Name-ASHUTOSH

MANI
SEAT NO-4088012

T.Y. [Link]. (Aviation) Sem V.

AIR NAVIGATION
Semester V
Time : 1 hour ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
Maximum marks : 50

Q1. Between what heights is GPWS active? ​

a) ​Zero and 500 ft.

​b) ​Zero and 2500 ft.
c) ​50 ft and 500 ft.
/d) ​50 ft and 2450 ft.

Q2. GPWS must provide?

a) Visual warnings.
b) Aural and visual warnings.
c) Aural warnings which may be supplemented by visual

:
warnings.
d) Visual and aural warnings, which may be
supplemented by tactile warnings.

Q3. An altitude alert system?

a) ​Alerts the pilot if the aircraft deviates from

 selected altitude.
​b) ​Alerts the pilot when decision height is reached.
​c) ​Alerts the pilot when the selected height is
reached.
​d) ​Alerts the pilot when the actual altitude is equal to
the reference altitude.

Q4. GPWS modes include?

1. Stall
2. Incorrect flap position
3. High altitude descents
4. High ROC
5. Excessive glideslope deviations
6. Loss of altitude after take-off and go-around.
7. Excessive sink rate.

​a) ​1, 2, 3, 4, 5
​b) ​1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7

:
​c) ​2, 5, 6, 7
​d) ​4, 5, 6, 7

Q5. The GPWS mode 3 audible alert is?

a) ​Repeated “Don’t sink, Don’t sink”.

b) ​Repeated “Whoop, Whoop, Don’t sink, Don’t
sink”.
c) ​Repeated “Pull up, Pull up”.
d) ​Repeated “Sink rate, Sink rate, Whoop, Whoop”.
Q6. The altitude alerting system is?

a) ​Alerts pilot upon reaching selected altitude.

b)
- ​Alerts pilot when approaching selected altitude.
c) ​Alerts pilot at decision height.
d) ​Alerts pilot of all changes in altitude.

Q7. If sink rate is excessive the GPWS indication will be?

a) ​Too low, Too low, Whoop, Whoop, Pull up.

b) ​Too low gear, Too low gear, Whoop, Whoop, Pull
up, Pull up.
c) ​Don’t sink, Whoop, Whoop, Pull up.
/ ​Sink rate, Whoop, Whoop, Pull up.
d)

Q8. GPWS will give an altitude alert warning when?

a) ​AOB is excessive at low altitude.

b) ​The angle of attack approaches the stalling angle.
c) ​The aircraft loses glideslope signal.
d) ​Decision height is reached in a cat 2 or 3 ILS

:
approach.

Q9. From what does the GPWS obtain its height

information?

a) ​Barometric altimeter
b) ​RADALT
c) ​INS
d) ​IRS
Q10. GPWS may give warnings of?

1. Deviations from selected altitude

2. Excessive deviations from glideslope
3. Excessive sink rate after lift-off
4. Excessive ROD

a) ​1, 2
b) ​2, 3, 4

:
c) ​3, 4
d) ​All of the above

Q11. GPWS may give warnings of?

1. Excessive sink rate

2. Excessive closure with terrain
3. Excessive proximity with ground when not in landing
configuration
4. Excessive AOB

a) ​1, 2, 3
b) ​2, 3, 4
c) ​1, 3, 4
d) ​All of the above
Q12. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight
Instrument Systems (EFIS), a selected heading is
coloured:

a) ​Green
-
b) ​Magenta
c) ​White
d) ​Yellow

Q13. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight

Instrument Systems (EFIS), the active route/flight plan is
coloured:

a) ​Green
b) ​Yellow
c) ​Cyan
d)
/ ​Magenta

Q14. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight

Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of
precipitation are coloured in the order:

a) ​Green, red, magenta, black.

b) ​Black, amber/yellow, magenta, red.
c)
- ​Green, amber/yellow, red, magenta.
d) ​Amber/yellow, magenta, black.
Q15. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight
Instrument Systems (EFIS), turbulence is coloured:

:
a) ​White or magenta
b) ​Red
c) ​Black
d) ​Cyan

Q16. The Flight Management System (FMS) is organized

in such a way that?

a) ​ he pilot is able to modify the navigation database

T
in the FMC between two updates.
b) ​The navigation database of the FMC is created by
the pilot.
c) ​The navigation database of the FMC is valid for
one year.
d) ​The navigation database is read only to the pilot.

