02-03-2025

1103CMD303031250010 MD

PHYSICS

1) A gas expands adiabatically such that its temperature T ∝ , the value of CP/CV of gas is :-

(1) 1.30
(2) 1.50
(3) 1.67
(4) 2.00

2) Two moles of oxygen is mixed with eight moles of helium. The effective specific heat of the
mixture at constant volume is :-

(1) 1.3 R
(2) 1.4 R
(3) 1.7 R
(4) 1.9 R

3) Three rods of the same dimensions have thermal conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged
as shown in fig. with their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 20°C. The temperature of their junction is

(1) 60°C
(2) 70°C
(3) 50°C
(4) 35°C

4) The temperature at which the reading of a Fahrenheit thermometer will be double that of
Centigrade thermometer is :-

(1) 160°C
(2) 180°C
(3) 32°C
(4) 100°C

5) A steel rod of length 1m is heated from 25°C to 75°C keeping its length constant. The longitudinal
strain developed in the rod is (Given : Coefficient of linear expansion of steel = 12 × 10–6/°C) :-

(1) 6 × 10–6
(2) 6 × 10–5
(3) 6 × 10–4
(4) Zero

6) The total energy of a harmonic oscillator of mass 2kg is 9 joules. If its potential energy at mean
position is 5 joules, its K.E. at the mean position will be :

(1) 9J
(2) 14J
(3) 4J
(4) 11J

7) In a resonance tube first resonating length is 17 cm and second resonating length is 55 cm then
find speed of sound in a column if the frequency of tuning fork is 300 Hz :

(1) 228 m/s

(2) 114 m/s
(3) 57 m/s
(4) None

8) An organ pipe P1 closed at one end and vibrating in its first overtone and another pipe P2 open at
both ends vibrating in its second overtone are in resonances. The ratio of length of pipes P1 and P2 is
:-

(1) 1
(2) 1/2
(3) 1/3
(4) 3/4

9) A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz makes 4 beats per second with the vibrating string of a piano.
The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per second when the tension in the piano string is slightly
increased. The frequency of the piano string before increasing the tension was :-

(1) 510 Hz
(2) 514 Hz
(3) 516 Hz
(4) 508 Hz

10) Assertion :- The speed of sound in solids is maximum though their density is large.
Reason :- The coefficient of elasticity of solid is very large.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
11) The equation for the vibration of a string fixed at both ends vibrating in its third harmonic is
given by
y = (2 cm) sin [(0.6 cm–1)x] cos [(500π s–1]t
The length of the string is :-

(1) 24.6 cm
(2) 12.5 cm
(3) 20.6 cm
(4) 15.7 cm

12) The maximum and minimum magnitude of resultant of two given vectors are 17 units and 7 units
respectively. If these two vectors are at right angle to each other, then magnitude of their resultant
is :-

(1) 18
(2) 16
(3) 13
(4) 14

13) A particle moves along a straight line. Its position at any instant is given by x = 32t – where x
is in metre and t in second. Find the acceleration of the particle at the instant when particle is at
rest.

(1) –16 ms–2

(2) –32ms–2
(3) 32 ms–2
(4) 16 ms–2

14) A stone is thrown upwards with a velocity 50 m/s. Another stone is thrown downwards
simultaneously from the same location with a velocity 50 m/s. When the first stone is at highest
point, the velocity of second stone is :–

(1) Zero
(2) 50 m/s
(3) 100 m/s
(4) 150 m/s

15) A person throw a ball with the speed 15 m/s at an angle of 37° with the horizontal then the value
of scalar product of its minimum velocity and the acceleration will be :

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 0
(4) 2

16) A river is flowing from W to E with a speed of 5 m/min. A man can swim in still water with a
velocity 10 m/min. In which direction should the man swim so as to take the shortest possible path to
go to the south.

(1) 30° with downstream

(2) 60° with downstream
(3) 120° with downstream
(4) South

17) A body of mass 4 kg is acted on by a force which varies as shown in the graph below. The

momentum acquired is

(1) 280 N–s

(2) 140 N–s
(3) 70 N–s
(4) 210 N–s

18) If spring constant of the spring is 100 N/m, extension produced in it is nearly :-

(1) 18 cm
(2) 13 cm
(3) 9 cm
(4) 21 cm

19) A block of mass M is kept on a platform which starts accelerating upwards from rest with a
constant acceleration a. During the time interval T, the work done by normal force on mass M is

(1)

(2) Zero
(3)

(4)

20) A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity of . It momentarily comes to rest
after attaining a height of 18m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? Given that g = 10 ms–2

(1) 10J
(2) 20J
(3) 30J
(4) 40J

21) The bob of a pendulum describes a circular arc as shown in fig. If the tension in the cord is
times the weight of the bob in the position shown in fig then velocity of bob in that position is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A string of length L is fixed at one end and carries a mass M at the other end. The string makes
2/π revolutions per second around the vertical axis through the fixed end as shown in the figure,

then tension in the string is

(1) ML
(2) 2 ML
(3) 4 ML
(4) 16 ML

23) Choose the correct statement about the centre of mass (CM) of a system of two particles

(1) The CM lies on the line joining the two particles midway between them
 The CM lies on the line joining them at a point whose distance form each particle is inversely
(2)
proportional to the mass of that particle
The CM lies on the line joining them at a point whose distance from each particle is proportional
(3)
to the square of the mass of that particle
The CM is on the line joining them at a point whose distance from each particle is proportional
(4)
to the mass of that particle

24) A particle of mass m1 moving with a velocity of 5m/s collides head on with a stationary particle of
mass m2. After collision both the particle move with a common velocity of 4m/s, then the value of
m1/m2 is :

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 1 : 1

25)
Find minimum force required to topple the cubical box about an edge.

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 40 N

26) Find angular speed of purely rolling wheel.

