Anatomy 170
Anatomy 170
1. Overview
The great auricular nerve is a sensory branch of the cervical plexus. It arises from the ventral rami of
spinal nerves C2 and C3. This nerve ascends vertically across the sternocleidomastoid (SCM) muscle
to supply sensation to parts of the external ear and face.
2. Course and Distribution
• Arises from C2 and C3 spinal nerves of the cervical plexus
• Emerges at the posterior border of the SCM (Erb’s point)
• Crosses the SCM obliquely, running superiorly toward the parotid region
• Divides into:
o Anterior branch: Supplies skin over the parotid gland and angle of the mandible
o Posterior branch: Supplies the skin over the mastoid process and the posterior surface
of the auricle
3. Areas Supplied
• Skin over the parotid gland
• External ear (lower part)
• Mastoid region
• Angle of the mandible and adjacent face (important in differentiating trigeminal nerve
lesions)
4. Clinical Correlation
• Parotid Surgery: At risk of injury during superficial parotidectomy, leading to numbness of
the ear and jawline
• Erb’s Point Block: Used in regional anesthesia for neck and ear procedures
• Herpes Zoster Oticus (Ramsay Hunt Syndrome): Can involve great auricular distribution
5. High-Yield Points
• Sensory nerve from cervical plexus (C2–C3)
• Crosses sternocleidomastoid superficially
• Supplies skin over parotid gland, auricle, and angle of mandible
• Easily injured during parotid gland surgery
6. MCQs
Q1: The great auricular nerve is a branch of:
A. Mandibular nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Cervical plexus (C2, C3)
D. Greater occipital nerve
E. Auriculotemporal nerve
Answer: C. Cervical plexus (C2, C3)
Explanation: The great auricular nerve arises from the ventral rami of C2 and C3 spinal nerves.
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Q2: During parotidectomy, which nerve is most at risk of injury, resulting in numbness around the ear
and angle of mandible?
A. Facial nerve
B. Auriculotemporal nerve
C. Greater occipital nerve
D. Great auricular nerve
E. Lesser occipital nerve
Answer: D. Great auricular nerve
Explanation: The great auricular nerve crosses the parotid gland and is commonly injured during
surgery, leading to sensory loss.
o LMN signs (flaccid paralysis) and sensory loss in the dermatomes at the level of
lesion
5. Example
A lesion at right T10 spinal cord:
• Right-sided spastic paralysis and loss of proprioception below T10
• Left-sided loss of pain and temperature below T12
• Flaccid paralysis and sensory loss at T10 dermatome level
6. Diagnostic Tools
• MRI: To identify the site and cause of spinal cord hemisection
• Neurological examination: To localize the lesion clinically
7. Management
• Address underlying cause (e.g., surgery for tumor or hematoma)
• Corticosteroids in traumatic cases
• Rehabilitation and physiotherapy
8. High-Yield Points
• BSS = Hemisection of spinal cord
• Ipsilateral loss: motor + vibration + proprioception
• Contralateral loss: pain and temperature (usually 1–2 levels below)
• Classic dissociation between motor and sensory deficits
9. MCQs
Q1: In Brown-Séquard syndrome due to right-sided spinal cord hemisection, which of the following
will be observed below the level of lesion?
A. Right-sided loss of pain and temperature
B. Left-sided spastic paralysis
C. Right-sided spastic paralysis
D. Left-sided loss of proprioception
E. Bilateral loss of crude touch
Answer: C. Right-sided spastic paralysis
Explanation: Corticospinal tract damage on the same side leads to spastic paralysis below the lesion.
Q2: The sensory loss in Brown-Séquard syndrome is best described as:
A. Bilateral loss of pain and temperature below lesion
B. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature, ipsilateral loss of proprioception
C. Ipsilateral loss of all sensations
D. Contralateral loss of all sensations
E. Loss of only vibration sense bilaterally
Answer: B. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature, ipsilateral loss of proprioception
Explanation: This dissociation occurs due to the specific arrangement of spinal tracts and their
decussation levels.
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Q1: The third ventricle is located between which of the following structures?
A. Two cerebral hemispheres
B. Two cerebellar hemispheres
C. Two thalami
D. Two corpora quadrigemina
E. Two ventricles of the heart
Answer: C. Two thalami
Explanation: The third ventricle lies between the medial surfaces of the right and left thalamus.
