Test Paper Batch: XI

SAMPLE FULL SYLLABUS TEST PAPER [NEET Batch]

Time: 3 hrs Marking Scheme: +4, –1 Total Marks: 720

PHYSICS
 a  a
1. In equation  P  2  (V  b)  RT . The quantity is dimensionally equal to:
 V  pvb
(A) M1L2T-2 (B) M0L0T0 (C) M1L0T-2 (D) M0L1T-2
2. X-coordinate of centre of mass of the following system of four particles is :

(A) 12 m (B) 15 m (C) 4 m (D) 14 m

3. A monkey of mass 20 kg is holding a vertical rope. The rope can break when a mass of 75 kg is suspended from it. What
is the maximum acceleration with which the monkey can climb up along the rope (g = 10 m/sec 2):
(A) 27.5 m/s2 (B) 5 m/s2 (C) 7 m/s2 (D) 10 m/s2
4. Two stones having different masses m1 and m2 are projected at an angle  and (90º – with same speed from same
point. The ratio of their maximum height is:
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : tan  (C) tan : 1 (D) tan2 : 1
5. The displacement of particle after time (t) is given by x = (t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4) metre. What is the velocity of the particle
when its acceleration is zero :
(A) – 12 m/s (B) – 9 m/s (C) – 6 m/s (D) – 3 m/s
6. If escape velocity on the surface of a planet is Ve. If planet shrinks such that its radius decreases to 1/2 of present radius.
Then escape velocity on its surface is [mass of planet constant]:
(A) 2Ve (B) Ve (C) Ve/2 (D) Ve/4
7. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the square of its absolute temperature.
The ratio CP/CV for the gas is :
(A) 4/3 (B) 2 (C) 5/3 (D) 3/2
8. Liquids A and B are at 30ºC and 20ºC. When mixed in equal masses, the temperature of the mixture is found to be 26ºC.
Their specific heats are in the ratio of:
(A) 3 : 2 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 4 : 3
9. y = sin3 t is a function which may represent:
(A) Periodic but not SHM (B) Oscillatory but not SHM
(C) SHM (D) Both (A) and (B)
10. Assertion : At critical temperature, surface tension of a liquid becomes zero.
Reason : At this temperature, intermolecular forces for liquids and gases become equal. Liquid can expand with out any
restriction.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false
(D) If both assertion and reason are false
11. Assertion : According to Newton's law of cooling, the rate of loss of heat, –dQ/dt of the body is directly proportional to
the difference of temperature.
Reason : This law holds for all type of temperature differences.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false
(D) If both assertion and reason are false

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12. The terminal velocity of a sphere moving through a viscous medium is :
(A) Directly proportional to the radius of the sphere
(B) Inversely proportional to the radius of the sphere
(C) Directly proportional to the square of the radius of sphere
(D) Inversely proportional to the square of the radius of sphere
13. A body is projected vertically in upward direction from ground with speed 20 m/s . It will come on ground after (g = 10
m/s2) :
(A) 2 sec (B) 4 sec (C) 20 sec (D) 12 sec
14. A bullet is fired with a speed 500 m/s in order to hit a target 50 m away. If g = 10 m/s2 the gun should be aimed:
(A) Directly towards the target (B) 5 cm above the target
(C) 10 cm above the target (D) 15 cm above the target
15. The surface are frictionless, the ratio of T 1 and T2 is:

(A) 3 : 2 (B) 1: 3 (C) 1 : 5 (D) 5 : 1

16. The elevator, shown in fig is going vertically upwards with an acceleration of g/4. If the pulley and the strings are light
and the pulley is frictionless, the tension in the string AB is:

(A) g (B) 4 g (C) 6 g (D) 5 g

17. In an elastic collision of two billiard balls during the short time of collision of the balls (i.e. when they are in contact) :
(A) Total kinetic energy conserved (B) Total kinetic energy not conserved
(C) Total momentum not conserved (D) None of these
18. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The pitch of the screw gauge is:
(A) 1.0 mm (B) 0.01 mm (C) 0.25 mm (D) 0.5 mm
19. A ball projected vertically upwards direction with initial velocity 55 m/s. The distance travelled in 6th second of motion
will be (g = 10 m/s2) :
(A) 2.5 m (B) 1.25 m (C) Zero (D) 6 m
 
