THE TOEFL ITP® TEST

Section 1 Listening
1. Before you listen to the recording, read the test questions.
You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For questions 1-8, choose the best answer (A, B or
C).
1. You hear a woman on the radio talking about a politician. What is her opinion of the politician?
(A) He can be trusted
(B) He keeps changing his mind
(C) He is not like other politicians

2. You hear a woman talking about a song. What does she say about the song?
(A) The performance didn’t write it
(B) It has been recorded by lots of other performers
(C) It deserves to be more popular

3. You hear two characters talking in a radio play. Where are they?
(A) In a hotel
(B) At home
(C) At an airport

4. You hear a writer talking on the radio about criticism. What is his attitude to criticism?
(A) He rarely pays attention to it
(B) He thinks about it
(C) He gets upset by it

5. You hear someone talking about learning to play a musical instrument. What is her main point?
(A) Everyone should learn an instrument
(B) Some instruments are harder to learn than others
(C) She wishes she could play an instrument

6. You hear two people talking about a reality TV programme. What do the two speakers agree about?
(A) There are too many programmes of that kind
(B) It won’t be as good as other programmes of that kind
(C) It will be very popular

7. You hear someone talking about a sport stadium. What does he say about the stadium?
(A) It’s difficult to get to it
(B) It can be hard to get tickets for it
(C) It has replaced another stadium

8. You overhear a manager talking to an employee at work. What is the manager doing?
(A) Accusing her of doing something wrong
(B) Sympathizing with her about a problem
(C) Apologizing for a mistake
2. You will hear five short extracts in which people are talking about phone calls they received. For questions
19-23, choose from the list (A-H) how each speaker felt during the phone call. Use the letters only once.
There are three extra letters which you do not need to use.
A. Annoyed
Speaker 1 19

B. Relieved
Speaker 2 20

C. Confused
Speaker 3 21

D. Bored
Speaker 4 22

E. Disappointed
Speaker 5 23

F. Worried
G. Amused
H. Sympathetic

3. You will hear an interview with an American actress who recently made a film in Britain. For questions 24-
30, choose the best answer (A, B or C).

24. What does Emma say about the weather in Britain?

(A) It took her some time to get used to it
(B) Her character in the film was wrong about it
(C) It was quite a pleasant change for her

25. What does Emma say about her relationship with the actors who played her roommates?
(A) It was the same in real life as in the film
(B) She was surprised by how good it was
(C) It has been difficult to continue it

26. What does Emma say about English and British accents?
(A) She was able to copy one of the other actor’s accents
(B) She cannot do a range of English and British accents
(C) She doesn’t like the sound of the welsh accent

27. What does Emma say about her American accent?

(A) She didn’t like comments that were made about it
(B) She isn’t really aware of having one
(C) Lots of people don’t notice it
28. What does Emma say about boarding schools?
(A) She thinks they are the best kind of school
(B) She has changed her opinion of them
(C) She only knows about them from books and films

29. What does Emma say about the dancing scene in the movie?
(A) She had to repeat it several times
(B) She finds it embarrassing to watch it
(C) She had done that kind of thing before

30. Emma says that if you’re a movie star

(A) You will receive a lot of unfair criticism
(B) You cannot expect to be popular with everyone
(C) You are likely to become sensitive to negative comments

4. You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For questions 1-8, choose the best answer (A, B
or C).

1. You overhear two people talking about a disagreement. What feeling does the woman express?
(A) Willingness to discuss the matter again
(B) Regret at what she said
(C) Annoyance at what happened

2. You hear a football supporter talking about a player. What is his opinion of the player?
(A) He’s getting better
(B) He’s not as good as he was
(C) He’s never been very good

3. You overhear a college administrator talking on the phone about a lesson. What does she tell the caller?
(A) The cost of one lesson will be refunded
(B) The lesson will happen at a later date
(C) A different teacher will take the lesson