(1) 5 rad/sec
(2) 2.5 rad/sec
(3) 10 rad/sec
(4) 20 rad/sec

27) A satellite is orbiting the earth in a circular orbit of radius r. Its :-

(a) Kinetic energy varies as

(b) Angular momentum varies as

(c) Linear momentum varies as

(d) Frequency of revolution varies as

(1) Only d
(2) a, c, d
(3) Only a, b
(4) Only b

28) Four particles each of mass M are located at the vertices of a square with side L. The
gravitational potential due to this at the centre of the square is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

29) The height at which acceleration due to gravity decreases by 75% of its value at surface of earth
is :- [Re = 6400 km]

(1) 1200 Km
(2) 6400 Km
(3) 3200 Km
(4) 128,000 Km

30) The density of water is 1.0 g/cm3. The density of the oil in the left column of the U-tube shown

below is :-

(1) 0.20 g/cm3

(2) 0.80 g/cm3
(3) 1.0 g/cm3
(4) 1.3 g/cm3

31) Liquid (density = 103 kg/m3) rises to height of 10 cm in a capillary tube. If the angle of contact of
liquid glass pair is 0° and radius of tube is 2 mm then surface tension of liquid is

(1) 10–3 N m–1

(2) 10–2 N m–1
(3) 10–1 N m–1
(4) 1 N m–1

32) An air bubble of radius 1 cm rises from the bottom of a liquid of density 1.5 g/cm3 at a constant
speed of 0.25 cm/s. If the density of air is neglected, the coefficient of viscosity of liquid is
approximately (in Pa-s)

(1) 13
(2) 130
(3) 1300
(4) 13000

33) A body cools from 60°C to 50°C in 10 minutes. If the room temperature is 25°C and assuming
Newton's law of cooling to hold good, the temperature of the body at the end of the next 10 minutes
will be :-

(1) 38.5°C
(2) 40°C
(3) 42.85°C
(4) 45°C

34) A brass ball of mass 100 g is heated to 100°C and then dropped into 200 g of turpentine in a
calorimeter at 15°C. The final temperature is found to be 23°C. If specific heat of brass is 0.1 cal/g°C
and water equivalent of calorimeter as 4g, the specific heat of turpentine (in cal/g°C) is :

(1) 0.36
(2) 0.46
(3) 0.62
(4) 0.8

35) A pendulum has time period T for small oscillations. An obstacle is placed directly beneath the
pivot, so that only the lowest one quarter of the string can follow the pendulum bob when it swings
in the left of its resting position as shown in the figure. The pendulum is released from rest at a

certain point A. The time taken by it to return to that point is :-

(1) T
(2) T/2
(3) 3T/4
(4) T/4

36) A particle performs SHM on x-axis with amplitude A and time period T. The time taken by the
particle to travel a distance A/5 starting from rest is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Two full turns of the circular scale of screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on its main scale.
The total number of divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that the screw gauge
has a zero error of –0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main
scale reading of 3 mm and the number of circular scale divisions in line with the main scale as 35.
The diameter of the wire is

(1) 3.38 mm
(2) 3.32 mm
(3) 3.73 mm
(4) 3.67 mm

38) A block of mass 10 kg is kept over a rough surface and a force F = (4t) N is applied on it. Then
the minimum value of t for which the block will start moving is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 4 sec.
(2) 10 sec.
(3) 8 sec.
(4) 5 sec.

39) In shown figure, match the following columns

(Take, g = 10 ms–2)

Column-I Column-II

(A) Normal force (p) 12 SI unit

(B) Force of friction (q) 20 SI unit

(C) Acceleration of block (r) zero

(s) 2 SI unit
 A B C

(1) p q r

(2) q p r

(3) q p s

(4) p s r
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Work (p) Slope of momentum-time graph

(B) Power (q) Slope of work-time graph

(C) Force (r) Area under force-position graph

(D) Impulse (s) Area under force-time graph

(1) A-q ; B-p : C-s : D-r
(2) A-r ; B-q : C-p : D-s
(3) A-s ; B-q : C-p : D-r
(4) A-q ; B-r : C-s : D-p

41) A pump on ground floor of a building pumps up water to fill a tank of water of volume 30 m3 in
15 min. The tank is 40 m above ground and efficiency of pump is 60%. Electric power consumed by
pump is nearly

(1) 40 kW
(2) 22 kW
(3) 18 kW
(4) 2.5 kW

42) Four solid rigid balls each of mass m and radius r are fixed on a rigid-ring of radius 2 r and mass
2 m. The system is whirled about 'O' as shown. The radius of gyration of the system is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with a constant angular
velocity ω. Two objects, each of mass m, are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of
the ring. The ring now rotates with an angular velocity.

(1) ω M / (M + m)
(2) ω (M –2m) / (M + 2m)
(3) ω M/ (M + 2m)
(4) ω (M + 2m) / M

44) In Searle's experiment a vertical steel wire of diameter 25 cm and length 3.14 m supports a
weight of 8000 kg. The change in length produced is :
(Given Y = 2 × 1011 Pa)

(1) 0.21 mm
(2) 0.026 mm
(3) 0.021 cm
(4) 0.021 nm

45) A water barrel stands on a table of height h. If a small hole is punched in the side of the barrel at
its base, it is found that the resultant stream of water strikes the ground at a horizontal distance R
from the barrel. What is the depth of water in the barrel ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None of these

CHEMISTRY

1) Which electron is associated with the least energy:-

(1) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = +1/2

(2) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
(3) n = 4, l = 1, m = +1, s = +1/2
(4) n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2

2) The mass of a particle is 10–10 g. If its velocity is 10–6 cm sec–1 with 0.0001% uncertainty in
measurement, the uncertainty in its position is :

(1) 5.2 × 10–8 m

(2) 5.2 × 10–7 m
(3) 5.2 × 10–6 m
(4) 5.2 × 10–9 m

3) Which orbital have zero spherical node ?

(1) 2p
(2) 3d
(3) 4f
(4) All of the above

4) Match the following columns.

Column-II
Column-I [changes for reaction at
[direction
equilibrium]
of reaction]

For the equilibrium reaction

forward
(i) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) (a)
direction
[Volume is increased at equilibrium]

For the equilibrium reaction

backward
(ii) CO2(g) + H2(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H2O(g) (b)
direction
[inert gas is added at constant pressure]

For the equilibrium

no net
(iii) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) (c)
reaction
[Pressure is decreased at equilibrium]
Correct match is :
(1) i – b; ii – c; iii – a
(2) i – c; ii – b; iii – a
(3) i – b; ii – a; iii – c
(4) i – a; ii – c; iii – b
5) AO (1/2)A2 + (1/2)O2 ; K = 5 × 105
BO (1/2)B2 + (1/2)O2 ; K = 1.10 × 1012
CO (1/2)C2 + (1/2)O2 ; K = 2.3 × 108
DO (1/2)D2 + (1/2)O2 ; K = 1.4 × 1021
Which oxide is most stable :-

(1) AO
(2) BO
(3) CO
(4) DO

6) How many grams of CaC2O4 (molecular mass = 128) on dissolving in one litre distilled water will
give a saturated solution?
[Ksp(CaC2O4) = 2.5 × 10–9 mol2 L–2]

(1) 0.0064 g
(2) 0.1280 g
(3) 0.0128 g
(4) 1.2800 g

7) Ka for HCN is 5 × 10–10 at 25°C. For maintaining a constant pH of 9, the volume of 5M KCN
solution required to be added to 10mL of 2M HCN solution is-

(1) 4 mL
(2) 7.95 mL
(3) 2 mL
(4) 9.3 mL

8) The pair of species having same mass % of C :-

(1) CH4 and C2H6

(2) C6H12O6 and CH3COOH
(3) C6H6 and C2H6
(4) C2H2 and C3H8

9) NH3 is produced according to the following reaction

N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
In an experiment 0.25 mol of NH3 is formed when 0.5 mol of N2 is reacted with 0.5 mol of H2. What is
% yield ?