20. A body of mass 5kg starts from the origin with an initial velocity u  30i  40j ms . If a constant force F  (iˆ  5j)N
ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ
acts on the body the time in which the y-component of the velocity becomes zero is:
(A) 5 seconds (B) 20 seconds (C) 40 seconds (D) 80 seconds
 2ˆ
21. ˆ
A variable force, given the 2-dimensional vector F  (3x i  4j) . acts on a particle. The force is in newton and x is in
metre. What is the change in the kinetic energy of the particle as it moves from the point with coordinate (2, 3) to (3, 0).
(A) –7J (B) Zero (C) +7J (D) +19J
22. A block is lying static on the floor. The maximum value of static friction force on the block is 10 N. If a horizontal force
of 8 N is applied to the block, what will be the friction force on the block:
(A) 2 N (B) 18 N (C) 8 N (D) 10 N
23. If the radius of a star is R and it acts as a black body, what would be the temperature of the star, in which the rate of
energy production is Q:
(A) Q/4R2 (B) (Q/4R2)–1/2 (C) (4R2Q/)–1/4 (D) (Q/4R2)1/4
24. Which one of the following statements is true for the speed v and the acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic
motion:
(A) When v is maximum, a is maximum (B) Value of a is zero, whatever may be the value of v
(C) When v is zero, a is zero (D) When v is maximum, a is zero
25. The given diagram shows four processes i.e., isochoric isobaric, isothermal and adiabatic. The correct assignment of the
process, in the same order is given by:

(A) d a c b (B) a d c b (C) a d b c (D) d a b c

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26. Which of the following having same dimension :
(A) Energy, torque (B) Force, Pressure (C) Mass, density (D) Speed, distance
27. If a body starts from rest, the time in which it covers a particular displacement with uniform acceleration is :
(A) inversely proportional to the square root of the displacement
(B) inversely proportional to the displacement
(C) directly proportional to the displacement
(D) directly proportional to the square root of the displacement
28. A particle is moving eastwards with a speed of 5 m/s. In 10 s its velocity changes to 5 m/s northwards. The average
acceleration in this time is:
(A) 1/2 m/s2 N–W (B) 1/2 m/s2 N–E (C) 1/2 m/s2 N (D) zero
29. A man in a lift will weigh more when :
(A) the lift goes up with increasing velocity (B) the lift is at rest
(C) the lift is slowing down while ascending (D) the lift is descending freely
30. The maximum static frictional force is :
(A) Equal to twice the area of the surface in contact (B) Independent of the area of surface in contact
(C) Equal to the area of surface in contact (D) None of above
31. Two satellites of mass m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are going around the earth in orbit of radius r 1 and r2 (r1 > r2). Which one
statement about their velocities is correct:
v v
(A) 1  2 (B) v1 < v2 (C) v1 = v2 (D) v1 > v2
r1 r2
32. A medium can carry a longitudinal wave because it has the property of :
(A) Mass (B) Elasticity & Density (C) Compressibility (D) None of these
33. If particles are moving with same velocity, the maximum de-Broglie wavelength will be for:
(A) Neutron (B) Proton (C) - particle (D) -particle
34. Which of the following is incorrect statement regarding photon:
(A) Photon exerts no pressure (B) Photon energy is hv
(C) Photon rest mass is zero (D) None of these
35. Heavy water is used as moderator in a nuclear reactor. The function of the moderator is:
(A) To control the energy released in the reactor (B) To absorb neutrons and stop chain reaction
(C) To cool the reactor faster (D) To slow down the neutrons to thermal energies
36. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine . The losses due to frictional forces are 10% of
energy. How much power is generated by the turbine: (g = 10 m/s 2)
(A) 12.3 kW (B) 7.0 kW (C) 8.1 kW (D) 10.2 kW
37. The angular speed of a fly wheel making 120 revolutions/minute is.
(A) 2 rad/s (B) 42 rad/s (C)  rad/s (D) 4 rad/s
38. Taking into account of the significant figures, what is the value of 9.9 m-0.0099 m ?
(A) 9.9 m (B) 9.8 m (C) 9.98 m (D) 9.980 m
39. A hot coffee cools from 900C to 800C in t minutes, when the room temperature is 30 0C. The time taken by a similar cup
of coffee to cool from 800C to 500C at a room temperature same at 300C is :
7 13 33 5
(A) t (B) t (C) t (D) t
55 5 7 13
40. Assertion : The blood pressure in humans is greater at the feet than at the brain
Reason : Atmospheric pressure at a height of about 6 km decreases to nearly half its value at the sea level.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false
(D) If the assertion and reason both are false
41. The surface tension for pure water in a capillary tube experiment is:
g 2 rg hrg
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2hr hrp 2h 2
42. From a uniform disc of radius R, a circular section of radius R/2 is cut out. The centre of hole is a R/ 2 from the centre of
the original disc. Locate the C.G. of resulting body from O is :