4. You hear a man talking about a company. Who is the speaker?

(A) A manager at the company
(B) A business journalist
(C) A worker at the company

5. You hear a man and a woman discussing a social arrangement. What is the woman’s purpose?
(A) To find out information
(B) To change the arrangement
(C) To avoid going
 6. You hear someone on the radio talking about recycling. What is the speaker’s main topic?
(A) Problems associated with recycling
(B) Why recycling is necessary
(C) The amount of recycling that is happening

7. You overhear two people talking in an airport waiting area. What is the situation?
(A) They’re going on a business trip
(B) They’re going to live in another country
(C) They’re going on holiday

8. You hear a man talking about a phone call. What does he say about the call?
(A) It took longer than it should have taken
(B) He was told something surprising during it
(C) He had not expected the call

5. You will hear five short extracts in which people are talking about trips they went on. For questions 19-23,
choose from the list (A-H) what each person says about their trip. Use the letters only once. There are three
extra letters which you do not need to use.

A. It started badly.

Speaker 1 19

B. It involved too many people.

Speaker 2 20

C. It was exciting.

Speaker 3 21

D. It was enjoyed more by some people than the others.

Speaker 4 22

E. It lasted too long.

Speaker 5 23

F. It was better than I had expected.

G. It finished early.
H. It was badly organized.
6. You will hear an interview with someone who started the activity known as ‘’free running’’. For questions
24-30, choose the best answer (A, B or C).

24. Sebastien says that he does free running because

(A) Other activities became boring for him
(B) If feels like a natural activity to him
(C) It is an individual activity

25. What does Sebastien say about fitness and taking up free running?
(A) Fit people are keen to do difficult things immediately
(B) People who are not fit don’t learn very quickly
(C) Free running is a good way of getting fit

26. What does Sebastien say about the danger of free running?
(A) It is not as great as some people think
(B) Most free runners pay no attention to it
(C) It is reduced as much as possible

27. What does Sebastien say about taking risks?

(A) He used to take more risks than he does now
(B) He always tries to take the minimum amount of risk
(C) Some of the things he does involve no risk

28. When Sebastien jumped across the stadium roof?

(A) He felt that he could easily jump the required distance
(B) He had to control his nerves before he did the jump
(C) He knew that he would land on a mat if he fell

29. What does Sesabstien say about his fear of heights?

(A) People don’t believe that he has it
(B) He always has to overcome it
(C) It is not as great as it used to be

30. What does Sebastien say about where free running can be done?
(A) People’s opinion on this are changing
(B) His own opinions on this have changed
(C) Some people have the wrong opinion on this
Section 2 Structure and written expression
Time-25 minutes
There are two types of questions in this next section. Both types are designed to measure your ability to
recognize standard written English.

Part 1: Sentence Completion

Directions: questions 1 to 15 are not complete sentences. One or more words are left out of each sentence.
Under each sentence, you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word
or phrase that completes the sentence correctly. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question
and fill in the oval that corresponds to the letter of your answer choice.
Birds make nests in trees …… hide their young in the leaves and branches.
(A) Can where they
(B) Where they can
(C) Where can they
(D) Where can

The sentence should read, ‘’Birds make nests in trees where they can hide their young in the leaves and
branches’’. Therefore, you should choose answer (B).

Now begin work on the questions.

1. Van Gogh’s Sunflowers …….. $39.9 million, three times the previous record.
(A) Once sold for
(B) For sale once
(C) Selling for once
(D) For once sold

2. Some monkeys, …………, use their tails in a way similar to a hand.

(A) Like the spider monkey
(B) Spider monkey likes
(C) To the spider monkey
(D) The monkey likes the spider

3. Black, red, and even bright pink diamonds ……………….. .

(A) Occasionally to find
(B) Occasionally found
(C) Have occasionally been found
(D) Have occasionally found

4. Between the California Coast Range and the Sierra Nevada …….. .
(A) Great Central Valley
(B) The great Central Valley
(C) Being the Great Central Valley
(D) Lies the great Central Valley
5. It is gravity ………. Objects toward the earth.
(A) Pulling
(B) That pulls
(C) To pull
(D) What pulls

6. …………. their territories but rather than fight, they howl.