(1) 75 %
(2) 50 %
(3) 33 %
(4) 25 %

10) What is the value of n in the following reaction ?

Cr(OH)4– + 4OH– → CrO42– + 4H2O + ne–

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 2

11) The Δ for CO2(g), CO(g) and H2O(g) are –393.5, –110.5 and –241.8 kJ mol–1 respectively. The
standard enthalpy change (in kJ) for the reaction CO2(g) + H2(g) → CO(g) + H2O(g) is -

(1) 524.1
(2) 41.2
(3) – 262.5
(4) – 41.2

12) Which one of the following order represent the correct sequence of the increasing basic nature
of the given oxides :-

(1) Na2O < K2O < MgO < Al2O3

(2) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO
(3) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
(4) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O

13) The properties which are not common to both groups 1 and 17 elements in the periodic table are
:-

(1) Reactivity decreases from top to bottom in these groups

(2) Electro positive character increases down to group
(3) Atomic radii increases as the atomic number increases
(4) Ionisation potential decreases on moving down the group

14) O(g) + 2e– → O–2 ; ΔHeg = + 603 kJ/mol

The positive value of ΔHeg is due to :-

(1) Energy is needed to add 1e– to O

(2) Energy is required to add 1e– to O–1
(3) Energy is released to add 1e– to O–1
Magnitude of energy consumed during addition of 2nd e– is more than the magnitude of energy
(4)
released during addition of 1st e– in 'O' atom

15) Which of the following represents correct order of electron affinity ?

(1) Cl > F > S > O

(2) F > O > S > Cl
(3) F > Cl > S > O
(4) Cl > S > O > F
16) Which of the following order is incorrect :

(1) HF < HCl < HBr < HI - Acidic strength

(2) H2O > H2S > H2Se - pKa
(3) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ - Ionic radius
(4) H < P < O < N < F → Electronegativity

17) Which of the following is smallest in size :-

(1) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s1

(2) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p5
(3) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p3
(4) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2

18) Assertion :- Two successive I.P. of Argon are 56.8 eV and 36.8 eV respectively.
Reason :- Electronic configuration of Ar is (Ne) 3s2 3p6.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct

19) Correct order of dipole moment is.

(1) NF3 > NH3

(2) CHCl3 > CH3Cl
(3) HF > H2O
(4) H2O > NH3

20)

Which of the following is degenerate orbital in homonuclear molecule ?

(1) σ2s and σ1s

(2) and
(3) and
(4) and

21) Match List-I (Molecules) with List-II (Bond order) and select the correct answer using codes
given below lists:

List-I List-II

I. Li2 A. 3

II. N2 B. 1.5
 III. Be2 C. 1.0

IV. O2 D. 0

E. 2
(1) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-E
(2) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-E
(3) I-D, II-A, III-E, IV-C
(4) I-C, II-B, III-E, IV-A

22) Which of the following is maximum ionic in nature ?

(1) MgCO3
(2) Li2CO3
(3) ZnCO3
(4) K2CO3

23) Compare bond length in x, y, z :

(1) x > y > z

(2) z > x > y
(3) x > y = z
(4) x = y > z

24)

IUPAC name of

is :

(1) Methyl-4-methyl cyclohex-2-ene carboxylate

(2) Methyl cycloyhex-2-ene carboxylate
(3) Methyl-4-methyl cyclohexane carboxylate
(4) Dimethyl cyclohex-2-ene carboxylate

25) and are :-

(1) Position isomers
(2) Functional group isomers
(3) Identical
(4) Chain isomers

26) Rotational angle require to get maximum stable conformer from minimum stable conformer in n-
butane is :-

(1) 360°
(2) 270°
(3) 180°
(4) 90°

27) This compound can be named as:

(1) Cis –2-butene

(2) (Z)–2–butene
(3) (1) and (2)
(4) R–2–butene

28) Correct order of acidic strength is :-

(I) (II)

(III) (IV) CH3COOH

(1) II > I > III > IV

(2) II > IV > III > I
(3) II > IV > I > III
(4) II > I > IV > III

29) Which cannot show tautomerism ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Correct order of reactivity for soda lime decarboxylation is :-

(1) I > II > III

(2) I > III > II
(3) III > I > II
(4) III > II > I

31) Which of the following is not correctly matched with respect to reaction of propene :-

Column-I Column-II
(Reagent) (Final product)

(1) NBS Allyl bromide

(2) Baeyer reagent Propylene glycol

(3) KMnO4/H+ Acetic acid, formic acid

B2H6/NaOH
(4) n-propyl alcohol
and H2O2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) The wave number of first emission line in the atomic spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series
appears at:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A 10 L container at 300 K contains CO2 gas at pressure of 0.2 atm and an excess solid CaO
(neglect the volume of solid CaO). The volume of container is now decreased by moving the movable
piston fitted in the container. What will be the maximum volume of container when pressure of CO2
attains its maximum value ? given that
CaCO3 (s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g) Kp = 0.800 atm

(1) 5 L
(2) 2.5 L
(3) 1 L
(4) 4 L

34) Which of the following solution will have pH = 7?

(1)
100 mL, HCl + 100 mL, NaOH

(2)
100 mL, HCl + 100 mL, NaOH

(3)
50 mL, HCl + 100 mL, NaOH

(4)
50 mL, HCl + 50 mL, NaOH

35) The oxidation number of sulphur in H2S2O7 and iron in K4[Fe(CN)6] is respectively :-

(1) +6 and +2
(2) +2 and +2
(3) +8 and +2
(4) +6 and +4

36) A system undergoes a process in which ΔU = +300 J while absorbing 400 J of heat energy and
undergoing an expansion against 0.5 bar. What is the change in the volume (in L) ?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 3

37) Which of the following step is exothermic?

– –2
(1) S(g) → S(g)
(2)
–
(3) N(g) → N(g)
+
(4) Al(g) → Al(g)

38) The correct order for O–O bond length in given species is I. H2O2 II. O2 III. O3

(1) I < II < III

(2) II < I < III
(3) II < III < I
(4) III < I < II

39) Which of the following molecule is planar as well as polar :

(1) PCl3
(2) SF4
(3) ClF3
(4) None of these

40)

How many of the following species will exist ?

