) (d) Baking Soda (NaHCO3)

19. Although non-metals are typically poor conductors of electricity, one of its forms is an exception and is used
to make electrodes. Identify this exception.
(a) Diamond (b) Graphite
(c) Sulphur (d) Phosphorus

20. A person stung by an ant feels a sharp, burning pain. This is due to the injection of methanoic acid.
Applying a solution of baking soda gives relief because:
(a) it is a strong acid that overpowers the methanoic acid.
(b) it is a mild base that neutralizes the methanoic acid.
(c) it is a neutral salt that washes away the acid.
(d) it has a cooling effect on the skin.

21. Four solutions labelled A, B, C, and D have pH values of 4, 6, 8, and 10, respectively. Which solution
contains the highest concentration of hydrogen ions (H+)?
(a) Solution A (b) Solution B
(c) Solution C (d) Solution D

22. Based on the reactivity series of metals, which one of the following reactions will not occur?
(a) Zn (s) + CuSO 4 (aq) " ZnSO 4 (aq) + Cu (s) (b) Fe (s) + ZnSO 4 (aq) " FeSO 4 (aq) + Zn (s)
(c) Mg (s) + FeSO 4 (aq) " MgSO 4 (aq) + Fe (s) (d) Zn (s) + FeSO 4 (aq) " ZnSO 4 (aq) + Fe (s)

23. When a fresh apple is cut, the exposed surface turns brown after some time. This is a type of:
(a) physical change. (b) neutralization reaction.
(c) anaerobic respiration. (d) oxidation reaction.

24. Assertion (A) : Butan-1-ol and Butan-2-ol exhibit similar chemical properties.
Reason (R) : They belong to the same homologous series of alcohols and possess the same functional group
(–OH).
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 06 Page 5

25. Answer the following based on the properties of metals:

(a) Bells used in temples and schools are always made of metal alloys. Which characteristic property of
metals is utilized here?
(b) Name any two metals that are exceptions to the general property of hardness and can be easily cut with
a knife.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(a) Metal oxides are formed when metals react with oxygen. Their chemical nature can vary.
(i) Give an example of a metal oxide that is basic.
(ii) Give an example of a metal oxide that shows amphoteric behaviour.
(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation to show the reaction of an amphoteric oxide (e.g., zinc oxide)
with a strong acid (e.g., HCl).


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(b) The way metals react with water depends on their chemical reactivity.
(i) Name one metal that reacts violently with cold water, producing a flame.
(ii) Name a metal that does not react with cold or hot water but reacts only with steam.
(iii) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of iron with steam.

27. A student performs an experiment by mixing aqueous solutions of lead(II) nitrate and potassium iodide in
a test tube.

(a) What is the immediate visual observation upon mixing the two solutions?
(b) Identify the insoluble product formed by name and chemical formula.
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation for this reaction and classify the type of reaction.

28. Salts can be neutral, acidic, or basic depending on the strength of the acid and base from which they are
formed. A student is given solutions of three salts: Potassium Sulphate (K2SO4), Zinc Chloride (ZnCl2), and
Potassium Acetate (CH3COOK).
(a) Identify the parent acid and base for Potassium Sulphate. What will be the nature of its aqueous
solution?
(b) Which of the three salts will form a basic solution? Justify your answer.
(c) What colour change would be observed if blue litmus solution is added to the aqueous solution of Zinc
Chloride? Explain why.


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Fresh milk has a pH of around 6.5. When it is left to stand for a few hours, especially in summer, it turns
sour and its pH value changes.
(a) When milk turns sour to form curd, does its pH value increase or decrease?
(b) Explain the chemical process responsible for this change in pH.
(c) A milkman adds a very small quantity of baking soda to fresh milk. Why does this delay the souring of
milk?
Page 6 Sample Paper 06 CBSE Science Class 10

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) Hydrocarbons can be saturated or unsaturated. This difference in their structure leads to different
chemical reactivities.
(a) What are hydrocarbons?
(b) Classify the following into alkanes, alkenes, and alkynes: C 3 H 8, C 4 H 6, C 2 H 4, C 5 H 12 .
(c) Describe a chemical test that can be used to distinguish between a sample of a saturated hydrocarbon
(e.g., hexane) and an unsaturated hydrocarbon (e.g., hexene).
(d) Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved in the test described in part (c) using hexene
(C6H12).
(e) Draw the electron dot structure for the simplest alkyne, ethyne (C2H2).


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(B) Ethanoic acid (CH3COOH), commonly known as acetic acid, is a versatile organic compound.
(a) Explain why ethanoic acid is considered a weak acid.
(b) What is esterification? Write the chemical equation for the reaction of ethanoic acid with ethanol,
and name the main product.
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction of ethanoic acid with sodium hydroxide.
(d) Pure, water-free ethanoic acid is called glacial acetic aci(d) Explain the reason behind this name.
(e) What is vinegar, and what is it primarily used for?

SECTION-C
30. While describing the image formation by a convex lens, a student noted the following:
I. When the object is placed at 2F1 , the image is formed at 2F2 and is the same size.
II. When the object is placed between F1 and 2F1 , the image is real, inverted, and magnified.
III. When the object is placed at F1 , the image is formed at infinity.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. A student observes that a parallel beam of light is focused to a single point after passing through a lens.
Which of the following lens types and optical phenomena would explain this observation?
(a) Concave lens, Refraction (b) Convex lens, Reflection
(c) Concave lens, Reflection (d) Convex lens, Refraction

32. Assertion (A) : A person uses a concave lens to correct hypermetropia.

Reason (R) : A concave lens increases the focal length of the eye lens, allowing the image of nearby objects
to be formed on the retina.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. A convex mirror has a focal length of 15 cm.

A. Where will the image form if an object is placed 10 cm away?
B. State the size and nature of the image formed.
C. Explain why convex mirrors are preferred in vehicles.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 06 Page 7

34. Attempt either option A or B

A If in figure A, R1 = 10 Ω , R2 = 40 Ω , R3 = 30 Ω, R 4 = 20 Ω , R5 = 60 Ω and a 12 V battery are connected
to the arrangement, calculate :

(a) Total resistance in the circuit and

(b) Total current flowing in the circuit.


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B. A torch bulb is rated 5.0 V and 500 mA. Calculate
(i) its power,
(ii) resistance when it is lighted for four hours.

35. What are the causes of the following defects of vision and how can they be corrected ?
(a) Cataract
(b) Presbyopia.

36. An electric iron consumes energy at a rate of 840 W when heating is at the maximum rate and 360 W when
the heating is at the minimum. The voltage is 220 V. What are the current and the resistance in each case ?

37. Answer the following questions :

(i) What is the direction of magnetic field lines outside a bar-magnet ?
(ii) The magnetic field lines in a given region are getting crowded. What does it indicate ?
(iii) State one advantage of AC over DC.

38. A hand-held magnifying glass uses a single convex lens. When a small object is placed between the lens and
its principal focus, the lens forms an enlarged, upright image that appears on the same side as the object.
This helps in reading fine print and observing small details in specimens. The magnification depends on the
focal length of the lens and how close the object is kept to it.
A. Which lens is used as a magnifying glass and why?
B. State the nature of the image obtained when the object is kept between the optical centre and the focus
of this lens.
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. A convex lens has focal length f =+ 12cm . An object is placed u = − 8cm from the lens. Calculate the
image distance v .


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D. For the same situation, find the magnification and comment on the image size.
Page 8 Sample Paper 06 CBSE Science Class 10

39. Attempt either option A or B

A. (i) For the combination of resistors shown in the following figure, find the equivalent resistance between
M and N :

(ii) State Joule’s law of heating.

(iii) Why we need a 5A fuse for an electric iron which consumes 1 kW power at 220 V?
(iv) Why is it impracticable to connect an electric bulb and an electric heater in series?


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B. PQ is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper as shown in the figure below.

(i) Find the directions of the magnetic fields produced by it at points R and S ? Given r1 2 r2, where will
the strength of the magnetic field be larger? Give reasons.
(ii) Field strength at which point will be greater?
(iii) If the polarity of the battery connected to the wire is reversed, how would the direction of the magnetic
field be changed?
(iv) Explain the rule that is used to find the direction of the magnetic field for a straight current carrying
conductor.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 07 Page 1

Sample Paper 07
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. The stomach plays a crucial role in digestion by secreting hydrochloric acid (HCl). What is the primary
function of HCl in the stomach?
(a) To break down fats into smaller droplets.
(b) To create an acidic medium for pepsin to act and to kill germs.
(c) To neutralize the acidity of the food coming from the mouth.
(d) To protect the stomach lining from digestive enzymes.

2. The axon of many neurons is covered by an insulating fatty layer. What is this layer called and what is its
main function?
(a) Synapse; to release neurotransmitters.
(b) Dendrite; to receive nerve impulses.
(c) Myelin sheath; to speed up nerve impulse transmission.
(d) Cell body; to process information.

3. Regeneration is a method of asexual reproduction where an organism can regrow into a complete individual
from a fragmented body part. This ability is most prominently seen in which of the following organisms?
(a) Yeast (b) Amoeba
(c) Rhizopus (d) Planaria

4. Charles Darwin’s theory of natural selection is a cornerstone of modern biology. What is the central concept
of this theory?
(a) That characteristics acquired during an organism’s lifetime are inherited.
(b) That organisms with traits best suited to their environment tend to survive and reproduce more
successfully.
(c) That evolution occurs through sudden and large-scale genetic mutations.
(d) That all species were created in their current form and do not undergo change.

5. In nature, feeding relationships are complex and interconnected, rather than simple linear chains. What
term describes this network of multiple interconnected food chains in an ecosystem?
(a) Trophic level (b) Ecological pyramid
(c) Food web (d) Biomass

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Page 2 Sample Paper 07 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements about the human endocrine system: (i) The pituitary gland is called
the ‘master gland’ as it regulates the activity of many other endocrine glands. (ii) Insulin, a hormone that
regulates blood sugar, is secreted by the thyroid gland. (iii) Adrenaline is secreted by the adrenal glands to
prepare the body for emergency situations. (iv) Oestrogen is the primary male sex hormone.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) (d) All are correct.

7. The diaphragm is a large muscle situated below the lungs. What is its role during the process of inhalation
(breathing in)?
(a) It relaxes and moves up, decreasing the volume of the chest cavity.
(b) It contracts and moves down, increasing the volume of the chest cavity.
(c) It remains stationary to support the lungs.
(d) It partially digests the air entering the lungs.

8. Assertion (A) : Veins have valves within them, but arteries do not.
Reason (R) : Blood in veins flows under low pressure and against gravity, so valves are needed to prevent
backflow.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (a) : Damage to the Earth’s ozone layer is a significant environmental concern.
Reason (R) : A depleted ozone layer allows less harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation to reach the Earth’s
surface.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. A student sets up an experiment by covering a part of a leaf of a destarched potted plant with a strip of
black paper. After exposing the plant to sunlight for a few hours, the covered part of the leaf tests negative
for iodine, while the uncovered part tests positive. What can be concluded from this experiment?

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. How is the structure of the small intestine adapted for the efficient absorption of digested food? Mention
any two structural features.


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B. What are the final, simplest products formed after the complete digestion of
(i) carbohydrates,
(ii) proteins, and
(iii) fats?

12. Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes, giving one example of each. Which of
the two poses a more serious threat to the environment and why?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 07 Page 3

13. Draw a neat diagram of a neuron and label the following parts:
(i) Dendrite
(ii) Axon
(iii) Cell Body

14. How are fossils formed? Describe one method of determining the age of a fossil.

15. Refer to the diagram of the human alimentary canal to the questions that follow.

A. A person consumes a diet rich in proteins. In which part of the alimentary canal (labelled N, O, P) does
the digestion of protein begin? Name the enzyme that initiates this process.


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B. List two functions of the hydrochloric acid secreted in the part labelled ‘N’ (stomach).
C. What is the role of the part labelled ‘O’ (small intestine) in the digestion of fats? Explain the process
of emulsification.

16. Attempt either option A or B

A. (i) Define budding and provide an example of a unicellular organism that reproduces this way.
(ii) How does regeneration in Planaria differ from the regeneration of a lizard’s tail?
(iii) State one major advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction.
Page 4 Sample Paper 07 CBSE Science Class 10

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B. (i) What are Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)?
(ii) Name one STD caused by a bacterium and one caused by a virus.
(iii) Suggest two practices that can help in preventing the transmission of such diseases.

SECTION-B

17. In the reaction: 2AgNO 3 (aq) + Cu (s) " Cu (NO 3) 2 (aq) + 2Ag (s) The oxidizing agent is:
(a) Cu(s) (b) Ag(s)
(c) Cu(NO3)2(aq) (d) AgNO3(aq)

18. Which of the following acids is naturally present in tomatoes?

(a) Acetic acid (b) Oxalic acid
(c) Citric acid (d) Lactic acid

19. Which is the most abundant metal found in the Earth’s crust?
(a) Iron (b) Copper
(c) Aluminium (d) Calcium

20. Red cabbage extract is a natural acid-base indicator. What colour does it exhibit in a basic solution like
soap water?
(a) Remains reddish-purple (b) Turns bright pink or red
(c) Turns bluish-green or yellow (d) Becomes colourless

21. What change will occur to the pH of 1 litre of pure water (pH=7) when a few drops of concentrated
hydrochloric acid are added?
(a) The pH will increase significantly. (b) The pH will remain exactly 7.
(c) The pH will decrease slightly. (d) The pH will decrease significantly.

22. When Plaster of Paris is mixed with the correct amount of water, it sets into a hard solid mass. This hard
solid is chemically:
(a) Calcium Carbonate (b) Anhydrous Calcium Sulphate
(c) Slaked Lime (d) Gypsum

23. The process of respiration in living organisms is considered an exothermic reaction because:
(a) it takes place in the presence of oxygen.
(b) it involves the intake of food.
(c) energy is released during the breakdown of glucose.
(d) water is produced as a by-product.

24. Assertion (A) : The complete combustion of hydrocarbons like methane produces carbon dioxide and water.
Reason (R) : The incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons, in a limited supply of air, can produce carbon
monoxide.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 07 Page 5

25. Answer the following based on exceptions to the general properties of elements:
(a) Name a metal that is a poor conductor of heat.
(b) Name a non-metal that has a very high melting point, comparable to that of strong metals.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) Moderately reactive metals like Zinc are often found as sulphide ores. The extraction involves converting
the ore to an oxide and then reducing it.
(i) What is the chemical formula of zinc blende, the sulphide ore of zinc?
(ii) Name the process used to convert zinc blende into zinc oxide and write its balanced chemical
equation.
(iii) Name the substance commonly used to reduce zinc oxide to zinc metal.


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(B) Alloying is a very important process for creating materials with desired properties.
(i) What is meant by the term ‘alloying’ ?
(ii) Name the main constituents of stainless steel.
(iii) State one key property of stainless steel that makes it suitable for manufacturing surgical instruments.

27. A student takes about 5 mL of distilled water in a beaker. She carefully adds a few pellets of solid sodium
hydroxide (NaOH) to it and stirs the solution with a glass rod.
(a) If the student touches the outside of the beaker, what change in temperature will she observe?
(b) What does this observation indicate about the nature of the dissolution process of NaOH in water?
(c) Based on your conclusion in part (B), what safety precaution should be followed while preparing a dilute
solution of a strong acid like sulphuric acid?

28. A student is given three unlabelled, colourless solutions: A (distilled water), B (an acid), and C (a base).
She is provided only with a strip of red litmus paper.
(a) Describe the procedure she would use to identify solution C (the base).
(b) After identifying solution C, how can she use it and the original red litmus paper to identify solution B
(the acid)?
(c) How will she finally identify solution A (distilled water)?


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The pH of a solution indicates its hydrogen ion concentration. Two acidic solutions, P and Q, have pH
values of 4 and 1, respectively.
(a) Which of the two solutions, P or Q, is more acidic?
(b) The hydrogen ion concentration in the more acidic solution is how many times greater than in the less
acidic solution?
(c) What would be the nature of a solution that has a pH of 14? What does this pH value indicate about
its ion concentrations?

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) Ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) is a carboxylic acid that shows several important chemical reactions.
(a) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of ethanoic acid with:
(i) Sodium metal
(ii) A solution of Sodium Hydroxide
(iii) Solid Sodium Carbonate
(b) Why is pure ethanoic acid often called ‘glacial acetic acid’ ?
(c) What is the common name for a 5-8% aqueous solution of ethanoic acid?


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Page 6 Sample Paper 07 CBSE Science Class 10

(B) The unique nature of the carbon atom allows it to form a vast number of compounds.
(a) State two characteristic properties of carbon that are responsible for the large number of organic
compounds we see around us.
(b) What are covalent bonds?
(c) Explain why covalent compounds generally have low melting and boiling points.
(d) Draw the electron dot structure for a molecule of carbon dioxide (CO2).
(e) Explain why carbon dioxide gas is effective in extinguishing most types of fires.

SECTION-C
30. A student makes the following statements about the image formed by a concave mirror:
I. A concave mirror can form a real, inverted image.
II. A concave mirror can form a virtual, erect, and magnified image.
III. The image formed by a concave mirror is always real and inverted.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. Which of the following phenomena is responsible for the formation of a rainbow in the sky?
(a) Reflection and dispersion (b) Refraction and reflection
(c) Dispersion, refraction, and total internal reflection (d) Dispersion and scattering

32. Assertion (A): The focal length of a concave mirror is considered to be negative.
Reason (R): According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention, the focal length of a concave mirror lies to
the left of the mirror and distances in this direction are taken as negative.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm is used to obtain an erect image.

A. Explain the condition under which a concave mirror forms an erect and magnified image.
B. State the range of object distances for which this condition is satisfied.
C. Draw the ray diagram for this case.

34. Attempt either option A or B

A. n the given circuit, find :
NODIA APP Sample Paper 07 Page 7

(a) Total resistance of the network of resistors

(b) Current through ammeter A


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B. Study the given electric circuit and calculate:
(i) the current flowing through the 4 Ω resister and
(ii) potential difference across the combination of two resistor of 8 Ω each.

35. A child is able to read his book comfortably but is unable to read the matter written on the blackboard at
certain distance.
(a) Name the defect of vision he is suffering from.
(b) With the help of labelled ray diagram show :
(i) The above mentioned defect of vision.
(ii) Correction of the above mentioned defect using a suitable lens.

36. In a household electric circuit different appliances are connected in parallel to one another. Give two
advantages of such connections.
Two bulbs rated 100 W, 200 V and 25 W, 200 V are connected in parallel to a 200 V supply. What will be
the current drawn from the supply line ?

37. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What would happen if a bar magnet is :
(i) Pushed into the coil ?
(ii) Withdrawn from inside the coil ?
(iii) Held stationary inside the coil ?

38. A simple viewer uses a concave lens to obtain a wide field of view. When an object is placed in front of a
concave lens, the outgoing rays diverge as if they originate from a point on the same side of the lens. The
image formed is always virtual, erect and diminished. Such lenses are also useful where reduction of image
size is needed before further imaging.
A. Which lens is used in this viewer and what type of image does it form?
B. Can a single concave lens project a real image on a screen? Give a reason.
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. For a concave lens of focal length f = − 15cm , an object is placed at u = − 30cm . Find the image
distance v .


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D. For the same lens, calculate its power in dioptres and state the sign.

39. Attempt either option A or B

A. (i) With the help of an activity, explain the method of inducing electric current in a coil with a moving
magnet. State the rule used to find the direction of electric current thus generated in the coil.
(ii) Two circular coils-1 and coil-2 are kept close to each other as shown in the diagram. Coil-1 is
connected to a battery and key and coil-2 with a galvanometer. State your observation in the
galvanometer:

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Page 8 Sample Paper 07 CBSE Science Class 10

(a) When key K closed;

(b) When key K is opened;
Give reason for your observations.


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B. (i) For the combination of resistors shown in the following figure, find the equivalent resistance between
M and N :

(ii) State Joule’s law of heating.

(iii) Why we need a 5A fuse for an electric iron which consumes 1 kW power at 220 V?
(iv) Why is it impracticable to connect an electric bulb and an electric heater in series?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 08 Page 1

Sample Paper 08
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. In the human circulatory system, deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the heart. Which chamber
of the heart is the first to receive this deoxygenated blood?
(a) Left Atrium (b) Right Atrium
(c) Left Ventricle (d) Right Ventricle

2. Nerve impulses are transmitted from one neuron to the next across a specialized junction. What is this
microscopic gap between two neurons called?
(a) Myelin sheath (b) Axon
(c) Cell body (d) Synapse

3. Flowers can be classified as unisexual or bisexual. Which of the following plants typically bears unisexual
flowers?
(a) Hibiscus (b) Mustard
(c) Papaya (d) Pea

4. In pea plants, purple flowers (P) are dominant over white flowers (p). If a heterozygous plant (Pp) is crossed
with a white-flowered plant (pp), what percentage of the offspring will have white flowers?
(a) 0% (b) 25%
(c) 50% (d) 100%

5. The accumulation of certain harmful chemicals in the tissues of organisms at successively higher levels in a
food chain is known as:
(a) Decomposition (b) Eutrophication
(c) Biomagnification (d) Transpiration

6. Consider the following statements about contraceptive methods:

(i) Oral pills are hormonal preparations that prevent the release of an egg from the ovary (ovulation).
(ii) Using a condom is a barrier method that can also prevent the transmission of Sexually Transmitted
Diseases (STDs).
(iii) Copper-T is a surgical method used to permanently block the fallopian tubes.
(iv) A vasectomy is a surgical procedure performed on females to prevent pregnancy.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Page 2 Sample Paper 08 CBSE Science Class 10

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv)

(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) (d) All are correct.

7. The complete digestion of fats in the human alimentary canal results in fatty acids and glycerol. Which
enzyme is primarily responsible for this conversion?
(a) Amylase (b) Pepsin
(c) Trypsin (d) Lipase

8. Assertion (A) : The brain and spinal cord are components of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS).
Reason (R) : The PNS is responsible for connecting the Central Nervous System (CNS) to the limbs and
organs.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : An ecosystem with a complex food web is more stable than one with a simple food chain.
Reason (R) : In a food web, most organisms have multiple food sources, which prevents the collapse of the
ecosystem if one food source diminishes.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. Transpiration is often described as a ‘necessary evil’ for plants. Justify this statement with one point
explaining why it is ‘necessary’ and one point for why it is an ‘evil’.

11. A. State the role of the following enzymes in the human digestive system: (i) Pepsin and (ii) Lipase.


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B. Differentiate between xylem and phloem on the basis of
(i) the direction of flow and
(ii) the substance transported.

12. Why is a food web considered a more stable and realistic model for an ecosystem compared to a linear food
chain? Give two reasons.

13. What are nastic movements in plants? How do they differ from tropic movements in terms of the stimulus’s
direction? Give one example of a nastic movement.

14. What is specialization? Describe any two factors that can lead to the formation of a new species.

15. A student is studying the process of respiration in humans. Refer to the diagram of the human respiratory
system to the questions.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 08 Page 3

A. What is the function of the C-shaped rings of cartilage present in the trachea?


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B. Describe the mechanism of exhalation in humans, involving the movement of the diaphragm and rib
cage. C. Why is it advisable to breathe through the nose rather than the mouth?

16. Student to attempt wither option A or B

A. (i) What is meant by the term ‘alternation of generations’ in the life cycle of a plant?
(ii) Name a plant group that clearly shows this phenomenon.
(iii) Differentiate between the sporophyte and gametophyte generation in plants.


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B. (i) Draw a labelled diagram showing the longitudinal section of a flower.
(ii) What are the functions of sepals and petals?
(iii) How does the process of fertilization occur in a flower after pollination?

SECTION-B
17. For the reaction of copper with concentrated sulphuric acid, identify the correct values for ‘p’ and ‘q’.
Equation: pCu (s) + 2H 2 SO 4 (conc.) " CuSO 4 (aq) + qSO 2 (g) + 2H 2 O (l)
(a) p = 2, q = 1 (b) p = 1, q = 2
(c) p = 2, q = 2 (d) p = 1, q = 1

18. Soda-acid fire extinguishers work by producing carbon dioxide gas, which cuts off the oxygen supply to a
fire. The gas is produced by the reaction of sulphuric acid with:
(a) Sodium carbonate (b) Calcium carbonate
(c) Sodium hydroxide (d) Sodium hydrogencarbonate

19. Which metal forms a thin, tough, non-porous, and non-reactive layer of its oxide on its surface, which
protects the metal from further corrosion?
(a) Iron (b) Aluminium
(c) Copper (d) Gold

20. A student observes that when a few drops of lemon juice are added to a solution of baking soda, brisk
effervescence occurs. This is due to the evolution of:
(a) Hydrogen gas (b) Oxygen gas
(c) Carbon dioxide gas (d) Sulphur dioxide gas
Page 4 Sample Paper 08 CBSE Science Class 10

21. The pH of human blood is maintained within a very narrow range for the body to function properly. What
is the typical pH value of human blood?
(a) 6.4 (b) 7.0
(c) 7.4 (d) 8.0

22. Zinc oxide is an amphoteric oxide. When it reacts with a hot, concentrated solution of sodium hydroxide,
the salt formed is:
(a) Zinc Hydroxide (b) Sodium Oxide
(c) Sodium Zincate (d) Zinc Sulphate

23. When solid lead nitrate is heated strongly in a dry test tube, a reddish-brown gas is evolved. This reaction
is a classic example of:
(a) Displacement (b) Thermal decomposition
(c) Combination (d) Photolytic decomposition

24. Assertion (A) : Alkanes are generally considered chemically unreactive or ‘paraffins’.
Reason (R) : Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons containing only strong C-C and C-H single covalent bonds
which are difficult to break.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Answer the following based on the properties of ionic compounds:

(a) Why do ionic compounds generally have high melting points?
(b) Explain why ionic compounds are often brittle and break into pieces when pressure is applied.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) Explain how the following methods help in preventing the corrosion of an iron object:
(i) Oiling or Greasing
(ii) Galvanisation
(iii) Making an alloy like stainless steel


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(B) Draw a neat and fully labelled diagram showing the setup for the electrolytic refining of an impure
copper rod. Your diagram must show the anode, cathode, electrolyte, and the collection of anode mud.

27. A student takes 2 mL of dilute sodium hydroxide solution in a test tube and adds two drops of phenolphthalein
indicator. He then adds dilute HCl solution to this test tube drop by drop.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 08 Page 5

(a) What is the initial colour of the solution after adding phenolphthalein?
(b) What colour change is observed as he adds HCl dropwise? Why does this change occur?
(c) What is the specific name given to this reaction between an acid and a base? Write the balanced
chemical equation for it.

28. Salts belonging to the same family share a common positive or negative radical. Consider the salts: Sodium
Sulphate (Na 2 SO 4 ), Potassium Sulphate (K 2 SO 4 ), and Copper Sulphate (CuSO 4 ).
(a) Identify the family to which these three salts belong.
(b) Which of these salts will form a neutral solution in water and which will form an acidic solution?
(c) What would be the colour of the Copper Sulphate solution? What visual change would occur if a clean
strip of zinc metal is placed in it?


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The “water of crystallisation” is the fixed number of water molecules chemically attached to one formula
unit of a salt in its crystalline form.
(a) Give the chemical formula, common name, and colour of hydrated copper sulphate.
(b) What happens when this salt is heated strongly in a boiling tube? Write a balanced chemical equation
for this change.
(c) What will you observe if a few drops of water are added to the substance obtained after heating?

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) Ethane (C2H6) and Ethene (C2H4) are two simple hydrocarbons with different degrees of saturation.
(a) To which homologous series does ethane belong?
(b) Which of the two is unsaturated? Why is it called so?
(c) Which of these two will undergo an addition reaction? Write the chemical equation for its reaction
with chlorine (Cl2).
(d) Which of these two will undergo a substitution reaction? Write the chemical equation for its
reaction with chlorine (Cl2) in the presence of sunlight.
(e) Draw the electron dot structure for the ethane (C2H6) molecule.


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(b) Homologous series is a fundamental concept in organic chemistry.
(a) Define the term ‘homologous series’.
(b) List any two characteristics of a homologous series.
(c) Write the molecular formula of the second and third members of the homologous series whose first
member is methane (CH4).
(d) Write the name and formula of the fourth member of the alkyne series.
(e) What is the difference in the molecular mass between any two adjacent homologues?

SECTION-C
30. A student is learning about the properties of lenses and makes the following statements:
I. A concave lens is a diverging lens, which means it diverges a parallel beam of light.
II. A convex lens is a converging lens, which means it converges a parallel beam of light.
III. Both concave and convex lenses have real principal foci.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

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Page 6 Sample Paper 08 CBSE Science Class 10

31. A student observes the formation of a spectrum of seven colors when white light passes through a glass
prism. What is the cause of this phenomenon?
(a) White light is composed of a single color which is split by the prism.
(b) Different colors of light have the same angle of refraction inside the prism.
(c) The refractive index of the prism is different for different wavelengths of light.
(d) The prism reflects the white light and produces the spectrum.

32. Assertion (A) : A converging lens is used as a magnifying glass.

Reason (R) : When an object is placed between the focal length and the optical center of a converging lens,
it forms a virtual, erect, and magnified image.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. The diagram shows different types of mirrors used in daily life.

A. Name the type of mirror used in the headlights of a car.

B. Identify the mirror used in solar furnaces and explain its role.
C. State the mirror used in rear-view of vehicles and explain the reason for its preference.

34. Attempt either option A or B

A.

Find out the following in the above electric circuit

1. Reading of the ammeter
2. Reading of the voltmeter
NODIA APP Sample Paper 08 Page 7

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B. For the circuit diagram given below, calculate :

(a) the value of current through each resistor.

(b) the total current in the circuit.

35. The near point of a person suffering from hypermetropia is 75 cm. Calculate the focal length and power of
the lens required to enable him to read the newspaper which is kept at 25 cm from the eye.

36. A torch bulb is rated 5.0 V and 500 mA. Calculate

(i) its power,
(ii) resistance and
(iii) energy consumed when it is lighted for four hours.

37. Diagram below shows a circuit containing a coil wound over a long and thin hollow cardboard tube. Copy
the diagram.

(i) Show the polarity acquired by each face of the solenoid.

(ii) Draw the magnetic field lines of force inside the coil and also show their direction.
(iii) Mention two methods to increase the strength of the magnetic field inside the coil.

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Page 8 Sample Paper 08 CBSE Science Class 10

38. Study the data given below showing the focal length of three concave mirrors A, B and C and the respective
distances of objects placed in front of the mirrors:

Case Mirror Focal Length (cm) Object Distance (cm)

1 A 20 45
2 B 15 30
3 C 30 20
(i) In which one of the above cases the mirror will form a diminished image of the object? Justify your
answer.
(ii) List two properties of the image formed in case 2.
Attempt either subpart C or D.
(iii) What is the nature and size of the image formed by mirror C?
Draw ray diagram to justify your answer.


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(iv) An object is placed at a distance of 18 cm from the pole of a concave mirror of focal length 12 cm. Find
the position of the image formed in this case.

39. Attempt either option A or B

A. State Joules law of heating. List two special characteristics of a heating element wire.
An electric iron consumes energy at the rate of 880W when heating is at the maximum rate and 440W
when the heating is at the minimum rate. The applied voltage is 220 V. Calculate the current and
resistance in each case.