(A) R/2 (B) R/4 (C) R/12 (D) R/6

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43. Match List–I with List–II
List–I List–II
(a) h (Planck's constant) (i) [MLT–1]
(b) E (Kinetic energy) (ii) [ML2T–1]
(c) V (Electric potential) (iii) [ML2T-2]
(d) P(Linear momentum) (iv) [ML2I–1T–3]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i (B) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i (C) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii (D) a–iii, b–ii, C–iv, D–i
44. An organ pipe emits a fundamental note of frequency 128 hertz. When blown forcefully, its first overtone of 384 hertz.
The organ pipe will be :
(A) open (B) closed (C) may closed or open (D) none of these
45. Assertion : The materials which have very small range of plastic extension are called brittle materials.
Reason : If the stress is increased beyond the elastic limit, the material will break.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false
(D) If both assertion and reason are false
CHEMISTRY
46. Avogadro’s number is the number of molecules present in:
(A) 1 litre of molecule (B) 1 g of molecule (C) Gram molecule mass (D) 1 g atom
47. The number of oxygen atoms in 6.4 g of SO2 is:
(A) 6 × 1023 (B) 11 × 1023 (C) 12 × 1023 (D) 1.2 × 1023
48. How many grams of phosphoric acid is required to complete neutralize 120 g of sodium hydroxide?
(A) 0.98 (B) 98 (C) 89 (D) 49
49. Among the following pairs of compounds, the one that illustrates the law of multiple proportions is:
(A) Cu and CuSO4 (B) CuO and Cu2O (C) H2S and SO2 (D) NH3 and NCl3
50. The molarity of pure water is:
(A) 55.56 M (B) 5.56 M (C) 1.0 M (D) 0.01 M
51. 2 g of O2 at NTP occupies the volume:
(A) 1.4 L (B) 2.8 L (C) 11.4 L (D) 3.2 L
52. The vapour density of ozone is:
(A) 24 (B) 16 (C) 48 (D) 72
53. The incorrect statement for 14 g of CO is:
(A) It occupies 2.24 litre at NTP (B) It corresponds to 0.5 mol of CO
(C) It corresponds to same mol of CO and N2 (D) It corresponds to 3.01 × 1023 molecules of CO
54. How many electrons can be accommodated in a p-orbital?
(A) 6 electrons (B) 2 electrons (C) 4 electrons (D) None of these
55. In ground state, an element has 13 electrons in its M shell. The element is:
(A) Copper (B) Iron (C) Nickel (D) Chromium
56. The total spin resulting from a d3 configuration is:
3
(A) 3 (B) (C) 1 (D) zero
2
2+
57. How many d-electrons are present in Cr ion?
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 4
58. Which of the following is not possible?
(A) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0 (B) n = 2, l = 0, m = –1 (C) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0 (D) n = 3, l = 1, m = –1
59. The angular momentum (L) of an electron in a Bohr orbit is given as:
(A) L = nh/2π (B) L  [l(l  1)h / 2] (C) L = mg/2 π (D) L = h/4π
60. The energy ratio of a photon of wavelength 3000Å and 6000Å is:
(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:2 (D) 1:4
61. The outermost configuration of the most electronegative elements is
(A) ns2 np5 (B) ns2 np6 (C) ns2 np4 (D) ns2 np3
62. Which of the following is the atomic number of a metal?
(A) 32 (B) 34 (C) 36 (D) 38
63. The first ionization potential will be maximum for:
(A) Uranium (B) Iron (C) Hydrogen (D) Lithium
64. Correct order of radii is:
(A) Na < Li < K (B) N < Be < B (C) Cl– < S2– < P3– (D) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe4+
65. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that
(A) Zr, Hf have about the same radius (B) Zr, Y have about the same radius
(C) Zr, Nb have same oxidation state (D) Zr, Zn have same oxidation state

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66. Arrange the following compounds in order of decreasing dipole moment.:

(A) 1 > 3 > 2 = 4 (B) 3 > 1 > 2 = 4 (C) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (D) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
67. Among the following compounds, the one that is polar and has the central atom with sp2 hybridization is:
(A) H2CO3 (B) SiF4 (C) BF3 (D) HClO2
68. Which one of the following compounds has sp2 hybridization?
(A) CO2 (B) SO2 (C) N2O (D) CO
69. Total number of lone pair of electrons in XeOF4 is:
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
70. The acid having O–O bond is:
(A) H2S2O3 (B) H2S2O6 (C) H2S2O8 (D) H2S4O6
71. The paramagnetism of O2+ is due to the presence of an odd electron in the MO
(A) *2s (B) π2py (C) *2px (D) π*2py
72. Bond angle in XeO3 is:
(A) 107° (B) 119° (C) 92° (D) 103°
73. How many sigma and pi bonds are present in toluene?
(A) 3π + 15 (B) 6π + 6 (C) 3π + 6 (D) 3π + 8
74. Which one of the following molecules contains both ionic and covalent bonds?
(A) CH2Cl2 (B) K2SO4 (C) BeCl2 (D) SO2
75. Bond energy of N–H, H–H, and N≡N bonds are Q1, Q2 and Q3; ΔH of N2 + 3H2  2NH3 is:
(A) Q3 + 3Q2 – 2Q1 (B) 2Q1 – Q3 – 2Q2 (C) Q3 + 3Q2 – 6Q1 (D) Q1 + Q2 – Q3
76. Which of the following statement is true for ΔG?
(A) It is always proportional to ΔH
(B) It may be less than or greater than or equal to ΔH
(C) It is always greater than ΔH
(D) It is always less than ΔH
77. H2S(g)   HS(g)  H(g) , ΔH° = x1, H0f [H2S(g)]  x 2 , H0f [H(g)]  x 3 hence, Δ H f° (HS) is:
(A) x1 + x2 – x3 (B) x3 – x1 – x2 (C) x1 – x2 – x3 (D) x3 – x1 + x2
78. For which of the following changes ΔH≠ ΔE?
 2HI
(A) H2  I2  (B) HCl + NaOH   NaCl + H2O
 CO2(g)
(C) C(s) + O2 (g)  (D) N2 + 3H2   2NH3
79. For the dissociation of PC15 into PC13 and Cl2 in gaseous phase reaction, if d is the observed vapour density and D the
theoretical vapour density with ‘a’ as degree of dissociation. Variation of D/d with ‘a’ is given by which graph:

(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these

80. In what manner will increase of pressure affect the following equation:
 CO(g)  H2 (g)
C(s)  H2 O(g) 
(A) Shift in the reverse direction (B) Shift in the forward direction
(C) Increase in the yield of hydrogen (D) No effect
81.  2AB4 (g) ;ΔΗ < 0. The formation of AB4(g) will be favoured by:
In a reaction A2 (g)  4B2 (g) 
(A) Low temperature and high pressure (B) High temperature and high pressure
(C) Low temperature and low pressure (D) High temperature and low pressure
82. Which of the following reaction will be favoured at low pressure:
(A) N2  3H2  2NH3  2HI
(B) H2  I2 
 PCl3  Cl2
(C) PCl5   2NO
(D) N2  O2 

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83. For reaction:
 2HI , = 47.6, if the initial number of moles of each reactant and product is 1 mole, then at equilibrium:
H2  I2 
(A) [I2] = [H2], [I2] > [HI] (B) [I2] < [H2], [I2] = [HI] (C) [I2] = [H2], [I2] < [HI] (D) [I2] > [H2], [I2] = [HI]
84. Which among the following is the least soluble?
(A) MnS (Ksp = 7 × 10–16) (B) FeS (Ksp = 4 × 10–19) (C) PtS (Ksp = 8 × 10–73) (D) NiS (Ksp = 3 × 10–12)
85. Which of the following are Lewis acids?
(1) BF3
(2) H2O
(3) HSO–4
(4) SO3
(A) (1) and (3) (B) (1) and (2) (C) (1) and (4) (D) (3) and (4)
86. Which among the following acts as a basic buffer solution?
(A) NH4Cl + NH4OH (B) NaCl + NaOH
(C) NH4Cl + CH3COOH (D) CH3COONa + CH3COOH
87. How many tertiary carbon atoms are present in the given compound?

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5

88. Assign the IUPAC name to [(CH3)2 CH]3 COH.
(A) 3-(2-methylethyl)-3(1-methylethyl) pentan-2-ol (B) tris-(1-methylpropyl)methanol
(C) 2, 4-dimethyl-3 (1-methylethyl) pentan- 2-ol (D) 3-(1-methylethyl)-2, 4-dimethylpentan-3-ol
89. The IUPAC name of the compound CH3 – C (CH3)2 – CH = C(CH3)2 is
(A) 1, 1, 3, 3-tetramethyl-but-1-ene (B) 1, 3, 3-trimethyl-pent-2-ene
(C) 2, 2, 4-trimethylbut-4-ene (D) 2, 4, 4-trimethylpent-2-ene
90. The maximum number of carbon atoms arranged linearly in the molecule, CH3 – C ≡ C – CH = CH2 are
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
BIOLOGY
91. Partial oxidation of glucose to form pyruvic acid is called
(A) Glycolysis (B) Krebs' cycle (C) EMP pathway (D) Both (A) and (C)
92. In prokaryotes, vacuole that is found to provide buoyancy is
(A) Gas vacuole (B) Food vacuole (C) Contractile vacuole (D) Sap vacuole
93. Length of one turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately
(A) 3.4 nm (B) 2 nm (C) 0.34 nm (D) 20 nm
94. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterized?
(A) Lecithin - A phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane.
(B) Palmitic acid - An unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.
(C) Adenylic acid - Adenosine with a two glucose – phosphate molecule.
(D) Alanine amino acid - Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule.
95. How many of the given events occur(s) in G2 phase of cell cycle?
(A) DNA Replication
(B) Tubulin protein synthesis
(C) Centriole duplication
(D) Duplication of mitochondria
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1
96. What will be the amount of DNA in meiosis-II products if meiocyte contains 36 pg DNA in G1 phase?
(A) 36 pg (B) 18 pg (C) 72 pg (D) 9 pg
97. The microtubules of the spindle fibres attach to the kinetochore during which of the given stages of mitosis?
(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Anaphase (D) Telophase
98. If numbers of bivalents are 6 in prophase I then what will be the number of chromosomes after meiosis I in each daughter
cell?
(A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 2
99. In taxonomic hierarchy, the family of cats and dogs are assigned to the same
(A) Order (B) Class (C) Genus (D) Species