Ne2, XeF2, NCl5, PH5, Be2, BF6–3

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Assertion :- H–COOH and H–COOCH3 are homologue.

Reason :- Homologues differ by only one "CH2" unit.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

42) Hyperconjugation occurs in.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

43) Stability order of the carbanion is :-

(i) (ii) (iii)

(1) i > ii > iii

(2) iii > ii > i
(3) iii > i > ii
(4) None of these

44)
Compare basic strength :-

(1) a > b > c

(2) b > a > c
(3) c > a > b
(4) c > b > a

45) Acidic hydration of the following compound gives as major product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None of the above

BIOLOGY

1) Mesosomes are the infoldings of cell membrane, which

(i) are present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
(ii) help in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration.
(iii) increase the surface area of plasma membrane.

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

2) Which is the following is true about basidiomycetes:

(a) Also called bracket fungi
(b) Sex organs absent, but plasmogamy is brought about by fusion of two vegetative cells of different
genotypes
(c) Karyogamy and meiosis takes place outside the basidium
(d) Basidiospores are produced exogenously

(1) only a and b are correct

(2) b and c are correct
(3) a, b, c and d all are correct
(4) a, b and d are correct

3) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A): In fermentation not much energy is released.
Reason (R): In fermentation, glucose undergo incomplete oxidation under anaerobic conditions
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

4) How many organelle of the cell are double membranous involved in photorespiration ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

5) Which of the following is correct regarding given figure ?

 Pigments denoted as graph (b) and (c) protect the pigment denoted as graph (a) from photo-
(1)
oxidation
(2) Pigments denoted as graph (a) is main photosynthetic pigment
(3) Photosystem I don't have pigment denoted as graph (b)
(4) Pigment denoted as graph (b) is universal pigment

6) Recognise the following flow diagram and find the correct option according w taxonomic

hierarchy.

1-Polymoniales,2-Sapidales, 3-Poales,
(1) 4-Dicotyledonae, 5-Monocotylednae,
6-Angiospermae
1-Solanaceae, 2-Anacardiaceae,
(2) 3-Poaceae, 4-Polymoniales,
5-Poales, 6-Angiospermae
1-Tuberosum, 2-Mangifera, 3-Triticum,
(3) 4-Dicotyledonae, 5-Monocotyledonae,
6-Plantae
1-Polymoniales, 2-Sapindales, 3-Poales,
(4)
4-Angiospermae, 5-Monocotyledonae, 6-Platae

7) Some names of the plants are given below :

Cedrus, Pinus, Psilotum, Azolla, Pteridium, Cycas, Porphyra, Eucalyptus
How many are vascular seed plants :-

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

8) Which of the following graph correctly represents DNA content (2C) and chromosome number
(2n) of a diploid cell undergoing different stages of cell cycle ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows
high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen
utilisation. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant ?

(1) Nitrogen fixer

(2) C3
(3) C4
(4) Insectivorous plants

10) Consider the following statements :

(A) Taxonomic studies consider a group of individuals with fundamental dissimilarities called as
species.
(B) A group of related genera with less similarities as compared to genus is called family.
(C) Lion, tiger, leopard are included in same genus
(D) In reference of potato and lion, the tuberosum and leo represents the genus epithet respectively.
(E) Classes with few similar characters are assigned to a higher category called division.
Incorrect statements are :

(1) A, D
(2) B, C
(3) A, C
(4) D, E

11) Assertion :- Carotenoids prevent photo-oxidation of chlorophyll.

Reason :- Carotenoids enable a wider range of wavelengths of incoming light to be utilised for
photosynthesis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

12)

Match the entities in column-I with their character in column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Artificial system (i) Character is given equal importance

(B) Natural system (ii) Chromosome number and structure

Equal weightage to vegetative &

(C) Phylogenetic systems (iii)
sexualcharacter

(D) Numerical taxonomy (iv) Chemical constituents of the plant

(E) Cytotaxonomy (v) External features

(F) Chemotaxonomy (vi) Evolutionary relationship

(1) A-(v); B-(iii); C-(vi); D-(ii); E-(iv), F (i)
(2) A-(v); B-(ii); C-(iii); D-(i); E-(iv), F- (vi)
(3) A-(v); B-(iii); C-(vi); D-(i); E-(ii) F –(iv)
(4) A-(iii); B-(v); C-(i); D-(iv); E-(vi), F – (ii)

13) For the synthesis of two hexose molecules, how many ATP and NADPH molecules respectively
are used by C3 plants?

(1) 30 and 12
(2) 24 and 12
(3) 36 and 24
(4) 60 and 24

14) Which of the following option is correct for amount of DNA in different stages of meiosis if
amount of DNA in G1 phase is 64 pg ?
 Anaphase-I = 128 pg, Metaphase-I = 128 pg,
(1)
Metaphase-II = 64 pg.
G2 = 128 pg, Diakinesis = 256 pg,
(2)
Metaphase-I = 128 pg
Pachytene = 256 pg, Metaphase-I = 256 pg,
(3)
Diplotene = 256 pg
S phase =128 pg, Diakinesis = 256 pg,
(4)
Metaphase-I = 128 pg

15) Fill in the blanks a, b, c and d by observing the characters given in the table and choose the
correct answer from the following options :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) How many of the plants given below shows CO2 saturation beyond 450 µℓL–1 for optimum
photosynthesis? Sugarcane, Maize, Sorghum, Rice, Tomato, Bell pepper, Wheat

(1) Four
(2) Seven
(3) Three
(4) Five

17) Consider the followings :

Solanum tuberosum, Mangifera indica, Triticum aestivum, Solanum nigrum, Panthera leo, Panthera
pardus, Solanum melongina, Panthera tigris, Homo sapiens.
How many family, genus and species are represented by above set of organisms?

(1) 5,5,5 respectively

(2) 5,5,9 respectively
(3) 9,6,5 respectively
(4) 6,5,9 respectively

18) How many ATP molecules are produced after complete oxidation of one molecule of fructose 1,
6-bis phosphate ?

(1) 40
(2) 32
(3) 36
(4) 44

19) How many organisms in the list given below are autotrophs :-
Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Saccharomyces,
Rhodospirillum, Porphyra, Wolfia.

(1) Six
(2) Seven
(3) Four
(4) Five

20) Read the following statements w.r.t. pericycle and Choose the suitable option
(a) It is the outermost portion of stele, that may be parenchymatous or sclerenchymatous.
(b) It is absent in monocot stems.
(c) It is always single layered.