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B. Study the given electric circuit and calculate :
(i) the current flowing through the 4 Ω resister and
(ii) potential difference across the combination of two resistor of 8 Ω each.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 09 Page 1

Sample Paper 09
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. In the human respiratory system, where does the actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between
the air and the bloodstream occur?
(a) Trachea (b) Bronchi
(c) Alveoli (d) Larynx

2. The hindbrain controls many of the body’s vital functions. Which part of the hindbrain is responsible for
regulating involuntary actions like blood pressure, salivation, and vomiting?
(a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum
(c) Pons (d) Medulla

3. The common bread mould (Rhizopus) reproduces asexually. It has a blob-on-a-stick structure that contains
the cells involved in reproduction. This knob-like structure is known as the:
(a) Spore (b) Sporangium
(c) Hypha (d) Gamete

4. Some organisms possess organs that are reduced in size and no longer serve a useful function, though they
were functional in their ancestors. What are these remnant organs called?
(a) Homologous organs (b) Analogous organs
(c) Vestigial organs (d) Fossilized organs

5. The thinning of the protective ozone layer in the stratosphere is a major environmental issue. This depletion
is primarily caused by which class of man-made chemicals?
(a) Carbon oxides (b) Hydrocarbons
(c) Nitrogen oxides (d) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

6. Consider the following statements regarding transport in plants:

(i) Xylem tissue transports water and minerals from the roots upwards.
(ii) Phloem tissue transports prepared food from the leaves to other plant parts.
(iii) Transport in xylem is bidirectional, moving both up and down the plant.
(iv) The transport of food in phloem, or translocation, is an active process that requires energy.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv) only (d) All are correct.
Page 2 Sample Paper 09 CBSE Science Class 10

7. Plant growth and development are regulated by hormones. Which plant hormone is primarily responsible
for promoting cell division and is abundant in growing tissues like fruits and seeds?
(a) Abscisic acid (b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin (d) Gibberellin

8. Assertion (A) : Gametes, the reproductive cells of an organism, are haploid.

Reason (R) : Gametes are produced by meiosis, a type of cell division that halves the number of chromosomes.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : In humans, the right lung is smaller than the left lung.
Reason (R) : The heart is located in the thoracic cavity and is tilted towards the left side.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. In an experiment, a destarched aquatic plant like Hydrilla is placed in water containing potassium hydroxide
(KOH) and kept in sunlight. A starch test performed after a few hours is negative. What conclusion can be
drawn from this experiment regarding photosynthesis? What is the role of KOH?

11. A. List any two structural differences between an artery and a vein.


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B. What are the functions of the following components of the human excretory system:
(i) Ureter and
(ii) Urinary bladder?

12. What are trophic levels? Using an example of a food chain, explain why the number of trophic levels is
generally limited.

13. State the primary function of the following parts of the human brain:
(i) Cerebrum
(ii) Cerebellum
(iii) Medulla

14. In a cross between a pure-breeding round-seeded pea plant and a pure-breeding wrinkled-seeded pea plant:
(i) What will be the phenotype of the F1 generation?
(ii) If the F1 generation is self-pollinated, what will be the genotypic ratio in the F2 generation?
(iii) State the Mendelian law that this cross helps to illustrate.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 09 Page 3

15. Refer to the schematic diagram of the human heart to the following questions.

A. Why are the walls of the atria (auricles) thinner than the walls of the ventricles?


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B. Name the largest artery in the human body. Which chamber of the heart does it arise from and what
kind of blood does it carry?
C. Explain the significance of the double circulation system in warm-blooded animals like mammals.

16. Students to attempt either option A or B

A. (i) What is spore formation? Give an example of an organism that uses this method of reproduction.
(ii) How does this method help the organism to survive harsh environmental conditions?
(iii) Draw a neat, labelled diagram showing spore formation in Rhizopus.


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B. (i) Differentiate between a zygote and an embryo.
(ii) What is the role of the cervix and vagina during childbirth (parturition)?
(iii) Describe the changes the uterus undergoes each month in preparation for a possible pregnancy.

SECTION-B
17. When iron powder is heated with sulphur powder, iron(II) sulphide is formed: Fe + S " FeS . In this
reaction:
(a) Iron is reduced and Sulphur is oxidized. (b) Iron is oxidized and Sulphur is reduced.
(c) Both Iron and Sulphur are oxidized. (d) This is not a redox reaction.

18. A person suffering from indigestion due to acidity is often advised to take an antacid. An antacid contains a:
(a) Strong acid (b) Strong base
(c) Neutral salt (d) Mild base

19. Metals can be drawn into thin wires. This property is known as:
(a) Malleability (b) Sonority
(c) Ductility (d) Lustre
Page 4 Sample Paper 09 CBSE Science Class 10

20. What colour change is expected when a few drops of a liquid soap solution are added to a pinch of turmeric
powder?
(a) The yellow colour of turmeric remains unchanged.
(b) The yellow colour turns reddish-brown.
(c) The yellow colour turns blue.
(d) The yellow colour disappears.

21. A drain cleaning solution is highly corrosive and effective at dissolving grease. Its pH is most likely to be:
(a) 1 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) 13

22. When a small amount of quicklime (calcium oxide) is added to a beaker of water, the primary observations
are:
(a) The beaker becomes cold and a clear solution is formed.
(b) A hissing sound is heard and the beaker becomes hot.
(c) A yellow precipitate is formed.
(d) A colourless gas is evolved with effervescence.

23. When water is added to Plaster of Paris, it sets into a hard solid mass. This process is an example of a:
(a) Decomposition reaction (b) Displacement reaction
(c) Hydration reaction (Combination) (d) Redox reaction

24. Assertion (A) : All members of the alkane homologous series are saturated hydrocarbons.
Reason (R) : They contain only carbon-carbon and carbon-hydrogen single covalent bonds.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Gold is one of the most prized metals for making jewellery. State any two properties of gold that make it
highly suitable for this purpose.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(a) Roasting and Calcination are two common processes used in metallurgy to convert concentrated ores
into metal oxides.
(i) What is the main difference between roasting and calcination in terms of the air supply?
(ii) Write a balanced chemical equation for the roasting of zinc blende (ZnS).
(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation for the calcination of calamine (ZnCO3).


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(b) Explain the following terms related to metals and their properties:
(i) Malleability
(ii) Ductility
(iii) Sonority

27. A student places a clean magnesium ribbon in a test tube containing a blue solution of copper(II) sulphate.
(a) Describe two visible changes that would occur in the test tube after a few minutes.
(b) What type of chemical reaction is taking place?
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction.


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NODIA APP Sample Paper 09 Page 5

28. Yeast is added to dough to make bread. The yeast carries out a process called fermentation, where it breaks
down sugar (glucose) present in the dough to produce a gas ‘X’ and an alcohol ‘Y’. The gas ‘X’ causes the
dough to rise.
(a) Name the biological process carried out by the yeast.
(b) Identify the gas ‘X’ and explain its role in making the bread soft and spongy.
(c) The alcohol ‘Y’ evaporates during baking. Name this alcohol.
(d) Sometimes, if too much fermentation occurs, the bread may taste slightly sour. Suggest a reason for this.


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A student has two acidic solutions of the same concentration: Hydrochloric acid (HCl) and Acetic acid
(CH3COOH).
(a) Which of the two is considered a strong acid and which is a weak acid?
(b) Explain why a strong acid is a better conductor of electricity than a weak acid of the same concentration.
(c) If an equal amount of magnesium powder is added to both solutions, in which solution will the reaction
be more vigorous? Justify your answer.

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) Soaps are salts of long-chain fatty acids, and their cleansing action is related to their unique molecular
structure.
(a) What is saponification?
(b) Name the two main raw materials required for preparing soap in a laboratory.
(c) Explain why soap does not work effectively in hard water.
(d) What is the main by-product of the saponification reaction? State one of its uses.
(e) Will a solution of soap in water be acidic, basic, or neutral?


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(b) Ethanol (C2H5OH) is an important industrial compound.
(a) Write a balanced chemical equation for the complete combustion of ethanol.
(b) What happens when ethanol is heated with excess concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K? Name the
reaction and write the chemical equation.
(c) What happens when ethanol is warmed with ethanoic acid in the presence of a few drops of
concentrated sulphuric acid? Name the product formed.
(d) State two important uses of ethanol.

SECTION-C
30. A student is analyzing the types of images formed by spherical mirrors and makes the following statements:
I. A convex mirror can form a real image if the object is placed at its focus.
II. A concave mirror can form a virtual image if the object is placed between the pole and focus.
III. A concave mirror forms a magnified image when the object is at the center of curvature.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II only

31. The twinkling of stars in the night sky is attributed to a phenomenon of light. Choose the correct option
that explains this phenomenon.
(a) Atmospheric reflection of starlight (b) Atmospheric scattering of starlight
(c) Atmospheric refraction of starlight (d) Atmospheric dispersion of starlight

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Page 6 Sample Paper 09 CBSE Science Class 10

32. Assertion (A) : The color of the sky is blue due to the scattering of light by dust particles.
Reason (R) : Blue light has a shorter wavelength and scatters more than other colors.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. Half of a convex lens is covered with black paper.

A. State whether this lens will still produce an image of the object.
B. Explain how the brightness of the image will be affected.
C. Suggest an experiment to verify your answer.

34. Attempt either option A or B

A. In the circuit given below, the resistors R1 , R2 and R3 have the values 10 Ω , 20 Ω and 30 Ω respectively,
which have been connected to a battery of 12 V.

Calculate
(a) the current through each resistor,
(b) the total circuit resistance, and


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B. In the given circuit, find :

(a) Total resistance of the network of resistors

(b) Current through ammeter A, and

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 09 Page 7

35. (i) Least distance of distinct vision of a long-sighted person is 40 cm. He wishes to reduce it to 25 cm by
using spectacles. Find the power and nature of the lens used by him.
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to show the correction of the defect by using an appropriate lens.

36. Two identical resistors, each of resistance 50 Ω are connected

(i) in series
(ii) in parallel, in turn, to a battery of 10 V.
Calculate the ratio of power consumed in the combination of resistors in the two cases.

37. The diagram below shows a coil connected to a center zero galvanometer G . The galvanometer shows a
deflection to the right when the N pole of a powerful magnet is moved to the right as shown.
(i) Explain why the deflection occurs in the galvanometer.
(ii) Does the direction of current in the coil appear clockwise or anti-clockwise when viewed from end A?
(iii) State the observation in G when the coil is moved away from N .

38. Student took three concave mirrors of different focal lengths and formed the experiment to see the image
formation by placing an object different distances with these mirrors as shown in the following table:

Case No. Object-distance Focal length

I. 45 cm 20 cm
II. 30 cm 15 cm
III. 20 cm 30 cm
Now answer the following questions:
(a) List two properties of the image formed in Case I.
(b) In which one of the cases given in the table the mirror will form real image of same size and why?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
(c) Name the type of mirror used by dentists. Give reason why do they use such type of mirrors.


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(d) Look at the table and identify the situation (object distance and focal length) which resembles the
situation in which concave mirrors are used as shaving mirrors? Draw a ray diagram to show the image
formation in this case.

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Page 8 Sample Paper 09 CBSE Science Class 10

39. Attempt either option A or B

A. In our daily life, we use two types of electric current whose current-time graphs are given below:

(i) Identify the types of current in each case.

(ii) Identify any one source of each type of current.
(iii) What is frequency of current used in domestic supply in India?
(iv) On the basis of graphs, write difference between the two currents.
(v) Out of two, which one is used in transmitting electric power over Long distance and why?


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B. (i) What is the function of earth wire in electrical instruments?
(ii) Explain what is short circuiting of an electric supply?
(iii) What is the usual current rating of the fuse wire in the line to feed:
(a) lights and fans?
(b) appliances of 2 kW or more power?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 10 Page 1

Sample Paper 10
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. The inner lining of the small intestine is covered with millions of finger-like projections called villi. What is
their primary function?
(a) To secrete mucus to lubricate the food.
(b) To vastly increase the surface area for efficient absorption of digested food.
(c) To push the food forward through the process of peristalsis.
(d) To produce hydrochloric acid to kill bacteria.

2. Plants exhibit various tropic movements in response to external stimuli. The growth of plant roots towards
a source of water is known as:
(a) Geotropism (b) Phototropism
(c) Hydrotropism (d) Thigmotropism

3. The filamentous alga Spirogyra reproduces asexually when its filament breaks into smaller pieces, each of
which grows into a new individual. What is this method of reproduction called?
(a) Budding (b) Fragmentation
(c) Spore formation (d) Fission

4. Gregor Mendel’s experiments on pea plants laid the foundation for modern genetics. What was a key reason
for his choice of pea plants for his study?
(a) They were difficult to grow, which made the experiment more challenging.
(b) They had a very long life cycle, allowing for long-term observation.
(c) They possessed several pairs of easily identifiable, contrasting characteristics.
(d) They could not be self-pollinated, ensuring genetic diversity.

5. What is the primary ecological role of decomposers, such as bacteria and fungi, in an ecosystem?
(a) To serve as the primary source of energy for the food web.
(b) To control the population of producers by eating them.
(c) To fix atmospheric nitrogen for plants to use.
(d) To break down dead organic matter and recycle essential nutrients.

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Page 2 Sample Paper 10 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements about gaseous exchange in plants:

(i) During the day, plants take in carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.
(ii) Oxygen is released as a major waste product of photosynthesis.
(iii) At night, with no photosynthesis occurring, plants only respire, releasing carbon dioxide.
(iv) The rate of photosynthesis during the day is typically much greater than the rate of respiration.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iv) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) only
(d) All are correct.

7. A simple reflex action, such as withdrawing your hand from a hot object, involves a pathway known as the
reflex arc. Which of the following is generally NOT involved in such a simple reflex arc?
(a) Receptor organ
(b) Sensory neuron
(c) Brain
(d) Effector organ

8. Assertion (A) : The wing of a bat and the forelimb of a human are considered homologous organs.
Reason (R) : They share a similar basic anatomical structure and embryonic origin but have been adapted
to perform different functions.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : The placenta facilitates the supply of nutrients and oxygen to the developing embryo.
Reason (R) : The placenta is a temporary organ that connects the foetus to the uterine wall of the mother.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. Herbaceous plants do not have a well-developed respiratory system like animals, but they still get enough
oxygen. Provide two reasons to justify this.

11. Students to attempt either option A or B

A. What is blood pressure? Name the instrument used to measure it and state the normal systolic and
diastolic pressure in a healthy adult.


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B. How is the amount of urine produced by the kidneys regulated?

12. The use of disposable kulhads (earthen cups) is considered a better alternative to plastic cups for serving
tea in trains. Justify this statement by giving two reasons.

13. Name the plant hormone responsible for the following functions:
(i) Growth of the stem and cell enlargement.
(ii) Wilting of leaves and dormancy of buds.
(iii) Ripening of fruit.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 10 Page 3

14. (i) State Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment.

(ii) In a dihybrid cross, what is the phenotypic ratio of offspring obtained in the F2 generation?
(iii) What does this ratio indicate about the inheritance of the two traits?

15. Refer to the given diagram of the human alimentary canal and the questions.

Human alimentary canal.

A. Name the glands whose secretions are poured into the part labelled ‘O’ (Small Intestine).


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B. What are enzymes? Give one example of an enzyme that digests proteins and one that digests starch.
C. Describe the role of the part labelled ‘P’ (Large Intestine).

16. A. (i) Differentiate between unisexual and bisexual flowers with one example of each.
(ii) What would be the fate of the following parts of a flower after fertilization: ovule, ovary, and petals?
(iii) Why is cross-pollination often considered advantageous for a species?


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B. (i) What is meant by contraception? List two reasons why it is important.
(ii) Name one surgical method of contraception for males and one for females. How do these methods
work?
(iii) State one advantage of using barrier methods like condoms.

SECTION-B
17. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen ( 2H 2 O 2 " 2H 2 O + O 2 ) is a special type
of redox reaction where the same element is both oxidized and reduced. This type of reaction is known as:
(a) A combination reaction
(b) A displacement reaction
(c) A disproportionation reaction
(d) A neutralization reaction

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Page 4 Sample Paper 10 CBSE Science Class 10

18. Toothpastes are formulated to help prevent tooth decay caused by acids produced by bacteria in the mouth.
Therefore, the chemical nature of toothpaste is generally:
(a) Acidic
(b) Neutral
(c) Basic
(d) Corrosive

19. Which of the following non-metals is a good conductor of heat?

(a) Sulphur
(b) Diamond
(c) Graphite
(d) Phosphorus

20. A student passes dry ammonia gas (NH3) over a strip of dry blue litmus paper. What will be the observed
colour change?
(a) The blue litmus turns red.
(b) The blue litmus turns colourless.
(c) The blue litmus turns green.
(d) There will be no change in colour.

21. Ammonium acetate (CH 3 COONH 4 ) is a salt formed from a weak acid (acetic acid) and a weak base
(ammonium hydroxide). Its aqueous solution is likely to be:
(a) Strongly acidic
(b) Strongly basic
(c) Approximately neutral
(d) Amphoteric

22. The reaction 2Mg (s) + O 2 (g) " 2MgO (s) can be classified as:
(a) A combination reaction only
(b) A redox reaction only
(c) Both a combination and a redox reaction
(d) A decomposition reaction

23. The silver coating on a traditional mirror is formed when a solution containing a silver salt is treated with
a reducing agent like glucose. The formation of the silver layer is an example of a:
(a) Neutralization reaction
(b) Precipitation reaction
(c) Reduction reaction
(d) Decomposition reaction

24. Assertion (A) : Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate to produce carbon dioxide gas with brisk
effervescence.
Reason (R) : All organic compounds that contain a carboxyl functional group (–COOH) are acidic in nature.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 10 Page 5

25. Name the metals which are known to be the most malleable and the most ductile.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) Highly reactive metals like sodium are high up in the reactivity series. Explain why sodium cannot be
obtained from its molten oxide (Na2O) by reduction using carbon.


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(B) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of the laboratory setup used to show that an acid solution in water
conducts electricity. Your diagram must include a beaker, two electrodes, a bulb, a switch, and a
battery.

27. A student performs an experiment where she places a clean iron nail into a test tube containing a blue
copper sulphate solution. She places another clean copper wire into a test tube containing a pale green
ferrous sulphate solution.
(a) Describe the observation in the first test tube (iron nail in copper sulphate).
(b) Describe the observation in the second test tube (copper wire in ferrous sulphate).
(c) Based on these observations, what conclusion can be drawn about the relative reactivities of iron and
copper?

28. A person walking through a forest accidentally touches a nettle plant. The stinging hairs of the nettle leaf
inject methanoic acid into the skin, causing a burning pain. Traditionally, relief is found by rubbing the area
with the leaf of a dock plant, which often grows nearby.
(a) What is the chemical nature of the substance injected by the nettle sting?
(b) The dock plant leaf provides relief because its sap is basic. What is the chemical name for the reaction
that occurs between the nettle sting and the dock leaf sap?
(c) If a dock plant is not available, suggest a common household chemical that could be applied to get
similar relief.
(d) Why would applying vinegar to the nettle sting be a bad idea?


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Two acidic solutions, Solution A and Solution B, have pH values of 2 and 5, respectively.
(a) Which solution is more acidic?
(b) Which solution will have a higher concentration of H+ ions?
(c) The concentration of H+ ions in the more acidic solution is how many times greater than that in the less
acidic solution?
(d) What colour would you expect a universal indicator to show in Solution A?

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) Butene (C4H8) is an alkene. It can exist in the form of several structural isomers.
(a) To which homologous series does butene belong? What is the general formula for this series?
(b) Draw the structures of three structural isomers of butene (C4H8).
(c) Provide the IUPAC name for each of the three isomers you have drawn.
(d) How would you convert But-1-ene to Butane? Write the relevant chemical equation.


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(B) The chemical properties of ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) are characteristic of carboxylic acids.
(a) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of ethanoic acid with an alcohol like ethanol
in the presence of an acid catalyst. Name this reaction.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of ethanoic acid with a base like sodium
hydroxide. Name this reaction.
(c) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of ethanoic acid with a metal carbonate like
sodium carbonate.
(d) Draw the electron dot structure for the ethanoic acid molecule.
Page 6 Sample Paper 10 CBSE Science Class 10

SECTION-C
30. A student makes the following statements about image formation by a concave lens:
I. A concave lens always forms a virtual and erect image.
II. The image formed by a concave lens is always diminished.
III. The focal length of a concave lens is considered positive.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III

31. Which of the following is an example of total internal reflection?

(a) The glittering of a diamond
(b) The blue color of the sky
(c) The formation of a shadow
(d) The functioning of a magnifying glass

32. Assertion (A) : A convex mirror is used as a rear-view mirror in vehicles.

Reason (R) : A convex mirror gives a wider field of view and forms a diminished, erect image.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. An object 5 cm in length is placed 25 cm away from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm.
A. Use the lens formula to calculate the image distance.
B. Find the size of the image using magnification.
C. State the nature of the image.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 10 Page 7

34. Attempt either option A or B

A. In the following circuit diagram, find :
(a) the total resistance of the circuit.
(b) the total current flowing in the circuit.

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B. Find out the following in the electric circuit given in figure :
(a) Effective resistance of two 8 Ω resistors in the combination.
(b) Current flowing through 4 Ω resistor.

35. Due to gradual weakening of ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of the eye lens a certain defect of
vision arises. Write the name of this defect. Name the type of lens required by such persons to improve the
vision. Explain the structure and function of such a lens.

36. Two resistors with resistances 10 Ω and 15 Ω are to be connected to emf 12 V so as to obtain :
(i) Minimum current
(ii) Maximum current.
How will you connect the resistance in each case ?
Calculate the strength of the total current in the circuit in the two cases.

37. Answer the following questions :

(i) What is the direction of magnetic field lines outside a bar-magnet ?
(ii) What is the SI unit of magnetic field ?
(iii) What does crowding of magnetic field lines indicate ?

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Page 8 Sample Paper 10 CBSE Science Class 10

38. A concave mirror forms image of an object thrice in its size on a screen. Magnification of a mirror gives
information about the size of the image relative to the object. It is defined as the ratio of size of image to
the size of object. It is represented by m .
Size of image
m =
Size of object
Sign of magnification by mirror gives the information about the nature of the image produce by it.
(i) Describe the nature of image formed.
(ii) If the object x distance from the pole of mirror, then find image distance from the pole.
Attempt either subpart C or D.
(iii) If the radius of curvature of mirror is R, then write the relation between object distance, image distance
and focal length of the mirror.


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(iv) Give one use of concave mirror.

39. Attempt either option A or B

A. What are magnetic field lines? How is the direction of a magnetic field at a point determined ?
Draw the magnetic field lines (including field directions) of the magnetic field due to a circular coil of
current. Name any two factors on which the magnitude of the magnetic field due to this coil depends.
B. (a) In a given ammeter, a student saw that needle indicates 12th division in ammeter while performing
an experiment to verify Ohm’s law. If ammeter has 10 divisions between 0 to 0.5 A , then what is
the ammeter reading corresponding to 12th division ?
(b) How do you connect an ammeter and a voltmeter in an electric circuit ?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 11 Page 1

Sample Paper 11
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. When a blood vessel is cut, the bleeding is stopped by the formation of a clot. Which component of blood
is primarily responsible for initiating this process?
(a) Red Blood Cells (RBCs)
(b) White Blood Cells (WBCs)
(c) Plasma
(d) Platelets

2. Which endocrine gland, located at the base of the brain, is often called the ‘master gland’ because it secretes
hormones that regulate many other glands in the body?
(a) Thyroid gland
(b) Adrenal gland
(c) Pituitary gland
(d) Pancreas

3. The male reproductive part of a flower is the stamen. The stamen is composed of which two distinct parts?
(a) Stigma and Style
(b) Anther and Filament
(c) Ovary and Ovule
(d) Petal and Sepal

4. The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect both enable flight, but they have different evolutionary
origins and internal structures. Such organs are referred to as:
(a) Homologous organs
(b) Vestigial organs
(c) Analogous organs
(d) Fossil organs

5. Waste materials can be classified as biodegradable or non-biodegradable. Which of the following items is
biodegradable?
(a) A plastic toy
(b) A glass jar
(c) An aluminum can
(d) A paper bag
Page 2 Sample Paper 11 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements about the major parts of the human brain :
(i) The cerebrum is the site of intelligence, consciousness, and memory.
(ii) The cerebellum is primarily responsible for maintaining posture and balance.
(iii) The medulla controls involuntary actions like breathing and heartbeat.
(iv) The entire brain is protected by the flexible vertebral column.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iv) only
(b) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) only
(d) All are correct.

7. The human digestive system breaks down complex food molecules into simpler ones. In which part of the
alimentary canal does the final and complete digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins occur?
(a) Stomach (b) Small intestine
(c) Large intestine (d) Liver

8. Assertion (A) : Food chains in an ecosystem are generally short, usually consisting of three to four trophic
levels.
Reason (R) : The amount of available energy increases at each successive trophic level in a food chain.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : The copying of DNA is a fundamental event in the process of reproduction.
Reason (R) : DNA copying ensures that the offspring receives the complete genetic blueprint from the
parent(s).
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. It is generally advised not to talk while eating. Explain the biological reason behind this precaution in
relation to the passage of air and food.

11. Student to attempt either A or B.

A. List two vital functions of the human kidneys apart from the excretion of nitrogenous waste like urea.


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B. How do autotrophs obtain the following raw materials required for photosynthesis :
(i) Carbon dioxide and
(ii) Water?

12. What is meant by the ‘Ozone Hole’ ? Name the main class of synthetic chemicals responsible for its creation.

13. What is a reflex action? Give two examples. How does it differ from a voluntary action?

14. How can the evolutionary relationships between different organisms be traced? Mention any three methods
that scientists use.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 11 Page 3

15. Refer to the diagram of the human respiratory system to the following questions.

A. What is the role of the diaphragm, a large muscular sheet, in the process of breathing?


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B. What are alveoli? How are they structurally adapted to maximize gaseous exchange?
C. Explain why the breathing rate of a person increases significantly during vigorous exercise.

16. A. (i) How does binary fission in Leishmania differ from that in Amoeba?
(ii) What is fragmentation? Give an example of an organism that reproduces by this method.
(iii) Can regeneration in an organism like a lizard be considered a form of reproduction? Why or why
not?


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B. (i) What changes occur in a flower after fertilization? List any three.
(ii) What is the main difference between self-pollination and cross-pollination?
(iii) Draw a diagram showing the germination of a pollen grain on the stigma of a flower.

SECTION-B
17. In the reaction CuO (s) + H 2 (g) " Cu (s) + H 2 O (l), which substances are oxidized and reduced respectively?
(a) H2 is oxidized, CuO is reduced.
(b) CuO is oxidized, H2 is reduced.
(c) Both CuO and H2 are oxidized.
(d) Both CuO and H2 are reduced.

18. When an acid reacts with a metal hydrogen carbonate, the products formed are :
(a) Salt, water, and hydrogen gas
(b) Salt and water only
(c) Salt, water, and carbon dioxide gas
(d) Salt and carbon dioxide gas only

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Page 4 Sample Paper 11 CBSE Science Class 10

19. Which of the following metals exists as a liquid at room temperature?

(a) Sodium
(b) Iron
(c) Mercury
(d) Gold

20. Based on the reactivity series, which of the following metals will not displace hydrogen from dilute acids?
(a) Zinc
(b) Magnesium
(c) Iron
(d) Copper

21. The organic compound propanone contains which of the following functional groups?
(a) Aldehyde (-CHO)
(b) Alcohol (-OH)
(c) Carboxylic acid (-COOH)
(d) Ketone (C=O)

22. An aqueous solution of which of the following compounds is used for whitewashing walls?
(a) Calcium carbonate (CaCO3)
(b) Calcium oxide (CaO)
(c) Calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2)
(d) Calcium sulphate (CaSO4)

23. When an aqueous solution of sodium sulphate is mixed with an aqueous solution of barium chloride, a white
insoluble substance is formed. What is the chemical formula of this substance?
(a) BaSO4
(b) NaCl
(c) BaS
(d) Na2Cl2

24. Assertion (A) : Ionic compounds are generally hard, crystalline solids.
Reason (R) : There are strong electrostatic forces of attraction between the oppositely charged ions in their
structure.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Explain why covalent compounds are generally poor conductors of electricity.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) You are given three metals : Sodium, Magnesium, and Copper.
(i) Arrange them in decreasing order of their reactivity.
(ii) Describe a simple experiment to establish the reactivity order between Magnesium and Copper.


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(B) (i) What is meant by the anodising of aluminium?
(ii) How does this process make aluminium resistant to further corrosion?


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NODIA APP Sample Paper 11 Page 5

27. A student burns a magnesium ribbon in the air, holding it with a pair of tongs.

(a) What is the dazzling white light produced, and what is the chemical nature of the white powder formed?
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
(c) What type of chemical reaction is this?

28. At a hospital, doctors use a white powder which, when mixed with water, sets into a hard solid mass to
support fractured bones. This substance is obtained by carefully heating gypsum at 373 K.
(a) Identify this white powder. Write its chemical name and chemical formul(a)
(b) Explain why this substance must be stored in a moisture-proof container.
(c) Write the balanced chemical equation for the preparation of this substance from gypsum.


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(c) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction that occurs when this powder is mixed with
water. What is the hard solid mass produced known as?

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) (a) Draw the structure of a micelle formed when soap is dissolved in water. Clearly label the hydrophobic
and hydrophilic parts of the soap molecule.
(b) With the help of the micelle structure, explain the cleansing action of soap on an oily spot.
(c) Why are soaps not effective cleaning agents in hard water?


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(B) (a) What are structural isomers?
(b) Draw the structures of the three possible structural isomers of pentane (C5H12).
(c) Explain why a branched-chain isomer is not possible for propane (C3H8).

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Page 6 Sample Paper 11 CBSE Science Class 10

SECTION-C
30. A student is learning about the different phenomena of light and makes the following statements:
I. Refraction is the change in the direction of light as it passes from one medium to another.
II. Reflection is the bouncing back of light into the same medium.
III. The speed of light is the same in all mediums.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III

31. What is the primary cause of a person suffering from myopia?

(a) The focal length of the eye lens is too long.
(b) The eyeball is too short.
(c) The focal length of the eye lens is too short.
(d) The eye lens is unable to change its focal length.

32. Assertion (A) : A ray of light entering a convex lens parallel to its principal axis converges at the principal
focus.
Reason (R) : All parallel rays entering a converging lens are refracted to meet at the focal point.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens.
A. Apply the lens formula to find the object distance.
B. Draw a ray diagram showing the image formation.
C. State whether the image is diminished or magnified.

34. Attempt either option A or B.

A. Two identical resistors of 24 Ω each are connected to a battery of 6 V. Calculate the ratio of the power
consumed by the resulting combinations with
(a) minimum resistance and
(b) maximum resistance.


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B. The current flowing through a resistor connected in a circuit and the potential difference developed
across its ends are as shown in the diagram by milliammeter and voltmeter readings respectively :
(a) What are the least counts of these meters?
(b) What is the resistance of the resistor?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 11 Page 7

35. With the help of ciliary muscles the human eye can change its curvature and thus alter the focal length of
its lens. State the changes that occur in the curvature and focal length of the eye lens while viewing (i) a
distance object, (ii) nearby object.
Explain, why a normal eye is not able to the distinctly the objects placed closer than 25 cm, without putting
any stain on the eye.

36. Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of six 2 V cells, a 6 Ω resistor, a 12 Ω resistor
and a 18 Ω resistor and a plug key all connected in series. Calculate the following (when key is closed):
(i) Electric current flowing in the circuit.
(ii) Potential difference across 18 Ω resistor.
(iii) Electric power consumed in 18 Ω resistor.

37. A student claims that the sky appears blue due to scattering of light.
(i) Is this correct?
(ii) State the reason behind scattering.

38. A concave lens is thick at the edges and thin at the centre, while a convex lens is thick at the centre and
thin at the edges. We can distinguish between a concave lens and a convex lens without touching them. For
this keep a book close to a lens and observe the image of the text of the book through the lens. If the letters
appear enlarged, then it is a convex lens and if the letters appear diminished then it is a concave lens.
Convex lens converges light rays and hence known as converging lens. Similarly, concave lens diverges
light rays and is known as diverging lens. Linear magnification produced by a lens is equal to the ratio of
the image distance to the object distance. Power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length.
(i) What type of image is always made by a concave lens ?
(ii) If magnification produced by a spherical lens is +0.75, then what is the nature of the lens ?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
(iii) What is the power of a convex lens with focal length 80 cm ?


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(iv) What kind of lens is present in human eye ?

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Page 8 Sample Paper 11 CBSE Science Class 10

39. Attempt either option A or B

A. Inside the house, connections to all the devices are made in parallel, each having independent switch
and fuse (if necessary). Thus, whenever some fault occurs in circuit of one particular device in one room,
devices in other rooms do not suffer.
Figure shows a 240V AC mains circuit to which a number of appliances are connected and switched on.

(i) Calculate the power supplied to the circuit.

(ii) Find out the value of electric current in the refrigerators.
(iii) Calculate energy used by the fan in 2 hours.
(iv) Calculate resistance of the filament of one lamp.


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B. (i) Which effect of the electric current is utilised in the working of an electrical fuse ?
(ii) Is a fuse connected in series or in parallel in household circuit ?
(iii) Draw a schematic labelled diagram of a domestic circuit which has a provision of a main fuse, meter,
one light bulb and a switch/socket.
(iv) Why are appliances connected in parallel in the circuit?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 12 Page 1

Sample Paper 12
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. Bile juice is secreted by the liver and stored in the gall bladder. What is its primary function in the process
of digestion?
(a) To digest carbohydrates into simple sugars.
(b) To make the medium in the small intestine acidic.
(c) To emulsify large fat globules into smaller droplets.
(d) To break down proteins into amino acids.

2. The growth of a pollen tube from the stigma towards the ovule inside the carpel is an example of which
type of plant movement?
(a) Geotropism
(b) Phototropism
(c) Hydrotropism
(d) Chemotropism

3. The female reproductive part of a flower is the pistil (or carpel). Which three parts make up the pistil?
(a) Anther, Stamen, and Pollen
(b) Stigma, Style, and Ovary
(c) Sepal, Petal, and Thalamus
(d) Filament, Ovule, and Pollen tube

4. In humans, sex is determined by a specific pair of chromosomes. What is the chromosomal composition of
a normal male and a normal female, respectively?
(a) XY and XX
(b) XX and XY
(c) XX and YY
(d) XY and XO

5. What does the 10% law of energy transfer in an ecosystem state?

(a) That organisms use 90% of their energy for reproduction.
(b) That only 10% of the energy from one trophic level is incorporated into the next level.
(c) That 10% of all organisms in one trophic level are eaten by the next.
(d) That plants only capture 10% of the sun’s total energy.

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Page 2 Sample Paper 12 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements about the components of human blood :

(i) Red blood cells contain haemoglobin and are responsible for oxygen transport.
(ii) White blood cells are the body’s primary defense against infectious diseases.
(iii) Plasma is the solid, red-coloured component of blood.
(iv) Platelets are cell fragments that play a crucial role in blood clotting.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iv) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) All are correct.

7. What is the name for the basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system, which is specialized to
transmit nerve impulses?
(a) Nephron
(b) Neuron
(c) Alveolus
(d) Villus

8. Assertion (A) : Skills like swimming or learning a musical instrument, acquired during a person’s life, cannot
be passed on to their children
Reason (R) : Acquired traits do not cause any change in the DNA of the reproductive cells (gametes).
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : The use of disposable plastic items is generally discouraged for environmental reasons.
Reason (R) : Paper is a biodegradable material, whereas plastic is non-biodegradable.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. The characteristic ‘lub-dub’ sound of a heartbeat is produced by the heart muscle itself. Which mechanical
events within the cardiac cycle are responsible for producing these two sounds?

11. Student to attempt either option A or B

A. What is translocation in plants? Why is it an essential process?


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B. List the main components of the initial filtrate that enters the Bowman’s capsule during ultrafiltration
in the nephron.

12. How can the increasing demand for energy negatively impact our environment? Give two examples.

13. What is a synapse? Explain how a nerve impulse is transmitted across a synapse between two neurons.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 12 Page 3

14. A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood group B. Their first child has blood group O.
(i) What are the genotypes of the parents?
(ii) What are the other possible blood groups of their future offspring? Show with a cross.
(iii) Can any of their children have blood group AB?

15. A student is studying the transport systems in plants. the following questions based on this topic.
A. Differentiate between the ascent of sap and translocation.


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B. Explain why the transport of materials in the xylem is unidirectional, while in the phloem it is
bidirectional.
C. What role does the cohesive and adhesive properties of water play in the ascent of sap?

16. A. (i) What is meant by vegetative propagation? Give two examples of plants grown using this method.
(ii) Describe the process of growing a new rose plant using the technique of ‘cutting’.
(iii) State two benefits for a gardener using this method.


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B. (i) What is the role of the testes and ovaries in the human reproductive system, besides gamete
production?
(ii) Where in the human female reproductive system do the following events take place : (a) Fertilization,
(b) Implantation?
(iii) What is the function of the fluid secreted by the seminal vesicles and prostate gland in males?

SECTION-B
17. Which of the following is a thermal decomposition reaction that is also a redox reaction?
Heat
(a) CaCO 3 (s) CaO (s) + CO 2 (g)
Heat
(b) 2Pb (NO 3) 2 (s) 2PbO (s) + 4NO 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
Electrolysis
(c) 2H 2 O (l) 2H 2 (g) + O 2 (g)
Sunlight
(d) 2AgCl (s) 2Ag (s) + Cl 2 (g)

18. A metal oxide reacts with both dilute sulphuric acid and aqueous potassium hydroxide to form salt and
water. Which of the following metals could be present in the metal oxide?
(i) Sodium
(ii) Zinc
(iii) Copper
(iv) Aluminium
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

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Page 4 Sample Paper 12 CBSE Science Class 10

19. A student places a strip of zinc metal in an aqueous solution of copper(II) sulphate and another strip in an
aqueous solution of iron(II) sulphate. A visible reaction occurs in :
(a) Both solutions.
(b) The copper(II) sulphate solution only.
(c) The iron(II) sulphate solution only.
(d) Neither of the solutions.

20. A few drops of a solution ‘X’ turn blue litmus red, and a few drops of a solution ‘Y’ turn red litmus blue.
What would be the colour change if a blue litmus paper is dipped in solution ‘Y’ ?
(a) It turns red.
(b) It turns colourless.
(c) No colour change.
(d) It turns green.

21. Which of the following options has the substances arranged in the increasing order of their pH values?
(a) Gastric juice, Milk of Magnesia, Sodium hydroxide solution
(b) Milk of Magnesia, Gastric juice, Sodium hydroxide solution
(c) Gastric juice, Sodium hydroxide solution, Milk of Magnesia
(d) Sodium hydroxide solution, Milk of Magnesia, Gastric juice

22. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to solid sodium carbonate, a brisk effervescence is observed. This is
due to the evolution of :
(a) Hydrogen gas
(b) Oxygen gas
(c) Carbon dioxide gas
(d) Chlorine gas

23. When an aqueous solution of potassium iodide is added to an aqueous solution of lead(II) nitrate, what is
observed?
(a) A white precipitate is formed.
(b) The solution turns red.
(c) A yellow precipitate is formed.
(d) A clear solution is formed.

24. Assertion (A) : Soaps are not effective cleaning agents in hard water.
Reason (R) : Soaps form insoluble precipitates (scum) with the calcium and magnesium ions present in hard
water.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Answer the following questions based on the properties of metals.

(a) Name the property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires. Give an example of a metal
that is highly ductile.
(b) What is meant by sonority? Why are school bells made of metals and not wood?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 12 Page 5

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) Differentiate between roasting and calcination used in metallurgy. Give one balanced chemical equation
for each.


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(B) (i) What is an alloy?
(ii) Why is stainless steel preferred over pure iron for making cooking utensils?
(iii) Name the constituents of the alloy solder.

27. A student gently heats a small amount of lead nitrate powder in a dry test tube.

(a) What two observations will the student make during the experiment?
(b) Name the type of chemical reaction taking place.
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction.

28. A student took 2 mL of a colourless liquid ‘X’ (a common household cleaner) in a test tube and added a few
drops of phenolphthalein. The solution turned deep pink. He then started adding another colourless liquid
‘Y’ (used as a food preservative) drop by drop. After adding 30 drops, the pink colour disappeared.
(a) What is the nature (acidic/basic) of liquid ‘X’ and liquid ‘Y’ ? Justify your answer.
(b) Name the type of reaction occurring between X and Y. Write a general equation for this type of
reaction.
(c) If liquid ‘X’ is aqueous sodium hydroxide and liquid ‘Y’ is acetic acid (CH3COOH), write the balanced
chemical equation for the reaction. What is the chemical name of the salt formed?


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(c) If the student used a more concentrated solution of liquid ‘Y’, would he need more, less, or the same
number of drops to make the solution colourless? Justify your answer.
Page 6 Sample Paper 12 CBSE Science Class 10

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) An organic compound ‘A’ with the molecular formula C2H4O2 gives a brisk effervescence with sodium
hydrogencarbonate solution.
(a) Identify the compound ‘A’ and name its functional group.
(b) Write the chemical equation for the reaction of ‘A’ with sodium hydrogencarbonate.
(c) Draw the electron-dot structure of compound ‘A’. (Reference : NCERT Class 10 Chemistry Textbook
(2025-26), Page 62)
(d) What happens when ‘A’ is heated with ethanol in the presence of a few drops of concentrated
sulphuric acid? Name the reaction and write the chemical equation involve (d)


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(B) The electronic configurations of two elements, X and Y, are (2, 6) and (2, 8, 1) respectively.
(a) What type of bond will be formed between X and Y? Show the formation of the bond using
electron-dot structures.
(b) Write the chemical formula of the compound forme(d)
(c) Why do compounds of this type generally have high melting points and are good conductors of
electricity in their molten state?

SECTION-C
30. A student is analyzing the mirror formula and sign conventions and makes the following statements:
I. For a convex mirror, the focal length is always positive.
II. For a concave mirror, the focal length is always negative.
III. The mirror formula is applicable only for plane mirrors.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III

31. Why does the sky appear white during midday?

(a) The scattering of all colors is at its maximum.
(b) There is no scattering of light at midday.
(c) Light travels a shorter path, so all colors are scattered almost equally.
(d) The sun emits more white light at midday.

32. Assertion (A) : The refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to
the speed of light in that medium.
Reason (R) : A higher refractive index of a medium means that the speed of light in that medium is higher.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. An object is placed 10 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm.

A. Calculate the image position using mirror formula.
B. State the nature of the image formed.
C. Explain why convex mirrors always form virtual images.


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NODIA APP Sample Paper 12 Page 7

34. Attempt either option A or B.

A. The current flowing through a resistor connected in an electrical circuit and the potential difference
developed across its ends are shown in the given ammeter and voltmeter. Find the least count of the
voltmeter and ammeter. What is the voltage and the current across the given resistor?

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B. In the given circuit diagram suppose the resistors R1 , R2 and R3 have the values 5 Ω , 10 Ω, 30 Ω
respectively, which have been connected to a battery of 12 volt. Calculate

(a) The current through each resistor,

(b) The total current in the circuit and

35. The apparent altitude of stars appears to be generally more than their true altitudes. Explain, how.

36. Calculate the total cost of running the following electrical devices in the month of September, if the rate of
1 unit of electricity is ` 6.00.
(i) Electric heater of 1000 W for 5 hours daily.
(ii) Electric refrigerator of 400 W for 10 hours daily.

37. A student observes that during sunrise and sunset the Sun appears reddish.
(i) Explain if the observation is correct.
(ii) Give the reason.

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Page 8 Sample Paper 12 CBSE Science Class 10

38. When light ray goes from one transparent medium to another transparent medium, it suffers a change in
direction, into second medium. The extent of the change in direction suffered by the phenomenon of change
in the path of light rays when going from one medium to another medium is known as refraction. Ray is
a given pair of media can be expressed in terms of refractive index. The refractive index is related to an
important physical quantity in the relative speed of light in different media.

(i) When light goes from one medium to another, which of the three parameters, frequency, wavelength,
velocity change ?
(ii) A ray of light enters into the glass from air. Does it bend towards normal ?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
(iii) Light enters from air to glass having refractive index 1.50. What is the speed of light in the glass? The
speed of light in vacuum is 3 # 108 ms-1 .


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(iv) What is the unit of refractive index ?

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) Consider a conductor of resistance R , length L , thickness d and resistivity ρ . Now this conductor
is cut into four equal parts. What will be the new resistivity of each of these parts? Why?
(ii) Find the resistance if all of these parts are connected in:
(a) Parallel
(b) Series
(iii) Out of the combinations of resistors mentioned above in the previous part, for a given voltage which
combination will consume more power and why?


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B. Derive an expression for equivalent resistance when two resistors of resistance R1 and R2 are connected
in parallel.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 13 Page 1

Sample Paper 13
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. When a person’s kidneys fail, their blood can be cleaned artificially by a machine. This process of filtering
waste products like urea from the blood is called:
(a) Transfusion
(b) Dialysis
(c) Osmosis
(d) Filtration

2. While riding a bicycle, the voluntary action of deciding when to turn is controlled by the cerebrum. However,
the crucial function of maintaining balance and posture is coordinated by the:
(a) Medulla
(b) Pons
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Hypothalamus

3. Hydra, a freshwater organism, reproduces asexually by developing a small outgrowth on its body which then
matures and detaches. What is this mode of reproduction called?
(a) Fragmentation
(b) Regeneration
(c) Budding
(d) Spore Formation

4. In his monohybrid cross experiments, Gregor Mendel self-pollinated the F1 generation plants (which were
all heterozygous, Tt). What was the resulting genotypic ratio of the F2 generation?
(a) 3 (Tall) : 1 (Dwarf)
(b) 1 (TT) : 1 (tt)
(c) 1 (TT) : 2 (Tt) : 1 (tt)
(d) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

5. Consider a simple food chain: Grass ® Deer ® Tiger. What would be the immediate consequence if the
entire tiger population were to be removed from the ecosystem?
(a) The population of grass would decrease.
(b) The population of deer would increase drastically.
(c) The population of deer would decrease due to starvation.
(d) The ecosystem would remain stable and unchanged.
Page 2 Sample Paper 13 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements regarding human reproduction:

(i) Fertilization is the fusion of a sperm and an ovum.
(ii) In humans, fertilization normally takes place in the oviduct (fallopian tube).
(iii) The cell formed immediately after fertilization is called an embryo.
(iv) The embryo gets embedded in the wall of the uterus for further development.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iv) only
(d) All are correct.

7. In the human double circulatory system, most arteries carry oxygenated blood. Which artery is the major
exception, carrying deoxygenated blood?
(a) Aorta
(b) Coronary Artery
(c) Hepatic Artery
(d) Pulmonary Artery

8. Assertion (A) : Ozone present in the higher levels of the atmosphere is essential for ecosystems on Earth.
Reason (R) : Ozone gas is a deadly poison.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion(A) : The shoot of a plant grows upwards, against the pull of gravity.
Reason (R) : This growth pattern is an example of negative geotropism.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. Desert plants like cacti keep their stomata closed during the day to conserve water. How do they manage to
perform photosynthesis under these conditions?

11. A. What would be the consequence of a deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies?

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B. Differentiate between breathing and cellular respiration.

12. What is a ‘food web’ ? Why is it a more accurate representation of an ecosystem than a food chain?

13. Name the hormone that performs the following functions in the human body:
(i) Regulates the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.
(ii) Prepares the body for ‘fight or flight’ responses.
(iii) Controls the amount of sugar in the blood.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 13 Page 3

14. What are fossils? How do they serve as evidence for evolution?

15. Refer to the diagram of the human excretory system and the following questions.

A. Identify the main organ of excretion in the diagram. What is its basic filtration unit called?


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B. What is the composition of normal human urine?
C. Trace the path of urine from where it is formed to the point where it is expelled from the body.

16. A. (i) How does budding in Hydra differ from budding in yeast?
(ii) Name two plants that can be propagated by vegetative means.
(iii) List two disadvantages of vegetative propagation.


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B. (i) What is the role of the placenta in the development of an embryo?
(ii) What happens in the female reproductive system if the egg is not fertilized?
(iii) Name two sexually transmitted diseases and the causative agent (bacterium/virus) for each.

SECTION-B
17. When a few granules of zinc are added to a blue-coloured copper sulphate solution, the solution turns
colourless after some time. This is an example of a:
(a) Combination reaction
(b) Double displacement reaction
(c) Decomposition reaction
(d) Displacement reaction

18. An aqueous solution of ammonium chloride (NH4Cl) will be:

(a) Acidic
(b) Basic
(c) Neutral
(d) Amphoteric

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Page 4 Sample Paper 13 CBSE Science Class 10

19. Which of the following metals is extracted from its ore by the electrolytic reduction of its molten chloride?
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Sodium
(d) Silver

20. A turmeric stain on a white shirt turns reddish-brown when washed with soap. This is because:
(a) Soap solution is acidic.
(b) Soap solution is basic.
(c) Soap is a neutral salt.
(d) Turmeric is a synthetic indicator.

21. Which of the following substances, when dissolved in water, will not produce hydrogen ions (H+)?
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Glucose (C 6 H 12 O 6 )
(d) Acetic acid

22. Over time, silver articles turn black and copper vessels turn green when exposed to air. These are examples
of:
(a) Reduction
(b) Melting
(c) Corrosion
(d) Sublimation

23. For the reaction of steam on iron, the balanced chemical equation is
xFe (s) + yH 2 O (g) " Fe 3 O 4 (s) + zH 2 (g)
The values of x, y, and z are:
(a) x=2, y=3, z=3
(b) x=3, y=4, z=4
(c) x=3, y=4, z=2
(d) x=1, y=2, z=2

24. Assertion (A) : Ethene is an unsaturated hydrocarbon.

Reason (R) : Ethene molecules contain a double bond between two carbon atoms.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 13 Page 5

25. State any two characteristic physical properties of ionic compounds.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(a) (i) What is the thermite reaction?
(ii) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction.
(iii) State one important application of this reaction.


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(b) Explain the process of extracting a moderately reactive metal like zinc from its sulphide ore (zinc
blende). Write balanced chemical equations for the reactions involved.

27. The diagram below shows the setup for the electrolysis of water.

(a) Why is the volume of gas collected in the test tube over the cathode double the volume of gas collected
over the anode?
(b) Name the gas collected at the cathode and the gas collected at the anode.
(c) What would be observed when a burning candle is brought near the mouth of each test tube?

28. A person suffering from indigestion due to overeating is often advised to take an antacid.
(a) Why does indigestion sometimes cause pain and irritation in the stomach?
(b) What is the primary function of an antacid? Give an example of a common antacid.
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction that occurs when magnesium hydroxide (an antacid)
neutralizes the excess acid in the stomach.


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(d) A farmer discovers that the soil in his fields is too acidic (low pH), which is affecting crop growth. What
type of substance would you recommend he add to the soil? Name two common substances used for this
purpose.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 13 CBSE Science Class 10

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) An organic compound ‘X’ has the molecular formula C2H6O. It is a good solvent and is the active
ingredient in all alcoholic drinks.
(a) Identify ‘X’ and draw its structure.
(b) What happens when ‘X’ is heated with excess concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K? Name the
reaction and write the balanced chemical equation.
(c) What is observed when a small piece of sodium is dropped into ‘X’ ? Write the balanced chemical
equation for the reaction.


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(b) (a) What is a homologous series? List any two of its characteristics.
(b) Write the name and chemical formula of the second member of the alkyne homologous series.
(c) Draw the structures of the two possible isomers of butane (C 4 H 10 ).

SECTION-C
30. A student is using a magnifying glass to view a small object and observes the following:
I. The magnifying glass is a convex lens.
II. The image formed is virtual, erect, and magnified.
III. The object is placed at a distance greater than the focal length of the lens.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. A person cannot see objects beyond 2 meters. Which of the following lenses should be used to correct this
vision defect?
(a) A concave lens with a focal length of 2m
(b) A convex lens with a focal length of 2m
(c) A concave lens with a focal length of 1m
(d) A convex lens with a focal length of 1m

32. Assertion (A) : The image formed by a convex mirror is always virtual.
Reason (R) : A convex mirror is a diverging mirror, so the light rays never actually meet after reflection.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. The magnification produced by a plane mirror is always +1.

A. What does the positive sign indicate?
B. Why is the size of the image equal to the object?
C. Can a plane mirror form a real image?

34. Attempt either option A or B

A. Three 2 Ω resistors A, B and C are connected as shown in figure. Each of them dissipates energy and
can withstand a maximum power of 18 W without melting. Find the maximum current that can flow
through the three resistors.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 13 Page 7

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B. A wire is cut into three equal parts and then connected in parallel. How will its :
(a) resistance
(b) resistivity get effected ?

35. Write about power of accommodation of human eye. Explain why the image distance in the eye does not
change when we change the distance of an object from the eye ?

36. n the given circuit, find :

(a) Total resistance of the network of resistors

(b) Current through ammeter A

37. A student passes a ray of light from air into glass.

He claims that the ray bends towards the normal.
(i) Is the claim correct?
(ii) Explain why this happens.

38. Convex mirror is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles. Since the image of the object formed is small in size,
the field of view is increased. Convex mirror is also used in street lights to diverge light over a large area.
Page 8 Sample Paper 13 CBSE Science Class 10

(i) In driver’s mirror, what type of image is formed behind the vehicle ?
(ii) What can you say about field of view of a convex mirror ?
(iii) A convex mirror is used to form the image of an object. What is the nature of formed image ?

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) With the help of a suitable circuit diagram prove that the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance
of a group of resistances joined in parallel is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the individual
resistances.
(ii) In an electric circuit two resistors of 12 Ω each are joined in parallel to a 6 V battery. Find the
current drawn from the battery.


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B. For the circuit diagram given below, calculate :
(i) the value of current through each resistor.
(ii) the total current in the circuit.
(iii) the total effective resistance of the circuit.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 14 Page 1

Sample Paper 14
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. In plant cells, the process of photosynthesis, which converts light energy into chemical energy, occurs within
which specific organelle?
(a) Mitochondrion
(b) Ribosome
(c) Chloroplast
(d) Nucleus

2. The hindbrain is composed of several parts that control various bodily functions. Which part acts as a
bridge, relaying signals between the cerebrum and cerebellum, and helps regulate respiration?
(a) Medulla
(b) Pons
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Thalamus

3. A gardener takes a cutting from a rose plant and plants it in the soil, where it grows into a new, complete
rose plant. This method of asexual reproduction is known as:
(a) Budding
(b) Spore Formation
(c) Fission
(d) Vegetative propagation

4. The evolutionary process by which new biological species arise from existing ones, often due to geographical
or reproductive isolation, is called:
(a) Natural Selection
(b) Speciation
(c) Genetic Drift
(d) Artificial Selection

5. Which of the following best defines an ecosystem?

(a) The group of all organisms of the same species in an area.
(b) All the living organisms found within a specific geographical area.
(c) The non-living components like water, soil, and air in an area.
(d) All the living organisms in an area interacting with each other and their non-living environment.
Page 2 Sample Paper 14 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements about the human digestive process:

(i) The chemical digestion of starch begins in the mouth with the help of salivary amylase.
(ii) The stomach secretes hydrochloric acid, which helps to kill harmful bacteria in food.
(iii) The final and complete digestion of all food components occurs in the large intestine.
(iv) The small intestine has numerous villi on its inner surface to increase the area for absorption.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) (ii), (iii), and (iv)
(d) All are correct.

7. The level of glucose in the blood is tightly controlled by a negative feedback loop. This regulation is
primarily managed by which pair of hormones secreted by the pancreas?
(a) Adrenaline and Noradrenaline
(b) Oestrogen and Progesterone
(c) Insulin and Glucagon
(d) Thyroxine and Calcitonin

8. Assertion (A) : In human males, the testes are located within the scrotum, outside the abdominal cavity.
Reason (R) : The formation of sperm requires a temperature that is slightly lower than the normal internal
body temperature.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : Opting for public transport over private vehicles can help reduce air pollution in cities.
Reason (R) : Public transport vehicles are designed to run without releasing any pollutants.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. Veins are equipped with valves, while arteries generally are not. Justify this anatomical difference based on
the function of these blood vessels.

11. Student to attempt either option A or B

A. List two different ways in which plants excrete their waste products.


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B. What is the function of the rings of cartilage present in the human trachea (windpipe)?

12. Our food chain is a part of a larger ecosystem. For instance, in a forest, grass is eaten by deer, which in turn
is eaten by a tiger. What is the role of organisms like bacteria and fungi in this ecosystem?

13. Differentiate between tropic movements and nastic movements in plants, giving three points of distinction.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 14 Page 3

14. The gene for brown eyes (B) is dominant over the gene for blue eyes (b). A man with brown eyes marries a
woman with blue eyes, and their first child has blue eyes.
(i) What is the genotype of the man and the woman?
(ii) What is the probability that their second child will also have blue eyes? Show the cross.

15. A student is studying the cross-section of a leaf as shown in the diagram.

Cross-section of a leaf.

A. Identify the pores on the leaf surface. Name the cells that surround these pores and regulate their
opening and closing.


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B. What are the three main events that occur during the process of photosynthesis? C. Why do these pores
generally remain closed at night in most plants?

16. A. (i) Define pollination. What is the significance of pollination?

(ii) List two characteristics of wind-pollinated flowers.
(iii) How does cross-pollination promote genetic variation?


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B. (i) Draw a labelled diagram of the human male reproductive system.
(ii) State the functions of the testes and the seminal vesicles.
(iii) Why is it important for the testes to be located in the scrotum outside the abdominal cavity?

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Page 4 Sample Paper 14 CBSE Science Class 10

SECTION-B
17. In the reaction CuO (s) + H 2 (g) " Cu (s) + H 2 O (l),
Which substances are oxidized and reduced respectively?
(a) H2 is oxidized, CuO is reduced. (b) CuO is oxidized, H2 is reduced.
(c) Both CuO and H2 are oxidized. (d) Both CuO and H2 are reduced.

18. When an acid reacts with a metal hydrogen carbonate, the products formed are:
(a) Salt, water, and hydrogen gas (b) Salt and water only
(c) Salt, water, and carbon dioxide gas (d) Salt and carbon dioxide gas only

19. Which of the following metals exists as a liquid at room temperature?

(a) Sodium (b) Iron
(c) Mercury (d) Gold

20. Based on the reactivity series, which of the following metals will not displace hydrogen from dilute acids?
(a) Zinc (b) Magnesium
(c) Iron (d) Copper

21. The organic compound propanone contains which of the following functional groups?
(a) Aldehyde (-CHO) (b) Alcohol (-OH)
(c) Carboxylic acid (-COOH) (d) Ketone (C=O)

22. An aqueous solution of which of the following compounds is used for whitewashing walls?
(a) Calcium carbonate (CaCO3) (b) Calcium oxide (CaO)
(c) Calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2) (d) Calcium sulphate (CaSO4)

23. When an aqueous solution of sodium sulphate is mixed with an aqueous solution of barium chloride, a white
insoluble substance is formed. What is the chemical formula of this substance?
(a) BaSO4 (b) NaCl
(c) BaS (d) Na2Cl2

24. Assertion (A) : Ionic compounds are generally hard, crystalline solids.
Reason (R) : There are strong electrostatic forces of attraction between the oppositely charged ions in their
structure.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Explain why covalent compounds are generally poor conductors of electricity.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) You are given three metals: Sodium, Magnesium, and Copper.
(i) Arrange them in decreasing order of their reactivity.
(ii) Describe a simple experiment to establish the reactivity order between Magnesium and Copper.


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NODIA APP Sample Paper 14 Page 5

(B) (i) What is meant by the anodising of aluminium?

(ii) How does this process make aluminium resistant to further corrosion?

27. A student burns a magnesium ribbon in the air, holding it with a pair of tongs.

(a) What is the dazzling white light produced, and what is the chemical nature of the white powder formed?
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
(c) What type of chemical reaction is this?

28. At a hospital, doctors use a white powder which, when mixed with water, sets into a hard solid mass to
support fractured bones. This substance is obtained by carefully heating gypsum at 373 K.
(a) Identify this white powder. Write its chemical name and chemical formula.
(b) Explain why this substance must be stored in a moisture-proof container.
(c) Write the balanced chemical equation for the preparation of this substance from gypsum.


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(c) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction that occurs when this powder is mixed with
water. What is the hard solid mass produced known as?

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) (a) Draw the structure of a micelle formed when soap is dissolved in water. Clearly label the hydrophobic
and hydrophilic parts of the soap molecule.
(b) With the help of the micelle structure, explain the cleansing action of soap on an oily spot.
(c) Why are soaps not effective cleaning agents in hard water?


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(B) (a) What are structural isomers?
(b) Draw the structures of the three possible structural isomers of pentane (C5H12).
(c) Explain why a branched-chain isomer is not possible for propane (C3H8).

SECTION-C
30. A student is studying the formation of images by a concave mirror. He makes the following observations:
I. When the object is placed at the center of curvature, the image is formed at the same position.
II. When the object is placed at infinity, the image is formed at the principal focus and is highly diminished.
III. When the object is placed between the pole and the principal focus, a real, inverted image is formed.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
Page 6 Sample Paper 14 CBSE Science Class 10

(a) I and II (b) I and III

(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. When a red light is shone on a prism, it does not produce a spectrum. What is the reason for this?
(a) Red light does not undergo refraction.
(b) The prism only separates white light.
(c) Red light is a single wavelength and cannot be dispersed further.
(d) The prism absorbs the red light.

32. Assertion (A) : The moon appears to be very large in size at the time of rising.
Reason (R) : This is due to atmospheric refraction, as the moon’s light travels through a greater thickness
of the atmosphere near the horizon.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. An object 5 cm long is placed 20 cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm.
A. Find the focal length of the mirror and image distance.
B. Calculate the size of the image.
C. State the nature of the image.

34. Attempt either option A or B

A.

1. Find out the equivalent resistance of the circuit

2. Whai the current flow through this combination ?


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B.