Q2: Which structure connects the third ventricle with the fourth ventricle?
A. Foramen of Monro
B. Central canal
C. Cerebral aqueduct
D. Interventricular septum
E. Foramen of Luschka
Answer: C. Cerebral aqueduct
Explanation: The cerebral aqueduct connects the third ventricle posteriorly with the fourth ventricle.
Chapter 6: Thalamus
1. Overview
The thalamus is a large, ovoid mass of gray matter that forms the major part of the diencephalon. It
acts as the principal relay station for sensory information traveling to the cerebral cortex.
2. Location and Relations
• Situated bilaterally on either side of the third ventricle
• Superior: Body of the lateral ventricle
• Inferior: Hypothalamus
• Medial: Third ventricle
• Lateral: Posterior limb of internal capsule
3. Subdivisions
Thalamus is divided by a Y-shaped white matter band called the internal medullary lamina into:
• Anterior group
• Medial group
• Lateral group (further subdivided into dorsal and ventral tiers)
Important nuclei:
• Ventral posterolateral (VPL) – Somatic sensation from body
• Ventral posteromedial (VPM) – Somatic sensation from face
• Lateral geniculate body (LGB) – Visual pathway
• Medial geniculate body (MGB) – Auditory pathway
4. Functions
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• A cartilaginous rod
• A muscular component
• A nerve (cranial nerve)
• An artery (aortic arch derivative)
2. List of Pharyngeal Arches and Their Derivatives
Skeletal
Arch Nerve Muscles Artery
Structures
Muscles of mastication,
mylohyoid, anterior belly of Malleus, incus,
1st Mandibular (CN V3) Maxillary artery
digastric, tensor tympani, tensor maxilla, mandible
veli palatini
Arch of aorta
Vagus (CN X - Cricothyroid, pharyngeal
4th Thyroid cartilage (left), subclavian
Superior laryngeal) constrictors, levator veli palatini
(right)
Pulmonary
Vagus (CN X - Intrinsic muscles of larynx (except
6th Cricoid cartilage arteries, ductus
Recurrent laryngeal) cricothyroid)
arteriosus (left)
• DiGeorge syndrome: 3rd and 4th pouch failure → T-cell deficiency (thymic aplasia),
hypocalcemia (parathyroid hypoplasia)
5. High-Yield Points
• Arches form craniofacial muscles and skeleton
• Each arch is innervated by a specific cranial nerve
• Pouches (endodermal) and clefts (ectodermal) form key head and neck structures
• Defects in arches → syndromic craniofacial anomalies
6. MCQs
Q1: Which cranial nerve supplies the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch? A. Trigeminal nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Vagus nerve (recurrent laryngeal)
E. Hypoglossal nerve
Answer: B. Facial nerve
Explanation: The second arch is innervated by the facial nerve (CN VII).
Q2: The stylopharyngeus muscle is derived from which pharyngeal arch? A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
E. Sixth
Answer: C. Third
Explanation: Stylopharyngeus is the only muscle derived from the third pharyngeal arch and is
innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX).
Chapter 8: Mesonephric and Paramesonephric Ducts
1. Overview
These are paired embryological ducts important in the development of the urogenital system.
• Mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts → Male reproductive tract
• Paramesonephric (Müllerian) ducts → Female reproductive tract
2. Development
• In early embryogenesis, both ducts are present in all embryos.
• Differentiation depends on the presence of:
o Testosterone (from Leydig cells)
o Müllerian Inhibiting Substance (MIS) from Sertoli cells
3. Derivatives
Other remnants:
• Mesonephric duct remnants in females: Gartner's duct/cyst
• Paramesonephric duct remnants in males: Appendix testis
4. Clinical Relevance
• Müllerian agenesis (Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome): Failure of
paramesonephric duct development → Absent uterus and upper vagina
• Persistent Müllerian duct syndrome: Due to failure of MIS → Male child with uterus and
fallopian tubes
5. High-Yield Points
• Y chromosome → SRY gene → testes → MIS + testosterone
• Testosterone → Mesonephric duct derivatives
• MIS → Regression of Müllerian duct
• In females (no SRY): Mesonephric ducts regress, Müllerian ducts persist
6. MCQs
Q1: Which structure is derived from the paramesonephric duct? A. Epididymis
B. Vas deferens
C. Fallopian tube
D. Seminal vesicle
E. Prostate
Answer: C. Fallopian tube
Explanation: The paramesonephric ducts give rise to the female reproductive tract including
fallopian tubes.
