0% found this document useful (0 votes)
144 views15 pages

3V0-21.25 Broadcom (VMware) Exam Practice Questions

3V0-21.25 Broadcom(VMware) Exam Practice Questions

Uploaded by

certqbank
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
144 views15 pages

3V0-21.25 Broadcom (VMware) Exam Practice Questions

3V0-21.25 Broadcom(VMware) Exam Practice Questions

Uploaded by

certqbank
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

3V0-21.

25

Exam Practice Questions

This 3V0-21.25 exam PDF provides detailed practice questions, answers, and
explanations. These VMware 3V0-21.25 exam practice questions are designed
for IT professionals, system administrators, and students preparing for VMware
Certified Advanced Professional – VCAP Administrator Automation certification.

Key Features

Exam-Oriented Questions: Realistic practice questions that mirror the format


and difficulty of actual certification exams.

Wide Coverage: Includes cloud computing, networking, security, AI, and


enterprise IT management exams.

Study-Friendly Format: Organized sections by exam type, enabling focused


preparation.

Important Note:

This material is for personal study purposes only. Please do not


redistribute or use for commercial purposes without permission.

Share some 3V0-21.25 exam online questions below.


1. Strict Isolation: Each development team's namespace must be on a separate logical network.

2.A Cloud Administrator is interviewing a new tenant ("Tenant-X") to determine the appropriate
Organization Type for their onboarding.
# Tenant-X Requirements

3.An Organization Administrator is defining a "Day 2 Actions" policy strategy.


# Requirements

4.An Automation Developer is optimizing the performance of event processing. There are 10 different
subscriptions for the Compute Allocation topic. One of them, "Global-Check", applies to ALL
deployments. The other 9 are specific to individual projects.
To ensure the "Global-Check" always runs and completes *before* any project-specific logic attempts
to run, how should the subscriptions be configured?
A. It is not possible to order subscriptions; they run in parallel.
B. Set the Priority of "Global-Check" to a lower number (e.g., 0) and the others to higher numbers
(e.g., 10).
C. Set the Priority of "Global-Check" to 10 and others to 0.
D. Name the "Global-Check" subscription "AAA-Global" to sort it alphabetically.
Answer: B

5. If VM creation succeeds -> Register in DNS.

6. Configure Global Log Forwarding.

7.A Service Designer wants to improve the user experience for a "Resize VM" resource action. The
action allows users to select a new CPU count.
# Requirement
- The "New CPU Count" field in the action form should dynamically display a dropdown list of valid
values (e.g., 2, 4, 8) based on the current machine's OS type.
- If the OS is "Windows", allow [4, 8]. If "Linux", allow [2, 4].
Which feature should be used to implement this dynamic form logic?
A. Use a "Constraint Tag" in the Resource Action definition.
B. Use the Custom Forms editor in Service Broker for the Resource Action and bind the "New CPU
Count" field to an external vRO Action that accepts the OS type as an input.
C. Create two separate Resource Actions: "Resize Windows" and "Resize Linux".
D. Edit the vRO workflow itself to pause for "User Interaction".
Answer: B

8.An Automation Developer needs to install a new third-party IPAM plug-in (provided as a .dar file)
into the embedded VCF Operations Orchestrator instance.
Which interface/tool is the standard method for uploading and installing this plug-in file?
A. VCF Automation Service Broker (Catalog).
B. Cloud Assembly Design Canvas.
C. vRO Control Center (configurator).
D. vCenter Server Appliance Management Interface (VAMI).
Answer: C

9.A Cloud Administrator wants to use a single Image Mapping name ("ubuntu-server") to deploy
different versions of Ubuntu based on a tag provided in the blueprint.
# Image Mapping: ubuntu-server
- Region: vSphere-Site-A
- Mapping 1: Template
'Ubuntu-18.04' (Constraints: ver:18)
- Mapping 2: Template
'Ubuntu-20.04' (Constraints: ver:20)
# Blueprint Requirement
- The blueprint must explicitly request the 20.04 version.
Which constraint configuration in the blueprint correctly targets the 'Ubuntu-20.04' template?
A. constraints: - tag: 'ubuntu-server:20'.
B. properties: { version: '20.04' }.
C. image: 'Ubuntu-20.04' (referencing the template name directly).
D. constraints: - tag: 'ver:20' (placed under the image property or resource properties).
Answer: D