Q17. In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the

Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to
waypoints is stored in the?

a) ​Performance database
-
b) ​Navigation database
c) ​Auto flight database
d) ​Air data computer

Q18. A FMS with only a multiple DME sensor operating

shall have a position error, 95% probability, in a non-
precision approach equal to or less than?

-
a) ​0.3 nm
b) ​0.5 nm
c) ​0.06 nm
d) ​1nm

Q19. The Flight Management System (FMS) is organized

in such a way that the pilot can?

:
a) ​Insert navigation data between two database
updates
b) ​ ead and write at any time in the database
R
c) ​Modify the database every 14 days
d) ​Modify the database between two updates

Q20. In what piece of FMS equipment will the pilot enter

the waypoint information for the route?

a) ​The Primary Flight Display (PFD)

b) ​The Symbol Generator
c) ​The Navigation Display (ND)
d) ​The Control Display Unit (CDU)

Q21. The Control Display Unit (CDU) on an FMS is?

a)
/ ​Used by the crew to input data to the FMC
 b) ​The autopilot control panel
c) ​Used on the ground only to monitor the
maintenance procedures
d) ​The system used to update the navigation
database

Q22. On a modern commercial aircraft, the FMS

provides?

:
a) ​Lateral and vertical navigation, and guidance and
performance management
b) ​Traffic alert information
c) ​A 3D area navigation and an air/ground datalink
d) ​An air/ground datalink

Q23. The FMS navigation database usually contains:

1. Airport reference data

2. ATC frequencies
3. Company routes
4. Nav aid frequencies

The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is?

a) ​1 and 3
b) ​1, 2, and 3
c) ​1, 2, 3, and 4
d) ​1, 3, and 4

Q24. Area Navigation is a method of navigation that

permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path
within the limits of the capability of self-contained
systems. Which of the following systems is such a self-
contained system?

a) ​VOR/DME system
b) ​DME/DME sytem
c) ​Global Positioning System
/
d) ​Inertial reference system

Q25. By which of the following flight deck equipment are

the waypoints inserted into an FMS RNAV system by the
pilot?

a) ​Course deviation Indicator

:
b) ​Control Display Unit
c) ​Symbol Generator
d) ​Navigation Display

Q26. Which of the following gives the best information

about the progress of a flight between 2 en-route
waypoints from a RNAV equipment?

a) ​ETO
b) ​ETD
c) ​ATA
d) ​Elapsed time on route

Q27. The Flight Management Computer position is:

 a) ​The actual position of the aircraft at any point in
time

:/
b) ​ he computed position based on a number of
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sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, GPS etc)
c) ​The same as that given on the No. 1 IRS
d) ​Another source of aircraft position; it is
independent of other position sources (IRS, Radio,
ILS etc)

Q28. The database of an FMS (Flight Management

System) is organized in such a way that the pilot can:

a) ​Only read the database

b) ​Insert navigation data between two updates
c) ​Can modify the database every 28 days
d) ​Read and write at any time in database

Q29. Which of the following combinations is likely to

result in the most accurate Area navigation (RNAV) fixes?

a) ​DME/DME
b) ​VOR/DME
c) ​NDB/VOR
d) ​VOR/VOR

Q30. In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted

Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position
information that is available to civil aircraft?

a) ​SHF
 /
b) ​UHF
c) ​EHF
d) ​VHF

Q31. What is the minimum number of satellites required

by a GPS in order to obtain a three-dimensional fix?

a) ​3
b) ​5
c) ​ 4

:
d) ​6

Q32. What is the minimum number of satellites required

for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to
carry out two-dimensional operation?