(A) Wolves protectively jealous
(B) Jealous of wolves
(C) Protection of wolves
(D) Wolves jealously protect

7. ……….. strength of 70 horses, a forklift toils all day long in a warehouse lifting great weights.
(A) Because the
(B) With the
(C) Some
(D) The

8. The growth of two-income families in the United States ………. Of people moving to a new social class.
(A) Has resulted in millions
(B) Results of millions
(C) Millions of results
(D) Resulting in millions

9. Using a globe can be ….…… it is educational.

(A) Enjoyable
(B) To enjoy as
(C) As enjoyable
(D) As enjoyable as

10. Each mediocre book we read means one less great book that we would otherwise have a chance ….. .
(A) To read them
(B) Read
(C) Reading
(D) To read

11. Most accidents in the home can be prevented by …….. elimination of hazards.
(A) That
(B) That the
(C) There is a
(D) The
12. ……….. problems in sailing in tropical seas is the coral reefs.
(A) One of the biggest
(B) The biggest one
(C) Of the biggest one
(D) There are the biggest

13. The strongest dump trucks work in rock quarries, ………… tons of rocks and soil at one time.
(A) That they move
(B) They move
(C) Where they move
(D) Which they move

14. Alice Freeman, ………….. to head Wellesley College at age 27, is one of the youngest college presidents
in history.
(A) Who was appointed
(B) Has been appointed
(C) That is appointed
(D) Is appointed

15. Helen Keller lost both her sight and hearing after a severe illness ………… .
(A) Of her age in 19 months
(B) She was 19 months old
(C) When she was 19 months old
(D) When 19 months old she was

Part 2: Error Identification

Directions: In questions 16 to 40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases marked (A), (B), (C),
and (D). choose the one word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then,
on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the oval that corresponds to the letter of
your answer choice.

Aspirin is recommend to many people for its ability to thin the blood.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

The sentence should read, ‘’Aspirin is recommended to many people for its ability to thin the blood’’.
Therefore, you should choose answer (A).

Now begin work on the questions.

16. One of history’s most spectacular executions were that of Damiens, the unsuccessful assassin of Louis
XV of France.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
17. Globes and maps have always been important throughout history, but never as more so than today.

(A) (B) (C) (D _

18. Because vitamins are contained in a wide variety of foods, people seldom lack of most them.

(A) (B) (C) (D

[Link] experiment indicate that people remember more math problems that they cannot solve than
those they are able to solve.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

20. The sun is a huge fiery globe at a average distance of 93 000 000 miles from the Earth.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

21. Before becoming successful, Charles Kettering, former vice president of General Motors, was so poor that
he has to use the hayloft of a barn as a laboratory.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

22. Despite the metric system is used throughout the world, it is still not commonly used in the United States.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

23. Some gorillas beat their chests as an express of high spirits.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

24. Because Walter Reed’s efforts and those of the people who worked with him, human beings no longer
fear the dreaded disease of yellow fever.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

25. Studying the science of logic is one way to cultivate one’s reason skills.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

26. The continental shelves is the shallow area of the ocean floor that is closest to the continents.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

27. The average adult get two to five colds each year.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

[Link] have been found to contain a particular type of fat that may help lower blood cholesterol levels.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

29. Benjamin Franklin’s ability to learn from observation and experience contributed greatly to him success in
public life.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
30. Industrial lasers are most often used for cutting, welding, drilling, and measure.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

31. In the last 10 years, Mexican government has reduced the number of its state-owned companies to about
half.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

32. Psychologists at the University of Kansas has studied the effects of the color of a room on people’s
behavior.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