Q2: Which hormone causes regression of the Müllerian ducts? A. Testosterone
B. Dihydrotestosterone
C. Estrogen
D. Müllerian Inhibiting Substance
E. Progesterone
Answer: D. Müllerian Inhibiting Substance
Explanation: MIS (also called Anti-Müllerian hormone) is secreted by Sertoli cells and causes
regression of the paramesonephric ducts in males.
Chapter 9: Development of Heart
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1. Overview
Heart development begins in the third week of embryogenesis and continues through the eighth week.
It transforms from a simple tube into a complex, four-chambered organ.
2. Embryological Origin
• The heart develops from the mesodermal germ layer, specifically from the cardiogenic area in
the splanchnic mesoderm.
• Two endocardial tubes form and fuse to form the primitive heart tube.
3. Stages of Heart Development
Stage Description
Formation of Heart
Two endocardial tubes fuse to form the primitive heart tube around day 22-23
Tube
The heart tube elongates and loops rightward to establish the spatial
Heart Looping
arrangement of chambers
Formation of atrial and ventricular septa, division of the heart into four
Septation
chambers
6. High-Yield Points
• Heart development starts at week 3 and ends by week 8.
• Neural crest cells play a key role in outflow tract septation.
• Endocardial cushions are crucial for septation of atria, ventricles, and valves.
• Foramen ovale allows right-to-left shunting in fetal life.
7. MCQs
Q1: What structure separates the aorta and pulmonary artery during heart development?
A. Septum primum
B. Endocardial cushions
C. Neural crest cells
D. Septum secundum
E. Truncus arteriosus
Answer: C. Neural crest cells
Explanation: Neural crest cells contribute to the conotruncal septum that separates the aorta and
pulmonary artery.
Q2: Which septum forms the foramen ovale?
A. Septum primum
B. Septum secundum
C. Muscular ventricular septum
D. Membranous septum
E. Endocardial cushions
Answer: B. Septum secundum
Explanation: The septum secundum forms the flap of the foramen ovale in fetal heart.
Chapter 10: Openings of Diaphragm
1. Overview
The diaphragm is a musculotendinous structure separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities. It has
three major openings to allow passage of important structures between these cavities.
2. Major Openings of Diaphragm
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Esophageal hiatus T10 Esophagus, vagus nerves (anterior and posterior trunks)
3. Coronary Dominance
• Determined by which artery gives rise to the posterior descending artery (PDA).
• Right dominant (85%): PDA from RCA.
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1. Overview
The liver is divided into anatomical and functional segments based on vascular inflow, biliary
drainage, and venous outflow. Understanding liver segments is essential for surgeries like hepatic
resection and transplantation.
2. Couinaud’s Classification (Segmental Anatomy)
The liver is divided into 8 functional segments (I to VIII), each with its own vascular inflow, outflow,
and biliary drainage.
3. Division of Liver
• Left and right lobes: Divided by the middle hepatic vein (Cantlie’s line), an imaginary line
from the gallbladder fossa to the IVC.
• Left lobe: Segments II, III, IV
• Right lobe: Segments V, VI, VII, VIII
• Caudate lobe (I): Functionally independent, drains directly into the IVC.
4. Blood Supply and Venous Drainage
• Each segment has its own branch of the portal vein and hepatic artery.
• Venous drainage is via hepatic veins: right, middle, and left hepatic veins.
5. Clinical Correlations
• Segmental anatomy guides hepatic resections and transplantation.
• Tumors or lesions localized to specific segments can be resected precisely.
• Caudate lobe involvement important in certain pathologies due to its unique drainage.
6. High-Yield Points
• The liver has 8 functional segments per Couinaud’s classification.
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Lateral
Contain inferior Lateral to medial umbilical Important surgical
Umbilical
epigastric vessels (not ligaments, these folds cover landmarks during hernia
Ligaments
ligaments but folds) vessels repair
(folds)
3. Detailed Description
• Median Umbilical Ligament:
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Explanation: The median umbilical ligament is the fibrous remnant of the urachus, connecting the
bladder to the umbilicus.
Q2: Which structure is covered by the lateral umbilical fold?
A. Umbilical artery
B. Urachus
C. Inferior epigastric vessels
D. Median umbilical ligament
E. Femoral artery
Answer: C. Inferior epigastric vessels
Explanation: The lateral umbilical fold is a peritoneal fold covering the inferior epigastric vessels.