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100. Systematics differs from taxonomy as the former includes
(A) Identification of organisms (B) Characterisation of organisms
(C) Nomenclature of organisms (D) Evolutionary relationship among organisms
101. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. taxonomic categories of wheat
(A) Family – Solanaceae (B) Class – Monocotyledonae (C) Division – Angiospermae(D) Genus – Triticum
102. Fruiting bodies are absent in which of the given pairs of classes of fungi?
(A) Phycomycetes and Ascomycetes (B) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
(C) Basidiomycetes and Deuteromycetes (D) Phycomycetes and Deuteromycetes
103. Moneran with introns in their genetic sequences and are responsible for production of methane (biogas) from the dung of
ruminants is
(A) Halococcus (B) Thermoproteus (C) Methanobacterium (D) Thermoplasma
104. Which of the following statements are true ?
(i) The blood transports CO2 comparatively easily because of its higher solubility.
(ii) Approximately 18-19% of CO2 is transported being dissolved in the plasma of blood.
(iii) The carbon dioxide produced by the tissues, diffuses passively into the blood stream and passes into red blood
corpuscles and react with water to form H2CO3.
(iv) The oxyhaemoglobin (HbO2) of the erythrocytes is basic.
(v) The chloride ions diffuse from plasma into the erythrocytes to maintain ionic balance.
(A) (i), (iii) and (v) are true, (ii) and (iv) are false (B) (i), (iii) and (v) are false, (ii) and (iv) are true
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true, (iii) and (v) are false (D) (i), (ii) and (iv) are false, (iii) and (v) are true
105. Given below are four statements (i-iv) regarding human blood circulatory system
(i) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins
(ii) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circulation to the brain is reduced
(iii) Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to any person with any blood group under ABO system
(iv) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting
Which two of the above statements are correct?
(A) (i) and (iv) (B) (ii) and (iv) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
106. Examine the given figure and select correct statement w.r.t. its labeled parts

(A) 'A' encloses plumule (B) 'C' is radical

(C) 'C' is enclosed in a sheath called coleoptile (D) 'B' is endosperm
107. ANF is a peptide hormone and is secrected from
(A) Gastrointestinal tract (B) Kidney
(C) Post. Pituitary (D) None of these
108. The placenta develops at the base of the ovary in
(A) Marigold (B) Dianthus (C) Argemone (D) China rose
109. Flowers are zygomorphic in all of the given, except
(A) Pea (B) Gulmohar (C) Bean (D) Mustard
110. Vascular cambium is not seen initially but develops at the time of secondary growth in
(A) Dicot root (B) Monocot root (C) Monocot stem (D) Dicot stem
111. Monocot stems cannot undergo the secondary growth, because
(A) Water-containing cavities are present in vascular bundles
(B) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed
(C) Ground tissue is not differentiated into cortex and pith
(D) Endodermis is absent in monocot stem

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112. Select the option which shows correct matching of animal with excretory organs and excretory product
Animal Excretory organ Excretory product
(A) Housefly Renal tubules Uric acid
(B) Labeo (Rohu) Nephridial tubes Ammonia
(C) Salamander Kidney Urea
(D) Peacock Kidney Urea
113. The organelles which take part in photo-respiration are
(A) chloroplast, mitochondria, nucleus (B) chloroplast, mitochondria, lysosome
(C) mitochondria, chloroplast, peroxisome (D) mitochondria, lysosomes, peroxisome
114. In Kreb’s cycle, the FAD participates as electron acceptor during the conversion of
(A) succinyl CoA to succinic acid (B) ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA
(C) fumaric acid to malic acid (D) succinic acid to fumaric acid
115. Assertion (A) : In prokaryotes, mitochondria are absent.
Reason (R) : In prokaryotes, mesosomes are present which help in respiration.
(A) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) If A is true, but R is false
(D) If A is false, but R is true
116. Assertion (A) :Algae are the primary producers of many food cycles.
Reason (R) : Half of the total carbon dioxide-fixation on earth is carried out by algae.
(A) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) If A is true, but R is false
(D) If A is false, but R is true
117. Consider the following statements and choose the option containing the correct statements.
I. The endomembrane system includes ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles.
II. ER helps in the transport of substances, synthesis of proteins,etc.
III. Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis.
IV. Mitochondria helps in oxidative phosphorylation and generation of ATP.
(A) I, II, III and IV (B) Only I (C) Only II (D) Only III
118. Consider the following statements.
I. Inclusion bodies in prokaryotic cells are bound by a single membrane.
II. Gas vacuoles are found in purple and green photosynthetic bacteria.
Select the correct option
(A) I is true, II is false (B) Both I and II are false
(C) I is false, II is true (D) Both I and II are true
119. Select the incorrect statement.
(A) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
(B) Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells
(C) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells
(D) Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism
120. T.W. Engelmann described the first action spectrum of photosynthesis by experimenting on
(A) Cladophora (B) Mouse (C) Mint plant (D) Both (B) and (C)
121. Kranz anatomy is a characteristic feature of all of the given plants, except
(A) Maize (B) Sugarcane (C) Rice (D) Amaranthus
122. The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 pathway is a
(A) 5-C compound (B) 3-C compound (C) 4-C compound (D) 6-C compound
123. Consider the following statements.
I. Mycelium is branched and septate.
II. The asexual spores are generally not formed.
III. Vegetative reproduction takes place by fragmentation.
IV. Sex organs are absent, but sexual reproduction takes place by somatogamy.
V. Karyogamy and meiosis take place in basidium to form four haploid basidiospores.
VI. Basidia are arranged in fruiting bodies called basidiocarp.
The above statements are assigned to
(A) sac fungi (B) algal fungi (C) imperfecti fungi (D) club fungi