[Link], the illustrious French philosophy, was elected mayor of Bordeaux, which was his hometown.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

34. Certain pollens are more likely to cause an allergic reaction than another.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

35. Computers have made access to information instantly available just by push a few buttons.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

36. Mined over 2 000 years ago, copper is one of the earliest know metals.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

37. Many of the early work of T.S Eliot expresses the anguish and barrenness of modern life and the isolation
of the individual.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

38. A sore throat interferes with daily life by making swallow difficult.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

39. A farmer’s tractor is like a powerful horse, as it plows field, pulls trailers, and moves heavy loads.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

40. During wedding ceremonies in the United States guests are usually silence.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Section 3 Reading Comprehension
Time-55 minutes

Directions: In this section, you will read several passages. Each passage is followed by questions about it.
Choose the one best answer (A), (B), (C) or (D) for each question. Then on your answer sheet, find the number
of the question and fill in the oval that corresponds to the letter of your answer choice. Answer all questions
based on what is stated or implied in the passage.

Read the following passage:

A new hearing device is now available for some hearing-impaired people. This device uses a magnet to hold
the detachable sound-processing portion in place. Like other aids, it converts sound into vibrations. But it is
unique in that it can transmit the vibrations directly to the magnet and then to the inner ear. This produces a
clearer sound. The new device will not help all hearing-impaired people-only those with a hearing loss caused
by infection or some other problem in the middle ear. It will probably help no more than 20 percent of all
people with hearing problems. Those people who have persistent ear infections, however, should find relief
and restored hearing with the new device.

What is the author’s main purpose?

(A) To describe a new cure for ear infections

(B) To inform the reader of a new device
(C) To urge doctors to use a new device
(D) To explain the use of a magnet

The author’s main purpose in to inform the reader of a new device for hearing-impaired people. Therefore,
you should choose answer (B).

Questions 1 to 12 are based on the following passage:

It is very different to succeed in the music business; 9 out of 10 bands that release a first record fail to
produce a second. Surviving in the music industry requires luck and patience, (Line 3) but most of all it
requires an intricate knowledge of how a record company functions. The process begins when a
representative of a company’s Artists and Repertoire (A&R) department visits bars and night clubs, scouting
for young, talented bands. After the representative identifies a promising band, he or she will work to
negotiate a contract with that band. The signing of this recording contract is a slow process. A company will
spend a long time investigating the band itself as well as current trends in popular music. During this (Line 9)
period, it is important that a band reciprocate with an investigation of its own, learning as much as possible
about the record company and making personal connections within the different departments that will handle
its recordings.

Once a band has signed the contract and has finished recording an album, the Publicity and (Line 13)
Promotions department takes over. This department decides whether or not to mass produce and market the
band’s album. Most bands fail to make personal contracts in (Line 15) this second department, thus losing
their voice in the important final process of producing and marketing their album. This loss of voice often
contributes to the band’s failure as a recording group.
1. Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) Nine out of 10 bands fail to produce a second record.
(B) It is important for a band to have an intricate knowledge of how a recording company works.
(C) Making personal connections will help the band in the final decisions about the promotion of their album.
(D) The main factors in a band’s success are luck and patience.

2. As used in line 1, what is the meaning of the word ‘’release’’?

(A) Distribute
(B) Pay for
(C) Overturn
(D) Itemize

3. The phrase ‘’an intricate’’ in line 3 could be best replaced by which of the following?
(A) A fleeting
(B) A straightforward
(C) An extraneous
(D) A detailed

4. According to the passage, the initial contact between a band and a recording company is made by:
(A) The band’s manager
(B) A band member
(C) An A&R representative
(D) The Publicity and Promotions department

5. The word ‘’reciprocate’’ as used in line 9 could be best replaced by which of the following?
(A) Commence
(B) Respond
(C) Practice
(D) Confirm