In the above circuit diagram calculate :

(a) the value of current through each resistor.
(b) the total current in the circuit.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 14 Page 7

35. State the cause of dispersion of white light by a glass prism. How did Newton using two identical glass prism,
show that white light is made of seven colours ? Draw a ray diagram to show the path of a narrow beam of
while light through a combination of two identical prisms arranged together in inverted position with respect
to each other when it is allowed to fall obliquely on one of the faces of the first prism of the combination ?

36. Draw a circuit diagram of an electric circuit containing a cell, a key, an ammeter, a resistor of 4Ω in series
with a combination of two resistors ( 8Ω each) in parallel and a voltmeter across parallel combination. Each
of them dissipate maximum energy and can withstand a maximum power of 16W without melting. Find the
maximum current that can flow through the three resistors.

37. A student shines white light through a glass prism. He claims that seven colours are obtained on a screen.
(i) Is the student correct?
(ii) Name the phenomenon.

38. Lenses are objects made of transparent materials such as glass or clear plastic that has curved surfaces.
Diverging lenses are thicker at their edges than at their centres and makes light rays passing through them
spread out. Converging lenses are thicker in their middle than at this edges and make light rays passing
through them focus at a point. These are used in spectacles to help people with poor vision see better. The
converging lenses magnify by bending the rays of light that pass through them to meet at a point called
focus. Thicker the converging lens is at its centre, the more its magnifies and closer the focus is to the lens.
(i) Ravi uses two lenses A and B of same size and same material as shown. P1 and P2 are the powers of
A and B. An object is kept at the same distance from the lens between F and 2F of each lens on the
principal axis in turn. Let I 1 and I 2 be the image formed by two lenses respectively. What is the relation
of image distances of both lens ?

(a) Distance of image I 2 will be less than distance of I 1 from the lens.
(b) Distance of image I 2 will be greater than distance of I 1 from the lens.
(c) Size of image I 1 will be equal to size I 2 .
(d) Size of image I 2 will be less than size I 2 .
(ii) Write down the relation between the power of lens of both lenses ?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
(iii) Meenakshi uses above two lenses A and B along with another two lenses C and D, as shown :
Page 8 Sample Paper 14 CBSE Science Class 10

She is able to see the subject matter on the black board while sitting in the front row in the classroom
but is unable to see the same matter while sitting in the last row.
Which of the above four lenses will she require to correct the defect in her vision? Why ?


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(iv) Natasha places an object on the principal axis of above given lens A. One end of this object coincides
with the focus F and the other end with 2F. What will be the nature of the image formed by the lens
on the other side ?

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. When a current is passed through the circular loop of wire, a magnetic field lines near the coil are nearly
circular and concentric. At the centre of the circular loop, the magnetic field lines are straight.
The strength of the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying circular coil (or circular wire)
depends on :
(a) current flowing through the coil.
(b) radius of the circular coil.
(c) number of turns of wire in the circular coil.
The direction of the field lines can be found by applying Right-Hand Thumb Rule.

(i) State Right-hand Thumb rule.

(ii) A long horizontal power line is carrying a current of 100 A in the east-west direction. What is the
direction of magnetic field at a point 1.0 m below it ?
(iii) What type of curve we get, between magnetic field and distance along the axis of a current carrying
circular coil ?
(iv) If a current carrying straight conductor is placed in east-west direction, then find the direction of
the force experienced by the conductor due to earth’s magnetic field.


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B. Answer the following questions :
(i) What is the direction of magnetic field lines outside a bar-magnet ?
(ii) The magnetic field lines in a given region are getting crowded. What does it indicate ?
(iii) State one advantage of AC over DC.
(iv) When a current flows through a straight conductor, a magnetic field is produced around it. How can
the direction of this magnetic field be determined?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 15 Page 1

Sample Paper 15
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. What is the muscular wall that separates the right and left sides of the human heart, preventing the mixing
of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood?
(a) Valve (b) Atrium
(c) Ventricle (d) Septum

2. The main thinking part of the human brain, which is the site of learning, memory, intelligence, and voluntary
actions, is the:
(a) Cerebellum (b) Cerebrum
(c) Medulla (d) Pons

3. The malarial parasite, Plasmodium, exhibits a specific type of asexual reproduction where a single parent
cell divides into many daughter cells simultaneously. This process is known as:
(a) Budding (b) Binary Fission
(c) Multiple Fission (d) Fragmentation

4. Mendel’s experiments with pea plants led to the formulation of several laws of inheritance. Which law states
that alleles for different traits are inherited independently of one another?
(a) Law of Dominance (b) Law of Segregation
(c) Law of Independent Assortment (d) Law of Unit Factors

5. Ozone is a molecule that plays a crucial role in protecting life on Earth. What is the correct chemical
formula for an ozone molecule?
(a) O (b) O2
(c) O3 (d) CO2

6. Consider the following statements about the parts of a typical flower:

(i) The stamen is the male reproductive part, consisting of the anther and filament.
(ii) The pistil (or carpel) is the female reproductive part, consisting of the stigma, style, and ovary.
(iii) Petals are often brightly coloured to attract insects for pollination.
(iv) Sepals are the primary reproductive organs of the flower.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) only (d) All are correct.
Page 2 Sample Paper 15 CBSE Science Class 10

7. The human excretory system removes metabolic wastes from the body. What is the main nitrogenous waste
product found in human urine?
(a) Ammonia
(b) Uric acid
(c) Creatine
(d) Urea

8. Assertion (A) : Very little digestion takes place in the large intestine.
Reason (R) : The primary function of the large intestine is the absorption of water from undigested food.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : Geographical isolation of a population can lead to speciation.

Reason (R) : The separated population accumulates different genetic variations over time, which can lead
to it becoming reproductively incompatible with the original population.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. Aquatic animals like fish have a much faster rate of breathing compared to terrestrial animals. Provide a
scientific reason for this observation.

11. A. What is the function of the enzyme salivary amylase? Where is it found, and what would happen to
starch digestion if this enzyme were absent?


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B. What are the two main conducting tissues in plants? Name the substance that each of them transports.

12. What are producers, consumers, and decomposers? Give one example of each from a forest ecosystem.

13. Tabulate three key differences between the nervous system and the endocrine system for control and
coordination in animals.

14. In a cross between a pea plant with violet flowers (VV) and a pea plant with white flowers (vv):
(i) What will be the phenotype of the F1 generation?
(ii) If the F1 plants are self-pollinated, what will be the ratio of violet to white flowered plants in the F2
generation?
(iii) What is this type of cross, involving a single trait, called?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 15 Page 3

15. The diagram below shows a schematic representation of blood circulation in humans.

A. Why is the circulation in humans referred to as ‘double circulation’ ?

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B. Differentiate between pulmonary circulation and systemic circulation. C. Trace the flow of deoxygenated
blood from the body tissues until it is oxygenated in the lungs.

16. A. (i) Draw a diagram to show regeneration in Planaria.

(ii) How is this process different from reproduction?
(iii) Name another organism that shows a high capacity for regeneration.


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B. (i) State the function of the following parts of the human female reproductive system:
(a) Ovary,
(b) Oviduct.
(ii) What is the placenta? List its two main functions.
(iii) What happens to the uterine wall if fertilization of the egg does not occur?

SECTION-B
17. The reaction between nitrogen and hydrogen to produce ammonia is represented as xN 2 (g) + yH 2 (g) " zNH 3 (g)
. The values of x, y, and z required to balance the equation are:
(a) x=1, y=3, z=2 (b) x=2, y=3, z=2
(c) x=1, y=2, z=3 (d) x=2, y=2, z=3

18. A solution turns red litmus paper blue. Its pH is likely to be:
(a) 1 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 10

19. Most non-metals are not lustrous. Which of the following non-metals possesses lustre?
(a) Sulphur (b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen (d) Iodine
Page 4 Sample Paper 15 CBSE Science Class 10

20. Which of the following is considered a weak acid?

(a) Hydrochloric acid (HCl) (b) Sulphuric acid (H2SO4)
(c) Acetic acid (CH3COOH) (d) Nitric acid (HNO3)

21. Saturated hydrocarbons contain only carbon-carbon single bonds. Which of the following is a saturated
hydrocarbon?
(a) Ethene (C2H4) (b) Propyne (C3H4)
(c) Butane (C4H10) (d) Ethyne (C2H2)

22. To prevent the oil and fats in potato chips from getting oxidised, manufacturers fill the bags with which gas?
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen
(c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon dioxide

23. Brass is an important alloy used in making decorative items and musical instruments. It is an alloy of:
(a) Copper and Tin (b) Copper and Zinc
(c) Aluminium and Copper (d) Lead and Tin

24. Assertion (A) : Butane and Propane are members of the same homologous series.
Reason (R) : Members of a homologous series have the same general formula and successive members differ
by a - CH 2 group.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Why is it recommended to clean a magnesium ribbon with sandpaper before burning it in air?

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) Explain the process of extracting mercury from its chief ore, cinnabar (HgS). Write balanced chemical
equations for the reactions involved.


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(B) What are amphoteric oxides? Give an example of an amphoteric oxide and support your answer by
writing one balanced chemical equation for its reaction with an acid and one with a base.

27. A student is given three solutions labelled A, B, and C with pH values of 4, 7, and 10, respectively. Answer
the following questions:
(a) Which solution is neutral? Justify your answer.
(b) Which solution is alkaline?
(c) Arrange the three solutions in increasing order of their hydrogen ion (H+) concentration.

28. A substance ‘X’, which is a yellowish-white powder, is used for disinfecting drinking water and for bleaching
cotton in the textile industry. It is produced by the action of chlorine gas on dry slaked lime.
(a) Identify the substance ‘X’ and write its chemical formula.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the preparation of ‘X’.
(c) When ‘X’ is left exposed to air, it gradually loses its chlorine content. Why does this happen? Write a
relevant chemical equation.


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(d) State any two uses of substance ‘X’ apart from those mentioned in the question.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 15 Page 5

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) (a) Write the IUPAC names for the following compounds: (i) CH 3 - CH 2 - Br (ii) HCHO
(b) What is an addition reaction? Illustrate with the help of a balanced chemical equation.
(c) Why are addition reactions characteristic of unsaturated hydrocarbons?


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(b) (a) What is a substitution reaction?
(b) Give an example of a substitution reaction involving an alkane. Write the balanced chemical
equation.
(c) Differentiate between soaps and detergents based on their chemical composition and their
effectiveness in hard water.

SECTION-C
30. A student is studying the image formed by a plane mirror and makes the following statements:
I. The image formed is always virtual and erect.
II. The image is laterally inverted.
III. The size of the image is always smaller than the size of the object.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. A person suffering from hypermetropia is unable to see nearby objects clearly. Which of the following
correctly describes the reason for this defect?
(a) The image of a nearby object is formed in front of the retina.
(b) The image of a nearby object is formed on the retina.
(c) The image of a nearby object is formed behind the retina.
(d) The eye lens is a concave lens.

32. Assertion (A) : A ray of light passing through the focus of a convex lens becomes parallel to the principal
axis after refraction.
Reason (R) : The principal focus is the point on the principal axis where all parallel rays converge after
refraction.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. An object 7 cm tall is placed 27 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 18 cm.
A. Calculate the image distance.
B. Find the size of the image.
C. State the nature of the image.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 15 CBSE Science Class 10

34. Attempt either option A or B

A. Two resistors of resistances 3 Ω and 6 Ω respectively are connected to a battery of 6 V so as to have :
(a) Maximum resistance,
(b) Maximum current.
(i) How will you connect the resistances in each case ?
(ii) Calculate the strength of the current in the circuit in both cases.


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B. Calculate the equivalent resistance from the following combination of resistors.

35. What is dispersion of white light ? State it cause. Draw a ray diagram to show the dispersion of white light
by a glass prism.

36. The values of current I flowing in a given resistor for the corresponding values of potential difference V
across the resistor are given below:

I (ampere) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0

V (volt) 1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2
Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of the resistor.

37. A student states that a rainbow is formed due to reflection, refraction, and dispersion of sunlight by water
droplets.
(i) Is the statement correct?
(ii) Explain briefly.

38. The image formed by a convex lens depends on the position of the object in front of the lens. When the
object is placed anywhere between focus and infinity, the image formed by convex lens is real and inverted.
The image is not obtained on the screen why the object is placed between the focus and the lens. The
distance between the optical centre O of the convex lens and the focus point F1 and F2 is its focal length.
When the object shifts from - 3 to F1 , the image moves from F2 to + 3.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 15 Page 7

When the object shifts from F1 to O, the image moves - 3 to O.

A student did an experiment with a convex lens. He put an object at different distances from the lens. In
each case, he measured the distance of the image from the lens. The results were recorded in the following
table.

Object distance (in cm) Image distance (in cm)

25 100
30 24
40 60
60 30
120 40
Unfortunately, his results are written in the wrong order.
(i) What is the focal length of this lens ?
(ii) Rewrite the image distances in the correct order.


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(iii) What is the minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by a convex lens ?

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. In our daily life we use two types of electric current whose current time graphs are given below :
Page 8 Sample Paper 15 CBSE Science Class 10

(i) Name the type of current in two cases.

(ii) Identify any one source for each type of current.
(iii) What is the frequency of current in case (b) in our country ?
(iv) On the basis of these graphs list two differences between the two currents.
(v) Out of the two which one is used in transmitting electric power over long distances and why ?


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B. The flow of current in a circular loop of wire creates a magnetic field at its center. How may existence
of this field be detected ? State the rule which helps to predict the direction of this magnetic field.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 16 Page 1

Sample Paper 16
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. During intense physical activity, when there is a lack of sufficient oxygen, the muscle cells in the human
body convert pyruvate into which substance?
(a) Ethanol and Carbon dioxide (b) Lactic acid and Energy
(c) Acetic acid and Energy (d) Carbon dioxide and Water

2. The tendrils of a pea plant coil around a support structure, allowing the plant to climb. This directional
growth in response to touch is known as:
(a) Phototropism (b) Geotropism
(c) Chemotropism (d) Thigmotropism

3. In the human female reproductive system, what is the primary role of the uterus?
(a) To produce the female gamete, the ovum.
(b) To serve as the site where fertilization takes place.
(c) To host the implantation and development of the embryo.
(d) To secrete the hormone progesterone.

4. A genetic cross between two pea plants produces offspring in which approximately 50% are tall and 50% are
dwarf. What are the most probable genotypes of the parent plants? (T = Tall, t = dwarf)
(a) TT × tt (b) Tt × Tt
(c) Tt × tt (d) TT × Tt

5. What is the term for the position an organism occupies in a food chain, such as producer, primary consumer,
or secondary consumer?
(a) Niche (b) Trophic level
(c) Habitat (d) Population

6. Consider the following statements about excretion in plants :

(i) Oxygen, a byproduct of photosynthesis, can be considered a waste product that is released.
(ii) Plants get rid of excess water through the process of transpiration.
(iii) Some plant wastes are stored in cellular vacuoles or in tissues like old xylem as resins and gums.
(iv) Unlike animals, plants do not possess specialized excretory organs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Page 2 Sample Paper 16 CBSE Science Class 10

(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) only (d) All are correct.

7. What is the microscopic junction between the axon terminal of one neuron and the dendrite of another,
across which nerve impulses are transmitted?
(a) Synapse (b) Reflex arc
(c) Myelin sheath (d) Effector

8. Assertion (A) : Wind pollination is less likely to occur in plants with large, brightly coloured flowers.
Reason (R) : Large, colourful petals are adaptations to attract insect pollinators, not for wind dispersal of
pollen.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion(a) : The inner wall of the stomach is protected from the action of its own acidic secretions.
Reason (R) : The stomach’s inner lining is coated with a thick layer of mucus.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. The pH of the digestive tract changes from alkaline in the mouth to highly acidic in the stomach and back
to alkaline in the small intestine. How do digestive enzymes manage to function effectively despite these
drastic changes?

11. A. What is the role of haemoglobin in the blood? Where is it found?

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B. How is the small intestine designed to maximize the absorption of digested food?

12. Suggest any four personal habits or practices you would adopt to contribute towards the effective management
of waste in your neighborhood.

13. Give one example of a plant hormone that is a growth promoter and one that is a growth inhibitor. State
one key function of each.

14. Differentiate between homologous and analogous organs. Which of the two provides better evidence of a
common ancestry?

15. A. What is this coiled tubule called? What is its primary function?


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B. Describe the first step of urine formation that occurs in the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule.
C. What happens to the useful substances, such as glucose and amino acids, that are part of the initial
filtrate? Name this process.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 16 Page 3

16. A. (i) What is fission as a mode of reproduction?

(ii) Differentiate between binary fission and multiple fission, giving one example for each.
(iii) Draw a series of diagrams to show binary fission in Amoeba.


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B. (i) What is puberty? List two changes that occur specifically in boys during this phase.
(ii) What is the consequence if the fallopian tubes in a woman are blocked?
(iii) State the function of the uterus in the human female reproductive system.

SECTION-B
17. The reaction between an aqueous solution of silver nitrate and sodium chloride, which forms a white
precipitate of silver chloride, is an example of a :
(a) Combination reaction (b) Decomposition reaction
(c) Double displacement reaction (d) Displacement reaction

18. A few drops of phenolphthalein indicator are added to a solution of sodium hydroxide. The colour of the
solution will change to :
(a) Red (b) Pink
(c) Blue (d) Remain colourless

19. Which of the following metals is the best conductor of electricity?

(a) Gold (b) Silver
(c) Copper (d) Aluminium

20. Alkynes are a series of unsaturated hydrocarbons. What is the general formula for the alkyne series?
(a) C n H 2n + 2 (b) C n H 2n
(c) C n H 2n - 2 (d) C n H 2n - 1

21. Hard water contains dissolved salts of calcium and magnesium, which makes it difficult to lather. Which of
the following salts is used to remove the permanent hardness of water?
(a) Sodium Chloride (NaCl) (b) Sodium Carbonate (Na2CO3)
(c) Sodium Bicarbonate (NaHCO3) (d) Sodium Sulphate (Na2SO4)

22. Which of the following metals is highly reactive and must be stored under kerosene to prevent it from
reacting vigorously with air and moisture?
(a) Iron (b) Copper
(c) Sodium (d) Gold

23. Cellular respiration is the process by which living cells break down glucose to produce energy. This process
is considered an exothermic reaction because :
(a) Energy is absorbed from the surroundings.
(b) Energy is released during the reaction.
(c) The reaction requires light energy to occur.
(d) The products have more energy than the reactants.

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Page 4 Sample Paper 16 CBSE Science Class 10

24. Assertion (A) : Carbon forms a vast number of compounds, more than any other element.
Reason (R) : Carbon exhibits the property of catenation (self-linking) and has a valency of four (tetra-
valency).
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Give a scientific reason for each of the following statements :

(a) Platinum, gold, and silver are used to make jewellery.
(b) Sodium and potassium are stored under oil.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) (i) What is the saponification reaction?
(ii) Write a general chemical equation for the preparation of soap using this reaction.


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(B) Differentiate between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons. Give one example for each category.

27. A shiny brown-coloured element ‘X’ when heated in the air becomes black in colour.
(a) Identify the element ‘X’ and the black-coloured compound formed
(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction.
(c) How can this black compound be converted back into the original element ‘X’ ? Write the relevant
chemical equation.

28. Tooth decay begins when the pH in the mouth falls below 5.5.
(a) Explain why the pH in the mouth falls after a person eats sugary foods.
(b) How does this drop in pH lead to damage of the tooth enamel, even though it is the hardest substance
in the body?
(c) Why are people advised to use toothpaste to prevent tooth decay? What is the general chemical nature
of toothpaste?


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(d) A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
(i) Why does this shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
(ii) Why does this milk then take a longer time to set as curd?

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) An organic compound ‘A’ is widely used as a preservative in pickles and has the molecular formula
C2H4O2.
(a) Identify ‘A’ and draw its electron-dot structure.
(b) This compound reacts with absolute ethanol in the presence of an acid catalyst to form a sweet-
smelling compound ‘B’. Identify ‘B’.
(c) Write the chemical equation for the formation of ‘B’.
(d) How can compound ‘A’ be obtained back from compound ‘B’ ? Name the reaction.


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(B) (a) What is hydrogenation? State its main industrial application.
(b) Give the IUPAC name for the next homologue of : (i) Ethanol (CH3CH2OH) (ii) Ethanoic acid
(CH3COOH)
(c) Explain why methane burns with a clean, blue flame whereas camphor burns with a yellow, sooty
flame.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 16 Page 5

SECTION-C
30. A student is experimenting with a convex mirror and makes the following statements about the images
formed:
I. The image is always formed behind the mirror.
II. The image is always virtual and erect.
III. The image is always magnified.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. Which of the following phenomena explains why an object submerged in water appears to be raised?
(a) Total internal reflection (b) Reflection
(c) Scattering (d) Refraction

32. Assertion (A) : Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens.

Reason (R) : A concave lens converges the light rays before they reach the eye lens, causing the image to
form on the retina.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. Find the focal length of a lens of power –2 D.

A. Show the relation between power and focal length.
B. State the type of lens.
C. Give one use of such a lens.

34. Attempt either option A or B

A If in figure A, R1 = 10 Ω , R2 = 40 Ω , R3 = 30 Ω, R 4 = 20 Ω , R5 = 60 Ω and a 12 V battery are connected
to the arrangement, calculate :

(a) Total resistance in the circuit and

(b) Total current flowing in the circuit.
Page 6 Sample Paper 16 CBSE Science Class 10

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B. A torch bulb is rated 5.0 V and 500 mA. Calculate
(i) its power,
(ii) resistance when it is lighted for four hours.

35. A beam of white light falling on a glass prism gets split up into seven colours. A student makes the
statement :
(a) The colour at positions marked 1 and 3 are similar to the colour of ‘turmeric’ and the colour of ‘chilli
powder’ respectively. Is the above statement correct or incorrect ? Justify.
(b) Which two positions correspond to the colour of solution of copper sulphate and signal used to move
the vehicles ?
(c) Light of colour of chilli powder bends the most while the light of colour of brinjal bends the least. Is the
statement correct ? Justify.

36. Study the given electric circuit and calculate :

(i) the current flowing through the 4 Ω resister and
(ii) potential difference across the combination of two resistor of 8 Ω each.

37. A student claims that the twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric refraction.
(i) Is this true?
(ii) Explain.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 16 Page 7

38. Study the following table for a convex lens for different positions of object and answer the following
questions:

Position of object Position of image Relative size of image

At infinity At focus F2 Highly diminished point sized
Beyond 2F1 Between F2 and 2F2 Diminished
At 2F1 At 2F2 Same size
Between F1 and 2F1 Beyond 2F2 Enlarged
At focus F1 At infinity Infinitely large or highly enlarged
Between focus F1 and optical On the same side of the lens as the Enlarged
centre O object
(i) What is the nature of the image, if an object is placed at infinity ?
(ii) Identify the nature of the image for which the object is between focus and optical centre.
Attempt either subpart C or D.
(iii) What is position of image, when object is place at focus (f1) ?


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(iv) What is the focal length of a lens for an object placed 50 cm from the lens producing virtual image at
a distance of 10 cm in front of the lens.

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) What is an electromagnet? List any two uses.
(ii) Draw a labelled diagram to show how an electromagnet is made.
(iii) State the purpose of soft iron core used in making an electromagnet.
(iv) List two ways of increasing the strength of an electromagnet, if the material of the electromagnet is
fixed


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B. (i) Write Joule’s law of heating.
(ii) Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000 coulomb of charge in two hours through a
potential difference of 40V.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 17 Page 1

Sample Paper 17
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. During photosynthesis, plants convert light energy into chemical energy stored in glucose. Which gas is
released into the atmosphere as a major by-product of this vital process?
(a) Carbon Monoxide (b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen (d) Hydrogen

2. Which gland in the human body has a dual function, acting as both an endocrine gland (releasing hormones
into the blood) and an exocrine gland (releasing enzymes into a duct)?
(a) Thyroid Gland (b) Adrenal Gland
(c) Pituitary Gland (d) Pancreas

3. The protozoan Leishmania, which causes the disease kala-azar, reproduces asexually by binary fission. What
is a distinguishing feature of its division process?
(a) It divides into multiple daughter cells at once.
(b) It occurs in a definite longitudinal plane due to its whip-like flagellum.
(c) It can divide in any plane, similar to Amoeba.
(d) It only divides after forming a protective cyst around itself.

4. In genetics, what is the fundamental unit of heredity that is transferred from a parent to offspring and
determines some characteristic of the offspring?
(a) Allele (b) Genotype
(c) Gene (d) Trait

5. What is considered the most effective and environmentally sound method for managing non-biodegradable
wastes such as plastics, glass, and metals?
(a) Burying them deep underground in landfills.
(b) Burning them at high temperatures in incinerators.
(c) Following the principle of Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle.
(d) Disposing of them in oceans and large water bodies.

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Page 2 Sample Paper 17 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements about the mechanism of breathing in humans :

(i) During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and moves downwards.
(ii) The contraction of rib muscles during inhalation lifts the ribs and expands the chest cavity.
(iii) During exhalation, the diaphragm and rib muscles relax, decreasing the chest cavity volume.
(iv) The decrease in chest volume during exhalation increases the pressure inside, forcing air out of the
lungs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) only (d) All are correct.

7. The central nervous system is protected by a fluid that fills the space between the meninges (membranes).
What is a primary function of this cerebrospinal fluid?
(a) To generate nerve impulses.
(b) To provide cushioning and act as a shock absorber for the brain.
(c) To produce hormones that regulate sleep cycles.
(d) To connect the brain to the spinal cord.

8. Assertion(A) : A flower is the reproductive unit of an angiosperm.

Reason (R) : It contains the reproductive organs : the stamen (male part) and the pistil (female part).
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : The wing of a bird and the wing of an insect are considered analogous organs.
Reason (R) : Analogous organs are structures that have the same evolutionary origin but perform different
functions.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. Herbivorous animals like cows have a longer small intestine than carnivorous animals like tigers. Provide a
biological reason for this difference.

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. What is the composition of blood plasma?


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B. List two key differences between autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition.

12. What is ozone? How does the ozone layer protect organisms on Earth? Name a class of synthetic chemicals
responsible for its depletion.

13. Draw a neat diagram of the human brain and label the following parts :
(i) Cerebrum
(ii) Cerebellum
(iii) Medulla

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 17 Page 3

14. “Evolution should not be equated with progress from ‘lower’ to ‘higher’ forms.” Justify this statement.

15. A patient visits a doctor complaining of shortness of breath. The doctor examines his respiratory system.

A. Name the primary site of gaseous exchange in the lungs. Describe two structural features of this site
that facilitate this exchange.


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B. Explain the mechanism of inhalation, mentioning the roles of the rib cage and diaphragm.
C. Why does the air get warmed and moistened as it passes through the nasal passage?

16. A. (i) What is meant by grafting in plants?

(ii) Name two plants that are commonly propagated using this technique.
(iii) List two desirable characteristics that can be combined in a plant through grafting.


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B. (i) What is puberty? List two changes common to both boys and girls during this period.
(ii) What is the function of the scrotum in the human male?
(iii) Differentiate between a zygote and a fetus.
(iii) A zygote is the single diploid cell formed by the fusion of a sperm and an egg. A fetus is a later stage
of embryonic development, where all the major body parts are recognizably developed, typically
from about the 8th week of pregnancy until birth.

SECTION-B
17. A chemical reaction in which a single compound breaks down to give two or more simpler substances is
known as a :
(a) Combination reaction
(b) Decomposition reaction
(c) Displacement reaction
(d) Redox reaction

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Page 4 Sample Paper 17 CBSE Science Class 10

18. Which gas is typically produced when a dilute acid, such as hydrochloric acid, reacts with an active metal
like zinc?
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen
(c) Chlorine (d) Carbon dioxide

19. The property of metals by which they can be beaten into thin sheets is called :
(a) Ductility (b) Malleability
(c) Sonority (d) Conductivity

20. Vinegar is a commonly used condiment in kitchens and for food preservation. It is a dilute aqueous solution
of :
(a) Formic acid (b) Ethanoic acid
(c) Sulphuric acid (d) Tartaric acid

21. A sample of soil is mixed with water and allowed to settle. The clear supernatant solution turns the pH
paper yellowish-orange. Which of the following would change the colour of this pH paper to greenish-blue?
(a) Lemon juice (b) Vinegar
(c) Common salt (d) An antacid

22. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is aluminium. Its chief ore, from which it is extracted, is :
(a) Cinnabar (b) Calamine
(c) Haematite (d) Bauxite

23. For the rusting of an iron object to occur, the presence of which of the following is essential?
(a) Air only (b) Water only
(c) Both air (oxygen) and water (d) Either air or water

24. Assertion (A) : Detergents are more effective cleaning agents than soaps when used in hard water.
Reason (R) : The charged ends of detergents do not form insoluble precipitates with the calcium and
magnesium ions in hard water.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. What is the main difference between a displacement reaction and a double displacement reaction? Write
one example equation for each.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) An element ‘X’ has an atomic number of 12, and an element ‘Y’ has an atomic number of 17.
(i) Write the electronic configuration for both ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(ii) Show the formation of a bond between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ using electron-dot structures.
(iii) What is the nature of the bond formed?


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(B) What is an ionic bond? List any two properties of compounds formed by ionic bonds.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 17 Page 5

27. A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for whitewashing.

(a) Name the substance ‘X’ and write its chemical formula.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of substance ‘X’ with water.
(c) Explain why a shiny finish appears on the walls two to three days after whitewashing.

28. Ethanol is a colourless liquid, soluble in water, and has various industrial and commercial uses. It is often
produced by the fermentation of sugars.
(a) What happens when ethanol is heated with an alkaline solution of potassium permanganate? Name this
type of reaction.
(b) What is observed when a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol? Write the corresponding
chemical equation.


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(b) The consumption of alcohol can have serious health consequences. List any two harmful effects of
drinking alcohol.

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) (a) What is a homologous series?
(b) Write the name and formula of the fourth member of the alkane homologous series.
(c) Write the name and draw the structure of an aldehyde with 4 carbon atoms.
(d) Name the process by which vegetable oils are converted into solid fats (vanaspati ghee).


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(B) (a) Draw a neat, labelled diagram showing the electrolytic refining of an impure copper rod.
(b) In this process, what is used as the anode, the cathode, and the electrolyte?

SECTION-C
30. A student is analyzing the relationship between object distance, image distance, and focal length for
spherical mirrors and makes the following statements:
I. The mirror formula is given by 1/f = 1/v + 1/u
II. The magnification formula is m = h’/h =− v/u
III. Both formulas are valid for plane mirrors as well.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. What is the reason for the advanced sunrise and delayed sunset phenomenon?
(a) Scattering of light (b) Total internal reflection
(c) Atmospheric refraction (d) Dispersion of light

32. Assertion (A) : The power of a concave lens is negative.

Reason (R) : A concave lens is a diverging lens, which means its focal length is negative.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 17 CBSE Science Class 10

33. A doctor prescribes a corrective lens of power +1.5 D.

A. Find the focal length.
B. Identify whether the lens is converging or diverging.
C. State which eye defect it corrects.

34. Attempt either option A or B

A. n the given circuit, find :

(a) Total resistance of the network of resistors

(b) Current through ammeter A


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B. Study the given electric circuit and calculate:
(i) the current flowing through the 4 Ω resister and
(ii) potential difference across the combination of two resistor of 8 Ω each.