Chapter 14: Sibson Fascia
1. Overview
Sibson fascia, also called the suprapleural membrane, is a thickening of connective tissue that
reinforces the thoracic inlet, playing a crucial role in protecting the apex of the lung and maintaining
the integrity of the thoracic cavity.
2. Anatomy and Location
• It is a fibrous extension of the endothoracic fascia.
• Extends from the transverse process of the C7 vertebra and the first rib to the inner
border of the first rib and costal cartilage.
• Covers the apex of the lung as it passes through the thoracic inlet into the neck.
3. Structure
• Made of dense connective tissue fibers.
• Continuous with the prevertebral fascia of the neck.
• Reinforces the thoracic inlet, providing a barrier against the herniation of lung tissue into the
neck.
4. Clinical Relevance
• Acts as a protective membrane preventing cervical extension of apical lung tumors (Pancoast
tumors).
• Important landmark in thoracic outlet syndrome, where structures like the subclavian artery
and brachial plexus may be compressed near the thoracic inlet.
• May be incised surgically to access the thoracic inlet or apex of the lung.
5. High-Yield Points
• Sibson fascia = suprapleural membrane, reinforcement at thoracic inlet.
• Attaches to transverse process of C7 and first rib.
• Protects the apex of the lung and supports structures entering/leaving the thorax.
• Continuity with prevertebral fascia.
6. MCQs
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Number of
Group Location Drainage Area
Nodes
Medial to the femoral Drain deep structures of the lower limb 3–5 nodes
Deep inguinal
vein, deep to the fascia and receive efferents from superficial (including
nodes
lata (in femoral canal) nodes Cloquet’s node)
Portosystemic anastomoses are vascular connections between the portal venous system and the
systemic venous system. These sites become clinically important when portal hypertension develops,
causing increased blood flow through these collateral channels leading to varices and other
complications.
2. Key Sites of Portosystemic Anastomosis
Systemic Vein
Site Portal Vein Tributary Clinical Manifestation
Tributary
Retroperitoneal Veins of colon, pancreas, Lumbar and iliac veins Collateral veins, less
Areas kidney (portal tributaries) (systemic) common clinically
3. Pathophysiology
• In portal hypertension, blood flow through the liver is obstructed.
• Blood is diverted through portosystemic anastomoses into systemic veins, which are not
designed to handle such high volume and pressure.
• This leads to dilatation of veins and formation of varices, which can rupture and bleed.
4. Clinical Importance
• Esophageal varices are a life-threatening cause of upper GI bleeding in cirrhosis.
• Caput medusae is a visible sign of portal hypertension around the umbilicus.
• Internal hemorrhoids due to rectal vein dilatation can cause bleeding and discomfort.
5. High-Yield Points
• Know the four major sites of portosystemic anastomoses: lower esophagus, paraumbilical
region, rectum, retroperitoneal veins.
• Esophageal varices cause hematemesis; internal hemorrhoids cause painless rectal bleeding.
• Caput medusae are dilated periumbilical veins visible on the abdominal wall.
6. MCQs
Q1: The left gastric vein forms an anastomosis with which systemic vein?
A. Azygos vein
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Superior mesenteric vein
D. Femoral vein
E. Renal vein
Answer: A. Azygos vein
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Explanation: The left gastric vein (portal) anastomoses with esophageal veins draining into the
azygos vein (systemic).
Q2: Caput medusae is caused by dilatation of which veins?
A. Paraumbilical veins
B. Femoral veins
C. Superior rectal veins
D. Lumbar veins
E. Inferior epigastric veins
Answer: A. Paraumbilical veins
Explanation: Caput medusae results from dilated paraumbilical veins in portal hypertension.
Chapter 17: Inguinal Ring
1. Overview
The inguinal ring is an important anatomical structure forming the entrance and exit of the inguinal
canal, through which structures such as the spermatic cord (in males) and the round ligament (in
females) pass. It is clinically significant in the context of inguinal hernias.
2. Types of Inguinal Rings
There are two inguinal rings:
Structure
Inguinal Ring Location Function
Type
• Indirect inguinal hernia enters the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels
and can pass through the entire canal to the superficial ring.
• Direct inguinal hernia protrudes through Hesselbach's triangle medial to the inferior
epigastric vessels and pushes through the abdominal wall near the superficial ring.