6. The word ‘’investigation’’ in line 9 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

(A) Production
(B) Betrothal
(C) Credential
(D) Examination

7. What does the word ‘’it’’ in line 3, refer to in the passage?

(A) Luck and patience
(B) Surviving in the music industry
(C) Producing a first album
(D) Negotiating a contract
8. As used in line 13, what is the meaning of ‘’takes over’’?
(A) Takes charge
(B) Takes pleasure
(C) Takes advice
(D) Takes blame

9. The author mentions that a band’s success is dependent on all of the following factors EXCEPT:
(A) Having patience
(B) Making personal contracts with people in the company
(C) Understanding how a record company functions
(D) Playing music that sounds like music of famous bands

10. According to the passage, the Publicity and Promotions department:

(A) Has the final decision in producing an album
(B) Handle the recording arrangements for the band
(C) Sends representatives to look for new talent
(D) Visits bars and night clubs

11. The author uses the phrase ‘’losing their voice’’ in line 15 to illustrate that they:
(A) Are forbidden to speak
(B) Are unable to visit
(C) Have no representation
(D) Are too shy to express their desires

12. It can be inferred from the passage that:

(A) The music industry is full of opportunities for young bands.
(B) The A&R department has a very large staff.
(C) Most bands do not fully understand how record companies operate.
(D) The cost of recording an album is very expensive.

Questions 13 to 24 are based on the following passage:

About 200 million years ago, as the Triassic Period came to a close, many species of animals disappeared from
the face of the Earth. Scientists previously believed that the series of extinctions happened over a period of
15 to 20 million years. Recent discoveries in Nova Scotia suggest, however, that the extinctions may have
happened over a much shorter period of time, perhaps less than 850 000 years.

Evidence for a rapid extinction of species at the end of the Triassic Period is found in the McCoy Brook
Formation along the Bay of Fundy, in Nova Scotia. Fossils found in this formation indicate a rapid
disappearance of species rather than a slow and gradual change (Line 9) over time. One explanation for a
relatively sudden extinction at the end of the Triassic may be that a large meteorite struck the earth at the
time and is responsible for a 70-kilometer hole nearby. If geologists and other researchers can find evidence,
such as shocked (Line 12) quartz in the rock formations, that a meteorite did strike the earth, it would give
more credence to the theory of rapid Triassic extinctions. It is possible, however, that even if a rapid
extinction happened in and around Nova Scotia, it did not necessarily occur in the rest of the world.
13. What is the main topic of this passage?
(A) The disappearance of animal species at the end of the Triassic Period
(B) Evidence of a relatively sudden extinction of species
(C) The possibility of an extinction happening simultaneously throughout the world
(D) A meteorite hole in the Bay of Fundy in Nova Scotia

14. Which of the following could best replace the word ‘’close’’ as used in line 1?
(A) Connection
(B) Dispersion
(C) Separation
(D) End

15. The author uses the phrase ‘’the face of the Earth’’ in line 2?
(A) Emphasize the disappearance
(B) Focus on one part of the Earth
(C) Focus on one period of time
(D) Point out the reference to land, not water

16. All of the following were mentioned in the passage EXCEPT:

(A) The extinction of late Triassic animals
(B) The duration of time for the extinction
(C) A large meteorite hitting the Earth 10 million years ago
(D) The use of types of rock in scientific research

17. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word ‘’relatively’’ in line 9?
(A) Comparatively
(B) Independent
(C) Phenomenally
(D) Visibly

18. Where in the passage does the author give evidence for the argument?
(A) Lines 1-3
(B) Lines 6-9
(C) Lines 9-10
(D) Lines 12-15

19. According to the passage, what would give evidence that a meteorite struck the earth?
(A) A gradual change in species over time
(B) A change in the quartz
(C) Gold deposits in the veins of rocks
(D) A change in the waters of the Bay of Fundy
20. Which of the following could best replace the word ‘’struck’’ as used in line 12?
(A) Affected
(B) Discovered
(C) Devastated
(D) Hit