10.An Automation Developer is configuring the data flow for a workflow that calls a sub-workflow
("Child-Workflow"). The parent workflow has an attribute serverName that needs to be passed to the
child. The child workflow calculates an IP address and needs to return it to the parent's ipAddress
attribute.
# Parent Attributes
- serverName (string)
- ipAddress (string)
# Child Workflow Parameters
- hostname_input (Input, string)
- ip_output (Output, string)
How must the developer configure the "Visual Binding" (or Input/Output binding) on the "Child-
Workflow" element within the parent's schema?
A. Bind Parent serverName --> Child hostname_input. Bind Child ip_output --> Parent ipAddress.
B. Use System.getModule() in the parent script to pull the variables manually.
C. Bind Parent ipAddress --> Child hostname_input. Bind Child ip_output --> Parent serverName.
D. Create a "Global Variable" for ipAddress so both workflows can access it without binding.
Answer: A

11. Input: projectCode (string)

12.A Cloud Administrator needs to monitor the global "System Status" of the VCF Automation
deployment to ensure all critical services (such as provisioning-service, identity-service, catalog-
service) are in a "Running" state.
Which tool and dashboard provides this specific *infrastructure* health view?
A. Service Broker > Deployments Dashboard.
B. Cloud Assembly > Design tab.
C. VCF Operations (Aria Operations) > SDDC Health (or VCF Health) Dashboard.
D. VCF Automation > Infrastructure > Projects.
Answer: C

13. Wait for the AD replication to sync (which takes an unpredictable amount of time, usually signal
led by an external event or just a timer).

14.A Platform Architect is troubleshooting a subscription named "Governance-Check" which calls a


vRO workflow. The workflow is supposed to validate naming conventions. However, users report that
even when the workflow fails (returns an error), the deployment proceeds successfully, bypassing the
governance check.
The architect reviews the subscription configuration:
# Subscription Configuration: Governance-Check
Status: Published
Event Topic: Compute Allocation
Condition: event.data.customProperties.costCenter != ""
Action/Workflow: Validate_Naming_v1
Blocking: Disabled
Timeout: 0 (Default)
What is the cause of the deployment proceeding despite the workflow failure?
A. The "Blocking" setting is set to "Disabled".
B. The "Timeout" is set to 0, causing immediate success.
C. The condition prevented the subscription from triggering.
D. The Event Topic "Compute Allocation" does not support blocking behavior.
Answer: A

15. The application data must persist even if the VM is deleted and redeployed.

16.In a Kubernetes architecture (supported by vSphere with Tanzu), which standard interface enables
the platform to manage persistent storage volumes across different storage vendors (vSAN, NFS,
iSCSI) in a unified way?
A. OMI (Open Management Interface)
B. CSI (Container Storage Interface)
C. CRI (Container Runtime Interface)
D. CNI (Container Network Interface)
Answer: B

17.A Service Designer has created a Custom Property Group named Standard_Tags containing the
properties Department and Project_Code. The designer wants to include this group in a new blueprint
so that the user is prompted for these inputs during the request.
# Property Group: Standard_Tags
- Department (String)
- Project_Code (String)
Which YAML syntax correctly binds this property group to the inputs section of the blueprint?
A. inputs: { $ref: /property-groups/Standard_Tags }
B. propgroup: Standard_Tags under the resources section.
C. The properties must be manually re-typed into the inputs section; groups cannot be bound directly
to inputs.
D. inputs: { include: Standard_Tags }
Answer: A