35. A star appears on the horizon. What is the true position of the star ? Explain with the help of a diagram.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 17 Page 7

36. What would be the reading of ammeter and voltmeter in the given circuit?

37. What would be the reading of ammeter and voltmeter in the given circuit?

38. Is there a relationship between the radius of curvature R , and focal length f , of a spherical mirror ? For
spherical mirrors of small apertures, the radius of curvature is found to be equal to twice the focal length.
We put this as R = 2f . This implies that the principal focus of a spherical mirror lies midway between the
pole and centre of curvature.
(i) Write relation between radius of curvature and focal length.
(ii) For which type of mirrors above relation is verified?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
(iii) What should be size of the aperture ?


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(iv) Where is the principle focus of a spherical mirror lies?

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Page 8 Sample Paper 17 CBSE Science Class 10

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. PQ is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper as shown in the figure below.

(i) Find the directions of the magnetic fields produced by it at points R and S ? Given r1 2 r2, where
will the strength of the magnetic field be larger? Give reasons.
(ii) Field strength at which point will be greater?
(iii) If the polarity of the battery connected to the wire is reversed, how would the direction of the
magnetic field be changed?
(iv) Explain the rule that is used to find the direction of the magnetic field for a straight current
carrying conductor.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 18 Page 1

Sample Paper 18
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. In the pulmonary circuit of the human circulatory system, which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from
the lungs back to the left atrium of the heart?
(a) Aorta (b) Superior Vena Cava
(c) Pulmonary Artery (d) Pulmonary Vein

2. The growth of a plant shoot towards a source of light is an example of which type of tropic movement?
(a) Positive phototropism (b) Negative phototropism
(c) Positive geotropism (d) Negative geotropism

3. What are the two primary functions of the testes in the human male reproductive system?
(a) Production of eggs and secretion of oestrogen.
(b) Production of sperm and secretion of testosterone.
(c) Production of urine and secretion of seminal fluid.
(d) Production of testosterone and storage of sperm.

4. In Mendelian genetics, what is the term used to describe the first generation of offspring produced by
crossing two pure-bred parent organisms with contrasting traits?
(a) P generation (b) F1 generation
(c) F2 generation (d) Hybrid generation

5. Waste can be categorized based on its source. Which of the following is an example of agricultural waste?
(a) Discarded electronic devices (b) Plastic food wrappers
(c) Used hospital syringes (d) Crop husks and cattle dung

6. Consider the following statements about plant hormones (phytohormones) :

(i) Auxins promote cell elongation and are responsible for phototropism.
(ii) Gibberellins play a role in stem elongation and breaking seed dormancy.
(iii) Cytokinins are primarily involved in promoting cell division.
(iv) Abscisic acid is a growth-promoting hormone that helps in flowering.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iv) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) (d) All are correct.
Page 2 Sample Paper 18 CBSE Science Class 10

7. The human kidney is composed of approximately one million microscopic filtering units that are responsible
for the formation of urine. What is this structural and functional unit of the kidney called?
(a) Neuron
(b) Alveolus
(c) Nephron
(d) Villus

8. Assertion (A) : The walls of arteries are thicker and more elastic than the walls of veins.
Reason (R) : In arteries, blood flows under high pressure as it is pumped from the heart.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : Sexual reproduction is generally a more time-consuming and complex process than asexual
reproduction.
Reason (R) : Sexual reproduction is an extremely fast method of multiplication.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. Plants lack a specialised excretory system like animals, yet they produce waste products. Justify this
statement by explaining two ways plants manage to get rid of their waste.

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. State the role of (i) bile juice and (ii) trypsin in the human digestive system.


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B. What are the key differences between the transport of materials in xylem and phloem?

12. Suggest two effective methods that can be adopted at a household level to reduce the problem of waste
generation.

13. Name the disease caused by the deficiency of the following hormones and state one major symptom for each
:
(i) Insulin
(ii) Thyroxine
(iii) Growth Hormone (during childhood)

14. “Geographical isolation is a major factor in the speciation of sexually reproducing animals.” Explain this
statement with the help of an example.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 18 Page 3

15. A patient is diagnosed with a condition affecting the pumping action of their heart. Refer to a diagram of
the human heart to the following.

A. Why is the muscular wall of the left ventricle thicker than that of the right ventricle?


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B. What is the function of the septum that separates the right and left sides of the heart?
C. Trace the path of blood from the time it enters the right atrium from the body to its exit from the left
ventricle to the body.

16. A. (i) Describe the process of budding in Hydra.

(ii) Draw a series of labelled diagrams to illustrate this process.
(iii) Why can’t complex multicellular organisms like humans reproduce by budding?


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B. (i) Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower.
(ii) What happens to the pollen grain after it lands on a suitable stigma?
(iii) What is the fate of the ovule and ovary after fertilization?

SECTION-B
17. In the reaction MnO 2 + 4HCl " MnCl 2 + 2H 2 O + Cl 2 ,Which substance is oxidized?
(a) MnO2 (b) HCl
(c) MnCl2 (d) H2O

18. Which of the following is a strong mineral acid?

(a) Acetic acid (b) Citric acid
(c) Sulphuric acid (d) Lactic acid

19. Carbon is a non-metal that can exist in different forms called allotropes. Which allotrope of carbon is a good
conductor of electricity?
(a) Diamond (b) Graphite
(c) Fullerene (d) Coal

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Page 4 Sample Paper 18 CBSE Science Class 10

20. The characteristic properties of carboxylic acids are due to the presence of which functional group?
(a) –OH (Hydroxyl) (b) –CHO (Aldehyde)
(c) C=O (Ketone) (d) –COOH (Carboxyl)

21. Baking powder, used to make cakes soft and spongy, is a mixture of baking soda (sodium hydrogencarbonate)
and a mild, edible acid. A common acid used for this is :
(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Tartaric acid (d) Nitric acid

22. Solder is an alloy with a low melting point, making it ideal for welding electrical wires together. Solder is
an alloy of which two metals?
(a) Lead and Tin (b) Copper and Zinc
(c) Copper and Tin (d) Iron and Chromium

23. The law of conservation of mass states that mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical
reaction. This is the fundamental principle behind :
(a) Writing the physical states of reactants. (b) Balancing chemical equations.
(c) Naming chemical compounds. (d) Predicting the speed of a reaction.

24. Assertion (A) : An iron nail placed in a copper sulphate solution turns brownish in colour.
Reason (R) : Iron is more reactive than copper and displaces it from its salt solution.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. What do you mean by a precipitation reaction? Explain with the help of a suitable chemical equation.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(a) (i) What are structural isomers?
(ii) Draw the two structural isomers of butane (C4H10).


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(b) Draw the electron-dot structure for the following molecules:
(i) Methane (CH4)
(ii) Ethene (C2H4)

27. Give a scientific reason for each of the following observations :

(a) School bells are made of metals rather than wood.
(b) The handles of cooking utensils are made of plastic or wood.
(c) Immersion rods used for heating water are made of metallic substances.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 18 Page 5

28. When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride (brine), it decomposes. This
process is called the chlor-alkali process.
(a) Why is the process given the name ‘chlor-alkali’ ?
(b) Name the three commercially important products obtained from this process.
(c) At which electrode (anode or cathode) is hydrogen gas produced? At which electrode is chlorine gas
produced?


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(d) Mention one important use for each of the three products obtained in this process.

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) (a) Give two points of difference between soaps and detergents.
(b) Draw a well-labelled diagram of a soap micelle.
(c) Explain why scum is formed when soap is used with hard water. Write the general type of reaction
that occurs.


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(B) (a) Define combination and decomposition reactions.
(b) Give one example of each type of reaction, writing a balanced chemical equation.
(c) What type of chemical reaction is the digestion of food in our body?

SECTION-C
30. A student makes the following statements about the image formed by a concave lens:
I. The image is always located between the optical center and the principal focus.
II. The image is always virtual and erect.
III. The image size decreases as the object moves closer to the lens.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. Why is the sky blue and not violet, even though violet light scatters the most?
(a) The human eye is more sensitive to blue light.
(b) Violet light is absorbed by the atmosphere.
(c) The sun emits more violet light than blue light.
(d) The scattering of violet light is minimal compared to blue light.

32. Assertion (A) : When a light ray travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it bends away from the
normal.
Reason (R) : The speed of light is greater in a denser medium than in a rarer medium.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 18 CBSE Science Class 10

33. Define the principal focus of a concave mirror.

A. Describe the behaviour of rays parallel to the axis after reflection.
B. How is the principal focus represented in ray diagrams?
C. Draw a ray diagram for this case.

34. Attempt either option A or B

A.

Find out the following in the above electric circuit

1. Reading of the ammeter
2. Reading of the voltmeter


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B. For the circuit diagram given below, calculate :

(a) the value of current through each resistor.

(b) the total current in the circuit.

35. Why is Tyndall effect shown by colloidal particles ? State four instances of observing the Tyndall effect.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 18 Page 7

36. For the circuit diagram given below, calculate :

(a) the value of current through each resistor.
(b) the total current in the circuit.
(c) the total effective resistance of the circuit.

37. A student places an object at infinity in front of a convex lens. He claims the image is formed at the focus.
(i) Is the statement correct?
(ii) What is the nature of the image?

38. “Change in path of a light ray as it passes from one medium to another medium is called refraction of light.”
When light travels from a rarer medium to a denser one, it bends towards the normal ^i > r h and when
travels from a denser medium to a rarer one. it bends away from the normal ^i < r h .
Where, i = Angle of incidence
and r = Angle of refraction
We can see refraction in our daily life, some of the examples are given below :
The bottom of a tank or pond containing water appears to be raised due to refraction of light which
takes place when light rays pass from the pool of water into the air. The letters appear to be raised when
viewed through a glass slab placed over the document because of refraction of light.
When a light ray enters in a glass slab, then the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray but it is
shifted sideward slightly.
In this case, refraction takes place twice, first when ray enters glass slab from air and second when exits
from glass slab to air.
(i) What do you mean by optically rarer and denser medium ?
(ii) What is the cause of refraction ?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
(iii) Draw a ray diagram showing refraction through a glass slab.


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(iv) Give one example of refraction from our daily life experience other than the two examples given above.

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Page 8 Sample Paper 18 CBSE Science Class 10

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow :

(i) Why do the iron filings arrange in such a pattern?

(ii) What does this pattern demonstrate ?
(iii) Why do the iron filings near the bar magnet seem to align in the shape of closed curves ?
(iv) Can magnetic field lines travel from the south pole to the north pole of a magnet? Explain the
direction of magnetic field lines outside and inside the magnet.


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B. (i) For the combination of resistors shown in the following figure, find the equivalent resistance between
M and N .

(ii) State Joule’s law of heating.

(iii) Why we need a 5 A fuse for an electric iron which consumes 1 kW power at 220 V?
(iv) Why is it impracticable to connect an electric bulb and an electric heater in series?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 19 Page 1

Sample Paper 19
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. What is the term for the wave-like muscular contractions that move food along the length of the alimentary
canal?
(a) Translocation (b) Absorption
(c) Peristalsis (d) Egestion

2. The human brain is a very delicate organ that requires protection. It is enclosed within a bony box known
as the:
(a) Cranium (b) Vertebral column
(c) Rib cage (d) Sternum

3. Which of the following organisms typically reproduces asexually through the formation of spores?
(a) Amoeba (b) Hydra
(c) Planaria (d) Rhizopus (Bread mould)

4. Which of Mendel’s laws states that when two different alleles for a trait are present in an individual, only
one allele is expressed in the phenotype?
(a) Law of Segregation
(b) Law of Dominance
(c) Law of Independent Assortment
(d) Law of Unit Inheritance

5. Ozone (O3) is continuously formed and broken down in the stratosphere. How is ozone formed?
(a) By the reaction of oxygen with carbon monoxide.
(b) By the action of high-energy UV radiation on oxygen (O2) molecules.
(c) By the combination of nitrogen and oxygen during lightning.
(d) By the emission of gases from volcanoes.

6. Consider the following statements about the human circulatory system:

(i) Double circulation involves two circuits: the pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit.
(ii) The pulmonary circuit transports blood between the heart and the lungs.
(iii) The systemic circuit transports blood between the heart and the rest of the body.
(iv) A major advantage of this system is the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
Page 2 Sample Paper 19 CBSE Science Class 10

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) (i) and (iv) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) (d) All are correct.

7. Which of the following plant hormones is known for promoting stem elongation, breaking the dormancy of
seeds, and stimulating the development of fruit?
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Abscisic acid

8. Assertion (A) : Asexual reproduction leads to offspring with very little genetic variation.
Reason (R) : Asexual reproduction involves only a single parent and no fusion of gametes.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : Anaerobic respiration releases much less energy than aerobic respiration.
Reason (R) : In anaerobic respiration, the breakdown of glucose is incomplete.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. The leaves of most plants appear green. What is the reason for this colour, and what is the function of this
green pigment?

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. What is the final product of the digestion of fats? Where in the digestive tract does this process
primarily occur?


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B. What is ‘transpirational pull’ ? How does it aid in the transport of water in plants?

12. Draw a simple food chain that might exist in a pond ecosystem and label the different trophic levels.

13. What is meant by a feedback mechanism? Using the regulation of thyroxine as an example, explain how it
works.

14. List any three of the seven contrasting traits of pea plants selected by Mendel for his experiments. For any
one of the traits, specify which form was dominant and which was recessive.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 19 Page 3

15. A meal is ingested and passes through the alimentary canal. Refer to the diagram of the human digestive
system to the questions.

A. What is the function of the part labelled ‘M’ (Oesophagus)? Name the muscular movement responsible
for pushing food through it.


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B. Describe the role of the part labelled ‘N’ (Stomach) in the process of digestion.
C. In which part of the alimentary canal (labelled O or P) is the process of digestion completed?

16. A. (i) What is meant by spore formation? Name an organism that reproduces by this method.
(ii) List two advantages of reproducing through spores.
(iii) How is this method different from fission?


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B. (i) What is the significance of the testes being located within the scrotum outside the abdominal
cavity?
(ii) State the functions of the oviduct and the uterus in the female reproductive system.
(iii) Name one bacterial and one viral sexually transmitted disease (STD).

SECTION-B
17. In the reaction H 2 S + Cl 2 " 2HCl + S , which substance acts as the oxidizing agent?
(a) H2S (b) Cl2
(c) HCl (d) S

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Page 4 Sample Paper 19 CBSE Science Class 10

18. Which of the following pH values represents the solution of the strongest acid?
(a) 7 (b) 5
(c) 2 (d) 11

19. Which of the following metals is reactive enough to react with cold water to produce hydrogen gas?
(a) Iron (b) Magnesium
(c) Calcium (d) Zinc

20. The first member of the homologous series of ketones has the IUPAC name:
(a) Methanone (b) Ethanone
(c) Propanone (d) Butanone

21. A person suffering from acidity is often given a solution of “Milk of Magnesia” for relief. This substance
works because it is a:
(a) Strong acid (b) Mild base
(c) Strong base (d) Neutral salt

22. Food cans are typically made of steel coated with tin. They are not coated with zinc because:
(a) Zinc is more expensive than tin. (b) Zinc has a higher melting point than tin.
(c) Zinc is more reactive than tin. (d) Zinc is less reactive than tin.

23. During the electrolysis of water, a decomposition reaction takes place. The mole ratio of hydrogen gas (H2)
to oxygen gas (O2) liberated is:
(a) 1:1 (b) 2:1
(c) 1:2 (d) 4:1

24. Assertion (A) : Diamond is extremely hard while graphite is a soft and slippery solid.
Reason (R) : Diamond has a rigid three-dimensional tetrahedral network structure, while graphite has a
hexagonal layered structure where layers can slide over each other.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. What are alloys? Name the metallic constituents of (i) Brass and (ii) Bronze.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(a) Explain why saturated hydrocarbons generally burn with a clean, blue flame while unsaturated
hydrocarbons typically burn with a yellow, sooty flame.


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(b) (i) What is a homologous series?
(ii) Write the molecular formula of the second and third members of the homologous series whose first
member is methane (CH4).

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 19 Page 5

27. A metal ‘M’ is dropped into a test tube containing dilute sulphuric acid. A gas ‘G’ is evolved which is
collected and tested. It burns with a characteristic ‘pop’ sound.
(a) Identify the gas ‘G’.
(b) Suggest a possible metal that ‘M’ could be.
(c) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction, using the metal you suggested in part (b).

28. A chemical compound ‘X’, prepared from sodium chloride, is used in the glass and paper industries and is
also used to soften hard water.
(a) Identify the compound ‘X’ and write its chemical formula including its water of crystallisation.
(b) What is the nature of an aqueous solution of ‘X’ (acidic/basic)? What happens to ‘X’ when it is left
exposed to open air?
(c) Write the balanced chemical equation showing the final step of its preparation (production from sodium
bicarbonate).


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(c) List any two specific uses of compound ‘X’ apart from those mentioned above.

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) (a) What is an esterification reaction? Write the chemical equation for the reaction between ethanoic
acid and ethanol.
(b) What is a saponification reaction? Write a chemical equation for this process.
(c) Name the two main products obtained from the saponification reaction.


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(B) (a) Define catenation.
(b) Explain why carbon is unique in its ability to exhibit catenation to a large extent.
(c) Draw the structures for the following organic compounds:
(i) Propanal
(ii) Butanone
(iii) Hexanoic acid

SECTION-C
30. A student makes the following statements about the properties of a convex lens:
I. It is thicker at the center than at the edges.
II. It is a converging lens.
III. It can form a real image.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. A student is trying to find the focal length of a concave mirror. Which of the following methods would work?
(a) Placing a distant object and measuring the distance of the real image.
(b) Placing an object at the center of curvature and measuring the image distance.
(c) Using the mirror formula with a known object and image distance.
(d) All of the above methods.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 19 CBSE Science Class 10

32. Assertion (A) : A ray of light passing through the center of curvature of a concave mirror is reflected back
along the same path.
Reason (R) : The ray of light hits the mirror at a right angle to the surface, and thus the angle of incidence
is zero.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 32 cm.

A. Find its focal length.
B. Which formula is used here?
C. State whether it is concave or convex if it produces real images.

34. Attempt either option A or B

A. In the circuit given below, the resistors R1 , R2 and R3 have the values 10 Ω , 20 Ω and 30 Ω respectively,
which have been connected to a battery of 12 V.

Calculate
(a) the current through each resistor,
(b) the total circuit resistance, and


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B. In the given circuit, find :

(a) Total resistance of the network of resistors

(b) Current through ammeter A, and
NODIA APP Sample Paper 19 Page 7

35. (a) State two main causes of developing far-sightedness.

(b) How can this defect of vision be corrected ?

36. V -I graph for a conductor is as shown in figure.

(i) What do you infer from this graph ?

(ii) State the law expressed here
(iii) Name the physical quantity represented by the slope of this graph and its unit.

37. The magnetic field lines are shown around a current-carrying straight conductor. A student claims that the
magnetic field strength at point P is stronger than at point Q.

(i) Is the student’s claim correct? Give reason.

(ii) Redraw the diagram and mark the direction of magnetic field lines using right-hand thumb rule.

38. While dealing with the reflection of light by spherical mirrors, we shall follow a set of sign conventions called
the New Cartesian Sign Convention. In this convention, the pole (P) of the mirror is taken as the origin.
The principal axis of the mirror is take as the x -axis of the coordinate system. In a spherical mirror, the
distance of the object from its pole is called the object distance ^u h . The distance of the image from the
pole of the mirror is called the image distance ^v h . Magnification produced by a spherical mirror gives the
relative extent to which the image of an object is magnified with respect to the object size. It is expressed
as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object. It is usually represented by the letter ^m h .
Page 8 Sample Paper 19 CBSE Science Class 10

(i) How can you calculate the magnification of a spherical mirror ?

(ii) What does a negative sign in the value of magnification indicates?
(iii) Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius of curvature is 32 cm.


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(iv) Why does the height of the object is taken to be positive?

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. Find out the following in the electric circuit given in figure :

(i) Effective resistance of two 8 Ω resistors in the combination.

(ii) Current flowing through 4 Ω resistor.
(iii) Potential difference across 4 Ω resistance.
(iv) Power dissipated in 4 Ω resistor.
(v) Difference in ammeter readings, if any.


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B. PQ is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper as shown in the figure below.

(i) Find the directions of the magnetic fields produced by it at points R and S ? Given r1 2 r2, where
will the strength of the magnetic field be larger? Give reasons.
(ii) Field strength at which point will be greater?
(iii) If the polarity of the battery connected to the wire is reversed, how would the direction of the
magnetic field be changed?
(iv) Explain the rule that is used to find the direction of the magnetic field for a straight current
carrying conductor.


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NODIA APP Sample Paper 20 Page 1

Sample Paper 20
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A

1. The chemical digestion of food begins in the mouth. Which enzyme, present in saliva, is responsible for the
initial breakdown of starch into simpler sugars?
(a) Pepsin (b) Lipase
(c) Amylase (d) Trypsin

2. How is a nerve impulse transmitted from one neuron to the next across a synapse?
(a) By the flow of hormones.
(b) By the movement of blood cells.
(c) By the direct transfer of electric charge.
(d) By the release of chemical substances called neurotransmitters.

3. After fertilization, the zygote begins to divide and develops into an embryo. What is the process called when
this embryo attaches itself to the inner wall of the uterus?
(a) Ovulation (b) Implantation
(c) Gestation (d) Menstruation

4. In genetics, a trait that is only expressed in the phenotype when an individual has two identical alleles for
that particular gene is known as a:
(a) Dominant trait (b) Recessive trait
(c) Co-dominant trait (d) Heterozygous trait

5. In a grassland food chain, which group of organisms represents the primary consumers?
(a) Carnivores, like lions. (b) Decomposers, like bacteria.
(c) Producers, like grass. (d) Herbivores, like deer.

6. Consider the following statements regarding the evidence for evolution:

(i) Fossils provide a record of past life forms and show how species have changed over time.
(ii) Homologous organs have a similar basic structure but different functions, suggesting a common ancestor.
(iii) Analogous organs have different structures but perform similar functions, suggesting convergent
evolution.
Page 2 Sample Paper 20 CBSE Science Class 10

(iv) The embryos of all vertebrates are identical throughout their entire development.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iv) only (b) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) only (d) All are correct.

7. What is the primary function of the protein haemoglobin, which gives red blood cells their characteristic
colour?
(a) To defend the body against pathogens.
(b) To initiate the blood clotting process.
(c) To transport oxygen from the lungs to the body’s tissues.
(d) To carry digestive enzymes in the blood.

8. Assertion (A) : Reflex arcs allow for extremely rapid responses to stimuli.
Reason (R) : The nerve pathway in a reflex arc bypasses the brain and is processed directly in the spinal
cord.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : Organisms at the highest trophic level often have the highest concentration of non-
biodegradable toxins in their bodies.
Reason (R) : Harmful chemicals accumulate at each successive trophic level in a food chain.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. What is the primary function of blood platelets? What would be a major consequence if a person has a
significantly low platelet count?

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. What is ‘double circulation’ ? Name the two circulations that comprise it.


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B. Explain the process of nutrition in Amoeba with the help of simple diagrams showing each step.

12. In the following food chain, 100,000 J of energy was available to the plants from the sun. How much energy
would be available to the lion?
Plants ® Deer ® Lion
Which law governs the flow of energy in this food chain?

13. What is a reflex arc? Draw a neat flowchart to show the sequence of events that occur when you accidentally
touch a hot object.

14. Differentiate between acquired traits and inherited traits by providing two points of distinction and one
example for each.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 20 Page 3

15. A doctor is examining a report on a patient’s kidney function. Refer to the structure of a nephron to the
following.

A. What is the primary purpose of forming urine in the human body?

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B. Describe the process of ‘selective reabsorption’. Where does it primarily occur?
C. A person meets with an accident, and both kidneys are severely damaged. Name the procedure that can
be used as a life-support system.

16. Attempt either option A or B

A. (i) What is layering? Name a plant that is commonly propagated by this method.
(ii) How is this technique performed?
(iii) State two advantages of vegetative propagation methods like layering and cutting.


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B. (i) What is ovulation?
(ii) Describe the journey of a sperm from the point of ejaculation to the site of fertilization in the
human female.
(iii) What is the function of the placenta during the development of a fetus?

SECTION-B

17. Which of the following processes is an example of an exothermic reaction?

(a) Dissolving ammonium chloride in water
(b) Burning of natural gas
(c) Melting of ice
(d) Decomposition of silver chloride in sunlight
Page 4 Sample Paper 20 CBSE Science Class 10

18. Litmus solution is a purple dye that is commonly used as an acid-base indicator. It is extracted from which
of the following?
(a) A fungus (b) A bacterium
(c) A lichen (d) An alga

19. An element ‘X’ reacts with oxygen to form an oxide X2O. A solution of this oxide turns red litmus blue. The
element ‘X’ is likely to be:
(a) Carbon (b) Sulphur
(c) Potassium (d) Silicon

20. How many single covalent bonds are present in a molecule of ethane (C2H6)?
(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 7 (d) 5

21. The painful, stinging sensation from a nettle plant’s leaf is caused by the injection of which chemical into
the skin?
(a) Acetic acid (b) Formic acid (Methanoic acid)
(c) Citric acid (d) Tartaric acid

22. Stainless steel is a widely used alloy prized for its strength and resistance to rust. To make stainless steel,
iron is mixed with:
(a) Copper and Zinc (b) Nickel and Chromium
(c) Tin and Lead (d) Aluminium and Magnesium

23. The spoilage of food due to the oxidation of fats and oils is called rancidity. This can be prevented by:
(a) Storing food at a higher temperature. (b) Exposing food to direct sunlight.
(c) Adding antioxidants. (d) Using containers made of iron.

24. Assertion (A) : Aluminium, despite being a highly reactive metal, is resistant to corrosion.
Reason (R) : Aluminium reacts with oxygen in the air to form a thin, tough, and non-porous protective layer
of aluminium oxide on its surface.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Translate the following statement into a balanced chemical equation: “Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air
to give water and sulphur dioxide.”

26. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) (i) What is a micelle?
(ii) Explain why micelles form when soap is dissolved in water.
(iii) Draw a neat diagram of a micelle.


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(B) What is the difference between hard water and soft water? Explain the cleansing action of soap.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 20 Page 5

27. A metal ‘X’ is found in nature as its sulphide ore, XS. This metal is used in the galvanising process to
protect iron from rusting.
(a) Identify the metal ‘X’.
(b) Describe how the metal is extracted from its sulphide ore. Write the relevant chemical equations.

28. A student tests four different solutions P, Q, R, and S and finds their pH values to be 1, 6, 8, and 13,
respectively.
(a) Which solution is the most acidic, and which is the most basic?
(b) Arrange the four solutions in increasing order of their hydrogen ion (H+) concentration.
(c) What colour would you expect a universal indicator to show for solution R and solution P?


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(c) What would be the effect on the pH if a few drops of solution P were added to solution S? Name the
type of reaction that would occur.

29. Attempt either option A or B.

(A) (a) Define the functional group present in butanoic acid and draw its structure.
(b) What is observed when ethanoic acid reacts with solid sodium carbonate? Write the balanced
chemical equation for the reaction.
(c) What is vinegar?


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(B) (a) Write the IUPAC name and draw the structure of the third member of the alkyne homologous
series.
(b) State the main reason why carbon and its compounds are used as fuels for most applications.
(c) What are substitution reactions? Give a balanced chemical equation for an example.

SECTION-C

30. A student is studying the sign conventions for spherical lenses and makes the following statements:
I. The object distance (u) is always negative.
II. The focal length of a convex lens is positive.
III. The focal length of a concave lens is negative.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. What is the condition for a light ray to undergo total internal reflection?
(a) The ray must travel from a rarer to a denser medium.
(b) The angle of incidence must be less than the critical angle.
(c) The angle of incidence must be greater than the critical angle.
(d) The angle of incidence must be equal to the critical angle.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 20 CBSE Science Class 10

32. Assertion (A) : The magnification of a plane mirror is always +1.

Reason (R) : The image formed by a plane mirror is always virtual, erect, and the same size as the object.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. A concave mirror produces a magnified real image three times the size of the object at 10 cm in front.
A. Where is the image formed?
B. State the mirror formula used.
C. What is the nature of the image?

34. Attempt either option A or B

A If in figure A, R1 = 10 Ω , R2 = 40 Ω , R3 = 30 Ω, R 4 = 20 Ω , R5 = 60 Ω and a 12 V battery are connected
to the arrangement, calculate :

(a) Total resistance in the circuit and

(b) Total current flowing in the circuit.


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B. A torch bulb is rated 5.0 V and 500 mA. Calculate
(i) its power,
(ii) resistance when it is lighted for four hours.

35. What are the causes of the following defects of vision and how can they be corrected ?
(a) Cataract
(b) Presbyopia.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 20 Page 7

36. An electric iron consumes energy at a rate of 840 W when heating is at the maximum rate and 360 W when
the heating is at the minimum. The voltage is 220 V. What are the current and the resistance in each case ?

37. Answer the following questions :

(i) What is the direction of magnetic field lines outside a bar-magnet ?
(ii) The magnetic field lines in a given region are getting crowded. What does it indicate ?
(iii) State one advantage of AC over DC.

38. Harish is a student of class X. He is very passionate about doing science experiment. Recently, he visited
Delhi with his parents to witness science fair. He purchased different types of lenses, mirrors and other
articles. One day, during games period, a student of same class fell down and lips started bleeding. On
observation, it was found by Physical Education teacher that very fine pieces of glass, difficult to observe,
stranded over there. Harish immediately rushed to Physics Lab and bought a lens. The bigger image of
stranded glass pieces eased the first aid job.
(i) Name the lens and mirror bought by Harish.
(ii) Draw the ray diagram showing formation of very big image of object by lens. What should be the
position of object to get such image ?

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. An electric lamp of resistance 20 Ω and a conductor of resistance 4 Ω are connected to a 6 V battery as
shown in the circuit. Calculate :

(i) the total resistance of the circuit,

(ii) the current through the circuit,
(iii) the potential difference across the (a) electric lamp and (b) conductor, and
(iv) power of the lamp.