• Knowledge of ring anatomy is vital for diagnosis and surgical repair of hernias.
5. High-Yield Points
• Deep inguinal ring = entrance, lateral to inferior epigastric vessels.
• Superficial inguinal ring = exit, triangular opening in external oblique aponeurosis.
• Indirect hernia: through deep ring → canal → superficial ring.
• Direct hernia: through Hesselbach’s triangle, medial to inferior epigastric vessels.
6. MCQs
Q1: The deep inguinal ring is located lateral to which structure?
A. Inferior epigastric vessels
B. Superior epigastric vessels
C. Femoral vein
D. Pubic symphysis
E. Inguinal ligament
Answer: A. Inferior epigastric vessels
Explanation: The deep inguinal ring lies lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.
Q2: Which structure passes through the superficial inguinal ring?
A. Femoral artery
B. Spermatic cord
C. Obturator nerve
D. Ilioinguinal nerve
E. Genitofemoral nerve
Answer: B. Spermatic cord
Explanation: The spermatic cord exits the abdominal cavity via the superficial inguinal ring.
Chapter 18: Brachial Plexus
1. Overview
The brachial plexus is a complex network of nerves that supplies motor and sensory innervation to the
upper limb. It arises from the anterior rami of the lower four cervical nerves (C5–C8) and the first
thoracic nerve (T1).
2. Anatomy of Brachial Plexus
3. Roots
• Emerge between the anterior and middle scalene muscles.
• Carry both motor and sensory fibers.
4. Trunks
• Upper trunk: union of C5 and C6 roots
• Middle trunk: continuation of C7 root
• Lower trunk: union of C8 and T1 roots
5. Divisions
• Anterior divisions mainly supply flexor muscles (anterior compartments).
• Posterior divisions supply extensor muscles (posterior compartments).
6. Cords
• Named according to their relationship with the axillary artery.
• Lateral cord: anterior divisions of upper and middle trunks
• Posterior cord: all posterior divisions
• Medial cord: anterior division of lower trunk
7. Terminal Branches
C5- Most anterior forearm muscles, Lateral palm and palmar fingers 1-3 and
Median
T1 thenar muscles half of 4
Ape hand
Loss of wrist flexion, Supracondylar
Median Lateral palm deformity,
C5-T1 thumb opposition, finger fracture, carpal
nerve and fingers carpal tunnel
flexion (lateral 3.5 digits) tunnel
syndrome
Midshaft humerus
Radial Loss of wrist and finger Posterior arm
C5-T1 Wrist drop fracture, Saturday
nerve extension and forearm
night palsy
Loss of
sensation over Loss of Surgical neck
Axillary C5- Paralysis of deltoid and
deltoid shoulder fracture of
nerve C6 teres minor
(regimental abduction humerus
badge)
Pelvic fracture,
Femoral Anterior thigh Difficulty in
L2-L4 Weakness of quadriceps femoral sheath
nerve and medial leg knee extension
injury
Common
Foot dorsiflexion and Lateral leg and Fibular neck
peroneal L4-S2 Foot drop
eversion loss dorsum of foot fracture
nerve
• Sign: Froment’s sign (difficulty holding paper between thumb and index)
Radial Nerve Palsy
• Cause: Midshaft humerus fracture, prolonged compression (Saturday night palsy)
• Motor: Wrist drop (loss of wrist and finger extension)
• Sensory: Loss over posterior arm and dorsum of hand
• Sign: Inability to extend wrist and fingers
Axillary Nerve Palsy
• Cause: Fracture of surgical neck of humerus, anterior shoulder dislocation
• Motor: Weakness of deltoid (loss of abduction from 15 to 90 degrees)
• Sensory: Loss over regimental badge area on lateral shoulder
4. High-Yield Points
• Wrist drop → radial nerve palsy
• Claw hand → ulnar nerve palsy
• Ape hand → median nerve palsy
• Loss of shoulder abduction → axillary nerve palsy
• Foot drop → common peroneal nerve palsy
5. MCQs
Q1: Which nerve is most commonly injured in a midshaft humerus fracture?
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Axillary nerve
E. Musculocutaneous nerve
Answer: C. Radial nerve
Explanation: The radial nerve runs in the radial groove on the posterior humerus shaft and is
vulnerable in midshaft fractures.
Q2: Claw hand deformity results from injury to which nerve?