18.Which of the following best describes the function of Rights Bundles within the VCF Automation
Provider Management context?
A. They are grouped sets of firewall rules applied to the Provider's management network.
B. They are collections of permissions that define which specific features or services (specifically VCF
Operations Orchestrator) are accessible to a Tenant Organization.
C. They are packages of software licenses that determine how many vCPU resources a tenant can
consume.
D. They are backup archives containing the configuration of all tenant organizations.
Answer: B

19.A Service Designer is troubleshooting a newly created Resource Action "Update Tags" which is
supposed to be available for Cloud.Machine resources. Users report that the action does not appear
in the "Actions" dropdown menu for their deployed machines.
The designer verifies:
20. Deployment
Which of the following statements correctly describe the relationships and constraints between these
components? (Choose 2.)
A. Quotas (Limits) can only be applied at the Organization level, not the Project level.
B. A Cloud Zone belongs to a specific Region and can be assigned to multiple Projects.
C. A Project can only span a single Cloud Zone.
D. Flavors are defined exclusively within a Deployment.
E. A Deployment belongs to a specific Project and is provisioned into one or more Cloud Zones.
Answer: B, E

21.Which of the following best describes the primary function of Service Broker Governance Policies
in VCF Automation?
A. They represent the connection settings required to authenticate with public cloud providers like
AWS and Azure.
B. They define the hardware specifications (CPU/Memory) for virtual machines deployed to specific
cloud zones.
C. They provide a mechanism to enforce rules and controls, such as lease times, approvals, and day
2 action entitlements, over resource consumption.
D. They allow administrators to create visual dashboards for monitoring the health and performance
of deployed applications.
Answer: C

22.A Platform Architect is configuring the NSX Container Plugin (NCP) settings for a new Supervisor
Cluster. The goal is to ensure that the IP addresses assigned to Pods (East-West traffic) are non-
routable outside the cluster to conserve corporate IP space.
Which CIDR setting defines this internal address space?
A. Ingress CIDR
B. Egress CIDR
C. Management Network CIDR
D. Pod CIDR (Namespace Network)
Answer: D

23.A Cloud Administrator is configuring a cloud-init script within an Image Mapping to bootstrap Linux
VMs. The goal is to ensure this script runs on *all* deployments using this image mapping, regardless
of the blueprint used.
# Configuration Location
- Image Mapping: "generic-linux"
- Region: AWS-Region-1
- Setting: Cloud Config
# Script Snippet
#cloud-config
packages:
- httpd
runcmd:
- systemctl start httpd
However, developers report that when they deploy a blueprint that *also* contains a cloudConfig
property, the web server (httpd) is not installed.
What is the expected behavior governing this conflict?
A. The Image Mapping's cloudConfig always overrides the blueprint to ensure compliance.
B. The blueprint's cloudConfig takes precedence and overrides the Image Mapping's configuration
entirely.
C. The deployment fails due to a configuration conflict.
D. The blueprint's cloudConfig merges with the Image Mapping's cloud config.
Answer: B

24.An Automation Developer is designing a sophisticated workflow to onboard a tenant. The workflow
needs to perform the following actions:

25. Addressing: The team wants to use the 10.1.0.0/16 space for all these internal networks.
Which combination of configurations best meets these requirements? (Choose 2.)
A. Configure the blueprints for Stack A and Stack B to use networkType: private (or isolated) and
constrain them to the Private Transit Gateway's tag.
B. Create a separate Tier-0 Gateway for each stack.
C. Create a Private Transit Gateway and assign the 10.1.0.0/16 IP Block to it.
D. Use a "Public" network profile for all stacks.
E. Configure the IP Block with "Public" visibility.
Answer: A, C

26.An Automation Developer needs to update an existing "PowerShell" plug-in to a newer version to
support a new feature.
Which of the following is the correct procedure to perform this update in vRO Control Center?
A. Upload the new .dar file. If the version is higher, vRO will automatically detect the upgrade and
overwrite the existing plug-in file. A restart is required.
B. Rename the new file to match the old filename and use SCP to overwrite it in /usr/lib/vco/app-
server/plugins.
C. Uninstall the old plug-in, restart the server, then upload the new plug-in and restart again.
D. Use the "Revert" button to load the new version from a snapshot.
Answer: A

