IIT JAM QUESTIONS (A) Eon (B) Era

GEOLOGY-(2019) (C) Epoch (D) Period

SECTION – A Q.7 Polymorphic minerals have

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ) (A) different crystal forms and identical
composition
Q. 1 – Q. 10 carry one mark each.
(B) different crystal forms and different
Q.1 Which of the following is associated with a compositions
divergent plate boundary?
(C) identical crystal form and different
(A) Ridge compositions

(B) Trench (D) identical crystal form and identical

composition
(C) Island arc
Q.8 Turbidites commonly form in
(D) Accretionary prism
(A) fluvial environment
Q.2 Shear waves do not travel through the
(B) deep marine environment
(A) upper continental crust
(C) tidal flat environment
(B) upper mantle
(D) beach environment
(C) lower mantle
Q.9 Which of the following is the fundamental
(D) outer core
constituent of humic coal?
Q.3 Fossils of burrows and footprints are known
(A) Mineral matter (B) Maceral
as
(C) Lithotype (D) Kerogen
(A) pseudofossils (B) coprolites
Q.10 Which of the following mineral
(C) body fossils (D) trace fossils
assemblages characterizes blueschist facies
Q.4 Horst and graben structures are typically metamorphism of a mafic rock?
formed by
(A) Glaucophane + lawsonite
(A) normal faulting (B) strike-slip faulting
(B) Hornblende + plagioclase ± epidote ± garnet
(C) reverse faulting (D) thrust faulting
(C) Omphacite + garnet
Q.5 Dicroidium is known from the
(D) Phengite + chlorite + garnet
(A) Pachmarhi Formation
Q. 11 – Q. 30 carry two marks each.
(B) Raniganj Formation
Q.11 Match the geomorphic features in Group I
(C) Panchet Formation with corresponding environments in Group II.

(D) Denwa Formation

Q.6 Permian is a/an

 Q.15 Figures I, II and III are the outcrop patterns
of three inclined beds P, Q and R on a flat
ground. P is the oldest and R is the youngest
amongst these beds. Identify the correct option
that explains repetition of beds in the figure
(A) P-3 Q-4 R-1 S-2

(B) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-2

(C) P-2 Q-1 R-4 S-3

(D) P-2 Q-4 R-1 S-3

Q.12 Match the bivalves in Group I with their (A) I- anticline; II- syncline; III- fault
modes of life in Group II
(B) I- syncline; II-anticline; III- fault

(C) I- fault; II- anticline; III- syncline

(D) I- syncline; II- fault; III-anticline

Q.16 The figure shows stereographic projections

(A) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3 of the axial plane and the hinge line of a fold.
Which one of the following folds is represented
(B) P-4 Q-3 R-2 S-1
in the figure?
(C) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-1

(D) P-2 Q-1 R-4 S-3

Q.13 Which of the following changes occurred

during the evolution of Equidae?

(A) Number of lateral digits or toes increases

(B) Decrease in hypsodonty

(C) Lengthening of skull in front of the orbit (A) Upright plunging

(D) Limb ratios remained constant (C) Reclined
Q.14 Which of the following rocks occurs (B) Upright non-plunging
typically in a ductile shear zone?
(D) Recumbent
(A) Gouge
Q.17 Figures X and Y show profile sections of
(B) Breccia folds traced by two cross-bedded sandstone
(C) Pseudotachylite beds. Which one of the following is the correct
interpretation?
(D) Mylonite
(A) X- Antiformal anticline; Y- Antiformal
syncline
(A) trigonal rhombohedron
(B) X- Antiformal anticline; Y- Synformal syncline
(C) trigonal dipyramid
(C) X- Overturned antiform; Y- Overturned
synform (B) hexagonal scalenohedron

(D) X-Antiformal syncline; Y- Synformal anticline (D) hexagonal dipyramid

Q.18 On a geological map of a flat area, the Q.21 Which of the following minerals exhibits
plunge direction of an antiformal anticline is the optic interference figure given below?

(A) towards the fold closure

(B) away from the fold closure

(C) towards the dip direction of the left limb

(D) towards the dip direction of the right limb

Q.19 Match the Precambrian lithounits in Group

I with corresponding cratons in Group II. (A) Quartz (B) Diopside

(C) Garnet (D) Orthoclase

Q.22 Match the minerals in Group I with

corresponding characteristic properties in Group
II.

(A) P-2 Q-4 R-1 S-3

(B) P-3 Q-4 R-1 S-2

(C) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-2

(D) P-2 Q-1 R-4 S-3 (A) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3
Q.20 The stereographic projection given below (B) P-4 Q-1 R-3 S-2
represents a
(C) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-1

(D) P-2 Q-3 R-1 S-4

Q.23 Match the metamorphic rocks in Group I IV. In a trough cross-bedding, the upper
with corresponding parent rocks in Group II. bounding surface is planar and the lower
bounding surface is curved

(A) II and III (B) II, III and IV

(C) I, II and III (D) I, III and IV

Q.27 Match the sedimentary structures in

(A) P-4 Q-3 R-1 S-2 (B) P-4 Q-2 R-1 S-3 Group I with the corresponding processes in
Group II.
(C) P-2 Q-4 R-1 S-3 (D) P-4 Q-3 R-2 S-1

Q.24 Match the fuels in Group I with

corresponding areas of occurrence in Group II.