(1) Only (a) is correct

(2) Only (b) is incorrect
(3) Only (c) is incorrect
(4) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect

21)
What will be the correct/suitable characters in place of A, B, C, D in respective kingdoms in above
table ?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) A botany student studied a plant. He observed the following characters in a flower of this plant :-
(a) Bracteate
(b) Valvate aestivation in sepals
(c) Vexillary aestivation in petals
(d) Diadelphous condition
(e) Monocarpellary gynoecium, ovary unilocular with marginal placentation
Which flower did he observe?

(1) Brassica campestris

(2) Pisum sativum
(3) Allium cepa
(4) Hibiscus rosa-sinensis

23) Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one or two blank space.
(A) __i __is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material
(B) In Oocytes of some vertebrates, ___ii___ can last for months or years
(C) During anaphase the ___iii___ divide and __iv___ start moving toward the two opposite poles.
(D) In animal cells, during s-phase __v__ replication begins in the nucleus and the ___vi___ duplicates
in the cytoplasm.
Which of the following options, given the correct fills up for the respective blank number from (i) to
(vi) in the statement :-

(1) (i) Prophase (ii) centromere (vi) DNA

(2) (i) Telophase (v) Centriole (vi) DNA
(3) (ii) Diplotene (iv) Chromatids (vi) Centriole
(4) (i) Prophase (iv) Chromosome (v) Centromere

24) Match Column-I and Column-II.

Column - I Column - II
Organism are mostly marine
(a) Slime mould (i) and photosynthetic and
produced toxins.
Consist of dual mode of
(b) Chrysophytes (ii)
nutrition (mixotrophic)
(c) Dinoflagellates (iii) Filtration of oils and syrups
The spores are dispersed by
(d) Euglenoids (iv)
air currents
Choose the correct answer from option and given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
 (1) i ii iv iii

(2) iv iii i ii

(3) iii iv ii i

(4) ii iv iii i

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25)
Given figure is a type of Placenta of a flowering plant. Choose correct statement related to above
given placenta.
(a) Found in unilocular syncarpous ovary.
(b) Ovules develops on the outer wall of the ovary on peripheral part.
(c) Presence of false septum.
(d) Shown by Primrose & Argemone.

(1) a, b
(2) b, d
(3) a, c
(4) All are correct statement

26) If a cell has 46 chromatids in metaphase, then how many chromatids are present in anaphase for
that cell?

(1) 92
(2) 46
(3) 23
(4) 69

27) How many plants in the list given below are non-vascular embryophytes ?
Anthoceros, Ulothrix, Laminaria, Fucus, Polytrichum, Gelidium, Pinus, Pisum, Pteris and Dryopteris

(1) Three
(2) Six
(3) Two
(4) Five

28) Identify the correct names of hormones

i. 'P' hormone inhibits the seed germination, increases the tolerance of plant to various stresses and
plays important role in seed dormancy.
ii. Q' hormone induces flowering in mango and also promotes rapid internode/petiole elongation in
deep water rice plants.
iii. 'R' hormone promotes root growth and root hair formation.

(1) P = C2H4 Q = GA, R = C2H4

(2) P = ABA, Q = C2H4, R = C2H4
(3) P = Auxin, Q = GA, R = C2H4
(4) P = GA, Q = C2H4, R = ABA

29) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II
(A) Amyloplasts (i) Store excretory products
(B) Elaioplasts (ii) Store starch
(C) Centrioles (iii) Cart wheel like organisation
(D) Vacuoles (iv) Store oils and fats
Option :
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

30) Assertion (A): Mosses are of great ecological importance.

Reason (R): Mosses along with lichens are the first organisms to colonise rocks. They decompose
rocks making the substrate suitable for the growth of higher plants.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

31) Match column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II
(I) IAA (A) Terpenes
(II) GA (B) Indole compounds
(III) ABA (C) Adenine derivatives
(IV) Kinetin (D) Carotenoid derivatives
The correct match is :-
(1) I - B, II - D, III - C, IV - A
(2) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV - C
(3) I - C, II - A, III - D, IV - B
(4) I - D, II - B, III - A, IV - C

32) According to the fluid mosaic model, the A nature of lipids enables lateral movement of B
within the bilayer. This ability to move within the membrane is measured as its C .
(1) A-Solid, B-Proteins, C-Fluidity
(2) A-Quasi-Fluid, B-Lipids, C-Fluidity
(3) A-Quasi Fluid, B-Proteins, C-Fluidity
(4) A- Solid, B-Lipids, C-Fluidity

33) Frog : amphibians of the animal kingdom;

________ : amphibians of plant kingdom

(1) Thallophytes
(2) Gymnosperms
(3) Bryophytes
(4) Angiosperms

34) Choose a option which is not a feature of dicotyledonous leaf ?

(1) More stomata present on abaxial side

(2) Mesophyll is not differentiated into pallisade and spongy parenchyma
(3) Thick walled bundle sheath cells
(4) Reticulate venation

35) How many of the following statements are true for plasticity in plants ?
(A) Heterophylly in plants is an example of plasticity.
(B) Heterophylly in plants is only due to environment.
(C) Larkspur produce same types of leaves in different environment which is due to plasticity.
(D) Production of more than one types of leaves in different phase of life within a plant in an example
of plasticity in plants.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

36) Read the following statements.

A. In stems, protoxylem lies towards periphery and this type of primary xylem is endarch.
B. In roots, metaxylem lies towards the centre and this type of primary xylem is exarch.
C. Conjoint type of vascular bundle are common in roots.
State true (T) or false (F) for the above statements.

A B C

(1) F T F

(2) F F T

(3) T T F

(4) T F T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(a) Epipetalous stamen (i) Citrus

(b) Epiphyllous stamen (ii) Pea

(c) Monoadelphous stamen (iii) China rose

(d) Diadelphous stamen (iv) Lily

(e) Polyadelphous stamen (v) Brinjal

(1) (a – v); (b – iv); (c – iii); (d – i); (e – ii)
(2) (a – i); (b – ii); (c – iii); (d – iv); (e – v)
(3) (a – ii); (b – i); (c – iii); (d – iv); (e – v)
(4) (a – v); (b – iv); (c – iii); (d – ii); (e – i)

38)

The given floral formula is represented by which group of plants family ?

(1) Belladonna, ashwagandha and chilli

(2) Lupin, muliathi and sunhemp
(3) Tulip, Colchicum and Asparagus
(4) Bambo, sugarcane and jowar

39) What is the number of ATP equivalents required for synthesis of one glucose in C4 cycle ?

(1) 54
(2) 58
(3) 66
(4) 62

40) (I) Mature sieve tube element is living but enucleated.

(II) Xylem bundle and phloem bundle are collectively termed as a vascular bundle
(III) First formed xylem element and phloem element are called metaxylem and metaphloem,
respectively
(IV) Phloem fibres are generally absent in primary phloem
(V) Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the monocots
Which of the above statement is/are wrong ?