27.Which of the following best defines the role of a Cloud Template (Blueprint) within VCF
Automation?
A. It is a declarative specification, typically written in YAML, that defines the structure, resources, and
relationships of a deployment.
B. It is a policy engine used to enforce lease times and approval workflows on catalog items.
C. It is a compiled binary file uploaded to the Content Library to define virtual machine images.
D. It is a script executed on the guest operating system after provisioning to install software agents.
Answer: A

28.An Organization Administrator is optimizing resource consumption for the "DataScience" project.
The goal is to restrict the total amount of memory that can be consumed by this project across *all*
assigned Cloud Zones combined, rather than setting limits on each zone individually.
# Project Settings - DataScience
- Users: 5 Administrators, 20 Members
- Cloud Zones:
- AWS-Zone (Priority 0)
- vSphere-Zone (Priority 1)
Which configuration strategy should the administrator apply? (Choose 2.)
A. Set the "Memory Limit" to 0 (Unlimited) on both Cloud Zones within the Project's Provisioning tab.
B. Define a global memory limit of 500 GB within the Resource Quota policy definition.
C. Configure a "Resource Quota" policy in Service Broker applied to the "DataScience" project scope.
D. Set a hard "Memory Limit" of 250 GB on the AWS-Zone and 250 GB on the vSphere-Zone within
the Project settings.
E. Create a Flavor Mapping that restricts machines to 16 GB RAM maximum.
Answer: B, C

29. Import: Automatically import all blueprints tagged release:production from Cloud Assembly.

30.A Cloud Administrator is troubleshooting an issue where "Deployment Success" email notifications
are not being sent to users in any tenant organization.
The administrator verifies the SMTP configuration in the Provider Portal:
# SMTP Configuration
Host: smtp.office365.com
Port: 587
Encryption: STARTTLS
User: [email protected]
Test Connection: Failed ("Connection Timed Out")
# Network Check
The VCF Automation appliance can resolve smtp.office365.com.
What is the most likely cause of the failure?
A. The firewall blocking outbound traffic from the VCF Automation appliance to the internet (port 587).
B. Tenants have disabled notifications in their user preferences.
C. The "Encryption" setting should be "SSL" instead of "STARTTLS".
D. The user [email protected] has an expired password.
Answer: A

31.An Organization Administrator is designing a "Self-Healing" monitoring strategy for their


organization's deployments.
# Requirement
- If a deployment's web server VM crashes (Power Off state unexpectedly).
- The system must automatically attempt to restart it.
- The administrator must be notified if the restart fails.
Which combination of tools creates this workflow? (Choose 2.)
A. Configure the Identity Provider to reset the user's password.
B. Use a "Constraint Tag" to enforce power state.
C. Use VCF Operations to create an Alert for "VM Powered Off" on the deployment objects.
D. Use a Service Broker "Lease Policy" to restart machines.
E. Configure the VCF Operations Alert to trigger a vRO Workflow (Remediation Action) that calls the
VCF Automation API to "Power On" the resource.
Answer: C, E

32. The volume must be attached to the VM at /dev/sdc.


Which combination of resource definitions satisfies these requirements? (Select all that apply.)
A. Configure a "First Class Disk" in vCenter manually and reference it by ID.
B. Define a Cloud.Volume resource with capacityGb: 1024 and persistent: true.
C. Use a Cloud.vSphere.Disk resource type specifically.
D. Define a Cloud.Machine resource and add the volume to its attachedDisks property (or map the
volume to the machine in the canvas).
E. Define a Cloud.Machine resource with storage: 1024 directly in the properties.
Answer: B, D