(A) P-3 Q-4 R-1 S-2 (B) P-3 Q-4 R-2 S-1

(C) P-4 Q-3 R-1 S-2 (D) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-1

Q.28 An ore mineral has the following physical

(A) P-4 Q-1 R-3 S-2 (B) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3
properties: (1) metallic lustre, (2) steel-grey
(C) P-3 Q-4 R-2 S-1 (D) P-2 Q-4 R-1 S-3 color, (3) two sets of octahedral cleavage, (4)
high specific gravity, and (5) makes mark on
Q.25 Match the features in Group I with their paper. Identify the ore mineral.
characteristic rocks / rock suite in Group II.
(A) sphalerite (B) magnetite

(C) galena (D) bornite

Q.29 Which of the following are the

characteristics of a typical porphyry copper
deposit?
(A) P-2 Q-1 R-3 S-4 (B) P-1 Q-3 R-4 S-2
I. Associated with granitic rocks
(C) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-2 (D) P-3 Q-2 R-1 S-4
II. Low-grade and high tonnage of ore
Q.26 Which of the following statements are
correct? III. Presence of alteration zones

I. In a planar tabular cross-bedding, the upper IV. Occurrence in convergent tectonic setting
and lower bounding surfaces are planar and (A) II only (B) I and IV only
parallel
(C) I, II, III and IV (D) I, III and IV only
II. In a planar tabular cross-bedding, the upper
and lower bounding surfaces are planar but not Q.30 Match the metal deposits in Group I with
parallel the corresponding processes in Group II.

III. In a trough cross-bedding, both the upper

and the lower bounding surfaces are curved
 (A) Triangular facets

(B) Sudden topographic jump

(C) Ox-bow lake

(D) Point bar

(A) P-1 Q-3 R-2 S-4 (B) P-3 Q-4 R-2 S-1
Q.34 Which of the following gastropods
(C) P-3 Q-4 R-1 S-2 (D) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-1 has/have siphonal canal?

SECTION - B (A) Cerithium (B) Cypraea

MULTIPLE SELECT QUESTIONS (MSQ) (C) Fusus (D) Murex

Q. 31 – Q. 40 carry two marks each.
Q.35 Which of the following is/are mode(s) of
Q.31 Which of the following statement(s) is/are preservation of fossils?
correct for a plot of (87Sr/86Sr) versus
(87Rb/86Sr) of a rock which has evolved in a (A) Small organisms get trapped on viscous
closed system? resins secreted by trees

(A) The slopes of the lines of evolution for the (B) Leaves preserved as thin films of carbon
minerals in the rock are all equal and positive
(C) Negative impressions of hard parts of
(B) The slopes of the lines of evolution for the organisms
minerals in the rock are all equal and negative
(D) Mineral growths that branch like ferns
(C) The slope of the isochron is identical in
Q.36 Select the pair(s) that is/are correctly
direction to the slope of the lines of evolution
matched.
for the minerals in the rock
(A) Lathi Formation – Jurassic wood fossils
(D) The slope of the isochron is opposite in
direction to the slope of the lines of evolution (B) Pinjor Formation – Cretaceous ammonoid
for the minerals in the rock fossils

Q.32 Which of the following statements is/are (C) Panchet Formation – Triassic reptile fossils
correct with reference to subsurface water?
(D) Kota Formation – Permian glossopterid
(A) The perched water table occurs below the fossils
water table
Q.37 Choose the reaction(s) indicating
(B) Vadose water occurs in the zone of aeration metamorphism of pelites at T> 600 °C and P< 8
kbar.
(C) For significant groundwater underflow, the
medium must be highly permeable (A) albite + actinolite → hornblende + quartz

(D) Intersection of the water table with the land (B) muscovite + quartz → sillimanite + K-
surface can result in the formation of a spring feldspar + H2O

Q.33 Which of the following geomorphic (C) muscovite + biotite + quartz + H2O →
features indicate(s) the presence of a fault? sillimanite + melt

(D) albite → jadeite + quartz

Q.38 Select the correct statement(s). (D) Melt of composition X will give rise to a rock
containing nepheline+albite.
(A) Laccoliths are convex upward whereas
lopoliths are convex downward bodies SECTION – C
(B) Laccoliths can form from any type of magma NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE (NAT)
whereas lopoliths form only from basaltic Q. 41 – Q. 50 carry one mark each.
magma
Q.41 The intensity of an earthquake of
(C) Laccoliths show layered structures whereas magnitude 8 on the Richter scale is greater than
lopoliths lack any layering the intensity of an earthquake of magnitude 5
(D) Laccoliths are smaller in dimensions than on the same scale by ___________ times.
lopoliths Q.42 Assume: (i) geothermal gradient = 25
Q.39 Select the correct statement(s). °C/km in the crust, (ii) density of the crustal
rocks = 3000 kg/m3, and (iii) acceleration due to
(A) Phenocrysts are found in igneous rocks gravity = 10 m/s2. Based on these values, the
whereas porphyroblasts are found in lithostatic pressure at a point where
metamorphic rocks temperature is 400 °C will be __________ MPa.