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B. (i) Two resistors with resistances 10 Ω and 15 Ω are to be connected to emf 12 V so as to obtain :
(a) minimum current
(b) maximum current.
How will you connect the resistance in each case ? Calculate the strength of the total current in the
circuit in the two cases.
(ii) What do you mean by resistivity ?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 21 Page 1

Sample Paper 21
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. The nephron is the filtering unit of the kidney. What is the name of the cup-shaped structure at the start
of the nephron that encloses a ball of capillaries?
(a) Ureter (b) Bowman’s capsule
(c) Collecting Duct (d) Glomerulus

2. In a ‘fight or flight’ emergency situation, which endocrine gland is stimulated to release a hormone that
prepares the body for rapid, intense action?
(a) Pituitary gland (b) Thyroid gland
(c) Adrenal gland (d) Pancreas

3. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the very same flower is known as:
(a) Self-pollination (b) Cross-pollination
(c) Fertilization (d) Germination

4. In genetics, the set of observable characteristics of an individual, such as its height, eye colour, or flower
colour, is referred to as its:
(a) Genotype (b) Phenotype
(c) Allele (d) Genome

5. Organisms that can produce their own food from inorganic sources like sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide
form the base of every food chain. These organisms are at the first trophic level and are known as:
(a) Carnivores (b) Herbivores
(c) Decomposers (d) Producers

6. Consider the following statements about the human male reproductive system:
(i) The testes are located in the scrotum to maintain a temperature lower than the body for sperm
production.
(ii) The hormone testosterone is responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics.
(iii) The vas deferens is a tube that transports sperm from the epididymis towards the urethra.
(iv) Seminal vesicles and the prostate gland add their secretions to the sperm to form semen.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) only (d) All are correct.
Page 2 Sample Paper 21 CBSE Science Class 10

7. What are the tiny pores present on the surface of plant leaves that are responsible for the exchange of gases
like carbon dioxide and oxygen with the atmosphere?
(a) Stomata
(b) Lenticels
(c) Hydathodes
(d) Cuticle

8. Assertion (A) : The roots of a plant always grow downwards.

Reason (R) : The downward growth of roots is an example of positive geotropism.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : Using disposable plates made from banana leaves is a more environmentally sound choice
than using disposable plastic plates.
Reason (R) : Plastic is a non-biodegradable material that persists in the environment and causes pollution.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. Mammals and birds have a four-chambered heart with the right and left sides completely separated. Why
is this separation necessary, and what is the structure responsible for it?

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. List the functions of the following plant hormones:
(i) Auxin and
(ii) Cytokinin.


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B. What is the key difference between inhalation and exhalation regarding the movement of the rib cage?

12. “The flow of energy in a food chain is unidirectional.” Justify this statement. What happens to the energy
captured by producers that is not passed on to consumers?

13. Draw a neat diagram of a neuron (nerve cell) and label the following parts:
(i) Cell Body
(ii) Axon
(iii) Dendrite

14. A cross was made between a pure-breeding pea plant having round, yellow seeds (RRYY) and a pure-
breeding pea plant having wrinkled, green seeds (rryy).
(i) What would be the phenotype of the plants in the F1 generation?
(ii) Write the genotypes of the gametes produced by the F1 plants.
(iii) What type of cross is this?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 21 Page 3

15. Refer to the diagram of the human alimentary canal to the questions.

Figure:- Human Alimentary canal

A. What is the role of HCl in the part labelled ‘N’ (Stomach)?

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B. Describe the function of bile juice in digestion. Which organ produces it? C. Where does the final
absorption of water from undigested food take place?

16. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) What is vegetative propagation?
(ii) List two advantages of growing plants using this method.
(iii) Name two plants that are commonly propagated by layering.


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B. (i) Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a typical flower.
(ii) What is the function of the stamen and the carpel in a flower?
(iii) Differentiate between pollination and fertilization.

SECTION-B
17. In the reaction Fe 2 O 3 + 3CO " 2Fe + 3CO 2 , which substance acts as the reducing agent?
(a) Fe2O3 (b) CO
(c) Fe (d) CO2

18. Which of the following acids is not organic in nature?

(a) Acetic acid (b) Formic acid
(c) Nitric acid (d) Lactic acid

19. Which of the following non-metals exists as a liquid at room temperature?

(a) Carbon (b) Sulphur
(c) Bromine (d) Iodine

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Page 4 Sample Paper 21 CBSE Science Class 10

20. A molecule of ammonia (NH 3 ) has:

(a) Only single bonds (b) Only double bonds
(c) Only triple bonds (d) One double bond and two single bonds

21. The reaction between an acid and a base to give a salt and water is known as a:
(a) Combination reaction (b) Decomposition reaction
(c) Neutralisation reaction (d) Displacement reaction

22. Calcification is a process used in metallurgy to convert an ore into its oxide. The process involves:
(a) Heating a sulphide ore strongly in the presence of excess air.
(b) Heating a carbonate ore strongly in a limited supply or absence of air.
(c) Reducing an oxide ore with carbon.
(d) Melting the ore to remove impurities.

23. The chemical formula for rust, which forms on the surface of iron when exposed to moist air, is:
(a) FeO (b) Fe2O3
(c) Fe3O4 (d) Fe 2 O 3 $ xH 2 O

24. Assertion (A) : Unsaturated hydrocarbons like ethene undergo addition reactions.
Reason (R) : The double and triple bonds in unsaturated hydrocarbons are weak and can easily break to
add other atoms.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. What is galvanization? Why is this process carried out on iron articles?

26. Attempt either option A or B.

A. How is ethanol manufactured on a large commercial scale? Write the chemical equation for the reaction
involved in the process.


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B. (i) Why is the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid considered an oxidation reaction?
(ii) What is the role of alkaline KMnO 4 in this reaction?

27. A student places a clean strip of zinc metal in a blue-coloured solution of copper sulphate.
(a) What change in the colour of the solution will the student observe after some time?
(b) What will be observed on the surface of the zinc strip?
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction and identify the type of reaction.

28. A white crystalline solid ‘X’ is a common ingredient found in kitchens. It is used in baking to make cakes rise
and is also an active ingredient in some antacids. When heated, it decomposes to form sodium carbonate,
water, and carbon dioxide.
(a) Identify ‘X’ and write its chemical name and chemical formula.
(b) Explain the role of ‘X’ in making a cake soft and spongy.


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(c) Write the balanced chemical equation for the decomposition of ‘X’ upon heating.
(d) Explain why ‘X’ can be used as an antacid. Write the balanced chemical equation for its reaction with
excess acid (HCl) in the stomach.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 21 Page 5

29. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (a) What is the reactivity series of metals?
(b) How does this series help in predicting the feasibility of a single displacement reaction?
(c) You are given solutions of FeSO 4 , ZnSO 4 , and CuSO4 and metal pieces of Fe, Zn, and Cu. Suggest
a set of three experiments to arrange these metals in order of decreasing reactivity.


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B. (a) Define a functional group in the context of organic compounds.
(b) Identify the functional group present in the following compounds: (i) CH3CH2OH (ii) CH 3 COCH 3
(iii) HCOOH
(c) Write the name of the third member of the alcohol homologous series.

SECTION-C
30. A student makes the following statements about image formation by lenses:
I. A convex lens can form both real and virtual images.
II. A concave lens always forms a virtual image.
III. A convex lens always forms a real and inverted image.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. What is the unit of power of a lens?

(a) Meter (b) Centimeter
(c) Diopter (d) Watt

32. Assertion (A) : The color of the warning signal is red.

Reason (R) : The red color has the longest wavelength and scatters the least, so it can be seen from a long distance.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. Explain refraction of light through a rectangular glass slab.

A. What happens to the ray when it enters from air into glass?
B. What happens when it emerges back into air?
C. State the relation between emergent and incident rays.

34. Attempt either option A or B.

A. The current flowing through a resistor connected in a circuit and the potential difference developed
across its ends are as shown in the diagram by milliammeter and voltmeter readings respectively :
(a) What are the least counts of these meters?
(b) What is the resistance of the resistor?

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Page 6 Sample Paper 21 CBSE Science Class 10

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B. Give two reasons why the nichrome alloy is used for making the heating elements of electrical appliances.

35. Study the diagram below and answer the following questions :

(i) Name the defect of vision depicted in the diagram.

(ii) List two causes of the above defect.
(iii) Draw a ray diagram for the correction of the above defect using an appropriate lens.

36. (i) What is meant by resistance of a conductor? Define its SI unit.

(ii) List two factors on which the resistance of a rectangular conductor depends.
(iii) How will the resistance of a wire be affected if its.
(1) length is doubled, and
(2) radius is also doubled ?
Give justification for your answer.

37. (i) What is the function of earth wire in electrical instruments?

(ii) Explain what is short circuiting an electric supply.
(iii) What is the usual current rating of the fuse wire in the line to feed
(a) Lights and fans?
(b) Appliances of 2kW or more power?

38. In a small town fair Amit took his friend and showed him a mirror in which his image showed upper half
body very fat and lower body very thin. Amit’s friend got upset but Amit explained him by showing his
similar image in the mirror.
(i) Name two mirrors used in this fair shop.
(ii) Name the mirror in which the size of image is small.

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) What is a solenoid ? Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines around a current carrying solenoid.
(ii) What is the pattern of field lines inside a solenoid? What do they indicate ?
(iii) How is the magnetic field produced in a solenoid used ?


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B. A metallic coil, connected to a 220 V supply, has a resistance of 110 ohm (while hot). How long will it
take for this coil to heat 1 kg of water from 20°C to 70°C ? Assume that whole of the heat produced by
the coil is taken up by water. (Specific heat of water = 4186 J/kgcC )

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 22 Page 1

Sample Paper 22
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. The liver is the largest gland in the human body and performs many vital functions. Which of the following
is NOT a function of the liver?
(a) Production of bile juice (b) Detoxification of harmful substances
(c) Production of the hormone insulin (d) Regulation of blood sugar levels

2. The secretion of hormones is often regulated in a way that the final product controls its own production.
This type of self-regulating control is known as a:
(a) Reflex arc (b) Feedback mechanism
(c) Voluntary action (d) Nerve impulse

3. In flowering plants, where is the male gamete located before pollination occurs?
(a) Inside the ovule (b) Inside the pollen grain
(c) On the surface of the stigma (d) Inside the ovary

4. An organism’s genetic constitution is called its genotype. What is the term for its observable physical
appearance?
(a) Phenotype (b) Genome
(c) Allele (d) Karyotype

5. The “3 R’s” principle is a widely promoted strategy for effective waste management. This principle stands
for:
(a) Rebuild, Repair, Restore (b) Remove, Replace, Replant
(c) Rely, Restrict, Regulate (d) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle

6. Consider the following statements about the human menstrual cycle:

(i) It is a recurring cycle in females that involves the shedding of the uterine lining if pregnancy does not
occur.
(ii) Ovulation, the release of a mature egg from the ovary, occurs during the cycle.
(iii) The cycle is regulated by hormones like oestrogen and progesterone.
(iv) The breakdown of the thickened uterine wall leads to bleeding, known as menstruation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) only (d) All are correct.
Page 2 Sample Paper 22 CBSE Science Class 10

7. What is the molecule that serves as the main energy currency of the cell, produced during cellular respiration?
(a) ADP (Adenosine Diphosphate)
(b) ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate)
(c) DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid)
(d) NADP (Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate)

8. Assertion (A) : Blood clotting is a mechanism that prevents excessive loss of blood from an injury.
Reason (R) : Blood platelets aggregate at the site of the injury to form a temporary plug, initiating the
clotting process.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : The forelimbs of a frog and a lizard have a similar basic bone structure.
Reason (R) : This is an example of analogous organs.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. The separation of the right side and the left side of the heart is useful to keep oxygenated and deoxygenated
blood from mixing. How does this separation benefit birds and mammals?

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. How many chambers are there in the heart of a fish? How does blood circulate in its body?


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B. Explain the mechanism by which water is transported upwards in plants.

12. What are the problems caused by the non-biodegradable waste that we generate? Suggest one method for
its effective disposal.

13. How does chemical coordination in plants differ from that in animals?

14. In a Mendelian experiment, a pea plant with pure round green seeds (RRyy) was crossed with a plant with
pure wrinkled yellow seeds (rrYY).
(i) What will be the phenotype of the F1 generation?
(ii) If F1 plants are self-pollinated, what phenotypic ratio would be observed in the F2 generation?
(iii) State the law of inheritance that explains this ratio.

15. A person’s diet consists of rice, dal (lentils), and ghee. Based on this, the following questions about the
process of digestion.
A. The digestion of which food component will begin in the mouth? Name the enzyme responsible.


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B. Lentils are rich in protein. Where does the digestion of protein begin, and which enzyme is involved?
C. Ghee is primarily fat. Describe how fats are digested in the small intestine.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 22 Page 3

16. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) A farmer wants to grow banana plants. Which method of reproduction should he use, seeds or
vegetative propagation? Justify your answer.
(ii) What is the main advantage and disadvantage of this method?


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B. (i) What are the changes that occur in a flower after fertilization? (List any three)
(ii) Differentiate between self-pollination and cross-pollination.

SECTION-B
Electrolysis
17. The reaction 2H 2 O (l) 2H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) is an example of a:
(a) Combination reaction (b) Displacement reaction
(c) Double displacement reaction (d) Decomposition reaction

18. Which of the following is a strong base?

(a) Ammonium hydroxide (NH4OH) (b) Calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2)
(c) Potassium hydroxide (KOH) (d) Magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)2)

19. Which of the following elements would form an acidic oxide upon reacting with oxygen?
(a) Sodium (b) Magnesium
(c) Sulphur (d) Aluminium

20. How many structural isomers can be drawn for pentane (C5H12)?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5

21. The chemical formula for Plaster of Paris, which is used for setting fractured bones, is:
(a) CaSO 4 $ 2H 2 O (b) CaSO 4 $ H 2 O
(c) CaSO 4 $ 12 H 2 O (d) CaSO4

22. According to the reactivity series, what will happen when a strip of lead metal is placed in a solution of
copper(II) chloride?
(a) No reaction will occur. (b) Lead will displace copper from the solution.
(c) Copper will displace lead from the solution. (d) Both metals will dissolve.

23. In the balanced chemical equation for the formation of magnesium oxide from magnesium and oxygen,
aMg + bO 2 " cMgO , the coefficients a, b, and c are respectively:
(a) 1, 1, 1 (b) 2, 1, 2
(c) 1, 2, 1 (d) 2, 2, 2

24. Assertion (A) : Sanctification is the alkaline hydrolysis of esters.

Reason (R) : Saponification is used for the commercial preparation of soaps.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Page 4 Sample Paper 22 CBSE Science Class 10

25. What is rancidity? Suggest one method that can be used to prevent it.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) What is meant by the reactivity series of metals?
(ii) Arrange the following metals in order of their decreasing reactivity: Potassium (K), Silver (Ag),
Copper (Cu), Iron (Fe).


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B. (i) Explain why ionic compounds generally have high melting points.
(ii) Why do ionic compounds conduct electricity in the molten state but not in the solid state?

27. Give a scientific reason for each of the following statements:

(a) Carbon forms a very large number of compounds.
(b) Diamond is extremely hard, whereas graphite is soft.
(c) Ethene undergoes addition reactions, while ethane does not.

28. Common salt (NaCl) is an essential part of our diet and also an important raw material for various chemicals.
(a) Name two important chemicals that are prepared using sodium chloride as a raw material.
(b) When electricity is passed through a concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl (brine), it decomposes to
form three products. What is this process called?


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(c) Write the balanced chemical equation for the process mentioned in part (b)
(d) In the process mentioned in part B, name the product obtained at the anode and the product obtained
at the cathode.

29. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (a) What is a homologous series?
(b) To which homologous series do C3H4 and C4H6 belong?
(c) Write the name and formula of the first member of this series.
(d) Draw the electron-dot structure for the first member of this series.


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B. (a) What is the main structural difference between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons?
(b) How can you test chemically if a given sample of cooking oil is saturated or unsaturated? Describe
the procedure and expected observation.
(c) Between saturated and unsaturated fats, which one is generally considered healthier for human
consumption?

SECTION-C
30. A student is studying the types of mirrors and makes the following statements:
I. A concave mirror is used in solar cookers to concentrate sunlight.
II. A convex mirror is used by dentists to get a magnified view of teeth.
III. A plane mirror is used in periscopes.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III
NODIA APP Sample Paper 22 Page 5

31. What is the least distance of distinct vision for a normal human eye?
(a) 15 cm (b) 25 cm
(c) 30 cm (d) 50 cm

32. Assertion (A) : The focal length of a concave lens is negative.

Reason (R) : A concave lens is a converging lens.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. State Snell’s law of refraction.

A. Write the relation between angle of incidence and angle of refraction.
B. Define refractive index using Snell’s law.
C. Draw the ray diagram showing refraction.

34. Attempt either option A or B.

A. A V -I graph for a nichrome wire is given below. What do you infer from this graph? Draw a labelled
circuit diagram to obtain such a graph.

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B. Give reasons for the following :
(i) What do you understand by the term fuse in an electric circuit ?
(ii) Fuse wire is placed in series with the device.

35. What are the causes of the following defects of vision and how can they be corrected ?
(a) Cataract
(b) Presbyopia.

36. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor in the shape of wire depends.
(b) Why are metals good conductors of electricity whereas glass is a bad conductor of electricity? Give
reason.
(c) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices? Give reason.
Page 6 Sample Paper 22 CBSE Science Class 10

37. The flow of current in a circular loop of wire creates a magnetic field at its center. How may existence of this
field be detected ? State the rule which helps to predict the direction of this magnetic field.

38. Analyse the following observation table showing variation of image distance (v) with object distance (u) in
case of convex lens and answer the questions that follow, without doing any calculations.

Object distance u (cm) Image distance v (cm)

1. - 90 + 18
2. - 60 + 20
3. - 30 + 30
4. - 20 + 60
5. - 18 + 90
6. - 10 + 100
(i) What is the focal length of the convex lens ? Give reason in support of your answer.
(ii) Write the serial number of that observation which is not correct. How did you arrive at this conclusion?


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(iii) Take an appropriate scale to draw ray diagram for the observation at S. No. 4 and find the approximate
value of magnification.

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. Briefly explain an activity to plot the magnetic field lines around a bar magnet. Sketch the field pattern
for the same specifying field directions.
A region A has magnetic field lines relatively closer than another region B . Which region has stronger
magnetic field ? Give reason to support your answer.


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B. State the formula co-relating the electric current flowing in a conductor and the voltage applied across
it. Also show this relationship by drawing a graph.
What would be the resistance of a conductor if the current flowing through it is 0.35 ampere when the
potential difference across it is 1.4 volt ?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 23 Page 1

Sample Paper 23
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. In the human digestive system, the breakdown of which food component begins in the stomach?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins
(c) Fats
(d) Vitamins

2. What is the function of receptors in an organism’s nervous system?

(a) To transmit commands from the brain to muscles.
(b) To detect specific types of stimuli from the environment.
(c) To form a protective sheath around the axon.
(d) To release chemical messengers into a synapse.

3. The unicellular organism Amoeba reproduces by splitting into two identical daughter cells when it reaches
its full size. This common method of asexual reproduction is called:
(a) Budding
(b) Regeneration
(c) Spore formation
(d) Binary fission

4. In the study of heredity, what is the correct term for a specific, observable characteristic of an individual,
such as height or seed colour?
(a) Gene
(b) Allele
(c) Trait
(d) Genotype

5. Why are synthetic materials like plastic considered non-biodegradable?

(a) Because they are too hard to be broken physically.
(b) Because they are man-made and not natural.
(c) Because the enzymes of decomposer microorganisms cannot break them down.
(d) Because they are soluble in water and wash away.

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Page 2 Sample Paper 23 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements about human blood vessels:

(i) Arteries have thick, elastic walls and carry blood away from the heart.
(ii) Veins have thinner walls than arteries and carry blood towards the heart.
(iii) The pulmonary artery is a unique artery that carries deoxygenated blood.
(iv) Capillaries are thick-walled vessels that connect arteries and veins.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iv) only (b) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) only (d) All are correct.

7. Which of the following plant hormones is known as a growth inhibitor and is responsible for effects like the
wilting of leaves and promoting seed dormancy?
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Abscisic acid (ABA)

8. Assertion (A) : Green plants form the first trophic level and are called producers.
Reason (R) : They can synthesize their own food from inorganic raw materials using light energy.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : The testes in human males are located inside the main abdominal cavity.
Reason (R) : The scrotum maintains a temperature slightly lower than the body temperature, which is
necessary for sperm production.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. The movement of the diaphragm muscle is essential for breathing. Explain the role of the diaphragm during
the process of inhalation and exhalation.

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. Differentiate between blood and lymph.


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B. How do plants get rid of their gaseous waste products?

12. What does the Ten Percent Law state about the transfer of energy in an ecosystem? Why does this law limit
the number of trophic levels in a food chain?

13. What is phototropism? Explain the mechanism by which it occurs in a plant shoot.

14. In a cross between a heterozygous tall pea plant (Tt) and a homozygous dwarf pea plant (tt):
(i) Show the possible genotypes of the offspring using a Punnett square.
(ii) What will be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
(iii) What will be the genotypic ratio of the offspring?
NODIA APP Sample Paper 23 Page 3

15. A person is advised to drink plenty of water to ensure the proper functioning of their excretory system. The
following questions related to this system.
A. What is the main function of the kidneys?


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B. Describe the three main steps involved in the formation of urine in a nephron.
C. What is the role of the urinary bladder and urethra in the excretory system?

16. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) How does Plasmodium (the malarial parasite) reproduce asexually? Name the process.
(ii) How is this method advantageous fthe organism?
(iii) How does this method differ from binary fission in Amoeba?


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B. (i) What are the functions of the testes in the human male reproductive system?
(ii) What is the role of the placenta during pregnancy?
(iii) Name two barrier methods of contraception.

SECTION-B
17. In the reaction ZnO + C " Zn + CO , which substance undergoes reduction?
(a) C (b) CO
(c) Zn (d) ZnO

18. Which one of the following is true for an acidic solution?

(a) pH 7 (b) pH < 7
(c) pH = 7 (d) pH = 14

19. The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wires is known as:
(a) Malleability (b) Sonority
(c) Lustre (d) Ductility

20. Which of the following organic compounds contains a carbon-carbon triple bond?
(a) Ethene (b) Ethane
(c) Ethyne (d) Ethanol

21. The chemical name for washing soda, a salt used for softening hard water, is:
(a) Sodium carbonate (b) Sodium chloride
(c) Sodium hydrogencarbonate (d) Sodium carbonate decahydrate

22. Roasting is a process in metallurgy primarily used for converting:

(a) Sulphide ores into oxides. (b) Carbonate ores into oxides.
(c) Oxide ores into metals. (d) Sulphide ores into sulphates.

23. The decomposition of vegetable matter into compost is an example of:

(a) An endothermic reaction (b) A displacement reaction
(c) An exothermic reaction (d) A neutralisation reaction
Page 4 Sample Paper 23 CBSE Science Class 10

24. Assertion (A) : Ethanoic acid is considered a weak acid.

Reason (R) : It does not ionise completely when dissolved in an aqueous solution.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Differentiate between metals and non-metals on the basis of their

(i) malleability and
(ii) electrical conductivity.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) What is hydrogenation?
(ii) State the industrial application of this process.
(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation for a typical hydrogenation reaction.


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B. (i) Why are detergents considered better cleansing agents than soap, especially in hard water?
(ii) Briefly explain the cleansing action of detergents.

27. A science student takes a small amount of quicklime in a beaker and slowly adds water to it.
(a) What two noticeable observations will the student make?
(b) Name the product formed and write its chemical formula.
(c) What is the chemical nature of the product formed (acidic/basic/neutral)?

28. Corrosion is a natural process that gradually deteriorates refined metals. The rusting of iron is a prominent
example of corrosion.
(a) What is rust? Write its general chemical formula.
(b) List the two essential conditions required for the rusting of iron.


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(c) Suggest two different methods that can be used to prevent the rusting of iron articles.
(d) When a copper object is left exposed to moist air for a long time, it acquires a dull green coating. What
is the chemical name of this green substance?

29. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (a) Draw the electron-dot structure for a molecule of nitrogen (N 2 ). How many covalent bonds are there
between the two nitrogen atoms?
(b) What are the two unique properties of carbon that lead to the formation of a very large number of
organic compounds?
(c) Write the name and draw the structure of the saturated hydrocarbon containing 3 carbon atoms.


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B. An organic compound ‘A’ (a liquid) on heating with excess concentrated H2SO4 at 443 K forms an
unsaturated compound ‘B’. Compound ‘B’ on addition of one mole of hydrogen in the presence of a
nickel catalyst forms a saturated compound ‘C’.
(a) Identify the compounds A, B, and C, assuming they all contain two carbon atoms.
(b) Write the chemical equation for the conversion of A to (b)
(c) Write the chemical equation for the conversion of B to (c)
NODIA APP Sample Paper 23 Page 5

SECTION-C
30. A student makes the following statements about image formation by spherical mirrors:
I. A concave mirror can form a real, inverted, and magnified image.
II. A convex mirror can form a real, inverted, and diminished image.
III. A concave mirror can form an erect, virtual image.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III

31. Which of the following phenomena is responsible for the splitting of white light into its constituent colors
by a prism?
(a) Refraction
(b) Reflection
(c) Dispersion
(d) Scattering

32. Assertion (A) : The rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a rain shower.
Reason (R) : The raindrops act as a prism and an internal reflection occurs which causes dispersion of light.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. Half of a convex lens is covered with black paper.

A. State whether this lens will still produce an image of the object.
B. Explain how the brightness of the image will be affected.
C. Suggest an experiment to verify your answer.

34. Attempt either option A or B.

A. Two identical resistors of 24 Ω each are connected to a battery of 6 V. Calculate the ratio of the power
consumed by the resulting combinations with
(a) minimum resistance and
(b) maximum resistance.


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B. Write the importance of electricity in our everyday life.

35. The apparent altitude of stars appears to be generally more than their true altitudes. Explain, how.

36. (i) What is meant by resistance of a conductor? Define its SI unit.

(ii) List two factors on which the resistance of a rectangular conductor depends.
(iii) How will the resistance of a wire be affected if its.
(1) length is doubled, and
(2) radius is also doubled ?
Give justification for your answer.
Page 6 Sample Paper 23 CBSE Science Class 10

37. Answer the following questions :

(i) What is the direction of magnetic field lines outside a bar-magnet ?
(ii) The magnetic field lines in a given region are getting crowded. What does it indicate ?
(iii) State one advantage of AC over DC.

38. After coming from playground, Tanu feels very hungry. But still some more time was required by her mother
to cook food. While waiting on dining table Tanu was playing with her spoon. All of sudden she observed
two different orientations of her face when she looked her face from both sides of spoon.
She was confused why the orientation of her face changed in two cases. She was curious to know why her
reflected image appears upside down in the one surface of a spoon but the correct way up in the opposite
surface.

(i) Which type of image is formed on the both surface of spoon?

(ii) As tanu move concave surface of spoon towards her face, again she find that there comes a point
(provided the spoon is big enough) where her image flips from inverted to upright. State the condition
under which it happens ? Is this image real or virtual?
(iii) The given ray diagram depict the correct explanation of the image formed by one surface of the spoon.
Name the surface which can form the image as depicted in given ray diagram?

O
(iv) Tanu was trying to form image using a concave mirror. She got an inverted and real image of same size
of the object. Given figure shows four possible positions of the image formed. Figure out the correct
position and justify it.

Continue

on next page.....
NODIA APP Sample Paper 23 Page 7

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) Derive the relation for the equivalent resistance when three resistors of resistances R1 , R2 and R3
are connected in parallel.
(ii) Find the minimum resistance that can be made using four resistors, each of 20 Ω .


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B. (i) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor in the shape of wire depends.
(ii) Why are metals good conductors of electricity whereas glass is a bad conductor of electricity? Give
reason.
(iii) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices? Give reason.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 24 Page 1

Sample Paper 24
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. The trachea (windpipe) is supported by rings of cartilage. What is the primary function of these cartilaginous
rings?
(a) To filter dust from inhaled air.
(b) To warm the air before it reaches the lungs.
(c) To secrete mucus to trap foreign particles.
(d) To ensure that the air passage does not collapse.

2. Which part of the human brain is responsible for coordinating voluntary movements and maintaining the
body’s posture and balance?
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Medulla
(d) Pons

3. In a flower, the male gametes are contained within a specific microscopic structure that is transferred during
pollination. This structure is the:
(a) Ovule
(b) Sepal
(c) Stigma
(d) Pollen grain

4. A genetic cross that involves studying the inheritance of a single pair of contrasting traits is known as a:
(a) Test cross
(b) Monohybrid cross
(c) Dihybrid cross
(d) Reciprocal cross

5. The depletion of the ozone layer is a significant environmental problem. It is primarily caused by the release
of which man-made chemicals into the atmosphere?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(d) Methane
Page 2 Sample Paper 24 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements about the reflex arc:

(i) It is the neural pathway that controls a reflex action.
(ii) Its components typically include a receptor, sensory neuron, spinal cord, motor neuron, and effector.
(iii) The brain is the main processing center for a simple reflex arc.
(iv) It enables a rapid and involuntary response to a stimulus.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iv) only
(d) All are correct.

7. What is the functional unit of the lung where the exchange of gases between the air and the blood occurs?
(a) Alveolus
(b) Nephron
(c) Neuron
(d) Bronchiole

8. Assertion (A) : When a pure tall pea plant is crossed with a pure dwarf pea plant, all the plants in the F1
generation are tall.
Reason (R) : The allele for tallness is dominant over the recessive allele for dwarfness.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : The transport of water upwards through the xylem in plants is a passive process.
Reason (R) : Xylem transport is an active process that requires the plant to expend energy in the form of
ATP.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. The inner lining of the small intestine is not smooth but has millions of tiny, finger-like projections. What
are these projections called, and what is their primary advantage?

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. Differentiate between arteries and veins based on two distinct features.


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B. What is transpiration? List two factors that can increase the rate of transpiration.

12. Using the following organisms, construct a food web with at least two interconnected food chains.
Organisms: Grass, Grasshopper, Frog, Snake, Hawk, Rabbit

13. Draw a neat diagram showing the location of the following endocrine glands in the human body:
(i) Thyroid gland
(ii) Pancreas
(iii) Adrenal glands
NODIA APP Sample Paper 24 Page 3

14. A homozygous tall pea plant (TT) is crossed with a homozygous dwarf pea plant (tt).
(i) What will be the genotype and phenotype of the F1 generation?
(ii) If the F1 plants are self-pollinated, what will be the phenotypic and genotypic ratios in the F2 generation?

15. A person undergoes a medical examination of their respiratory system. The following questions based on
this system.
A. What happens to the air as it passes through the nasal cavity before entering the lungs?


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B. Describe the process of anaerobic respiration that occurs in human muscle cells during strenuous exercise
and its consequence.
C. How is oxygen transported from the lungs to the various tissues of the body?

16. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) What is tissue culture?
(ii) List two main advantages of propagating plants using this technique.
(iii) Name one ornamental plant commonly grown using tissue culture.


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B. (i) What is meant by implantation? Where does this event take place in the human female?
(ii) Describe the structure and function of the placenta.
(iii) Why is it important for a woman to have a balanced diet during pregnancy?