33.A Service Designer is evaluating the resource isolation model for a new deployment. The
infrastructure team has provisioned a single large vSphere Cluster.
# Infrastructure
- vSphere Cluster: Cluster-01 (32 Hosts)
# Tenants
- Tenant A: Requires guaranteed 50% of cluster resources.
- Tenant B: Requires guaranteed 25% of cluster resources.
- Tenant C: Best effort access to remaining resources.
The designer plans to use Organizations for tenancy.
Which underlying vSphere configuration should be mapped to the VCF Automation architecture to
best enforce these guarantees at the infrastructure level? (Choose 2.)
A. Create three separate Cloud Zones within VCF Automation, each mapping to the entire Cluster-01
but with different tag constraints.
B. Configure "Front-End" limits (CPU/Memory) on the Projects within each Tenant Organization.
C. Create a separate vSphere Resource Pool for each Tenant (RP-A, RP-B, RP-C) with appropriate
Reservation/Share settings.
D. In the Provider Portal, create three Regions, each scoping the specific Resource Pool (RP-A, RP-
B, RP-C) to the corresponding Tenant Organization.
E. Rely on VCF Operations (vROps) alerts to manually power off VMs when limits are reached.
Answer: C, D

34. Edit Workflows

35. Enter Splunk Server details (IP, Port, Protocol).


Which protocol and port combination is standard for secure, reliable log forwarding from the VCF
Automation appliance?
A. HTTP on Port 80
B. UDP on Port 514
C. SNMP Trap on Port 162
D. TCP (or TCP+TLS) on Port 6514 (or similar custom secure port)
Answer: D

36.Which of the following components in a VCF Automation Blueprint YAML definition is primarily
used to accept parameters from the user at request time (e.g., username, size, environment)?
A. outputs
B. files
C. inputs
D. resources
Answer: C

37. Network Isolation: All AWS deployments for this project must use a specific existing VPC (vpc-
dev-01).

38.An Automation Developer is designing a vRO workflow to automate the onboarding of a new user.
The workflow involves three distinct steps: creating the AD account, creating an Exchange mailbox,
and sending a welcome email.
# Workflow Schema Design

39.A Security Operator is troubleshooting an API integration failure. The external system returns an
HTTP status code 403.
According to standard HTTP/REST definitions, what does this status code indicate?
A. Internal Server Error: The server crashed while processing the request.
B. Unauthorized: The user has not provided valid credentials (authentication required).
C. Not Found: The requested resource URL does not exist.
D. Forbidden: The user is authenticated, but does not have the necessary permissions (authorization)
to access the specific resource.
Answer: D

40.A Security Operator has successfully configured the "Corporate-AD" identity provider. The
organization now requires that the "Domain Admins" group from this AD be automatically granted the
"Organization Administrator" role in VCF Automation upon login.
Which configuration steps must the operator perform to map this enterprise group to the VCF role?
(Choose 2.)
A. In VCF Automation "Identity & Access Management" (or Users/Groups tab), add the group
Corporate-AD/Domain Admins.
B. Assign the "Organization Administrator" role to the added group.
C. Modify the AD Group in Active Directory to include the VCF service account.
D. In the Identity Provider settings, set the "Default Role" to "Organization Administrator".
E. Create a Custom Role named "Domain Admin" with all permissions.
Answer: A, B

41. Inter-Stack Communication: Application Stack A must be able to communicate with Application
Stack B.

42. Send Email (Action)


Which schema element should the developer place between "Create AD User" and "Create Mailbox"
to ensure that if the AD account creation fails, the workflow stops immediately and does not attempt
to create a mailbox?
A. A "Throw Exception" (Error Handler) or standard error transition logic embedded in the "Create AD
User" element's exception path.
B. A "User Interaction" element to ask an administrator for permission.
C. A "Foreach" element to iterate through the user list.
D. A "Decision" element checking if the user Created Boolean attribute is true.
Answer: A

43.Which statement accurately describes the primary function of a Project within a VCF All Apps
Organization?
A. It is a construct used to define the connection parameters for public cloud accounts like AWS and
Azure.
B. It represents the physical datacenter boundary and is used solely for organizing compute clusters.
C. It serves as the primary container for linking users with infrastructure resources, defining resource
limits, and applying governance policies.
D. It is a globally available library used to store and version-control cloud templates and automation
scripts.
Answer: C