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124. Which of the given is pacemaker enzyme of EMP pathway?
(A) Phosphohexoisomerase (B) Phosphofructokinase
(C) Aldolase (D) Phosphoglycerate kinase
125. Which of the given substrates has minimum RQ under aerobic respiration?
(A) Glucose (B) Oxalic acid (C) Fat (D) Malic acid
126. Identify the incorrect statement with regards to the gymnosperms.
(A) In gymnosperms, ovules remain exposed, before and after fertilization
(B) The giant redwood tree Sequoia is tallest gymnosperm tree
(C) The gymnosperms are homosporous
(D) Leaves in gymnosperms are well-adapted to withstand extreme environmental conditions
127. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. fermentation.
(A) Involves complete degradation of glucose
(B) Oxygen is not required
(C) End products can be lactic acid or ethanol
(D) There is a net gain of 2 ATP for each molecule of glucose fermented
128. Which of the given plant hormones induces seedless tomato formation?
(A) Auxin (B) Cytokinin (C) ABA (D) GA3
129. If the diploid number of a flowering plant is 36. What would be the chromosome number in its endosperm?
(A) 36 (B) 18 (C) 72 (D) 54
130. How much volume of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 20 ml of CO2 to the alveoli?
(A) 200 mL (B) 300 mL (C) 400 mL (D) 500 mL
131. Identify the phytohormone responsible for the given functions.
I. Horizontal growth of seedlings.
II. Swelling of the axis and apical hook formation in dicot seed.
III. Promoting senescence and abscission of leaves and flowers.
IV. Highly effective in fruit ripening.
V. Promotes rapid internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice plants.
Choose the correct option.
(A) ABA (B) GA (C) Cytokinin (D) Ethylene
132. Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated against them?
(A) Pteropus and Ornithorhynchus – viviparity
(B) Garden lizard and crocodile – three-chambered heart
(C) Ascaris and Ancylostoma – metameric segmentation
(D) Sea horse and flying fish – cold-blooded (poikilothermal)
133. Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle?
(A) Centriole (B) Ribosome (C) Peroxisome (D) Nucleus
134. The network of nucleoprotein fibres called chromatin was named by
(A) Friedrich Meischer (B) Flemming (C) Strasburger (D) Robert Brown
135. During gametogenesis, the enzyme recombinase participates at
(A) S-phase of interphase for DNA replication (B) Prophase for condensation of chromosomes
(C) Prophase II for crossing over (D) Prophase I for exchange of genetic materials
136. Muscles that help in transportation of food through digestive tract and gametes through the genital tract are
(A) smooth muscles (B) striated muscles (C) voluntary muscles (D) cardiac muscles
137. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Most of the cartilage is not replaced by bones in adult
(B) Cartilage is present in nose-tip, intervertebral disc, outer ear joints
(C) Cartilage has no rich blood supply but bone has
(D) Both (B) and (C)
138. Some of the features are given below that evolved for the first time in cnidarians. Mark the wrong one.
(A) Tissue grade of organization (B) Blind sac body plan
(C) diploblastic (D) Complete digestive tract
139. Which class has the largest number of animals?
(A) Fishes (B) Reptiles (C) Insects (D) Mammals