21. Where is the best place in the passage to add the following sentence?
A comparison of fossils from sites around the world could provide new answers to this question of extinction.
(A) In line 3, after the words ‘’20 million years’’
(B) In line 5, after the words ‘’850 000 years’’
(C) In line 7, after the words ‘’Nova Scotia’’
(D) In line 15, after the word ‘’world’’

22. In line 12, ‘’it’’ refers to:

(A) Evidence
(B) An extinction
(C) The Earth
(D) A meteorite

23. Which of the following could best replace the word ‘’credence’’ in line 13?
(A) Demonstration
(B) Elevation
(C) Suitability
(D) Credibility

24. Which of the following best describes the author’s tone?

(A) Aggressive
(B) Explanatory
(C) Apologetic
(D) Cynical

Questions 25 to 36 are based on the following passage:

Alzheirmer’s disease impairs a person‘s ability to recall memories, both distant and as recent as a few hours
before. Although there is not yet a cure for the illness, there may be hope for a cure with a protein called nerve
growth factor. The protein is produced by nerve cells in (Line 4) the same region of the brain where Alzheimer’s
occurs. Based on this relationship, scientists from the University of Lund in Sweden and the University of
California at San Diego designed an experiment to test whether doses of nerve growth factor could reverse the
effects of memory loss caused by Alzheimer’s. Using a group of rats with impaired memory, the scientists gave
half of the rats doses of nerve growth factor while giving the other half a blood protein as a placebo, thus
creating a control group. At the end of the four-week test, the rats given the nerve growth factor performed
equally to rats with normal memory abilities. While the experiments do not show that nerve growth factor can
stop the general (Line 12) process of deterioration caused by Alzheimer’s, they do show potential as a means to
slowing the process significantly.
25. With what topic is this passage mainly concerned?
(A) Impaired memory of patients
(B) Cures for Alzheimer’s disease
(C) The use of rats as experimental subjects
(D) Nerve growth factors as a cure for Alzheimer’s

26. The word ‘’impairs’’ in line 1 is most similar to which of the following?
(A) Affects
(B) Destroys
(C) Enhances
(D) Diminishes

27. According to the passage, where is nerve growth factor produced in the body?
(A) In nerve cells in the spinal column
(B) In red blood cells in the circulatory system
(C) In nerve cells in the brain
(D) In the pituitary gland

28. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word ‘’region’’ as used in line 4?
(A) Vicinity
(B) Plain
(C) Expanse
(D) Orbit

29. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word ‘’doses’’ in line 6?
(A) Measures
(B) Pieces
(C) Injections
(D) Stipends

30. Which lines in the passage best describe the effect of nerve growth factor on the test rats?
(A) Lines 2-4
(B) Lines 4-9
(C) Lines 9-11
(D) Lines 11-13

31. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(A) Alzheimer’s disease is disease is deadly.
(B) Though unsuccessful, the experiments did show some benefits derived from nerve growth factor.
(C) The experiments did not show any significant benefits from nerve growth factor.
(D) More work needs to be done to understand the effects of nerve growth factor.
32. The passage most closely resembles which of the following pattern of organization?
(A) Chronological order
(B) Statement and illustration
(C) Cause/effect
(D) Alphabetical order

33. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word ‘’deterioration’’ in line 12?
(A) Depression
(B) Deduction
(C) Decline
(D) Disconnection

34. Which of the following could best replace the word ‘’Potential’’ in line 12?
(A) Possibility
(B) Capability
(C) Dependability
(D) Creativity

35. Which of the following could best replace the word ‘’significantly’’ in line 13?
(A) Considerably
(B) Knowingly
(C) Suggestively
(D) Tirelessly

36. The relationship between nerve growth factor and a protein is similar to the relationship between Alzheimer’s
and:
(A) Forgetfulness
(B) A disease
(C) A cure
(D) A cancer

Questions 37 to 48 are based on the following passage:

Until recently, hunting for treasure from shipwrecks was mostly fantasy; with recent (Line 2) technological
advances, however, the search for sunken treasure has become more popular as a legitimate endeavor. This
has caused a debate between those wanting to salvage the wrecks and those wanting to preserve them.

