09-11-2025

0999DMD363161250004 MD

PHYSICS

1) For any type of oscillatory or vibratory motion which force is necessary :-

(1) Damping force

(2) Restoring force
(3) External force
(4) Any force

2) The work done by the string of a simple pendulum during one complete oscillation is equal to :-

(1) Total energy of the pendulum

(2) Kinetic energy of the pendulum
(3) Potential energy of the pendulum
(4) Zero

3) The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle executing
simple harmonic motion is :-

(1) π
(2) 0.707 π
(3) zero
(4) 0.5 π

4) The displacement of a particle varies according to the relation x = 4(cosπt + sin πt). The
amplitude of the particle is :-

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) – 4
(4) 4

5) Displacement-time equation of a particle executing SHM is x = A sin .Time taken by the

particle to go directly from x = – to x = + is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

6) A particle excutes SHM on a straight line path. The amplitude of oscillation is 2 cm. When the
displacement of the particle from the mean position is 1 cm, the numerical value of magnitude of
acceleration, is equal to the numerical value of magnitude of velocity. The frequency of SHM (in
second ) is :-
–1

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A body is performing simple harmonic motion with amplitude A and time period T. Variation of its
acceleration (f) with time (t) is shown in figure. If at time t, velocity of the body is v, which of the

following graphs is correct–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A particle executes SHM of period 8 seconds. After what time of its passing through mean
position will the energy be half kinetic and half potential.

(1) 2 sec
(2) 1 sec
(3) 2.5 sec
(4) 4 sec

9) A mass m suspended from a light spring has a period T for its vertical small oscillation. If four
such springs are connected in series and the same mass m is suspended from combination, the
period of small oscillations of m is :-

(1) 4T
(2) T/4
(3) 2T
(4) T/2

10) A simple pendulum has a time period T in vacuum. Its time period when it is completely
immersed in a liquid of density one-eight of the density of material of the bob is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The period of a simple pendulum, whose bob is a hollow metallic sphere, is T. The period is
T1 when the bob is filled with sand, T2 when it is filled with mercury and T3 when it is half filled

with mercury. Which of the following is true ?

(1) T = T1 = T2 > T3
(2) T = T1 = T3 > T
(3) T > T3 > T1 = T2
(4) T = T1 = T2 < T3

12) Assertion : Pendulum clocks go slow in summer and fast in winter.

Reason : The length of the pendulum used in clock increases in summer.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

13) A particle is moving on x-axis has potential energy U = 2 – 20x + 5x2 joule. The particle is
released at x = – 3. The maximum value of 'x' will be [x is in meter and U is in joule] :-

(1) 5 m
(2) 3 m
(3) 7 m
(4) 8 m

14) Transverse elastic waves can propogate :-

(1) Both in a gas and a metal

(2) In a gas but not in a metal
(3) In a metal but not in a gas
(4) Neither in a gas nor in a metal

15) In a transverse progressive wave of amplitude A, the maximum particle velocity is four times its
wave velocity. The wavelength of the wave is -

(1)

(2)

(3) πA
(4) 2πA

16) A sitar wire vibrates with fundamental frequency 330 vibrations per second. If its length is
increased to three times and tension is increased to four times then the new fundamental frequency
of the wire will be :-

(1) 330 Hz
(2) 220 Hz
(3) 110 Hz
(4) 440 Hz

17) In a stationary wave the distance between consecutive antinodes is 25 cm. If the wave velocity is
300 m/s, then the frequency of wave will be :-

(1) 300 Hz
(2) 600 Hz
(3) 150 Hz
(4) 750 Hz

18) The equation of a stationary wave is :

Y = 10 sin cos20 πt, where y and x are in metre and t is in seconds.

The distance between two consecutive nodes (in metres) is -

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 8
19) The length of open organ pipe is L and fundamental frequency is f. It is immersed into water
upto half of its length, now the frequency of organ pipe will be.

(1) f
(2) 2f
(3) f/2
(4) 4f

20) A tuning fork of frequency 480 Hz produces 10 beats per second when sounded with a vibrating
sonometer string. What must have been the frequency of the string if a slight increase in tension
produces fewer beats per seconds than before ?

(1) 460 Hz
(2) 470 Hz
(3) 480 Hz
(4) 490 Hz

21) Two sources of sound placed close to each other, are emitting progressive waves given by y1 = 4
sin 600πt and y2 = 5 sin 608πt . An observer located near these two sources of sound will hear :

(1) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81:1 between waxing and waning
(2) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 81:1 between waxing and waning
(3) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 25:16 between waxing and waning
(4) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 25:16 between waxing and waning

22) A particle is executing S.H.M. along a straight line. The graph showing the variation of kinetic,
potential and total energy K, U and T respectively with displacement is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) In a resonance tube experiment, to find speed of sound in air at room temperature, a tube of
diameter 5cm is used. When a tuning fork of frequency 500 Hz is sounded near the top end of tube,
the pipe resonates when minimum length of air column is 15cm. The speed of sound in air is