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140. Some important features are mentioned in the box below:
Oviparous only, Internal fertilisation only,
cold – blooded, placoid scales, streamlined body
How many of the features are common both to chondrichthyes and osteichthyes?
(A) Four (B) Three (C) Two (D) Five
141. Areolar tissue:
(A) Is a type of dense connective tissue (B) Lacks fibroblast
(C) Often serves as a support framework for epithelium (D) Possesses macrophages but lacks mast cells
142. The blood group AB cannot be given to a recipient with blood group A, because
(A) The recipient has antibodies B (B) the recipient has antibodies A
(C) The recipient has NO antibodies (D) All of these
143. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(A) Stroke volume divided by heart rate gives the cardiac output
(B) Cardiac output divides by heart rate gives the stroke volume
(C) Heart rate multiplied by cardiac output gives the stroke volume
(D) Stroke volume multiplied by cardiac output gives the heart rate
144. Glycocalyx differs in composition and thickness among different bacteria. It could be a loose sheath called the …… or it
may be thick and tough, called the …… .
(A) capsule; slime layer (B) slime layer; capsule
(C) mesosome, slime layer (D) capsule, mesosome
145. During pulmonary circulation:
(A) Deoxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery
(B) Deoxygenated blood is pumped into pulmonary vein
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Oxygenated blood is carried by the pulmonary veins into right atrium
146. Due to insufficient filtration in the Bowman's capsule, all are likely to happen except
(A) Accumulation of fluid in the body (B) Increase in blood pressure
(C) Increase in blood urea level (D) Loss of glucose through urine
147. Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) Blood vessel leading to glomerulus is called efferent arteriole
(B) Vasa recta, peritubular capillaries, glomerulus all have blood
(C) Cortical nephron has no or highly reduced vasa recta
(D) Vasa recta runs parallel to the Henle's loop in juxtamedullary nephrons.
148. Which of following statements is false?
(A) The kidneys have built in mechanism for regulation of glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
(B) Tubular secretion does not play any significant role in urine formation
(C) The amount of urine output per day in normal adult is about 1.5 L
(D) During urine formation, tubular cells secrete H +, NH3 and K+ in the filtrate.
149. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(A) The seed in grasses is not endospermic (B) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit
(C) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain (D) A sterile pistil is called a staminode
150. Limbic system is concerned with all of the following, except
(A) Regulation of sexual behaviour (B) Expression of emotional reactions
(C) Motivation (D) Regulation of breathing
151. Identify different parts of the brain given in the figure and mark the option that shows correct identification of
characteristic of the part labeled as A, B, C, D.

(A) A-Regulates complex functions like memory and communication

(B) B-Controls the body temperature
(C) C-Connects the two cerebral hemispheres
(D) D-Has inner cortex and outer medulla

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152. Consider the following symptoms of a disorder.
(a) Mental retardation
(b) Abnormal skin
(c) Deaf-mutism
(d) Stunted growth
Which disorder is correctly described by these symptoms?
(A) Acromegaly (B) Dwarfism (C) Exophthalmic goitre (D) Cretinism
153. Which of the following is correct?
(A) Aldosterone is the main glucocorticoid in our body
(B) In our body, cortisol is the main mineralocorticoid
(C) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis but not lipolysis and proteolysis
(D) Glucocorticoids inhibit cellular uptake and utilisation of amino acids
154. Read the following statements and choose incorrect one
(A) Pineal gland is located on the dorsal side of forebrain
(B) Melatonin can only influences pigmentation
(C) LH and FSH stimulates gonadal activity
(D) Oxytocin causes milk ejection from mammary gland
155. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(A) Nucleic acids exhibit a wide variety of secondary structures
(B) Nucleic acids are formed by the polymerisation of a large number of nucleotides
(C) The backbone of DNA is built up of alternate sugar and phosphate groups
(D) The two strands of DNA are parallel
156. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(A) The essential components of many coenzymes are vitamins
(B) Coenzymes are inorganic compounds whose association with the apoenzyme is only transient.
(C) A number of enzymes require metal ions for their activity
(D) In peroxidase, haem is the prosthetic group and part of active site of enzyme.
157. _________structure of protein is necessary for the biological activities of proteins
(A) Primary (B) Secondary (C) Tertiary (D) Quaternary
158. According to Singer and Nicolson concept, cell membrane is
(A) solid (B) quasifluid (C) fluid (D) solidified heat
159. Which of the following is correct for mosaic vision in cockroach?
(A) With the help of several ommatidia, a cockroach receives several images of an object.
(B) It is with more sensitivity but has less resolution
(C) Being common during night, it is called nocturnal vision also
(D) All of these
160. Which of the following statements is incorrect about development of Periplaneta americana?
(A) On an average female produces 9-10 oothecae each containing 14-16 eggs
(B) The development is paurometabolous
(C) The nymph grows by moulting about 7-8 times to reach adult form
(D) The next to last nymphal state has wing pads but only adult cockroach has wings
161. Vascular system includes...A... bundles, which can be seen in the veins and the...B.... . The size of vascular bundles are
dependent on the size of ...C... . The veins vary in thickness in the reticulate venation of the ...D...leaves.
Choose the correct option to replace A to D.
(A) A–phloem, B–midrib, C–veins, D–dicot (B) A–xylem, B–midrib, C–veins, D–dicot
(C) A–vascular, B–midrib, C–veins, D–dicot (D) A–vascular, B–midrib, C–veins, D–monocot
162. Select the correct statement.
(A) Expiration occurs due to contraction external intercostal muscles
(B) Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than the atmospheric pressure during inspiration
(C) Inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure
(D) Expiration is initiated due to contraction of diaphragm
163. Before entering into the respiratory pathway fats breakdown into
(A) fatty acid and glycerol (B) fatty acid and citric acid
(C) fatty acid and ascorbic acid (D) fatty acid and amino acid
164. What is the site of C3 cycle in C3 and C4 plants?
(A) In C3 plants–Mesophyll cell and in C4 plants–Bundle sheath cell
(B) In C3 plants–Bundle sheath cell and in C4 plants–Mesophyll cell
(C) In C4 plants–Bundle sheath cell and in C3 plants–Bundle sheath cell
(D) In C3 plants–Mesophyll cell and in C4 plants–Mesophyll cell