SECTION-B
17. When silver chloride is placed in a transparent bottle and exposed to sunlight, it turns grey. This is an
example of a:
(a) Combination reaction
(b) Photolytic decomposition reaction
(c) Displacement reaction
(d) Precipitation reaction

18. Which of the following solutions will turn blue litmus paper red?
(a) Sodium hydroxide solution
(b) Pure water
(c) Dilute hydrochloric acid
(d) Baking soda solution

19. Which of the following metals is considered the most ductile?

(a) Aluminium
(b) Copper
(c) Silver
(d) Gold

20. A hydrocarbon has the molecular formula C3H4. It belongs to the homologous series of:
(a) Alkanes
(b) Alkenes
(c) Alkynes
(d) Alcohols
Page 4 Sample Paper 24 CBSE Science Class 10

21. The characteristic blue colour of copper sulphate crystals is due to the presence of:
(a) Copper ions (b) Sulphate ions
(c) Water of crystallisation (d) Covalent bonds

22. An element ‘X’ is soft and can be easily cut with a knife. It reacts explosively with cold water. The element
‘X’ is most likely:
(a) Magnesium (b) Aluminium
(c) Potassium (d) Iron

23. The reaction of calcium oxide (quicklime) with water to form calcium hydroxide (slaked lime) is a/an:
(a) Endothermic and combination reaction
(b) Exothermic and combination reaction
(c) Endothermic and decomposition reaction
(d) Exothermic and decomposition reaction

24. Assertion (A) : An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals, or a metal and a non-metal.
Reason (R) : Alloys are prepared to improve the properties of metals, such as their hardness or resistance
to corrosion.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. What happens when an aqueous solution of lead(II) nitrate is mixed with an aqueous solution of potassium
iodide? Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

A. Describe one chemical test to distinguish between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid.


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B. Differentiate between ethanol and ethanoic acid based on the following properties:
(i) Litmus test
(ii) Reaction with sodium carbonate
(iii) Odour

27. Explain the following metallurgical terms with one example for each.
(a) Roasting
(b) Calcination
(c) Reduction (Smelting)

28. The pH scale is crucial in understanding many biological and environmental processes. For instance, the
human body works within a narrow pH range of 7.0 to 7.8, and acid rain is defined as rain with a pH of
less than 5.6.
(a) Explain why acid rain is considered harmful to aquatic life.
(b) If a farmer finds the soil in his field to be too acidic, what can you infer about its pH? Why would he
add slaked lime to the soil?


o
(c) During indigestion, what happens to the pH of the stomach?
(d) The sting of a honeybee contains an acid. What is a traditional remedy often applied to the area, and
why does it provide relief?
NODIA APP Sample Paper 24 Page 5

29. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (a) Draw the electron-dot structure for a molecule of ethyne (C2H2).
(b) Give the IUPAC names for the following compounds:
(i) CH 3 - CO - CH 2 - CH 3
(ii) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 OH
(c) What is the molecular formula of the next homologue of propene (C 3 H 6 )?


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B. (a) What is saponification?
(b) Describe the cleansing action of soap with the help of a labelled diagram of a micelle.
(c) Why do soaps form a sticky precipitate (scum) when used in hard water?

SECTION-C
30. A student is analyzing the relationship between object distance and image formation for a concave mirror
and makes the following statements:
I. When the object is placed at infinity, the image is formed at the focus.
II. When the object is placed at the center of curvature, the image is formed at the same position.
III. When the object is placed between the pole and focus, the image is formed behind the mirror.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III

31. A person cannot see objects far away. What is this defect of vision called, and what kind of lens is used for
correction?
(a) Hypermetropia, Concave lens
(b) Hypermetropia, Convex lens
(c) Myopia, Concave lens
(d) Myopia, Convex lens

32. Assertion (A) : The focal length of a convex lens is positive.

Reason (R) : The principal focus of a convex lens lies on the same side as the incident light, and distances
are measured from the optical center.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm is used to obtain an erect image.

A. Explain the condition under which a concave mirror forms an erect and magnified image.
B. State the range of object distances for which this condition is satisfied.
C. Draw the ray diagram for this case.

Continue on next page.....

Page 6 Sample Paper 24 CBSE Science Class 10

34. Attempt either option A or B.

A. A V -I graph for a nichrome wire is given below. What do you infer from this graph? Draw a labelled
circuit diagram to obtain such a graph.

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B. Calculate the number of electrons that would flow per second through the cross-section of a wire when
1 A current flows in it.

35. While sitting in the last row, a student has difficulty in reading the blackboard clearly. State the defect
of vision the student is suffering from. Mention two causes of this defect. Suggest a suitable lens for the
correction of this defect.

36. In the given circuit, find :

(a) Total resistance of the network of resistors

(b) Current through ammeter A

37. Explain two ways to induce current in a coil. When is the induced current produced highest ? State the rule
used to find direction of induced current.

Continue on next page.....

NODIA APP Sample Paper 24 Page 7

38. The human eye is like a camera. Its lens system forms an image on a light-sensitive screen called the retina.
Light enters the eye through a thin membrane called the cornea. It forms the transparent bulge on the front
surface of the eyeball as shown in the figure. The crystalline lens merely provides the finer adjustment of
focal length required to focus objects at different distances on the retina. We find a structure called iris
behind the cornea. Iris is a dark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil. The pupil regulates
and controls the amount of light entering the eye.

The Human Eye

There are mainly three common refractive defects of vision. These are
(a) myopia or near-sightedness,
(b) hypermetropia or far-sightedness, and
(c) Presbyopia. These defects can be corrected by the use of suitable spherical lenses.
(i) What is the function of pupil in the human eye ?
(ii) What is the far point and near point of human eye with normal vision ?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
(iii) A student has difficulty reading the blackboard while sitting in the last row. What could be the
defect the child is suffering from ?


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(iv) What is the function of iris in human eye?

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) Derive the relation for the equivalent resistance when three resistors of resistances R1 , R2 and R3
are connected in parallel.
(ii) Find the minimum resistance that can be made using four resistors, each of 20 Ω .


O
B. (i) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor in the shape of wire depends.
(ii) Why are metals good conductors of electricity whereas glass is a bad conductor of electricity? Give
reason.
(iii) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices? Give reason.

**********
NODIA APP Sample Paper 25 Page 1

Sample Paper 25
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. What are the final, simple, and absorbable products after the complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins,
and fats, respectively?
(a) Starch, Peptides, and Fatty acids
(b) Glucose, Peptides, and Glycerol
(c) Glucose, Amino acids, and Fatty acids & Glycerol
(d) Sucrose, Amino acids, and Fats

2. The blooming of a dandelion flower during the day and its closing at night is a plant movement that is a
response to the intensity of light, not its direction. This type of movement is known as a:
(a) Tropic movement (b) Nastic movement
(c) Reflex action (d) Geotropic movement

3. The bread mould fungus, Rhizopus, reproduces asexually by producing microscopic reproductive units that
are protected by a thick wall and can survive harsh conditions. These units are called:
(a) Buds (b) Gametes
(c) Spores (d) Fragments

4. According to Mendel’s Law of Dominance, when two different alleles for a character are present, the trait
that is expressed in the F1 generation is known as the:
(a) Recessive trait (b) Dominant trait
(c) Hybrid trait (d) Parental trait

5. Which of the following organisms acts as a producer in its ecosystem?

(a) A wolf (b) A mushroom
(c) A grasshopper (d) A mango tree

6. Consider the following statements about the human heart and circulation:
(i) The heart is a four-chambered organ that acts as a muscular pump.
(ii) The right side of the heart handles deoxygenated blood, and the left side handles oxygenated blood.
(iii) The septum is a muscular wall that prevents blood from mixing between the atria and ventricles.
(iv) The pulmonary vein is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iv) only (d) All are correct.
Page 2 Sample Paper 25 CBSE Science Class 10

7. Which part of the forebrain links the nervous system to the endocrine system and regulates essential
functions like body temperature, hunger, and thirst?
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Medulla
(d) Hypothalamus

8. Assertion (A) : In humans, fertilization typically occurs in the oviduct.

Reason (R) : The oviduct is the site that receives the egg from the ovary and where sperm can travel to
meet it.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : The exchange of gases in the lungs happens across the walls of the alveoli.
Reason (R) : The walls of the alveoli are very thick to prevent the collapse of the air sacs.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. What do the terms ‘systolic pressure’ and ‘diastolic pressure’ represent? State the normal values for a
healthy adult.

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. State the functions of xylem and phloem in plants.


O
B. List two key differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

12. What is ozone, and how does it protect living organisms on Earth?

13. Name the part of the human brain that is responsible for the following functions:
(i) Voluntary actions and intelligence.
(ii) Maintaining posture and balance.
(iii) Controlling involuntary actions like blood pressure.

14. What are homologous organs? How do they provide evidence in favour of evolution? Give one example.

15. A person consumes a breakfast of boiled eggs and toast. The following questions about the digestion of this
meal.
A. The digestion of which component (egg or toast) begins in the mouth? Name the enzyme involved.


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B. Eggs are rich in protein. Where does the digestion of protein start in the alimentary canal? Name the
enzyme and the required condition for its action.
C. What is the role of villi in the small intestine?
NODIA APP Sample Paper 25 Page 3

16. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) Describe the process of regeneration with a suitable example.
(ii) How is it different from reproduction?
(iii) Why can’t complex multicellular organisms regenerate into new individuals?


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B. (i) What are the functions of the testes and ovaries in the human reproductive system?
(ii) Name two surgical methods of contraception. How do they work?
(iii) What is the role of the placenta?

SECTION-B
17. In the reaction 2H 2 S + SO 2 " 3S + 2H 2 O , which substance acts as the reducing agent?
(a) H2S (b) SO2
(c) S (d) H2O

18. Which of the following substances is used in soda-acid fire extinguishers?

(a) Sodium carbonate
(b) Sodium hydrogencarbonate
(c) Sodium chloride
(d) Calcium hydroxide

19. An element ‘X’ is a solid at room temperature, is very soft, and reacts vigorously with water. ‘X’ is likely
to be:
(a) Copper (b) Sodium
(c) Sulphur (d) Carbon

20. In which of the following hydrocarbons is the carbon-carbon bond length the longest?
(a) Ethane (C2H6) (b) Ethene (C2H4)
(c) Ethyne (C2H2) (d) Benzene (C6H6)

21. An aqueous solution with a pH value of 0 would be considered:

(a) Strongly acidic
(b) Strongly basic
(c) Neutral
(d) Weakly acidic

22. The most abundant metal in the Earth’s crust is:

(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Aluminium
(d) Zinc

23. The reaction of magnesium burning in air ( 2Mg + O 2 " 2MgO ) is an example of a/an:
(a) Decomposition reaction
(b) Displacement reaction
(c) Double displacement reaction
(d) Combination reaction
Page 4 Sample Paper 25 CBSE Science Class 10

24. Assertion (A) : Carbon forms covalent bonds with other atoms.
Reason (R) : Carbon has four valence electrons and can achieve a stable noble gas configuration by sharing
these electrons.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Differentiate between exothermic and endothermic reactions. Give one example for each.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

A. Give a scientific reason for each of the following:
(i) Most metal oxides are basic in nature.
(ii) Copper is used to make electrical wires.
(iii) Reactive metals like sodium are found in nature as compounds, not as free elements.


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B. (i) What is corrosion?
(ii) Name two factors that promote the corrosion of iron.
(iii) Suggest one method to prevent corrosion.

27. An organic acid ‘X’ is a liquid which often freezes during winter in cold climates. It has the chemical formula
C2H4O2.
(a) Identify the compound ‘X’.
(b) What is the common name given to its pure, frozen form?
(c) Draw the electron-dot structure for a molecule of ‘X’.

28. Salts can be classified as acidic, basic, or neutral based on the strength of the acid and base from which
they are derived.
A. (a) What is the nature of the salt formed from a strong acid and a strong base? What would its
approximate pH value be?
(b) Give an example of a salt that forms a basic aqueous solution. Name the parent acid and base that
would form this salt.


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B. (c) What will be the nature of an aqueous solution of ammonium chloride (NH 4 Cl )?
(d) Explain why an aqueous solution of sodium carbonate (Na 2 CO 3 ) is basic in nature.

29. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (a) What is the main difference between roasting and calcination in metallurgy?
(b) Which of these two methods would you use for a zinc sulphide ore and which for a zinc carbonate
ore?
(c) How is the zinc oxide obtained from these processes converted to zinc metal? Write the chemical
equation for the reaction.


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B. (a) What are hydrocarbons?
(b) What is a homologous series?
(c) Write the name and chemical formula for the first two members of the alkene homologous series.
(d) How can ethene be converted to ethane? Name the reaction.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 25 Page 5

SECTION-C
30. A student is studying the formation of images by a convex lens and makes the following statements:
I. When the object is at infinity, the image is formed at the focus.
II. The image formed is always real and inverted.
III. The lens can form a virtual, erect, and magnified image.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. What happens to a light ray when it passes from air into water at an angle?
(a) It speeds up and bends towards the normal.
(b) It slows down and bends away from the normal.
(c) It slows down and bends towards the normal.
(d) It speeds up and bends away from the normal.

32. Assertion (A) : The twinkling of stars is caused by atmospheric refraction.

Reason (R) : As starlight enters the Earth’s atmosphere, it travels through air layers of varying refractive
indices, causing its path to fluctuate.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. What is meant by refractive index of a medium?

A. Define refractive index in terms of speed of light.
B. Give the formula.
C. State SI unit.

34. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (a) What precaution should be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits?
(b) An electric oven of 2 kW power rating is operated in a domestic electric circuit (220 V), that has a
current rating 5 A. What result do you expect ? Explain.


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B. Two resistors with resistances 10 Ω and 15 Ω are to be connected to emf 12 V so as to obtain :
(i) minimum current
(ii) maximum current. How will you connect the resistance in each case ? Calculate the strength of the
total current in the circuit in the two cases.

35. Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of six 2 V cells, a 6 Ω resistor, a 12 Ω resistor
and a 18 Ω resistor and a plug key all connected in series. Calculate the following (when key is closed):
(i) Electric current flowing in the circuit.
(ii) Potential difference across 18 Ω resistor.
(iii) Electric power consumed in 18 Ω resistor.

36. Write some precautions in the use of electricity.

Page 6 Sample Paper 25 CBSE Science Class 10

37. (i) What is the function of earth wire in electrical instruments?

(ii) Explain what is short circuiting an electric supply.
(iii) What is the usual current rating of the fuse wire in the line to feed
(a) Lights and fans?
(b) Appliances of 2kW or more power?

38. Aditya and his friend Manoj placed a candle flame in front of a convex lens at various distances from it and
obtained the image of the candle flame on a white screen.
He noted down the position of the candle, screen and the lens as under
Position of candle = 20 cm
Position of convex lens = 50 cm
Position of the screen = 80 cm

(i) What is the position of the image formed from the convex Lens?
(ii) What is the focal length of the convex tens?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
(iii) Where will the image be formed, if he shifts the candle towards the lens at a position of 35 cm?


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(iv) What is the nature of the image formed if Aditya shifts the candle towards the lens to 36m?

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) List two disadvantages of using a series circuit in homes.
(ii) Calculate the effective resistance between A and B in the circuit given below:

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B. A wire of resistance 6 Ω is bent to form a closed square. What is the resistance across a diagonal of the
square ?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 26 Page 1

Sample Paper 26
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. An artificial kidney (dialyser) cleans the blood of patients with kidney failure. The process works on the
principle of:
(a) Diffusion of solutes across a selectively permeable membrane.
(b) Active transport of waste products using ATP.
(c) Phagocytosis of waste particles by the machine.
(d) Transpiration pull created by the dialysing fluid.

2. What is the primary function of the dendrites in a neuron?

(a) To acquire or receive information.
(b) To transmit the nerve impulse over long distances.
(c) To form a protective insulating layer.
(d) To release chemical messengers.

3. A potato tuber has several “eyes” on its surface from which new plants can grow. These “eyes” are actually:
(a) Roots
(b) Flowers
(c) Seeds
(d) Buds

4. The offspring formed as a result of sexual reproduction exhibit more variations because:
(a) The process of development is very slow.
(b) The genetic material is contributed by two different parents.
(c) The gametes from the two parents are identical.
(d) The genetic material comes from only one parent.

5. Which of the following groups contains only biodegradable items?

(a) Grass, flowers, and plastic
(b) Vegetable peels, cow dung, and wood
(c) Fruit peels, aluminum foil, and cake
(d) PVC, grass, and leather

Continue on next page.....

Page 2 Sample Paper 26 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements about the basic concepts of heredity :

(i) Heredity is the process of passing traits from parents to offspring.
(ii) A gene is a segment of DNA that holds the instructions for a specific protein.
(iii) Alleles are the different forms or versions of a single gene.
(iv) An organism’s phenotype is determined solely by its genotype, regardless of the environment.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iv) only
(b) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) only
(d) All are correct.

7. Which of the following organs is NOT a part of the human excretory system?
(a) Kidneys
(b) Ureters
(c) Uterus
(d) Urinary Bladder

8. Assertion (A) : The folding of leaves in a ‘touch-me-not’ plant upon being touched is a nastic movement.
Reason (R) : Nastic movements are directional movements that depend on the direction of the stimulus.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : In any food chain, the amount of energy available at each successive trophic level decreases.
Reason (R) : According to the 10% law, only about 10% of the energy from one trophic level is passed on
to the next.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. The small intestine is considered the site of complete digestion. Justify this statement by naming the
secretions it receives for this purpose.

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. What is lymph? State any two of its functions.


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B. How are the lungs in humans designed to maximize the area for the exchange of gases?

12. What is ozone, and why is its depletion a cause for concern? Name the synthetic chemicals mainly responsible
for this depletion.

13. Differentiate between a reflex action and a voluntary action like walking, giving three points of distinction.

14. With the help of a suitable chart, explain the mechanism of sex determination in human beings.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 26 Page 3

15. Refer to a diagram of the human heart to the following questions.

A. What prevents the back flow of blood inside the chambers of the heart?


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B. Why do ventricles have thicker muscular walls than the atria?
C. Trace the path of oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart and then to the rest of the body.

16. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of a longitudinal section of a flower.
(ii) Differentiate between unisexual and bisexual flowers, giving one example of each.


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B. (i) What is the menstrual cycle? Why does it occur?
(ii) List two surgical methods of contraception and explain their basic principle.

SECTION-B
17. In the reaction CuO + Mg " MgO + Cu , which substance acts as the oxidizing agent?
(a) Mg (b) Cu
(c) MgO (d) CuO

18. Our stomach produces an acid that helps in the digestion of food without harming the stomach lining. The
acid produced is :
(a) Acetic acid (b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Nitric acid

19. Which of the following metals is the most reactive according to the reactivity series?
(a) Iron (Fe) (b) Zinc (Zn)
(c) Potassium (K) (d) Copper (Cu)

20. Which of the following is not an allotrope of carbon?

(a) Diamond (b) Graphite
(c) Fullerene (d) Silica
Page 4 Sample Paper 26 CBSE Science Class 10

21. An aqueous solution of which of the following salts will have a pH value greater than 7?
(a) NaCl (b) NH 4 Cl
(c) CH 3 COONa (d) K 2 SO 4

22. Electrolytic refining is a process used to obtain very pure metals. This method is widely used for the
purification of :
(a) Iron (b) Copper
(c) Aluminium (d) Lead

23. When lead(II) nitrate powder is heated in a test tube, the emission of brown fumes is observed. These fumes
are of which gas?
(a) Oxygen (O2) (b) Lead oxide (PbO)
(c) Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) (d) Nitrogen (N 2 )

24. Assertion (A) : Ethene and Propene belong to the alkene homologous series.
Reason (R) : Their general formula is C n H 2n and they have similar chemical properties due to the presence
of a double bond.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Why is respiration considered an exothermic reaction? Explain.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) What type of chemical bonds are present in ionic compounds?
(ii) Explain why ionic compounds are generally hard solids.
(iii) Why do they conduct electricity only in their aqueous solution or molten state?


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B. Define the following terms with reference to metallurgy:
(i) Mineral
(ii) Ore
(iii) Gangue

27. Differentiate between soaps and detergents on the basis of the following :
(a) Their general chemical composition.
(b) Their cleansing action in hard water.
(c) Their biodegradability.

28. Bleaching powder is a yellowish-white powder with a strong smell of chlorine. It has several applications,
from disinfecting water to acting as an oxidising agent.
(a) Write the chemical name and chemical formula of bleaching powder.
(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved in its preparation.
(c) State two important uses of bleaching powder in different industries.


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(d) What happens when bleaching powder is left exposed to air for a long time? Explain why this happens,
with the help of a chemical equation.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 26 Page 5

29. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (a) Draw the electron-dot structure for a molecule of propane (C3H8).
(b) What are addition reactions? Give a balanced chemical equation for one such reaction.
(c) What are substitution reactions?


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B. (a) Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds : (i) CH 3 CH 2 CHO (ii) CH3COOH (iii) C2H2
(b) Explain why it is not possible to have a ketone with fewer than three carbon atoms.

SECTION-C
30. A student makes the following statements about the image formed by a concave mirror:
I. When the object is between the center of curvature and the principal focus, the image is real and
magnified.
II. When the object is at the principal focus, the image is formed at infinity.
III. The image is always real and inverted.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III

31. A student is looking at a fish in a pond and notices that it appears shallower than it actually is. What is
the optical phenomenon responsible for this observation?
(a) Scattering
(b) Reflection
(c) Dispersion
(d) Refraction

32. Assertion (A) : A convex mirror is a diverging mirror.

Reason (R) : The light rays reflected by a convex mirror converge at a point.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. State lens formula.

A. Write the mathematical relation.
B. Define each term (u, v, f).
C. State condition of sign convention.

34. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (a) Electric fuse is an important component of all domestic circuits. Why ?
(b) An electric oven of rating 2 kW, 220 V is operated in a domestic circuit with a current rating of
5 A. What result would you expect ? Explain.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 26 CBSE Science Class 10

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B. Study the following circuit and answer the following questions :
(a) State the type of combination of the two resistors in the circuit.
(b) How much current is flowing through :
(i) 10 Ω and through,
(ii) 15 Ω resistors.
(c) What is the ammeter reading ?

35. The near point of a person suffering from hypermetropia is 75 cm. Calculate the focal length and power of
the lens required to enable him to read the newspaper which is kept at 25 cm from the eye.

36. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor in the shape of wire depends.
(b) Why are metals good conductors of electricity whereas glass is a bad conductor of electricity? Give
reason.
(c) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices? Give reason.

37. (a) Give the significance of the following in a domestic circuit:

(i) Electric meter
(ii) Earthing.
(b) List two precautions that should be taken to avoid overloading.

38. Mr. Rakesh was helping her daughter Aruna at home understanding about the basics of reflection of light.
He found the simplest way to convey the role of curved mirrors using stainless steel teaspoon. Aruna got
surprised to know that virtual image is that which can be seen but cannot be obtained on the screen. Mr.
Rakesh then explained the formation of image using Ray diagrams.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 26 Page 7

A. What do you mean by reflection of light?

B. The angle between incident ray and reflected ray is 60°. What is the value of angle of incidence?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 30°.what is the angle of reflection?


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D. What happens to a light ray that is incident normally on a surface?

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) Draw magnetic field lines produced around a current carrying straight conductor passing through a
cardboard. Name, state and apply the rule to mark the direction of these field lines.
(ii) How will the strength of the magnetic field change when the point where magnetic field is to be
determined is moved away from the straight wire carrying constant current? Justify your answer.


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B. (i) A circuit contains a battery, a variable resistor and a solenoid. The figure below show the magnetic
field pattern produced by the current in the solenoid.

(a) State how the magnetic field pattern indicates regions where the magnetic field is stronger?
(b) What happens to the magnetic field when the current in the circuit is reversed?
(ii) State the direction of magnetic field in the following case.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 27 Page 1

Sample Paper 27
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. What are the two main chemical products of photosynthesis?
(a) Carbon dioxide and Water
(b) Glucose and Oxygen
(c) Starch and Water
(d) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

2. A deficiency in the secretion of which hormone leads to diabetes mellitus, a condition characterized by high
blood glucose levels?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Adrenaline
(c) Growth Hormone
(d) Insulin

3. If a flatworm like Planaria is cut into multiple pieces, each piece has the ability to grow into a complete new
organism. This form of asexual reproduction is called:
(a) Budding
(b) Fragmentation
(c) Regeneration
(d) Spore formation

4. How are hereditary traits transmitted from parents to their offspring?

(a) Through the mixing of blood.
(b) Through genes located on chromosomes.
(c) Through learned behaviours and skills.
(d) Through the nutritional status of the mother.

5. In a food chain, what is the role of animals that feed exclusively on plants?
(a) They are producers.
(b) They are primary consumers.
(c) They are secondary consumers.
(d) They are decomposers.

Continue on next page.....

Page 2 Sample Paper 27 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements about the human respiratory tract:

(i) The trachea, or windpipe, connects the larynx to the bronchi.
(ii) The walls of the trachea are supported by cartilaginous rings that prevent it from collapsing.
(iii) The bronchi branch into smaller tubes called bronchioles, which terminate in alveoli.
(iv) The diaphragm is a large muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iii) only
(b) (ii) and (iv) only
(c) (i), (ii), and (iv) only
(d) All are correct.

7. Which part of the human brain is responsible for controlling most of the body’s vital involuntary functions,
such as heartbeat, breathing, and blood pressure?
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Medulla
(d) Pons

8. Assertion (A) : The testes in human males are located in the scrotum, outside the main body cavity.
Reason (R) : Sperm production requires a temperature slightly lower than the core body temperature.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : The forelimbs of a human and the wings of a bird are considered homologous organs.
Reason (R) : They have different basic structures but perform similar functions.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. The blood circulatory system in humans is known as a ‘double circulation’ system. What does this term
mean, and what is its primary advantage?

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. What is the role of acid in our stomach? What would happen if it were not produced?


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B. Explain the process of water transportation in plants.

12. What is a food chain? In a four-level food chain, if the energy available at the producer level is 20,000 J,
how much energy will be transferred to the tertiary consumer?

13. Name the three main regions of the human brain. Write one important function of the cerebellum.

14. A tall pea plant (TT) is crossed with a dwarf pea plant (tt).
(i) What will be the genotype and phenotype of the F1 generation?
(ii) If the F1 plants are self-pollinated, what will be the ratio of tall to dwarf plants in the F2 generation?
NODIA APP Sample Paper 27 Page 3

15. A person is having difficulty breathing. A doctor examines their respiratory system. The following questions.
A. What is the primary function of the alveoli in the lungs?


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B. Explain the mechanism of breathing in humans, detailing the roles of the rib muscles and diaphragm.
C. Why does the breathing rate increase during strenuous physical exercise?

16. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) How does Hydra reproduce asexually? Name and describe the process.
(ii) Draw a diagram illustrating this process.
(iii) Why is this method not suitable for complex multicellular organisms?


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B. (i) What is meant by ovulation?
(ii) What is the function of the fallopian tubes in the female reproductive system?
(iii) Describe the changes that take place in the uterus if fertilization does not occur.

SECTION-B
17. In the reaction Zn + FeSO 4 " ZnSO 4 + Fe , which substance is oxidized?
(a) Fe (b) Zn
(c) FeSO4 (d) ZnSO4

18. Which of the following is not a characteristic property of a base?

(a) It feels soapy to the touch.
(b) It turns red litmus paper blue.
(c) It has a sour taste.
(d) It reacts with acids to form salt and water.

19. The property of malleability is most pronounced in which of the following metals?
(a) Iron (b) Aluminium
(c) Gold (d) Zinc

20. The functional group present in the compound Butanal is:

(a) –OH (Alcohol) (b) –COOH (Carboxylic Acid)
(c) –CHO (Aldehyde) (d) C=O (Ketone)

21. A white powder ‘P’ is used by doctors to set fractured bones. It should be stored in a moisture-proof
container to prevent it from hardening. ‘P’ is chemically:
(a) Calcium Carbonate (CaCO3)
(b) Calcium Sulphate dihydrate (CaSO 4 $ 2H 2 O )
(c) Calcium Oxide (CaO)
(d) Calcium Sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO 4 $ 12 H 2 O )

22. In the thermite reaction, which is used for welding railway tracks, iron(III) oxide is reacted with which
highly reactive metal powder?
(a) Zinc (b) Copper
(c) Aluminium (d) Magnesium
Page 4 Sample Paper 27 CBSE Science Class 10

23. The reaction of hydrogen gas with oxygen gas to form liquid water, 2H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) " 2H 2 O (l), is an
example of a:
(a) Decomposition reaction (b) Combination reaction
(c) Double displacement reaction (d) Endothermic reaction

24. Assertion (A) : Propane burns with a clean, non-sooty flame.

Reason (R) : Propane is a saturated hydrocarbon, and the percentage of carbon is low, allowing for complete
combustion.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. Balance the following chemical equation and identify the type of reaction:
Fe (s) + H 2 O (g) " Fe 3 O 4 (s) + H 2 (g)

26. Attempt either option A or B.

A. You are given three test tubes containing aqueous solutions of Zinc Sulphate, Copper Sulphate, and Iron
Sulphate. You are also provided with pieces of zinc, copper, and iron metals. Describe a procedure to
arrange these three metals in the correct order of decreasing reactivity.


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B. (i) What is corrosion?
(ii) Name the chemical substance that constitutes the coating formed on (a) Silver and (b) Copper
articles when they corrode.

27. What are saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons? How can you chemically distinguish between them
using a laboratory test?

28. A student tests three unknown solutions A, B, and C with a universal indicator. Solution ‘A’ turns the
indicator red, solution ‘B’ turns it blue, and solution ‘C’ turns it green.
(a) Arrange the solutions A, B, and C in the increasing order of their pH values.
(b) Which of these solutions would react with a magnesium ribbon to produce hydrogen gas?
(c) If a few drops of solution B are added to solution A, what change in the pH of solution A would you
expect? Name the type of reaction occurring.


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(d) Give one common real-life example of a substance that could be solution A and one that could be
solution (b).

29. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (a) Draw the electron-dot structure for a molecule of carbon dioxide (CO2).
(b) What is the IUPAC name of the next homologue of propanol (C 3 H 7 OH )?
(c) Explain the formation of scum when soap is used to wash clothes in hard water.


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B. (a) What is an esterification reaction?
(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the preparation of a sweet-smelling ester.
(c) State one important use of esters.
(d) How can an ester be converted back into its parent alcohol and carboxylic acid? Name the reaction
and write the equation.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 27 Page 5

SECTION-C
30. A student is analyzing the types of images formed by a convex mirror and makes the following statements:
I. The image is always diminished.
II. The image is always virtual and erect.
III. The image is always formed behind the mirror, between the pole and the principal focus.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. What is the cause of presbyopia in humans?

(a) Shortening of the eyeball
(b) Elongation of the eyeball
(c) Weakening of the ciliary muscles and reduced flexibility of the eye lens
(d) Change in the refractive index of the eye lens

32. Assertion (A) : The power of a convex lens is positive.

Reason (R) : A convex lens is a converging lens and its focal length is positive.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. Describe image formation by convex lens when object is at infinity.

A. Where is image formed?
B. What is nature and size of image?
C. Draw the ray diagram.

34. Attempt either option A or B.

A. Suppose your parents have constructed a two room house and you want that in the living room there
should be a provision of one electric bulb, one electric fan, a refrigerator and a plug point for appliances
of power up to 2 kilowatt. Draw a circuit diagram showing electric fuse and earthing as safety devices.


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B. How much will an electric iron draw from a 220 V source if the resistance of its elements when hot is 55
ohms ? Calculate the wattage of the electric iron when it operates on 220 volts.

35. (i) Least distance of distinct vision of a long-sighted person is 40 cm. He wishes to reduce it to 25 cm by
using spectacles. Find the power and nature of the lens used by him.
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to show the correction of the defect by using an appropriate lens.

36. (a) Write the mathematical expression for Joule’s law of heating.
(b) Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000 coulomb of charge in two hours through a potential
difference of 40 V.

37. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What would happen if a bar magnet is :
(i) Pushed into the coil ?
(ii) Withdrawn from inside the coil ?
(iii) Held stationary inside the coil ?
Page 6 Sample Paper 27 CBSE Science Class 10

38. Sumati wanted to see the stars of the night sky. She knows that she needs a telescope to see those distant
stars. She finds out that the telescopes, which are made of lenses, are called refracting telescopes and the
ones which are made of mirrors are called reflecting telescopes.