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Axillary nerve
E. Femoral nerve
Answer: B. Ulnar nerve
Explanation: Ulnar nerve palsy leads to claw hand due to paralysis of the intrinsic hand muscles.
Chapter 20: Stripping GSN Below Knee
1. Overview
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The Great Saphenous Nerve (GSN) is a misnomer here; you likely mean the Great Saphenous Vein
(GSV), which is commonly involved in varicose vein surgeries including stripping procedures.
Stripping of the Great Saphenous Vein below the knee is a surgical technique performed to treat
varicose veins and chronic venous insufficiency.
2. Anatomy of Great Saphenous Vein (GSV)
• The GSV is the longest superficial vein of the lower limb.
• Originates from the dorsal venous arch of the foot, ascends anterior to the medial malleolus,
runs along the medial aspect of the leg and thigh.
• Terminates by draining into the femoral vein at the saphenofemoral junction (near the groin).
• Numerous tributaries including the anterior accessory saphenous vein and posterior accessory
saphenous vein.
3. Indications for GSV Stripping
• Symptomatic varicose veins
• Recurrent varicosities after previous treatment
• Chronic venous insufficiency with venous ulcers
4. Stripping Procedure
• Usually done under regional or general anesthesia.
• A small incision is made at the saphenofemoral junction to ligate and divide the GSV.
• Another incision is made below the knee (usually near the medial malleolus or mid-calf).
• A flexible stripper is inserted into the vein and passed proximally or distally to strip out the
vein segment.
• The procedure removes the incompetent vein segment to improve venous drainage.
5. Important Considerations
• Below knee stripping is preferred in some cases to reduce complications like injury to the
saphenous nerve.
• Avoids damage to the common peroneal nerve and saphenous nerve branches.
• Postoperative care includes compression stockings and early mobilization.
6. Complications
• Hematoma and bleeding
• Infection
• Nerve injury (especially saphenous nerve → numbness or dysesthesia on medial leg)
• Deep vein thrombosis (rare)
7. Anatomy Related to Nerve Injury
• The saphenous nerve, a sensory branch of the femoral nerve, accompanies the GSV in the
leg.
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9. MCQs
Q1: The great saphenous vein drains into which deep vein?
A. Popliteal vein
B. Femoral vein
C. Posterior tibial vein
D. Small saphenous vein
E. Iliac vein
Answer: B. Femoral vein
Explanation: The GSV terminates at the saphenofemoral junction draining into the femoral vein.
Q2: Which nerve is at risk during stripping of the great saphenous vein below the knee?
A. Tibial nerve
B. Common peroneal nerve
C. Saphenous nerve
D. Femoral nerve
E. Superficial peroneal nerve
Answer: C. Saphenous nerve
Explanation: The saphenous nerve runs close to the GSV in the leg and can be injured during vein
stripping.
Chapter 21: Histology – Types of Epithelium and Basics
1. Overview
Epithelium is a tissue composed of tightly packed cells that cover body surfaces, line cavities, and
form glands. It functions as a protective barrier, absorptive surface, secretory tissue, and in sensation.
3. Classification of Epithelium
A. Based on Number of Cell Layers:
5. Basement Membrane
• A thin extracellular layer separating epithelium from connective tissue.
• Composed of basal lamina (lamina lucida + lamina densa) and reticular lamina.
• Functions in support, filtration, and tissue repair.
6. Functions of Epithelium
• Protection: Barrier against mechanical injury, microbes
• Absorption: Nutrients, ions
• Secretion: Glandular epithelium
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7. High-Yield Points
• Epithelium is avascular, rests on basement membrane
• Simple epithelium suited for absorption and filtration
• Stratified epithelium protects against abrasion
• Transitional epithelium is specialized for stretching
• Goblet cells produce mucus to trap particles
8. MCQs
Q1: Which epithelium type is found lining the alveoli?
A. Simple cuboidal
B. Stratified squamous keratinized
C. Simple squamous
D. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated
E. Transitional
Answer: C. Simple squamous
Explanation: Simple squamous epithelium facilitates gas exchange in alveoli due to its thinness.
Q2: The epithelium that lines the urinary bladder is:
A. Simple squamous
B. Transitional epithelium
C. Stratified cuboidal
D. Pseudostratified columnar
E. Simple columnar
Answer: B. Transitional epithelium
Explanation: Transitional epithelium allows for stretching as the bladder fills.