44.A Cloud Administrator is reviewing the global system logs integration. The requirement is to
forward all VCF Automation audit logs to an external Splunk server for compliance.
# Configuration Steps

45.When integrating VCF Automation with external Identity Providers (such as Okta or ADFS) to
enable Single Sign-On (SSO) across the enterprise, which standard authentication protocol is
typically utilized to exchange authentication and authorization data?
A. SAML 2.0 (Security Assertion Markup Language)
B. POP3 (Post Office Protocol)
C. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)
D. NTP (Network Time Protocol)
Answer: A

46. Define Organization Name and ID.

47. Grant access to the "VCF Operations Orchestrator" service.


Which interface allows the administrator to perform all these actions in a unified workflow?
A. The "Tenancy" dashboard in vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager.
B. The command line interface (CLI) of the VCF Automation appliance.
C. The "Identity & Access Management" tab in Cloud Assembly.
D. The "New Organization" wizard in the Provider Management portal.
Answer: D

48. The PCO has a Project "Admin-Ops" with "Cloud Zone: Production".

49. Load Balancer: Must deploy last and register the App Server.
Which combination of blueprint features implements this logic? (Select all that apply.)
A. Group all resources in a single Cloud.Deployment object.
B. Use dependsOn in the App Server resource pointing to the Database resource.
C. Define the Load Balancer resource and list the App Server in its instances property (e.g.,
${resource.AppServer.id}).
D. Use binding syntax ${resource.Database.address} in the App Server properties to retrieve the IP.
This also creates an implicit dependency.
E. Manually set a "Wait" timer of 10 minutes on the App Server.
Answer: B, C, D

50. Allocation: When a blueprint requests an IP, vRO must call the IPAM system to reserve it.

51.A Cloud Administrator needs to configure a VPC Connectivity Profile to support an "Isolated"
network tier for sensitive database workloads. These networks must not have any route to the internet
or the corporate WAN. However, they must be able to consume IP addresses from an external
Infoblox IPAM integration.
# Requirements

52. Export new Root CA certificate (PEM).


53.A Cloud Administrator is managing a Region that aggregates resources from multiple public cloud
accounts (AWS and Azure). The administrator wants to ensure that a specific Azure subscription is
used only for "Dev/Test" workloads, while the AWS account is reserved for "Production".
Review the following configuration plan:
# Region Configuration Plan
Region: Multi-Cloud-Region-01
Cloud Accounts:
- AWS_Account_Prod
(Tag: env:production)
-
Azure_Subscription_Dev (Tag: env:dev)
# Requirement
- Ensure blueprints requesting 'env: dev' land ONLY on Azure resources within this region.
What is the correct way to configure the Region settings to enforce this placement logic?
A. Create a Project for "Dev" users and restrict their access to the AWS Cloud Account credentials.
B. Create two separate Regions: one for AWS and one for Azure, and do not mix them.
C. Within the Region, apply the env: production capability tag to the AWS Compute Availability Zones
and env: dev to the Azure locations.
D. Use a Compute Policy to deny execution of "Production" blueprints on Azure endpoints.
Answer: C

54. Shared Logic: All tenants must be able to use a common set of "Standard Utility" workflows (e.g.,
DNS, AD) managed by the Provider.

55.Which of the following best differentiates a Region from a Cloud Zone in the VCF Automation
infrastructure hierarchy?
A. A Region is a logical grouping of projects, whereas a Cloud Zone is a physical datacenter.
B. A Region controls user access permissions, while a Cloud Zone controls network connectivity.
C. A Region is used to define Flavor Mappings, while a Cloud Zone is used to define Image
Mappings.
D. A Region corresponds to a specific geographic location or provider data center (e.g., AWS us-
east-1) discovered from a Cloud Account, while a Cloud Zone is a logical partition of compute
resources within a Region that is assigned to Projects.
Answer: D

