Classroom Contact Programme: Paper-2
Classroom Contact Programme: Paper-2
(1001CJA102922062) )1001CJA102922062)
English
GENERAL :
1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told
to do so.
2. Use the Optical Response sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.
3. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.
5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains 28 pages and
that all the 19 questions in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not,
contact the invigilator for replacement of the booklet.
6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.
7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.
9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose
on the ORS. Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken
the appropriate bubble under each digit of your form number.
10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.
13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct
way.
14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase
or "un-darken" a darkened bubble.
Please see the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/13-12-2022/Paper-2
ALLEN
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS
Atomic No. : H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16,
Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140
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PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen
and both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with
second option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in
+4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options),
without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks.
Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without
selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any
incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct option(s)
will result in –2 marks.
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2. Mark the correct statements about polarisation of light.
(A) If a polaroid is kept in front of you and rotated while looking at the light reflected from water
or glass, you will notice that light gets bright and completely dark sequencially.
(B) At Brewster's angle of incidence the plane of vibration of electric field vector of reflected light
is perpendicular to plane of reflection
(C) A polaroid consists of long chain molecules alinged in direction parallel to the axis of polaroid
which absorb the electromagnetic energy of light.
(D) If θ1 is the Brewster's angle for light reflected from the top of an interface between two
substances and θ2 is the Brewster's angle for light reflected from below, then θ1 + θ2 = 90°.
3. In a single-slit diffraction pattern the central fringe is 450 times as wide as the slit. The screen is 18000 times
farther from the slit than the slit is wide. The wave length of light is λ and width of slit is 'W'. [π2 = 10]
W
(A) The ratio is 80.
λ
(B) The distance of second minima from the point of maximum intensity is 450 W
(C) The distance of second maxima from the point of maximum intensity is 450 W
(D) If the angular position of the point where intensity is 0.9 times the maximum intensity is θ,
1
then sin θ ≈ .
480
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4. Mark the correct statements of the following :
(A) According to Rayleigh's criterion for resolution, two images would be just resolved when
central maxima of one image coincides with central maxima of the other.
(B) The resolving power of a microscope is inversely proportional to the focal length of the
objective lens of microscope.
(C) The resolving power of a telescope is directly proportional to the aperture diameter of the
objective lens.
(D) For an eagle flying at an altitude of 100 m having pupil diameter of 6 mm, two point objects at
a separation of 20 mm can be resolved considering wave length of light λ = 600 nm.
5. A source of sound radiates uniformly in all directions. Along a radial line from the source locate two
points separated by 3 m such that intensity at the nearer point is 4dB above that of more distance point.
[given 100.2 = 1.6]
(A) Ratio of intensities at the nearer point to the distance point is 1.6
(B) Ratio of distance of distant point to the nearer point from the source is 1.6
(C) Distance of the nearer point from source is 5 m.
(D) Distance of the distant point from source is 8 m.
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6. A composite wire is made by joining 3 wires of length ℓ and linear mass density µ, 2µ and 3µ
respectively as shown in figure. Wire AB has the least density followed by BC and CD.
A quick transverse pulse is given at the end D at t = 0.
(A) The ratio of time taken by pulse to travel the DC, DB and DA is 1 : √–2 : √–3
1 1
(B) The ratio of time taken by pulse to travel the DC, CB and BA is 1 : – :
–
√ 2 √ 3
–
(C) The ratio of length of the pulse just above B and just below C is √5 : 1
(D) Acceleration of the pulse travelling upwards is in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 6 in the strings CD, BC and
AB respectively.
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SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
This section contains TWO paragraphs.
Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Paragraph for Questions 7 and 8
A detector of radio waves in a radio astronomical observatory is placed on the sea beach at a height h = 2.10 m
above the sea level. After the rise of a star, radiating electromagnetic waves of wavelength λ = 21 cm, above
the horizon the detector registers series of alternating maxima and minima. The registered signal is
proportional to the intensity of detected waves. The detector registers waves with electric vector vibrating
parallel to the sea surface.
7. If the angle between the star and horizon in the moment the detector resistors maxima for the second time
is θ0, the value of sinθ0 is given by N × 10–3. Find the value of N.
(A) 55 (B) 65 (C) 75 (D) 85
8. At reflection of the electromagnetic wave on water surface the ratio of the intensities of the electric field of
the reflected and (Er) and incident (Ei) wave follows the law :
Er n − cos i
=
Ei n + cos i
where n is the refractive - index and i is the incident angle of wave. For the surface "air-water" for λ = 21 cm,
the refractive index n = 9
If the signal ratio of the first maximum to the next minimum is R × 104, find the value of R.
(A) 3.25 (B) 4.25 (C) 5.25 (D) None of these
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SECTION-II (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains THREE (03) question stems.