(1) I, II & V
(2) only III
(3) IV & V
(4) III & IV

41) Mesophyll cell, Chloroplast, Light, Atmospheric CO2 concentration, Temperature, Water, Amount
of chlorophyll.
How many of the above factors belongs to external factor of plants which affect photosynthesis ?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 7

42) The diagram represents the Calvin cycle :

At which stage is CO2 incorporated ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

43) A - In given figure how many times decarboxylation

takes place.
B - In given figure how many times oxidation takes place.
C - In given figure how many times substrate level phosphorilation takes place.
D - Site of this process.
Give the correct answer for A to D and choose the correct option.

(1) A-2, B-5, C-01, D-Matrix of Mitochondria

(2) A-02, B-04, C-01, D-cytoplasm
(3) A-02, B-05, C-01, D-PMS
(4) A-3, B-5, C-01, D-Matrix of mitochondria

44) How many ATP are formed inside mitochondria including the use of NADH+H+ produced in
glycolysis considering glycerol-P shuttle with respect to each glucose molecule ?

(1) 15
(2) 30
(3) 17
(4) 34

45) If 4 molecules of glucose are completely oxidized during aerobic respiration then how many ATP
may generate by substrate level phosphorylations

(1) 18
(2) 20
(3) 8
(4) 16

46) The amount of oxygen delivered to tissue by one liter of blood under normal physiological
condition is approximately.

(1) 5 ml
(2) 15 ml
(3) 150 ml
(4) 50 ml

47) Chemosensitive area of respiratory centre in medulla is affected by

+
(1) less CO2 and H ions
+
(2) less O2 and H ions
+
(3) excess CO2 and H ions
+
(4) excess O2 and H ions
48) Recognize the figure and find out the correct matching :

(1) a-inspiration, b-expiration

(2) a-expiration, b-inspiration
(3) a-breathing, b-diffusion
(4) a-diffusion, b-breathing

49) The events marked as 'x' and 'y' on the graph occurs at -

(1) Both at tissue level

(2) Both at alveolar level
(3) 'x' at tissue and 'y' at alveolar level
(4) 'x' at alveolar and 'y' at tissue level

50) After examining the blood group of husband and wife , the doctor advised them not to have more
than one child. The blood groups of the couple are likely to be :

(1) Male Rh– and female Rh+

(2) Female Rh– and male Rh+
(3) Male Rh+ and female Rh+
(4) Male Rh– and female Rh–

51) What is the condition of (A) Tricuspid & (B) Bicuspid valve during joint Diastole respectively-

(1) A → Open, B → Close

(2) A → Open, B → Open
(3) A → Close, B → Open
(4) A → Close, B → Close

52) Chordae tendinae are found in :-

(1) Ventricles of brain

(2) Ventricles of heart
(3) Auricles of heart
(4) Connection between bone

53) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Cardiac output of an athlete is much higher than that of an ordinary man.
(2) In each minute, a single cardiac cycle is performed.
(3) During each cardiac cycle, two prominent sounds are produced.
(4) Cardiac cycle includes atrial systole, ventricular systole and joint diastole.

54) Parts A, B, C and D of Nephron are shown in the diagram select the option which is incorrect

with it's function

(1) A – Maximum water reabsorption

(2) B – permeable to water
+ +
(3) C – Selective secretion of H , NH3 and K ions and maintainance of pH
D– allows passage of small amount of urea into the medullary interstitium and help to produce
(4)
concentrated urine

55) Which out of these is not done by ADH :-

(1) Water reabsorption from latter parts of tubule

(2) Prevents diuresis
(3) Constriction of blood vessels of kidney
(4) decrease GFR

56) Assertion : The Henle's loop and vasa recta play a significant role in producing a concentrated
urine.
Reason : The counter current arrangement of Henle's loop and vasa recta helps in this.

(1) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

(2) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(4) Assertion & Reason are False.

57) Kidneys are situated between the level of :-

(1) Fifth thoracic and third lumbar

(2) Last thoracic and third lumbar
(3) Third thoracic and last lumbar
(4) Lumbar third and last lumbar

58) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

(1) a-F actin, b-troponin, c-tropomyosin

(2) b-F actin, c-troponin, a-tropomyosin
(3) c-F actin, a-troponin, b-tropomyosin
(4) b-F actin, a-troponin, c-tropomyosin

59)
In the above figure A, B and C are :

A B C

(1) Z-line I-band H-zone

(2) H-zone Z-line I-band

(3) H-zone I-band Z-line

(4) I-band Z-line H-zone

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) Which is not true for red fibres ?

(1) Muscles contain a red coloured oxygen storing pigment

(2) Muscle contain plenty of mitochondria
(3) They are also called aerobic muscle
(4) Amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is high

61) Which point is incorrect about Myasthenia gravis disease :-

(1) Neuromuscular junction is affected

(2) Auto-immune disorder
(3) Secretion from nerve terminal is reduced
(4) Can lead to fatigue, weakining and paralysis of skeletal muscle.

62) Which event does not happen during muscle contraction ?

(1) Actin filaments move towards H-zone

(2) Decreased length of myosin filament
(3) Decreased length of sarcomere
(4) Length of A-band remains unchanged.

63) Immediately after action potential is peaked which gates are open?

(1) Sodium (Na+) VGC

(2) K+ VGC
(3) Cl– VGC
(4) Ca2+ VGC

64)

Along with hypothalamus, limbic system is involved in :-

(a) Sexual behaviour
(b) Emotion (excitement, pleasure, rage, fear)
(c) Motivation

(d) Cardiovascular reflexes

(1) a,b and c
(2) a, b and d
(3) b,c and d
(4) a, c and d

65) Which statement is false ?

(1) Dorsal portion of midbrain contains corpora quadrigemina.

(2) The new potential developed on post synaptic membrane is always excitatory in nature.
(3) Thalamus is a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling.
(4) A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passes through the midbrain.

66) Which event is shown at B point in given graph :-

(1) Na+VGC open

(2) Na+ VGC close
(3) K+VGC close
(4) 2 and 3 both

67) Collection of cytons in the CNS is called :

(1) Ganglia
(2) Nuclei
(3) Tract
(4) Nerve

68) Which of the following is true for Neurilemma?

(1) Discontinuous at nodes of Ranvier.

(2) Continuous at nodes of Ranvier and made by schwann cells.
(3) Discontinuous at nodes of Ranvier and made by schwann cells.
(4) Continuous at nodes of Ranvier and made by oligodendrocytes.