(B) Phenocrysts are indicators of crystallization Q.43 The radii of A+2 and B- ions are 1.12Å and
history whereas porphyroblasts indicate 1.31Å, respectively. The coordination number of
metamorphic history A+2 in mineral AB2 is_____________.

(C) Porphyroblasts are relict grains, relatively Q.44 In a sedimentary rock, the diameters of
larger than matrix minerals in deformed igneous two grains A and B are 1𝜙 and 3𝜙, respectively.
rocks The difference in diameters between A and B is
_________ mm (rounded off to two decimal
(D) Poikiloblastic texture is found in igneous
places).
rocks whereas poikilitic texture is found in
metamorphic rocks Q.45 A light ray passes from mineral A to
mineral B having refractive indices of 1.750 and
Q.40 Based on the given schematic ternary
1.430, respectively. The limiting value of angle of
phase diagram, choose the correct statement(s).
ily. The limiting value of angle of incidence
above which the light ray undergoes total
internal reflection is _______Degree (rounded of
one decimal palces)

Q.46 Throw and heave of a bed offset by a

normal fault are 100 m and 200 m, respectively.
The dip of the fault plane is _________ degree
(rounded off to one decimal place).

(A) Point 1 is the thermal minimum in the Q.47 The difference between Si/O ratios of K-
system. feldspar and olivine is _________ (answer in two
decimal places).
(B) The diopside – albite join acts as a thermal
barrier in the system.

(C) Point 2 and 3 are ternary eutectics.

Q.48 If a crystal contains 5 faces and 8 edges, __________%.
the number of vertices in the crystal
Q.54 The geological map shows the contact
is__________.
between sandstone and limestone. The two
Q.49 At a temperature of 298.15 Kelvin, the free dotted curves are the contours of 400 m and 500
energy change of a reaction (ΔG0) is 19.737 m, respectively. The difference between the dip
kCal/mole. If the universal gas constant (R) = angles of the contact surface along the AB and
1.98717 Calorie/degree/mole, the log10 of the AC directions is __________ degree (rounded off
equilibrium constant K is _____________ to two decimal places)
(rounded off to two decimal places).

Q.50 A normal fault displaces a sandstone bed

such that the dip-slip and the strike-slip
components are 3 m and 4 m, respectively. The
net-slip of the displacement is___________ m.

Q. 51 – Q. 60 carry two marks each.

Q.51 In the given diagram, a 6 km high plateau
is supported by a crustal root of thickness r. The
Q.55 A tabular ore body of 9 km2 area and an
system is in isostatic equilibrium as per Airy’s
average thickness of 9 m has a density of 3000
hypothesis of isostasy. Densities of the crust and
kg/m3. The tonnage (in million tonnes) of the ore
the mantle are 2800 kg/m3 and 3100 kg/m3,
body is ___________.
respectively. Assuming the acceleration due to
gravity to be same throughout the region, the Q.56 Assume that the orbit of the earth is a
thickness of the root (r) is ___________ km. circle of radius 150×106 km. The gravitational
constant and the earth’s orbital velocity are
given as 6.7×10-11 Nm2/kg2 and 30×103 m/s,
respectively. The calculated mass of the sun is
___________×1030 kg (rounded off to two
decimal places)

Q.57 The difference between XAn and XAb in a

feldspar represented by X in the given triangular
diagram is ____________ (answer in one
decimal place)
Q.52 A 50 kg granite boulder gets dislodged
from a cliff of height 20 m and undergoes an
absolute vertical free fall. If the acceleration due
to gravity is 10 m/s2, the boulder will hit the
ground with a velocity of _____________ m/s.

Q.53 Mass and volume of a fully dried soil

sample are 500 g and 250 cm3, respectively. The
average density of the particles in the soil
sample is 2.5 g/cm3. The void ratio of the soil
sample is
Q.58 Two vertical wells penetrating a confined
aquifer are 200 m apart. The water surface
elevations in these wells are 35 m and 40 m
above a common reference datum. The
discharge per unit area through the aquifer is
0.05 m/day. Using Darcy’s law, the coefficient of
permeability is _____________m/day.

Q.59 The given P–T diagram shows the relative

stability ranges of andalusite, sillimanite and
kyanite. The difference in degrees of freedom at
points X and Y is ____________.

Q.60 The core and rim compositions of garnet

are (Fe0.75Ca0.90Mn1.35)Al2Si3O12 and
(Fe0.90Ca1.35Mn0.75)Al2Si3O12, respectively. The
difference in mole fractions of spessertine
between the core and the rim is ____________
(answer in one decimal place).