56.An Automation Developer is troubleshooting a Git Integration that has stopped synchronizing. The
error message indicates an authentication failure.
The developer reviews the integration settings:
# Integration: GitLab-Internal
- URL: https://gitlab.corp.local
- Token: (Last updated 1 year ago)
- Branch: master
- Folder: /blueprints
What is the most likely cause of the synchronization failure?
A. The GitLab server certificate has expired.
B. The Personal Access Token (PAT) used for the integration has expired or been revoked in GitLab.
C. The VCF Automation "Git Service" is stopped.
D. The "master" branch was renamed to "main".
Answer: B
57. Developers: Can deploy blueprints in the "Dev" project. Can reboot their own machines. Cannot
change project settings.

58. Users: Can only perform "Reboot" and "Reset".

59.An Automation Developer is troubleshooting a subscription that fails to trigger. The subscription is
for "Compute Allocation" and uses the condition event.data.customProperties.costCenter ==
'Finance'.
The developer reviews the payload of a recent deployment request:
# Event Payload
event:
data:
customProperties:
CostCenter: "Finance"
Environment: "Dev"
Why did the subscription fail to trigger?
A. The payload is missing the costCenter property entirely.
B. The condition is case-sensitive. costCenter does not match CostCenter.
C. "Compute Allocation" does not support custom properties.
D. The subscription must be Blocking to read properties.
Answer: B

60.An Organization Administrator is troubleshooting a "Deployment Failed" error. The error states:
"Placement computation failed. No valid placement found for Project 'Demo'."
The administrator checks the Project configuration:
# Project: Demo
- Users: Added
- Cloud Zones: None Configured
What is the cause of the failure?
A. The blueprint is invalid.
B. The system is in maintenance mode.
C. The users do not have the correct roles.
D. The project has no Cloud Zones assigned. Without infrastructure resources mapped to the project,
the placement engine has nowhere to deploy the workload.
Answer: D

61. Cloud.Machine

62. Post-Audit: After the machine is deleted, a log entry must be sent to an external syslog server via
vRO. This action must happen regardless of the deletion success and must not delay the deletion
process.
Which combination of Subscription configurations satisfies these requirements? (Choose 2.)
A. Create a Non-Blocking subscription for the Deployment Request topic for the Pre-Approval check.
B. Set the Priority of the Pre-Approval subscription to 10 (Low).
C. Create a Non-Blocking subscription for the Compute Post Removal (or Deployment Destruction)
topic for the Post-Audit log.
D. Create a Blocking subscription for the Compute Post Removal topic for the Post-Audit log.
E. Create a Blocking subscription for the Deployment Request (or Compute Allocation) topic for the
Pre-Approval check.
Answer: C, E

63. Regional Autonomy: Each subsidiary needs its own isolated environment to manage its own
projects, users, and deployments.

64.A Platform Architect is defining a strategy for "Developer Sandbox" namespaces.


# Strategy Requirements

65.A Service Designer is troubleshooting a Custom Resource named Backup.Job. The blueprint
deploys successfully, and the vRO workflow "Create Backup Job" completes without error. However,
in the Deployment details view, the Backup.Job resource is stuck in an "In Progress" state and
eventually times out or shows no details.
The designer reviews the output parameters of the vRO workflow used for the "Create" lifecycle
action.
# vRO Workflow Output Parameters
- jobName (string): "Daily-SQL-Backup"
- retention (number): 30
- status (string): "Created"
Based on the requirements for Custom Resources, what is the cause of this issue?
A. The workflow output is missing a required parameter, typically id, which uniquely identifies the
created resource.
B. The retention parameter must be a string, not a number.
C. The Custom Resource lifecycle action must be an ABX action, not a vRO workflow.
D. The workflow did not return a deploymentId input parameter.
Answer: A