69) A pregnant female delivers a body who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low
intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of

(1) Over secretion of Pars Distalis

(2) Deficiency of Iodine in diet
(3) Low secretion of Growth hormone
(4) Cancer of the thyroid gland

70) Immuno suppressive hormone which is used to suppress graft rejection is

(1) Catecholamines
(2) Cortisol
(3) Thymosin
(4) Melatonin
71) Which hormone stimulate secretion of H2O and bicarbonate ions from the pancrease ?

(1) Gastrin
(2) Secretin
(3) Cholecystokinin (cck)
(4) GIP

72) Which of the following hormone will not be present in hypophyseal portal system: -

(1) TRH
(2) CRH
(3) Somatostatin
(4) ACTH

73) Observe the following diagram and answer :

How many hormones among following show this mechanism of action :

ACTH, Prolactin, Thyroxin, ADH, Testosterone, Mineralocorticoid, Insulin

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

74) In following diagram of circulatory system of cockroach identify the structures A, B and C :-
 A B C

(1) Alary muscles Chambers of heart Anterior aorta

(2) Anterior aorta Alary muscles Chambers of heart

(3) Chambers of heart Anterior aorta Alary muscles

(4) Posterior aorta Alary muscles Chambers of heart

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

75)

Spiracles found in cockroach are

(1) 2 pairs in thorax and 10 pairs in abdomen

(2) 2 pairs in thorax and 6 pairs in abdomen
(3) 2 pairs in thorax and 8 pairs in abdomen
(4) 2 pairs in thorax and 4 pairs in abdomen Cephalothorax is found in the

76) Which is the triangular structure associated with heart of frog present on dorsal side and
receives the blood through major veins called vena cava?

(1) Conus arteriosus

(2) Sinus venosus
(3) Right atrium
(4) Ventricle

77) Identify the incorrect statement amongst the following regarding frog :

(1) There is no functional connection of ovaries with kidneys in female frog.

(2) In male frog, the ureter arises as urogenital duct and opens into the cloaca.
(3) The fertilization in frog is external.
(4) Development in frogs is direct.

78) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Radial symmetry – Coelenterates

(2) Coelomates – Aschelminthes
(3) Metamerism – Molluscs
(4) Triploblastic – Sponges

79) The connecting link between non chordates and chordates is:

(1) Neopilina
(2) Peripatus
(3) Balanoglossus
(4) Archaeopteryx

80) Book lungs are respiratory structures of :

(1) Cockroach
(2) Limulus
(3) Scorpion
(4) Prawn

81) Identify A, B in the given figure :-

A B

Sexual Asexual
(1)
reproduction reproduction

Asexual Sexual
(2)
reproduction reproduction

Asexual Asexual
(3)
reproduction reproduction

Sexual Sexual
(4)
reproduction reproduction
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82)

How many of the following phyla exhibit both extracellular and intracellular digestion ?

Porifera, Aschelminthes, Annelida, Hemichordata, Protozoa, Ctenophora, Cnidaria.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

83) Digestive system with a single opening to the out side of body describes :-

(1) Annelids
(2) Arthropods
(3) Ctenophores
(4) Poriferans

84) The biological name and their popular common name of animals are given below, select the
correctly matched among following :-

(1) Ancylostoma - Hook worm

(2) Obelia - Sea-pen
(3) Physalia - Spanish man of war
(4) Meandrina - Sea fan

85) Given below are two statements.

Statements I : Squamous epithelium covers the dry surface of skin.
Statement II : Exocrine glands release their secretion directly in to the fluid, bathing the gland.

(1) Both statement I & II are incorrect.

(2) Both statement I & II correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

86) Assertion: Last amino acid of any protein is known as C-terminal amino acid
Reason: Last amino acid of any protein possess free –COOH group

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

87) Assertion (A) : The acid soluble pool represents roughly the cytoplasmic composition.
Reason (R) : Macromolecules and composition of acid soluble pool together they represent the
entire chemical composition of living tissues.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

88) A polypeptide made up of 5 amino acids. If molecular weight of one amino acid is 120 then what
will be the molecular weight of that polypeptide ?

(1) 480
(2) 426
(3) 462
(4) 528

89) Select the type of enzyme involved in the following reaction

 S — G + S' → S + S' — G
(1) dehydrogenase
(2) transferase
(3) hydrolase
(4) lyase

90) Choose A and B respectively from the given graph :-

(1) A-substrate concentration, B-pH

A-pH, B-
(2)

(3) A-substrate concentration, B-Temperature

(4) A-Substrate concentration, B-Vmax
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 1 3 3 1 2 4 1 4 3 2 3 3 3 3 2 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 2 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 4 2 3 2 3 2 1 2 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 3 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 4 1 1 1 3 2 1 1 2 3 1 4 1 4 2 4 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 1 1 2 3 3 3 2 4 3 1 2 2 1 3 2 3 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 3 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 1 2 4 1 2 3 3 1 2 3 3 1 1 1 2 1 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 2 4 2 3 3 2 3 1 4 2 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 4 4 4 4 3 1 4 2 2 2 2 2 4 3 2 3 2 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 4 2 2 3 2 4 1 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 3 1 3 1 1 4 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
comparing with TVγ–1 = constant
γ – 1 = 1/2

2) Molar specific heat of mixture at constant volume is

(CV)mixture =

= = 1.7 R

3)
i1 = i2 + i3

⇒
⇒ 300 – 3T0 = 2T0 – 100 + T0 – 20
⇒ 6T0 = 420
⇒ T0 = 70ºC

4)

5)

Strain developed :
ε = αΔT = (12 × 10–6) (50) = 6 × 10–4

6)

T.E. = (PE)min + (K.E.)max

9 = 5 + (K.E.)max
 (K.E.)max = 4 J

This is KE at mean position

7) ℓ1 = 17 cm, ℓ2 = 55 cm, f = 300 Hz

λ = 2(ℓ2 – ℓ1) = 2(55 – 17) = 76 cm

f=

300 = ⇒ V = 228 m/s

8) At resonance, first overtone of closed pipe = second overtone of open pipe

9)
Since with increase in Tension frequency of piano string increases
So, after T↑

since decreasing condition is satisfied by 508

so Ans 508 Hz

11) Wave number K = = 0.6 cm–1

∴ℓ= = cm = 15.7 cm

12) A + B = 17
A–B=7
A = 12 B = 5

13)
x = 32t –

=0
8t2 = 32
t2 = 4
t = ±2

⇒ –16t
a ⇒ –16 × 2 ⇒ –32 m/s2

14) Time taken by 1st stone to reach highest point

Velocity of second stone after second is

v = u + gt = 50 + 10 × 5 = 100 m/s

15)

16)

θ = sin–1

= sin–1

= sin–1
so (90°+30°) = 120° from downstream

17) Change in momentum = Impulse

=
= Area of graph

= 10 × 5 + × 10 × 4
= 70 N s.
18)

kx = T =

x= = .13 m = 13 cm

19)

W = NScos0°
= M(g + a) × S × 1

= M(g + a) ×

20)

Energy lost = mv2 – mgh

= (1) (20)2 – (1) (10) (18) = 20J

21)

22) T sin θ = Mω2R ...(i)

T sin θ = Mω2L sinθ ....(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
T = Mω2L
= M 4π2n2L

= M 4π2 =16 ML

23)

m1r1 = m2r2 ⇒ mr = constant

⇒
24)

m1(5) + 0 = (m1+m2) 4

25)
F = 20 N

26)

VCM = = 5 m/s

ω= = = 2.5 rad/sec.