There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the designated
place.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal
places.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +2 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
Paragraph for Questions 1 and 2
A massless speaker emitting sound at 600 Hz is placed on top of a mass connected to a spring. The mass
spring system is set in an oscillatory state, vibrating horizontally at 4 Hz with amplitude A. The velocity
of sound is given to be 330 m/s.
1. If the difference between highest and lowest frequencies heard by a stationary observer on the line of
motion is 2 Hz, find the amplitude A in cm.
2. If the above spring and block are cut in two equal halves speaker is set on one of the halves connected to
one half spring and set in oscillation with same amplitude, find the maximum frequency of sound heard
by observer rounded to closest integer value.
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3. Find the power (in W) that strikes a 0.75 m2 patch of flat land at the equator at point Q ?
4. Find the average value of total energy density 'u' of the radiation incident at point Q on earth in µJm–3.
Paragraph for Questions 5 and 6
A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is placed after a slit of width 0.6 mm. A plane wave of wavelength
6000 Å falls normally on the slit. A screen is placed at the focal plane of the convex lens.
5. Find the separation between the second minima on either side of the central maximum (in mm)
6. Find the ratio of the intensity of the principal maximum to the first maximum on either side of principal
maximum. Consider secondary maximas to be placed right at the middle of minimas. [Take π2 = 10]
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SECTION-II (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains THREE (03) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the correct answer is given.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
7. In a young's double slit experiment a parallel beam of mono chromatic light of wavelength λ = 600 nm is
incident on the plane of slits making an angle θ with the normal to the plane (sin θ = 0.03). The separation
between the slits is d = 0.1 mm. When a thin film is introduced in front of the the lower slit, three minimas
and two maximas go past the center of the screen 'O' and the intensity at O reduces to one-fourth of the
intensity before. If the refractive index of the material of thin film is 1.2, find the width of the film in µm.
8. Unpolarised light of intensity I0 is incident on a polariser which is followed by a series of polarisers. Each
polariser has its transmission axis rotated by 45° relative to the transmission axis of the previous polariser.
What is the minimum number of polarisers needed for the light reaching the photo cell to have an
I0
intensity that is less than .
100
9. A musical instrument has a spectrum of frequencies ranging from 100 Hz to 5000 Hz. The ear canal is a
tube of length 3 cm and is open at one end and closed at the other. Find the frequency that will be best
heard by ears in Hz. (take speed of sound = 330 m/s)
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PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.
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2. Under conditions of same temperature and pressure, mark correct relationship.
(A) Density of water vapour is more than N2.
(B) Density of H2 is more than water vapour.
(C) CO2 is denser than air.
(D) Order of density : H2 < D2 < T2
3. A generic phase diagram of a pure substance is drawn :
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4. Sodium hydroxide cannot be used as a primary standard for acid base titration because
(A) it is corrosive in nature and reacts with glass.
(B) the dissolution of sodium hydroxide in water is highly exothermic, hence its concentration
changes on dissolution.
(C) it is hygroscopic and also reacts with atmospheric carbon dioxide.
(D) Hydroxides cannot be used as a primary standard.
5. The following equilibrium exists in saturated solution of NH4Cl
N H 4C l s
( )
⇌ N H 4 aq
+
( )
+ Cl −
aq)
(
–1
ΔH25°C = 3.5 kcal mol
A change that will not shift the equilibrium to the right is
(A) decrease in temperature
(B) increase in temperature
(C) addition of NH4Cl crystals to the reaction mixture.
(D) addition of NH4OH solution to the reaction mixture.
6. Wavelength associated with electron in motion
(A) increases with decrease in the speed of electrons
(B) remains same irrespective of speed of electron
(C) decreases with increase in the speed of electron
(D) changes with the atomic number of atom to which it belongs
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SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
This section contains TWO paragraphs.
Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Paragraph for Questions 7 and 8
The wave function for an atomic orbital of single electron atom or ion is
3
2 Z 2 σ 2Zr
Ψ (r, θ, ϕ) = ( ) (1 – σ) (12 – 8σ + σ2).σ. e −
2 cos θ. Where σ = a0 = 0.529 Å.
3 3a 0 na 0
All other parameters have their usual meaning.
7. (n + ℓ) Value of the given atomic orbital will be
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
8. Find the value of mℓ for the given orbital (Assuming z-axis is the internuclear axis)
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) –2
Paragraph for Questions 9 and 10
The reaction : A(g) —→ 2B(g) + C(ℓ) obeys first order kinetics. 0.50 moles of A(g) is taken in an empty
vessel of 16.4 L capacity and maintained at 27°C, at which A(g) start decomposing. In first 30 min,
moles of B(g) becomes 0.75.