Treasure hunters are spurred on by the thought of finding caches of gold coins or other valuable objects on a
sunken ship. One team of salvagers, for instance, searched the wreck of the RMS Republic, which sank outside
the Boston harbor in 1909. The search party, using side-scan sonar, a device that projects sound waves across
the ocean bottom and produces a profile of the sea floor, located the wreck in just two and a half days. Before
the use of this new technology, such searches could take months or years. The team of 45 divers searched
(Line 11) the wreck for two months, finding silver tea services, crystal dinnerware, and thousands of bottles of
wine, but they did not find the five and a half tons of American Gold Eagle coins they were searching for.
 Preservationists focus on the historic value of a ship. They say that even if a shipwreck’s treasure does not
have a high monetary value, it can be an invaluable source of historic (Line 16) artifacts that are preserved in
nearly mint condition. But once a salvage team has scoured a site, much of the archeological value is lost.
Maritime archeologists who are preservationists worry that the success of salvagers will attract more
treasure-hunting expeditions and thus threaten remaining undiscovered wrecks. Preservations are lobbying
their state lawmakers to legally restrict underwater searches and unregulated salvages. To (Line 21) counter
their efforts, treasure hunters argue that without the lure of gold and million-dollar treasures, the wrecks and
their historical artifacts would never be recovered at all.

37. What is the main idea of the passage?

(A) Searching for wrecks is much easier with new technologies like side-scan sonar
(B) Maritime archeologists are concerned about the unregulated searcfhing of wrecks
(C) The search of the RMS Republic failed to produce the hoped-for coins
(D) The popularity of treasure seeking has spurred a debate between preservationists and salvagers

38. The word ‘’sunken’’ in line 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following words?
(A) Broken
(B) Underwater
(C) Ancient
(D) Hollow

39. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word ‘’legitimate’’ in line 3?
(A) Justified
(B) Innocent
(C) Prudent
(D) Fundamental

40. What does the second paragraph mainly discuss?

(A) How side-scan sonar works to find a shipwreck
(B) How the Boston salvage team located the ship’s gold
(C) A specific salvage operation that took place in 1909
(D) A specific salvage operation that used new technology to locate a shipwreck

41. Which of the following statements is best supported by author?

(A) The value of a shipwreck depends on the quantity of its artifacts
(B) Preservationists are fighting the use of technological advances such as side-scan sonar
(C) Side-scan sonar has helped to legitimize salvaging
(D) The use of sound waves is crucial to locating shipwrecks

42. The author uses the word ‘’services’’ in line 11 to refer to which of the following?
(A) Cups
(B) Sets
(C) Containers
(D) Decorations
43. The author uses the phrase ‘’mint condition’’ in line 16 to describe:
(A) Something perfect
(B) Something significant
(C) Something tolerant
(D) Something magical

44. All of the following were found on the RMS Republic EXCEPT:
(A) Wine bottles
(B) Silver tea services
(C) American Gold Eagle coins
(D) Crystal dinnerware

45. From the passage, you can infer that a preservationist would be most likely to:
(A) Shun treasure-seeking salvagers
(B) Be a diver
(C) Put treasures in a museum
(D) Do archeological resear5ch

46. The word ‘’scoured’’ in line 17 is most similar to which of the following?
(A) Scraped away
(B) Scratched over
(C) Scrambled around
(D) Searched through

47. In line 21, what is the closest meaning to the word ‘’lure’’
(A) Knowledge
(B) Attraction
(C) Luxury
(D) Glare

48. The second and third paragraphs are an example of:

(A) Chronological order
(B) Explanation
(C) Specific to general
(D) Definition