So, she decided to make a refracting telescope. She bought two lenses, L1 and L2, out of which L1 was bigger
and L2 was smaller. The larger lens gathers and bends the light,while the smaller lens magnifies the image.
Big, thick lenses are more powerful. So to see far away, she needed a big powerful lens. Unfortunately, she
realised that a big lens is very heavy.
Heavy lenses are hard to make and difficult to hold in the right place. Also since the light is passing
through the lens, the surface of the lens has to be extremely smooth. Any flaws in the lens will change the
image. It would be like looking through a dirty window.
A. Based on the diagram shown, what kind of lenses would Sumati need to make the telescope?
B. What is the formula of magnification obtained with a lens?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. Sumati did some preliminary experiment with the lenses and found out that the magnification of the
eyepiece L2 is 3. If in her experiment with L2 she found an image at 24 cm from the lens, at what
distance did she put the object?


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D. If the powers of the lenses L1 and L2 are in the ratio of 4 : 1, what would be the ratio of the focal length
of L1 and L2?

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. Although electric kettle and electric toaster were used simultaneously in the kitchen to prepare breakfast
for the family, yet the two devices could work efficiently due to ‘fuse’ used in the electric circuit.

(i) What is a fuse? Write the material used in fuse wires. How is a fuse connected in an electric circuit?
(ii) State the ratings of fuse used in electric circuits.
(iii) What is the function of a fuse ? How does it perform its function ?
(iv) A device uses 1 kW electric power when operated at 220 V. Calculate the rating of the fuse to be
used.


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B. (i) What do you mean by short-circuiting?
(ii) Write some precautions in the use of electricity.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 28 Page 1

Sample Paper 28
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. Autotrophic nutrition is the mode of nutrition where an organism :
(a) Depends on other organisms for food.
(b) Synthesizes its own food from simple inorganic sources.
(c) Breaks down dead and decaying organic matter.
(d) Lives on or inside another organism to derive nutrition.

2. Besides acting as a pathway for nerve signals between the brain and the rest of the body, what is another
major function of the spinal cord?
(a) To control conscious thought and memory.
(b) To serve as the coordinating center for reflex actions.
(c) To regulate body temperature and hunger.
(d) To produce essential hormones for growth.

3. The microorganism yeast reproduces asexually by forming a small protuberance on the parent cell, which
then grows and detaches. This method is known as :
(a) Fragmentation
(b) Budding
(c) Spore formation
(d) Fission

4. To ensure he began his genetic experiments with pure-bred (homozygous) pea plants, what initial step did
Gregor Mendel take?
(a) He crossed different varieties of pea plants.
(b) He self-pollinated the plants for several generations.
(c) He only used the plants that grew the fastest.
(d) He imported seeds from different regions.

5. What does a food chain illustrate in an ecosystem?

(a) The total number of species present.
(b) The interaction between living and non-living components.
(c) The linear pathway of energy and nutrient transfer between organisms.
(d) The complete life cycle of the top predator.
Page 2 Sample Paper 28 CBSE Science Class 10

6. Consider the following statements about digestive enzymes in humans :

(i) Salivary amylase begins the chemical digestion of starch in the mouth.
(ii) Pepsin is an enzyme in the stomach that initiates the digestion of proteins.
(iii) Lipase is the main enzyme responsible for the breakdown of emulsified fats.
(iv) Trypsin is an enzyme found in the stomach that digests carbohydrates.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iv) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(d) All are correct.

7. Which plant hormone, synthesized at the shoot tip, is responsible for the phenomenon of phototropism (the
bending of the plant towards light)?
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) Auxin

8. Assertion (A) : The placenta forms a vital connection between the mother’s body and the developing foetus.
Reason (R) : It facilitates the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products between the maternal and
foetal blood.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : An ecosystem with a complex food web is generally more stable than one with a few simple
food chains.
Reason (R) : A food web is composed of a single, linear pathway for energy transfer.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. The inner wall of the small intestine has numerous finger-like projections called villi, which are richly
supplied with blood vessels. What is the advantage of this structural feature?

11. Student to attempt either option A or B.

A. What is the function of haemoglobin in our body? What is the majconsequence of its deficiency?


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B. How do plants transport water from the soil to the leaves?

12. What is a food chain? Give an example of a four-step food chain that might operate in a grassland ecosystem.

13. What are plant hormones? Name the plant hormone responsible for phototropism and briefly explain its
mechanism.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 28 Page 3

14. In a dihybrid cross between a pea plant with round yellow seeds (RRYY) and a plant with wrinkled green
seeds (rryy), the following :
(i) What will be the phenotype of the F1 generation?
(ii) What will be the genotype of the F1 generation?
(iii) What phenotypic ratio is expected in the F2 generation upon selfing the F1 plants?

15. The human body needs to filter waste from the blood. The following questions related to the excretory
system.
A. What is the basic filtration unit of the kidney called?


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B. What is meant by selective reabsorption, and why is it important?
C. A person’s kidneys have failed. What is the medical procedure used to filter their blood, and what is its
basic principle?

16. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) What is meant by vegetative propagation?
(ii) List two benefits for a farmer using this method.
(iii) Give two examples of plants that are commonly grown using this method.


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B. (i) What is the role of the placenta during pregnancy?
(ii) What is the menstrual cycle?
(iii) List two contraceptive methods and state their basic working principle.

SECTION-B
17. In the reaction H 2 (g) + Cl 2 (g) " 2HCl (g), which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Hydrogen is oxidized, and Chlorine is reduced.
(b) Hydrogen is reduced, and Chlorine is oxidized.
(c) Both Hydrogen and Chlorine are oxidized.
(d) Both Hydrogen and Chlorine are reduced.

18. The sting of a wasp is basic in nature. Which of the following would be suitable to apply to the affected
area for relief?
(a) Baking soda solution
(b) Soap solution
(c) Vinegar
(d) Milk of Magnesia

19. Which of the following non-metals is renowned for its extreme hardness?
(a) Sulphur (b) Graphite
(c) Iodine (d) Diamond

20. The alkene with the molecular formula C4H8 is known as butene. How many hydrogen atoms are present in
one molecule of butene?
(a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) 10
Page 4 Sample Paper 28 CBSE Science Class 10

21. Gypsum is a soft sulphate mineral used as a fertilizer and as the main constituent in many forms of plaster.
Its chemical formula is :
(a) CaSO 4 $ 12 H 2 O (b) CaSO 4 $ 2H 2 O
(c) CaSO 4 $ H 2 O (d) CaCO3

22. Which of the following metals is so unreactive that it does not react with oxygen, even at very high
temperatures?
(a) Zinc (b) Iron
(c) Copper (d) Gold

23. When balancing the chemical equation Mg + O 2 " MgO , what is the stoichiometric coefficient for magnesium
(Mg) in the final balanced equation?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4

24. Assertion (A) : Covalent compounds generally have low melting and boiling points.
Reason (R) : The forces of attraction between the molecules of covalent compounds are very strong.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. What is observed when a solution of potassium iodide is added to a solution of lead(II) nitrate? Name the
type of reaction.

26. Attempt either option A or B.

A. An ore on being heated in the air produces sulphur dioxide gas.
(i) What kind of ore is this?
(ii) Describe the steps involved in its conversion into the corresponding metal.


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B. Show the formation of magnesium chloride (MgCl 2 ) from its constituent elements using electron-dot
structures.

27. Give a chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds :
(a) Ethane and Ethene
(b) An alcohol and a Carboxylic acid

28. Indicators are substances that show a distinct colour change in acidic and basic media. A student tests three
solutions X, Y, and Z. Solution X turns blue litmus red. Solution Y turns red litmus blue. Solution Z shows
no change on either litmus paper.
(a) What is the chemical nature of solutions X, Y, and Z?
(b) Which of these solutions would have a pH value of 7?


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(c) What colour change would be observed if phenolphthalein is added to solution Y?
(i) What colour change would be observed if methyl orange is added to solution X?
(ii) What would happen to the pH of solution Y if some of solution X is added to it?
NODIA APP Sample Paper 28 Page 5

29. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (a) What is a homologous series?
(b) Identify the functional group in the compound CH 3 COCH 3 .
(c) Write the name and chemical formula of the fourth member of the alcohol homologous series.
(d) What is the difference in molecular mass (in ‘u’) between any two adjacent homologues?


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B. (a) What are substitution reactions?
(b) Why are substitution reactions a characteristic property of saturated hydrocarbons?
(c) Describe what happens when methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight. Write the
chemical equation for the formation of the first product.

SECTION-C
30. A student is studying the image formation by a concave lens and makes the following statements :
I. The image is always formed on the same side of the object.
II. The image is always virtual and erect.
III. The image is always magnified.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III

31. A ray of light passes from air to a medium of refractive index ‘n’. What is the correct relationship between
the angle of incidence ‘i’ and the angle of refraction ‘r’ ?
(a) sin (i) = n $ sin (r)
(b) sin (i) = sin (r) /n
(c) sin (r) = n $ sin (i)
(d) sin (i) = sin (r) $ n2

32. Assertion (A) : The image formed by a convex mirror is always diminished.
Reason (R) : The convex mirror diverges the parallel rays of light, causing them to appear to originate from
a point behind the mirror.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. Describe image formation by concave lens for any position of object.
A. Where is image formed?
B. State nature and size.
C. Draw ray diagram.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 28 CBSE Science Class 10

34. Attempt either option A or B.

A. An electric heater connected to a 220 V line has two resistance coils of 22 Ohms each.
Calculate the current if these coils are used
(a) Separately
(b) In series
(c) In parallel.


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B. (i) Why are electric bulbs filled with chemically inactive nitrogen or argon ?
(ii) What is meant by the statement that the rating of a fuse in a circuit is 5 A ?

35. With the help of ciliary muscles the human eye can change its curvature and thus alter the focal length of
its lens. State the changes that occur in the curvature and focal length of the eye lens while viewing (i) a
distance object, (ii) nearby object.
Explain, why a normal eye is not able to the distinctly the objects placed closer than 25 cm, without putting
any stain on the eye.

36. Two electric lamps rated 100 W, 220 V and 25 W, 220 V are connected in parallel. Calculate the total
electric current in the circuit.

37. Diagram below shows a circuit containing a coil wound over a long and thin hollow cardboard tube. Copy
the diagram.

(i) Show the polarity acquired by each face of the solenoid.

(ii) Draw the magnetic field lines of force inside the coil and also show their direction.
(iii) Mention two methods to increase the strength of the magnetic field inside the coil.

38. Figure A and B show the ray diagrams related to defects of vision. Study the diagrams and answer the
questions :

A : Defect of vision in patient X

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 28 Page 7

B : Defect of vision in patient Y

(i) Refer to fig. B and fig. A, showing the defects of vision in patients Y and X . Infer the defects which
can be diagnosed from the given ray diagrams.
(ii) Identify the eye defect resulting due to the eye lens becoming cloudy.
(iii) Based on the spectacles given below, infer the eye defect which can be diagnosed from it. Also List two
causes of this defect.

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(iv) The patient X needs a lens of power –4.5D for correction of his vision.
(a) What is the focal length of the corrective lens?
(b) What is the nature of corrective lens?

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. With the help of a diagram of experimental setup, describe an activity to show that the force acting on
a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field increases with increase in field strength.


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B. What is a solenoid? Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of
(i) a current carrying solenoid and a bar magnet.
(ii) List two distinguishing features between the two fields.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 29 Page 1

Sample Paper 29
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. The energy released during cellular respiration is captured to form a molecule that acts as the energy
currency for the cell. What is this molecule?
(a) ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) (b) DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid)
(c) RNA (Ribonucleic Acid) (d) ADP (Adenosine Diphosphate)

2. A deficiency of iodine in the diet can lead to a condition known as goitre, which is characterized by a swollen
neck. This is caused by the enlargement of which gland?
(a) Pituitary gland (b) Adrenal gland
(c) Pancreas (d) Thyroid gland

3. What is the female reproductive part of a flower, which typically consists of the stigma, style, and ovary?
(a) Stamen (b) Pistil
(c) Petal (d) Sepal

4. What are fossils?

(a) The oldest living species found on Earth.
(b) The preserved remains or traces of organisms that lived in the past.
(c) Rocks that have been shaped by ancient organisms.
(d) The study of the history of life on Earth.

5. Which of the following is an example of a man-made or artificial ecosystem?

(a) A forest (b) A pond
(c) A desert (d) An aquarium

6. Consider the following statements about the human excretory system:

(i) The main organs of excretion are the pair of kidneys.
(ii) The nephron is the basic filtration unit within the kidney.
(iii) The purpose of the system is to filter and remove nitrogenous wastes like urea from the blood.
(iv) All the fluid filtered into the nephron is excreted as urine without any reabsorption.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iv) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) (d) All are correct.
Page 2 Sample Paper 29 CBSE Science Class 10

7. Which part of the human brain is considered the main thinking part and is responsible for functions like
intelligence, memory, and voluntary actions?
(a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum
(c) Medulla (d) Hypothalamus

8. Assertion (A) : In human males, the testes are located in the scrotum, outside the abdominal cavity.
Reason (R) : The scrotum maintains a temperature 1-3°C higher than the normal body temperature, which
is required for sperm formation.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : Decomposers are essential for the stability and continuity of an ecosystem.
Reason (R) : They break down dead organic matter into simple inorganic nutrients that can be reused by
producers.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. Plants produce waste products during their life processes. Explain two ways in which plants get rid of their
excretory products.

11. Attempt either option A and B.

A. Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds?


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B. What is transpiration, and how does it help in the upward movement of water in plants?

12. What is a food chain? In a terrestrial ecosystem containing grass, insects, birds, and snakes, construct a
four-level food chain.

13. What is a synapse? Explain how a nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to the next across this gap.

14. In pea plants, tallness (T) is dominant over dwarfness (t), and violet flowers (V) are dominant over white
flowers (v). If a homozygous tall, violet-flowered plant (TTVV) is crossed with a homozygous dwarf, white-
flowered plant (ttvv):
(i) What will be the genotype of the F1 generation?
(ii) If F1 plants are self-pollinated, what phenotypic ratio is expected in the F2 generation?

15. A person has a meal containing chapati (starch) and paneer (protein and fat).
A. In which part of the alimentary canal does the digestion of starch begin? Name the enzyme involved.


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B. Where does the digestion of protein start? Name the enzyme and the condition required for its action.
C. Which organ secretes a juice that helps in emulsifying fats?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 29 Page 3

16. Attempt either option A and B

A. A gardener wants to grow multiple rose plants that are identical to a parent plant with desirable flowers.
(i) Which method of reproduction should he opt for? Justify your choice.
(ii) State two advantages of this method.


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B. A student observes a flower in a garden.
(i) What are the male and female reproductive parts of a flower called?
(ii) What happens to the ovule and ovary after fertilization?
(iii) What is the function of the petals?

SECTION-B
17. The reaction Fe 2 O 3 + 2Al " Al 2 O 3 + 2Fe is an example of a:
(a) Combination reaction
(b) Double displacement reaction
(c) Decomposition reaction
(d) Displacement reaction

18. A bee sting injects an acidic liquid into the skin, causing pain and irritation. Which of the following
household items would provide relief if applied to the affected area?
(a) Lemon juice
(b) Vinegar
(c) Baking soda solution
(d) Orange juice

19. Which of the following pairs of reactants will result in a displacement reaction?
(a) NaCl solution and Copper metal
(b) MgCl2 solution and Aluminium metal
(c) FeSO4 solution and Silver metal
(d) AgNO3 solution and Copper metal

20. In which of the following compounds is the functional group –OH present?
(a) Butanone
(b) Butanal
(c) Butanoic acid
(d) Butanol

21. Gypsum is heated carefully at 373 K to form another compound ‘X’ which is used as a plaster for supporting
fractured bones. The chemical formula of ‘X’ is:
(a) CaSO4 (b) CaSO 4 $ H 2 O

(c) CaSO 4 $ 2H 2 O (d) CaSO 4 $ 12 H 2 O

22. Bauxite, with the formula Al 2 O 3 $ 2H 2 O , is the primary ore of which metal?
(a) Iron (b) Aluminium
(c) Copper (d) Zinc
Page 4 Sample Paper 29 CBSE Science Class 10

23. Which of the following processes is endothermic in nature?

(a) Respiration
(b) Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost
(c) Decomposition of calcium carbonate
(d) Burning of a candle

24. Assertion (A) : Ethane is a saturated hydrocarbon.

Reason (R) : A saturated hydrocarbon contains only carbon-carbon and carbon-hydrogen single bonds.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should chemical equations always be balanced?

26. Attempt either option A or B.

A. Give a scientific reason for the following statements:
(i) Ionic compounds are generally soluble in water.
(ii) Aluminium is a reactive metal, yet it is widely used for making cooking utensils.
(iii) Copper does not displace hydrogen from dilute acids.


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B. Draw a neat and well-labelled diagram showing the electrolytic refining of copper.

27. What are isomers? Draw the three possible structural isomers of pentane (C5H12).

28. The electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of common salt (brine) is an important industrial
process.
(a) What is the common name for this industrial process?
(b) Name the three main products formed during this process.


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(c) One of the products is a gas used for disinfecting drinking water. Name this gas and state at which
electrode (anode or cathode) it is produced.
(d) Another product obtained is a gas that burns with a ‘pop’ sound. Name this gas and give one of its
important industrial uses.

29. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (a) Draw the electron-dot structure for a molecule of ethanoic acid (CH3COOH).
(b) How does ethanoic acid react with sodium hydroxide? Write the balanced chemical equation for the
reaction.
(c) What is the common name of ethanoic acid?


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B. (a) Define a homologous series.
(b) Give the name and draw the structure of the second member of the alkene homologous series.
(c) Write the molecular formula of the fourth member of the alkyne homologous series.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 29 Page 5

SECTION-C
30. A student is learning about the use of different lenses and makes the following statements:
I. A convex lens is used to correct myopia.
II. A concave lens is used to correct hypermetropia.
III. A convex lens is used as a magnifying glass.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) III only

31. A student is asked to find the focal length of a convex lens using a screen. Which of the following conditions
is required for this experiment?
(a) The object should be placed at the focal point.
(b) A real and inverted image should be formed on the screen.
(c) The object should be placed between the focus and optical center.
(d) A virtual and erect image should be formed on the screen.

32. Assertion (A) : When an object is placed at the center of curvature of a concave mirror, the image is real,
inverted, and of the same size.
Reason (R) : All rays passing through the center of curvature retrace their path after reflection.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

33. An object is placed beyond 2F of a convex lens.

A. Where will image form?
B. State size and nature.
C. Draw ray diagram.

34. Attempt either option A or B.

A. You have following material:
An ammeter (0-1 A), a voltmeter (0-3 V), a resistor of 20 Ω , a key, a rheostat, a battery of 3 V and seven
connecting wires.
Using this material draw a labelled circuit diagram to study the dependence of potential difference (V )
across a resistor on the current (I ) passing through it.


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B. Give reasons for the following :
(i) What do you understand by the term fuse in an electric circuit ?
(ii) Fuse wire is placed in series with the device.

35. (a) Ravi kept a book at a distance of 10 cm from the eyes of his friend Hari. Hari is not able to read
anything written on the book. Explain why ?
(b) A lens of focal length 5.0 cm is being used by a student in the laboratory as a magnifying glass. His least
distance of distinct vision is 25 cm. What magnification is the student getting ?
Page 6 Sample Paper 29 CBSE Science Class 10

36. State the factors on which the resistance of a cylindrical conductor depends. How will resistance of a
conductor change if it is stretched so that its length is doubled ?

37. Demonstrate that due to motion of a magnet near a solenoid coil an induced current is set up in the coil.

38. A person is suffering from hypermetropia (long sightedness). It is a defect in which a human eye can see far
off object clearly, but is unable to see nearby object distinctly. The near point of the person is 1.5 m. Assume
that the near point of the normal eye is 25 cm.

(i) What type of lens should be used in his spectacles?

(ii) What should be the focal length of the lens he used ?
(iii) What will be the power of the lens ?


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(iv) Write one possible cause of this defect.

39. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) Deduce the expression for the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination of three resistors R1
, R2 and R3 .
(ii) Consider the following electric circuit.
(a) Which two resistors are connected in series?
(b) Which two resistors are connected in parallel?
(c) If every resistors of the circuit is of 2 Q, what current will flow in the circuit?.


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B. What is meant by magnetic force ? Name and explain the rule to determine the direction of force
experienced by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field. How does this force gets affected on :
(i) doubling the magnitude of current.
(ii) reversing the direction of current flow and
(iii) reversing the direction of magnetic field?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 30 Page 1

Sample Paper 30
Class X 2025-26
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry
and Section C is Physics.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some-questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.

SECTION-A
1. There are various methods to prevent pregnancy. Which of the following contraceptive methods also provides
protection from acquiring sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
(a) Copper-T
(b) Oral Pills
(c) Condom
(d) Tubectomy

2. In a classic Mendelian monohybrid cross, when a heterozygous tall pea plant (Tt) from the F1 generation is
self-pollinated, what is the resulting phenotypic ratio of tall to dwarf plants in the F2 generation?
(a) 1:1
(b) 1:2
(c) 3:1
(d) 2:1

3. Consider the following statements regarding the process of human digestion:

(i) The digestion of starch begins in the mouth by the action of salivary amylase.
(ii) Pepsin is the primary enzyme in the stomach that digests proteins in an acidic medium.
(iii) Bile juice, produced by the liver, contains powerful enzymes for digesting fats.
(iv) Trypsin, found in the small intestine, acts on proteins and breaks them down.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iii) only
(b) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv) only
(d) All are correct.

4. The regulation of blood sugar levels is a classic example of a hormonal feedback mechanism. Which hormones
are responsible for lowering and raising blood sugar levels, respectively?
(a) Glucagon and Insulin
(b) Insulin and Glucagon
(c) Adrenaline and Thyroxine
(d) Thyroxine and Adrenaline

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Page 2 Sample Paper 30 CBSE Science Class 10

5. Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants prepare their own food. Which of the following are the
essential raw materials for this process?
(a) Oxygen, Water, and Sunlight
(b) Carbon Dioxide, Oxygen, and Water
(c) Sunlight, Chlorophyll, and Oxygen
(d) Carbon Dioxide, Water, and Sunlight

6. Hormones regulate various functions in the human body. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the
development of secondary sexual characteristics in males?
(a) Oestrogen (b) Testosterone
(c) Adrenaline (d) Insulin

7. The exchange of materials between the mother and the developing foetus is crucial for a healthy pregnancy.
This exchange occurs through which specialized tissue?
(a) Ovary (b) Uterus
(c) Fallopian tube (d) Placenta

8. Assertion (A) : Food chains in an ecosystem are generally short, usually consisting of three to four trophic
levels.
Reason (R) : The amount of available energy increases at each successive trophic level in a food chain.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

9. Assertion (A) : Opting for public transport over private vehicles can help reduce air pollution in cities.
Reason (R) : Public transport vehicles are designed to run without releasing any pollutants.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

10. Unlike animals, plants do not have any excretory products as they do not eat food. Comment upon the
statement with justification.

11. Attempt either option A or B.

A. How many chambers are there in the heart of the following organisms? How is the mixing of oxygenated
and deoxygenated blood prevented in their body?
(i) Fishes
(ii) Humans


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B. Explain the mechanism by which the water is transported in plants?

12. Draw a diagram of a nerve cell and explain how nerve impulses are transmitted.

13. In a genetic experiment, plants with pure round green seeds (RRyy) were crossed with plants with wrinkled
yellow seeds (rrYY).
(i) Show the gametes formed when the F1 generation was self-pollinated.
(ii) Show the ratio in which these traits are independently inherited.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 30 Page 3

14. Neha consumed boiled sweet potatoes and boiled eggs for breakfast. Help her to understand some steps in
the process of digestion by answering the questions given below.
A. Which of these food items is rich in proteins? In which part of the alimentary canal is the digestion of
this component initiated? Name the enzymes and conditions required.


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B. Which of these food items is rich in starch? How is its digestion initiated?
C. The figure given below represents parts of the human alimentary canal. Which of these parts will have
the maximum amount of digested food as soon as the process of digestion is completed?

15. About 100 acres of a grassland area was declared a nature reserve. The following organisms were predominant
in the area: deer, grass, fox, tiger, and insects. Create a food web comprising two separate food chains using
the above data.

16. Attempt either option A or B.

A. Puneet wanted to grow banana plants.
(i) Based on your knowledge of plant reproduction, should he opt for seeds or any alternate method of
reproduction? Justify your answer.
(ii) Offsprings of a banana plant usually show very little variation. What causes variation, and are
variations good or bad? Justify.


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B. Annie was conducting research on the number of fruits produced by watermelon under different
conditions. She grew 25 watermelon plants each in both glass house A and B. She introduced pollinators
in glass house A only.
(i) What difference will she observe in the number of fruits produced in the two glass houses? Explain
with reason.
(ii) List 3 changes that will occur in a flower once it gets fertilized.

SECTION-B
17. In the reaction C (s) + O 2 (g) " CO 2 (g), which of the following statements is true?

(a) Carbon is reduced. (b) Oxygen is oxidized.

(c) Carbon is oxidized. (d) It is a decomposition reaction.
Page 4 Sample Paper 30 CBSE Science Class 10

18. Tooth decay can be prevented by regularly brushing teeth with toothpaste. The chemical nature of a typical
toothpaste is:
(a) Acidic (b) Basic
(c) Neutral (d) Corrosive

19. Which of the following metals reacts with both acids and bases to produce salt and hydrogen gas?
(a) Iron (b) Copper
(c) Sodium (d) Aluminium

20. Which of the following hydrocarbons is not saturated?

(a) Propane (C3H8) (b) Butane (C4H10)
(c) Pentene (C 5 H 10 ) (d) Cyclohexane (C 6 H 12 )

21. An aqueous solution of salt ‘X’ turns blue litmus paper red. The salt ‘X’ could be:
(a) Sodium Acetate (CH 3 COONa )
(b) Sodium Chloride (NaCl)
(c) Ammonium Chloride (NH 4 Cl )
(d) Potassium Sulphate (K 2 SO 4 )

22. During the electrolytic refining of copper, the impurities that are less reactive than copper settle down below
the anode. These impurities are known as:
(a) Anode mud (b) Cathode sludge
(c) Gangue (d) Flux

23. When green-coloured ferrous sulphate crystals are heated, a reddish-brown solid is formed and two gases
are evolved. The gases are:
(a) Oxygen and Sulphur dioxide
(b) Sulphur dioxide and Sulphur trioxide
(c) Oxygen and Sulphur trioxide
(d) Hydrogen and Sulphur dioxide

24. Assertion (A) : Copper does not react with dilute HCl.
Reason (R) : Copper is a less reactive metal than hydrogen.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

25. What is a redox reaction? Identify the substance oxidized and the substance reduced in the following
reaction: CuO + H 2 " Cu + H 2 O

26. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (i) Show the formation of Sodium Oxide (Na 2 O ) by the transfer of electrons.
(ii) What is the nature of the chemical bond present in it?


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B. (i) What is this process called when iron articles are coated with a layer of zinc?
(ii) Explain why this process protects iron from rusting, even if the zinc coating is broken.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 30 Page 5

27. What is the main structural difference between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid? Describe a reliable
chemical test to distinguish between them.

28. A white powder ‘X’ is obtained by heating gypsum at 373 K. When this powder is mixed with water, it sets
into a hard solid mass, ‘Y’.
(a) Identify the substance ‘X’ and the substance ‘Y’.
(b) Write the chemical formula for both ‘X’ and ‘Y’.


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(c) Write the balanced chemical equation for the conversion of Gypsum to ‘X’.
(d) State two important uses of substance ‘X’ (Plaster of Paris).

29. Attempt either option A or B.

A. (a) Draw the electron-dot structure for a molecule of ethene (C2H4).
(b) What is a substitution reaction? Give one example with a balanced equation.
(c) Why does carbon form strong covalent bonds with other carbon atoms?


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B. (a) What is the IUPAC name of the compound C2H5OH?
(b) What happens when this compound is heated with excess concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K?
Write the balanced chemical equation.
(c) What happens when this compound reacts with a piece of sodium metal? Write the balanced
chemical equation.

SECTION-C
30. A student is learning about the properties of spherical mirrors and makes the following statements:
I. A concave mirror is a converging mirror.
II. A convex mirror is a diverging mirror.
III. A concave mirror is used in shaving mirrors to get a magnified, erect image.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

31. A student notices that when a prism is used, the violet color of light bends the most. What is the reason
for this observation?
(a) The refractive index of the prism is the same for all colors.
(b) Violet light has the longest wavelength.
(c) Violet light travels slowest in the glass prism.
(d) The angle of incidence is different for each color.

32. Assertion (A) : A ray of light incident at the pole of a convex mirror is reflected such that the reflected ray
makes the same angle with the principal axis as the incident ray.
Reason (R) : This behavior is in accordance with the laws of reflection.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Page 6 Sample Paper 30 CBSE Science Class 10

33. An object is placed at focus of convex lens.

A. Where is image formed?
B. What is size and nature?
C. Draw ray diagram.

34. Attempt either option A or B.

A. If in figure A, R1 = 10 Ω , R2 = 40 Ω , R3 = 30 Ω, R 4 = 20 Ω , R5 = 60 Ω and a 12 V battery are connected
to the arrangement, calculate :

(a) Total resistance in the circuit and

(b) Total current flowing in the circuit.


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B. Calculate the equivalent resistance from the following combination of resistors.

35. Study the diagram below and answer the following questions :

(i) Name the defect of vision depicted in the diagram.

(ii) List two causes of the above defect.
(iii) Draw a ray diagram for the correction of the above defect using an appropriate lens.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 30 Page 7

36. Draw a circuit diagram of an electric circuit containing a cell, a key, an ammeter, a resistor of 4Ω in series
with a combination of two resistors ( 8Ω each) in parallel and a voltmeter across parallel combination. Each
of them dissipate maximum energy and can withstand a maximum power of 16W without melting. Find the
maximum current that can flow through the three resistors.

37. Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow :

(a) Why do the iron filings arrange in such a pattern?

(b) What does this pattern demonstrate ?
(c) Why do the iron filings near the bar magnet seem to align in the shape of closed curves ?

38. Is there a relationship between the radius of curvature R , and focal length f , of a spherical mirror ? For
spherical mirrors of small apertures, the radius of curvature is found to be equal to twice the focal length.
We put this as R = 2f . This implies that the principal focus of a spherical mirror lies midway between the
pole and centre of curvature.
(i) Write relation between radius of curvature and focal length.
(ii) For which type of mirrors above relation is verified?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
(iii) What should be size of the aperture ?


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(iv) Where is the principle focus of a spherical mirror lies?

39. Attempt either option A or B

A. What is meant by magnetic force ? Name and explain the rule to determine the direction of force
experienced by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field. How does this force gets affected on :
(i) doubling the magnitude of current.
(ii) reversing the direction of current flow and
(iii) reversing the direction of magnetic field?


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B. Two electric lamps rated 100 W, 220 V and 25 W, 220 V are connected in parallel. Calculate the total
electric current in the circuit.

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