[Given : Vapour pressure of C(ℓ) at 27°C = 0.6 atm, R = 0.082 L-atm / K-mol]
9. Total pressure of system at t = 30 min. is :
(A) 1.875 atm (B) 1.3125 atm (C) 0.1875 atm (D) 1.0312 atm
10. The time at which first drop of liquid 'C' will form (log 2 = 0.3)
(A) 30 min (B) 35 min (C) 15 min (D) 60 min
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SECTION-II (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains THREE (03) question stems.
There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the designated
place.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal
places.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +2 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
Paragraph for Questions 1 and 2
Following equilibria are established on mixing two gases A2 and C.
(i) 3A2 g ⇌ A6 g , Kp = 1.6 atm–2
( ) ( )
(ii) A2 g + C g ⇌ A2 C g
( ) ( ) ( )
Given that the total pressure is 1.4 atm and partial pressure of A6 is 0.2 atm,
If A2 and C are mixed in 2 : 1 molar ratio, then
1. Calculate equilibrium partial pressure of C.
2. The value of Kp for the reaction (ii) (in atm–1) is.
Paragraph for Questions 3 and 4
CO2 gas (1.00 mole) at 400 K occupies 600 ml.
[For CO2 ; a = 3.60 L2atm mol–2; b = 0.04 L mol–1; R = 0.08 L atm k–1 mol–1].
3. Calculate the pressure (in atm) exerted by the gas using ideal gas equation.
4. Calculate the pressure (in atm) exerted by the gas using Vander waal's gas equation.
Space for Rough Work
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Paragraph for Questions 5 and 6
The given figure can be a plane projection in the cubic crystal packing of identical particles in a solids.
The given figure may or may not be a square. Consider atoms to be perfectly circular/spherical as the
case may be.
P acking efficiency
( P acking fraction = )
100
1001CJA102922062 E-17/28
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SECTION-II (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains THREE (03) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the correct answer is given.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
7. In the reduction of nitric oxide, 50% of reaction was completed in 100 s, when initial pressure was
360 mm Hg and in 144 s, when initial pressure was 300 mm Hg. Find order of the reaction.
8. What is the pH at 25°C of the solution obtained by dissolving a 5.00 g tablet of aspirin in 0.500 L of water ?
3
10 −
The 5 g tablet contains 0.30 g of aspirin (HC9H7O4). The acid is monoprotic and Ka = ( ) at 25°C.
3
Write nearest integral value of pH. (√− −
41 = 6.4, √
−−−
123
= 11.1)
(log 3 = 0.48, log 2 = 0.30, log 7 = 0.85)
9. If pd versus p (where p in atm and d in g/L) is plotted for He gas at a particular temperature. If
d
[ (pd)] = 5, what is the temperature in Kelvin ? Assume ideal gas behaviour.
dp p
= 8.21 atm
(R = 0.0821 L-atm/K-mol)
Space for Rough Work
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PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.
2π
8x − 15π
1. If value of definite integral ∫ 2 sin x + cos 2x,
max ( ) dx is 'A' then -
π
0
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2. Let us consider the function f(x) = e–x⋅sin x, then
π+1 2
(A) Area bounded by the curve f(x) and x-axis between ordinate x = –2π and x = 0 is ( e – )
√ 2
eπ − e π
−
(B) Area bounded by the curve f(x) and x-axis between ordinate x = –π and x = π is
2
(m+1)π n 1
( + ) π
(C) ∫ f (x) dx < ∫ f (x) dx where (m, n ∈ I) and (m < n)
mπ nπ
( 2m+1)π (2n+1)π
dy dx
3. Consider differential equation y2 (x ⋅ ey dy − ey ⋅ dx − x ⋅ dx) + xy (xdy − ( +
2 2
)) = x y
y x
1
If y(1) = 1. If solution of differential equation is (h(y)) + ln(g(x, y)) = x + e , then
x
(A) 2 ⋅ e2 + 1
h(2) =
2
(B) g(x, y) = 5 represent a parabola passing through origin
(C) h(x) is an increasing function for x ∈ [1, ∞)
(D) g(x, y) = 5 represent a straight line
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( 1λ + 2λ + 3λ+. . . . . +n λ )
4. lim = F (λ) , λ ∈ N then
n→∞ (14 + 24 +. . . . . +n 4 )(13 + 23 +. . . . . +n 3 )
20
(A) F(λ) is finite for λ ≤ 8 (B) F (8) =
11
20
(C) F (8) = (D) F(7) = 0
9
3A
5. If the least value of area bounded by y = x2 – 3 and y = kx + 2 be A, then the value of – is
10√5
(A) less than 2 (B) greater than 5
(C) less than 4 (D) greater than 1
6. Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree 3 such that f(0) = 1, f(1) = 2, x = 0 is a critical point but f(x) does not
f (x)
have local extremum at x = 0, then ∫ −−−− −
dx is equal to
√ 2 +
x 7
−−−− −
√ 2 +
x 7 −−−−−
(A) (x 2 − 14) + ln(x + √x 2 + 7 ) + C
3
−−−− −
√ 2 +
x 7
(B) (
−−−−−
x 2 − 14) − ln(√x 2 + 7 − x) + C
3
−−−−− −−−−−
(C) ln(x + √x 2 + 7 ) + √x 2 + 7 (x 2 − 7) + C
−−−−− −−−−−
(D) ln(x − √x 2 + 7 ) + √x 2 + 7 (x 2 − 7) + C
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SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
This section contains TWO paragraphs.
Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Paragraph for Questions 7 and 8
f (x) x
1
Let f be a monotonic and differentiable function satisfying ∫ f −
t dt − ∫ (cos t − f (t)) dt = 0
( ) and
0 0
f(0) = 1.
∣ f (2x) f (x) ∣
E-22/28 1001CJA102922062
ALLEN Enthusiast Course/Phase-TEAS, TOAS, TAAS, TNAS, I(A) & LIVE-I(A)/Score-I/13-12-2022/Paper-2
Paragraph for Questions 9 and 10
π
x
Let : ∫ dx = f (π − ϕ)
1 − cos ϕ. sin x
0
π
9. Then the value of f( ) is
6
(A) π2 (B) π2
2
2
π π2
(C) (D)
3 4
π
2
1001CJA102922062 E-23/28
ALLEN Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/13-12-2022/Paper-2
SECTION-II (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains THREE (03) question stems.
There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the designated
place.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal
places.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +2 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
Paragraph for Questions 1 and 2
1
2a A
1. If A is the area of region bounded by f(x) and x axis from x = to x = b2, then is
π ln 2 4
1 (x) 72d S]
[
2. If S area of region bounded by f −
and x axis from x = to x = c, then is (where [.] GIF)
11 2
E-24/28 1001CJA102922062
ALLEN Enthusiast Course/Phase-TEAS, TOAS, TAAS, TNAS, I(A) & LIVE-I(A)/Score-I/13-12-2022/Paper-2
Paragraph for Questions 3 and 4
I = ∫ f (x m (ax n + b) r s
/
) dx; r, s ∈ I & m, n ∈ Q.
m+1 m+1
If = integer, then we can solve by substituting axn + b = t2 and if ≠ integer but
n n
m+1 r
+ = integer; we can substitute a + bx–n = ts; it converts function into integrable form.
n s
dx − 1 1
3. If ∫ = g(x) + C , then g (− loga 15) is equals -
−−
− 4
−−−−−−−−−−−
2x )3 ln a 4
√ 5x √(
a a 2x + a −
3 –
−−−−− −−−−−−
2 3 – ∣ t − √2 ∣ −−−−−−−−
1
4. ∫ √ cosec x (2 3
√ cosec x
+ 1) ⋅ cos x dx = pt + qt + r√2 ln∣ – ∣+ C (where t = √ 2 + sin 3 x )
∣ t + √2 ∣
then p +q – r is equal
Paragraph for Questions 5 and 6
− 1
Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree 3 passing through origin and have a local maximum at x= −−
.
√ 10
Also f ′ (x) has a local minimum at x = 0 and f(1) = 7.
5. The value of f(3) is equal to
6. dy
Consider a real valued function y = g(x) satisfying the differential equation + f ′ (x) ⋅ y = (f (x) + 1) f ′ (x)
dx
such that g(0) = 1 and g(1) = α + e–β. Then (α + β) is equal to
1001CJA102922062 E-25/28
ALLEN Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/13-12-2022/Paper-2
SECTION-II (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains THREE (03) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the correct answer is given.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
x3 x
7. The ratio of the areas in which the curve y = [ + ] divides the circle x2 + y2 – 4x + 2y + 1 = 0,
101 36
–
kπ − 3√3
(where [.] denotes greatest integer function) is – then value of |k + m| ______
mπ + 3√3
dy 2 cos x + 3
8. Consider the family of curve y = f(x) whose differential equation is given by x + y= .
dx 2 + 3 cos x) 2
(
π 2 π
If f ( ) = , then value of [πf ( )] is (where [.] is GIF)
2 π 3
x
⎛ ⎞
9. Let f be a continuous function on [0, ∞) such that f x
lim ⎜ ( ) + ∫ f (t) dt⎟ exists ; then find
x→∞⎝ ⎠
0
1
lim (f (x) + x sin )
x→∞ x
E-26/28 1001CJA102922062
Enthusiast Course/Phase-TEAS,TOAS, TAAS, TNAS, I(A) & LIVE-I(A)/Score-I/13-12-2022/Paper-2
ALLEN
Space for Rough Work
1001CJA102922062 E-27/28
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/13-12-2022/Paper-2
ALLEN
I have read all the instructions I have verified the identity, name and Form
number of the candidate, and that question
and shall abide by them.
paper and ORS codes are the same.
____________________________ ____________________________
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
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