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165. The number of vasa efferentia that arises from testes in frog’s male reproductive system is
(A) 9 – 13 (B) 10 – 12 (C) 13 – 16 (D) 16 - 19
166. Consider the following statements.
I. The thorax of cockroach contains 6 ganglia, while abdomen contains 3 ganglia.
II. The next to last nymphal stage of cockroach possess wings.
Select the correct option.
(A) I is true, II is false (B) I is false, II is true
(C) Both I and II are true (D) Both I and II are false
167. Select the statement which is incorrect w.r.t. rib cage.
(A) 11th and 12th pair of ribs are not connected ventrally to the sternum
(B) Thoracic vertebrae, ribs and sternum together form the rib cage.
(C) The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of floating ribs do not articulate directly with sternum
(D) First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs.
168. Chemosensitive area situated adjacent to the respiratory rhythm centre is highly sensitive to
(A) CO2 (B) Hydrogen ions (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Oxygen only
169. Which of the following is an incorrect statement w.r.t. CO2 transport?
(A) Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 mL of CO 2 to the alveoli
(B) RBCs contain high concentration of carbonic anhydrase
(C) Carbonic anhydrase is absent in blood plasma
(D) None of these above
170. A motor unit is best described as
(A) all the nerve fibres and muscle fibres in a single muscle bundle
(B) one muscle fibres and its single nerve fibre
(C) a single motor neuron and all the muscle fibres that it innervates
(D) the neuron which carries the message from muscle to CNS
171. Which of the following statements about human vertebral column is false?
(A) Vertebral column consists of 26 vertebrae
(B) It is ventrally placed
(C) It extends from the base of skull and constitutes the main framework of the trunk
(D) Neural canal in vertebra is the passage for spinal cord
172. Select the option, which is not correct with respect to enzyme action.
(A) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site
(B) Addition of a lot of succinate reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
(C) A noncompetitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that, which binds the substrate
(D) Malate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
173. Find out the incorrectly matching pair with respect to the accessory excretory organs and the excretory wastes eliminated
by them.
(A) Liver – Bilirubin, biliverdin and cholesterol
(B) Lungs – CO2 and H2O
(C) Salivary gland – Heavy metals, drugs, small amounts of nitrogenous wastes
(D) Sebaceous gland – Sebum containing waxes, sterols and hydrocarbons
174. In a nucleotide, an ester bond is present between
(A) Carboxyl and phosphate group of sugar (B) Carbonate and carboxyl group of sugar
(C) Phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar (D) Sulphate and carboxyl group of sugar
175. All of the following are components of diffusion membrane, except
(A) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli
(B) Basement substance in between alveoli and alveolar capillary
(C) Cuboidal epithelium of alveoli
(D) Endothelium of alveolar capillaries
176. Muscle contains a red coloured oxygen containing pigment called
(A) rhodopsin (B) myoglobin (C) haemocyanin (D) Both (A) and (B)
177. In which of the following conditions, progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles happens?
(A) Myasthenia gravis (B) Muscular dystrophy (C) Tetany (D) Arthritis
178. Choose the correct option in order to complete the analogy w.r.t. secondary metabolites.
Pigment: Carotenoid :: Lectin:
(A) Anthocyanin (B) Concanavalin A (C) Abrin (D) Morphine

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179. The heart of cockroach:
(A) In the anterior end is closed and open in the posterior end
(B) Consists of thirteen funnel-like contractile chambers
(C) Consists of elongated muscular tube lying along the mid-ventral line of thorax and abdomen
(D) Having chambers which are not interconnected
180. An area in the brain which is associated with strong emotions is
(A) cerebral cortex (B) cerebellum (C) limbic system (D) medulla

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