a) ​3
b) ​4
c) ​ 5
d) ​2

Q33. Which of the following combinations of satellite

navigation systems provide the most accurate position
fixes in air navigation?

a) ​NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit

b)
- ​NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS
c) ​NNSS-Transit and GLONASS
d) ​GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT
Q34. The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational
satellites are located on:

-
a) ​6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane
b) ​3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane
c) ​4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane
d) ​6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus
6 reserve satellites positioned in a geostationary
orbital plane

Q35. Which if the following statements about the

‘visibility’ of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct?

a) ​It is the same throughout the globe

b) ​It is greatest at the equator
- c) ​It varies, depending on the time and observer’s
location
d) ​It is greatest at the poles

Q36. How many operational satellites are required for Full

Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation
system NAVSTAR/GPS?

a) ​18
b)
/ ​24
c) ​12
d) ​30
Q37. The geometric shape of the reference system for the
satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as
WGS 84, is:

a) ​A mathematical model that describes the exact

shape of the earth
b) ​A sphere

:
c) ​An ellipsoid
d) ​A geoid

Q38. In civil aviation, the height value computed by the

receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS
is the:

a) ​Geometric height above ground

b) ​Height above Mean Sea Level (MSL)
c) ​Height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid
d) ​Flight level

Q39. How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to

orbit the earth?

- a) ​Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day)

b) ​Approximately 24 hours (one sidereal day)
c) ​12 days
d) ​365 days because the satellites are located in a
geostationary orbit

Q40. At what approximate height above the WGS-84

ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?

a) ​10900 km
b) ​36000 km
c) ​19500 km
d)
- ​20200 km

Q41. The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system

NAVSTAR/GPS are:

/
a) ​Inclined 55° to the equatorial plane
b) ​Inclined 55° to the earth axis
c) ​Inclined 90° to the equatorial plane
d) ​Parallel to the equatorial plane

Q42. If the destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in

box 16 of your ATS flight plan, you write:

a) ​////
b) ​AAAA
c) ​XXXX

:
d) ​ZZZZ

Q43. In an ATS flight plan an aircraft will be classified as

“L” if its MTOM is?

a) ​27000 kg
b) ​10000 kg
c) ​57000 kg
d) ​7000 kg
Q44. In an ATS flight plan item 15; either a route for
which standard departure (SID) or a standard arrival
(STAR) are provided

a) ​SID should be entered but not STAR

:
b) ​Both should be entered
c) ​STAR should be entered but not SID
d) ​Neither SID nor STAR should be entered

Q45. In the ATS flight plan item 15, for a flight along a
designated route, where the departure aerodrome is not on
or connected to that route:

a) I​ t is not necessary to indicate the point of joining

that route as it will be obvious to the ATS unit
b) ​It is necessary only to give the first reporting
point on that route
c) ​The letters “DCT” should be entered, followed by
the point of joining the ATS route
d) ​The words “as cleared” should be entered

Q46. Reference item 19 of the ICAO flight plan,

Endurance is?

a) ​Maximum flight time plus 45 minutes holding

fuel
b) ​Maximum flight time plus 30 minutes holding
fuel
c)
- ​Fuel endurance of the aircraft
d) ​Total reusable fuel required for the flight

Q47. Standard equipment in item 10 is considering to be:

a) ​VHF, RTF, ADF, VOR, ILS

b) ​HF, RTF, VOR, DME
c) ​VHF, VOR, ADF
/ d) ​VHF, RTF, ILS, VOR

Q48. When filling ina flight plan, wake turbulence

category is a function of?

a) ​Max certified landing mass

b)
- ​Max certified take-off mass
c) ​Estimated landing mass
d) ​Estimated take-off mass

Q49. You make a diversion from the route given in the

flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within
what time after landing should you inform ATC?

a) ​10 mins
b) ​20 mins
/c) ​30 mins
 d) ​45 mins

Q50. What is meant by balanced field available?

a) ​TORA = TODA
b) ​ASDA = ASDR and TODA = TODR
c)
- ​TODA = ASDA
d) ​TORA = ASDA