66.A Platform Architect is explaining the "SNAT" (Source Network Address Translation) behavior in
vSphere with Tanzu (NSX).
# Observation
A Pod (IP: 10.244.1.5) accesses a corporate SQL server (IP: 192.168.100.50).
The SQL server admin sees the connection coming from IP 10.10.10.5, not the Pod IP.
Which component is responsible for this IP translation, and where does the IP 10.10.10.5 come from?
A. Component: Tier-0 Gateway. Source: Ingress CIDR.
B. Component: Spherelet. Source: ESXi Management IP.
C. Component: Tier-1 Gateway. Source: Egress CIDR assigned to the Namespace.
D. Component: DNS Server. Source: PTR Record.
Answer: C

67.A Cloud Administrator is troubleshooting an issue where a specific vSphere cluster is not
appearing as an available compute resource when creating a Cloud Zone within a Region. The Cloud
Account is valid and connected. The administrator reviews the Data Collection logs.
# Log Snippet: Data Collection
DataCollectionStatus: SUCCESS
Account: vCenter-01
Region: Region-A
DiscoveredResources:
- Cluster: Cluster-01
(Status: Connected, Tags: [])
- Cluster: Cluster-02
(Status: Connected, Tags: [])
FilteredResources:
- Cluster: Cluster-03
(Reason: 'Not added to Region configuration')
Based on the information provided, what is the cause of the missing cluster in the Cloud Zone
creation wizard?
A. Cluster-03 was not manually selected or included in the Region's resource filter settings.
B. Cluster-03 is missing a capability tag required by the Cloud Zone.
C. The Cloud Account credentials for vCenter-01 have expired.
D. The Data Collection failed for the entire account.
Answer: A

68.A Cloud Administrator is monitoring the Provider Consumption Organization (PCO) to track the
resource usage of shared internal services. The administrator observes that the PCO is consuming
90% of the "Management-Cluster" resources, potentially impacting the ability to onboard new shared
services.
# Dashboard Data (Provider View)
- Org: Provider (PCO)
- Cloud Zone: Management-Cluster
- CPU Allocation: 90%
- Memory Allocation: 85%
What proactive step should the administrator take to resolve this capacity risk for the Provider
context?
A. Delete Tenant Organizations to free up space.
B. Archive or delete unused deployments within the PCO (Provider's own projects).
C. Increase the "Lease" time on PCO deployments.
D. Remove the "Cloud Assembly Administrator" role from PCO users.
Answer: B

69.A Service Designer is troubleshooting why a specific user, "User-A", cannot see the "Windows-
Server-2019" item in the Service Catalog.
The designer checks the system state:

70.Which of the following best describes the role of Workspace ONE Access when configuring
Identity Providers for a VCF All Apps Organization?
A. It acts as the centralized broker that synchronizes users and groups from enterprise directories
(like Active Directory) so they can be assigned roles in VCF Automation.
B. It is a local database stored within the VCF Automation appliance used exclusively for creating
temporary "cloud-only" users.
C. It is the module responsible for encrypting data at rest within the underlying vSphere datastores.
D. It is an optional logging service that audits user login attempts but does not handle authentication.
Answer: A

71.An Organization Administrator is troubleshooting a deployment failure for a user in the "Dev-
Project". The user is attempting to deploy a small test VM, but the request fails immediately. The
administrator reviews the Project's "Provisioning" tab configuration and the error details.
# Project Configuration (Dev-Project)
- Cloud Zones:
- Dev-Zone-A
(Priority: 0, Limit: 10 Instances)
- Dev-Zone-B
(Priority: 1, Limit: 0 Instances)
# Current Usage
- Dev-Zone-A: 10 Instances used
- Dev-Zone-B: 5 Instances used
# Error Message
"Allocation failed: No eligible Cloud Zone found with sufficient capacity matching constraints."
Based on the provided data, what is the root cause of the deployment failure?
A. Dev-Zone-B is configured with a limit of 0, which means "unlimited" and should have accepted the
load.
B. The user does not have the "Cloud Assembly User" role required to deploy.
C. Dev-Zone-B has a priority of 1, which prevents it from being used until Dev-Zone-A is removed.
D. Dev-Zone-A has reached its configured instance limit of 10.
Answer: D

Get 3V0-21.25 exam dumps full version.

Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org)

You might also like