27)

(a) K.E = ⇒K.E ∝

(b) L=mvr = ⇒L∝

(c) P = mv = ⇒P∝

(d) T ∝ r3/2 ⇒ f ∝

28)

OA = OB = OC = OD =

0
V =–

0
V =

29)

gh = = ⇒h=R
30)

Using Pascal's law

Patm + ρoil g(10) = Patm + ρwg(8)

ρoil = ρw = 0.8 g/cm3

31)

T=

32) If density of air is neglected

=
⇒ η ≈ 130 Pa-s.

33)
1 = K [30] ..........(I)

.........(II)
(I) & (II)

T = 300 – 6T

42.85°C

34) From principle of calorimetry

Heat lost by brass ball = Heat gained by turpentine & calorimeter
(100) (0.1) (100 – 23)
= (200)(C)(23–15)+w(23–15)
770 = 1600 C + 4 × 8
⇒ 1600 C = 738 ⇒ C = 0.46 cal/g°C

35)

Time taken by the pendulum of length L, to move from A to B and from B to A = .

Time period of oscillation ∝

∴ or

Time taken by L/4 length of pendulum to complete half the oscillation =

Total time period of oscillation

36)

equation of particle performing

S.H.M from exterme
x = A cosωt

= Acosωt

ωt =

37)

L.C. = = mm
Diameter = 3mm + 35 (.01 mm) + 0.03 mm = 3.38 mm

38)

For motion F ≥ fmax

4t ≥ μs Mg
4t ≥ 0.4 (10)(10)
t ≥ 10 sec
Hence tmin = 10 sec.

39)
N + 20 = 40 ⇒ N = 20 N
fsmax = μs N = 0.8 (20) = 16 N
As Fext (20 N) > fsmax
body will move
fk = μk N = 0.6 (20) = 12 N
a= = 2 m/s2

40)

41)

efficiency =

42)

43)

Li = Lf
MR2ω = (MR2 + 2mR2)ω'

ω' =

44)

= 0.026 mm
 45)

CHEMISTRY

47)

= 5.26 × 10–8 m

48)

Spherical node = n – ℓ – 1

51)
2.5 × 10–9 = S2
S = 5 × 10–5 mol/L
S = 5 × 10–5 × 128
S = 0.0064 gm

54)

N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
0.5 mol 0.5 mol
LR
3 mol H2 → 2 mol NH3

0.5 mol H2 → =

% yield =
55)

56)

CO2(g) + H2(g) → CO(g) + H2O(g)

ΔH°r =
ΔH°r = –
ΔH°r = [–110.5 + (–241.8)] – [–393.5 + 0]
ΔH°r = 41.2 kJ

57)

In s-block moving from top to bottom basic nature increases.

Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
(ampho) (Basic)

61)

EN ⇒ F > O > N

66)

As per M.O.T

69)

70) and
have different functional groups.

72) Z-isomer

75)

2n soda lime decarboxylation the enter mediate in formed.

as anion so sec the stability of carbanion.

76)

80)

H2S2O7
2 + 2 x – 14 = 0
x = +6
K4 [Fe(CN)6]
x–6=–4
x = +2

83)

II < III < I

O=O H–O–O–H
B.O. 2.0 1.50 1.0

85)

XeF2

86)

Fact

87)

88)
 89)

BIOLOGY

93) NCERT Page No. 157

95) NCERT Eng. Page # 210 and 211

97)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 32-34

98) In S-phase DNA Content become double (2C to 4C) but chromosome number remains same
(2n to 2n), chromosome number becomes double in anaphase of M-phase.

99) NCERT Page no. 219

101) NCERT-XI, Page # 211

103) NCERT Page no. 218

104) NCERT XI, Pg # 163

105) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 35-39

108)
Ncert Pg No: 235, 2021-2022

109) Nostoc, Chara, Porphyra, Wolfia, Rhodospirillum (Photoautotroph),Nitrosomonas,

Nitrobacter (Chemoautotrophs), .

112)

NCERT Pg No 79

113)

NCERT XI, Pg # 163, 164, 165, 166, 168

114)

NCERT-XI-Page No. # 20, 21

116)

Allen module

120) NCERT page no.35

121)

NCERT XI Pg.# 174

122) NCERT XI Pg. # 132

124) NCERT – XI, Pg. # 93

125) NCERT XI, Pg. # 246

127) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 75 (E & H)

131)

NCERT Pg. # 222, 223

132)

NCERT XI Pg.# 144

133)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 232 (Fig. 14.3)

135)

NCERT XI Pg # 229, 232

For 4 glucose molecules there will be four glycolysis and eight krebs cycles.
Glycolysis = 2 ATP × 4 = 8 ATP
Krebs cycle = 1 GTP (ATP) × 8 = 8 ATP
4 लूकोज अणु ओं के िलए चार लाइकोिलिसस एवं आठ ेस च।
लाइकोिलिसस = 2 ATP × 4 = 8 ATP
ेस च = 1 GTP (ATP) × 8 = 8 ATP

141) NCERT Pg. # 199

143)

144) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 294, 295

147)

NCERT Pg. No. 206

149) NCERT Pg. # 308

154) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 321

155)

NCERT Page # 235

159) Module

160) NCERT Pg no.337

162)

NCERT – XI, Pg. # 332

163) NCERT Pg.#339

168) NCERT XI Pg. # 41

169)

NCERT (XI) Page 54

170) NCERT Pg. # 53

171) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 50

172)

Cnidaria and cternophora show both types of digestion.

174)

Module

176) NCERT Page: 145

177)

NCERT_2024-25_Page #_109

178) NCERT-XI Pg. # 151

5 × m/w of A:A – 4 × water molecular weight
⇒ (5 × 120 – 4 × 18)
⇒ (600 – 78)
⇒ 528

180) NCERT XI, Pg. # 157