(1) 320 m/s

(2) 330 m/s
(3) 340 m/s
(4) 348 m/s

24) An open organ pipe of length ℓis sounded together with another open organ pipe of length ℓ+ x
in their fundamental tones. Speed of sound in air is υ. The beat frequency heard will be : (x << ℓ) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) x1 = A sin (ωt – 0.1x)

and x2 = A sin
resultant amplitude of combined wave is :-

2A cos
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning fork forming standing waves with five antinodes
between the two bridges, when a mass of 9 kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is
replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the
same positions of the bridges. The value of M is :-

(1) 25 kg
(2) 5 kg
(3) 12.5 kg
(4) (1/25) kg

27)

An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its first harmonic and another pipe P2 open at ends
vibrating in its third harmonic are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the length of P1
and P2 is:–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) In a resonance tube experiment, the first resonance is obtained for 10 cm of air column and the
second for 32 cm. The end correction for this apparatus is–

(1) 0.5 cm
(2) 1.0 cm
(3) 1.5 cm
(4) 2 cm

29) Statement-1 : In the resonance tube experiment, if the tunning fork is replaced by another
identical tuning fork but with its arms having been filed, the length of the air column should be
increased to obtain resonance again.
Statement-2 : On filing the arms, the frequency of a tuning fork increases.

Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true but Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of
(1)
statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
(3)
Statement-1.
(4) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.

30) A planet is moving in an elliptical orbit as shown in figure its velocity at the nearest point B and
farthest point A are VB & VA. The ratio of VB and VA is 3. The eccentricity of ellipse is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Assertion (A) : The spin angular velocity of a star is greatly enhanced, when it collapses under
gravitational pull and become a neutron star.
Reason (R) : According to law of conservation of angular momentum, there is increase in angular
velocity of collapsing star.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

32) Find net gravitational force acting on mass m0 placed at origin.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface, the gain in the potential energy of
an object of mass m raised from the surface of the earth to a height equal to the radius R of the
earth,is

(1) mgR

(2)

(3) 2mgR

(4)

34) There is a crater of depth R/100 on the surface of the moon (of radius R). A projectile is fired
vertically upward from the crater with velocity, which is equal to the escape velocity v, from the
surface of the moon. Find the maximum height (approx)attained by the projectile.

(1) 50R
(2) 2R
(3) 99R
(4) 30R

35) Two satellites S1 and S2 revolve round a planet in coplanar circular orbits in the same sense.
Their periods of revolution are 1 h and 8 h, respectively. The radius of the orbit of S1 is 104 km.
When S2 is closest to S1. Find the angular speed of S2 as actually observed by an astronaut in S1.

(1) π × 104 rad/s

(2) 3 × 10–4 rad/s
(3) 4 × 10–4 rad/s
(4) 0.3 × 103 rad/s

36) The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of the earth. The acceleration due to
gravity at the surface of the planet is equal to that at the surface of earth. If the radius of earth is R,
the radius of the planet would be :-

(1) 2R
(2) 4R
(3) R/4
(4) R/2

Common Content for Question No. 37 to 38

A pair of stars rotate about their common centre of mass. One of the stars has a mass M and other
has mass m such that M = 2m. The distance between the centres of the stars is d (d being large
compared to the size of either Star)

37) The ratio of the angular momentum of the two stars about their common centre of mass is

(1) 1
(2) 1/2
(3) 1/4
(4) 1/9

38) The period of rotation of the stars about their common centre of mass (in terms of d, m, G) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A hollow spherical shell is compressed to the half of its radius. The gravitational potential at the
centre will be.

(1) Increased
(2) Decreased
(3) Remain same
(4) During compression increases & then return to previous value

40) A particle starts falling from height R on a hollow planet of Radius R having a hole at two
diametrical opposite ends. It passes through the hollow planet; emerges out and reach height R on
other side. Plot magnitude of gravitational field intensity of the planet and position (I-x) graph for set

up shown.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) In the given figure, L = 1m. If total gravitational force on 4 kg mass is & on 2 kg mass

is then find out the ratio of

(1)
(2) 2
(3)
(4) 1
42) Let V and E denote the gravitational potential and gravitational field respectively at a point due
to certain uniform mass distribution described in four different situations of column-I. Assume the
gravitational potential at infinity to be zero. The value of E and V are given in column-II. Match the
statement in column-I with result in column-II.

Column-I Column-II

At centre of thin spherical

(A) (P) E = 0
shell

(B) At centre of solid sphere (Q) E ≠ 0

A solid sphere has a non-

concentric spherical cavity.
(C) (R) V ≠ 0
At the centre of the spherical
cavity

At centre of line joining two

(D) point masses of equal (S) V = 0
magnitude
(1) A→P,R; B→P,R; C→Q,R; D→P,R
(2) A→P,S; B→P,S; C→P,S; D→P,S
(3) A→P,S; B→Q,R; C→P,R; D→P,R
(4) A→P,R; B→Q,S; C→Q,R; D→Q,R

43) A satellite is fired from the surface of the moon of mass M and radius R, with speed v0 at 30°

with the vertical. The satelite reaches a maximum distance of from the centre of the moon. The
value of v0 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Calculate that imaginary angular speed of Earth so that weight of a body placed at angle of
latitude of 60° becomes half of actual weight at pole. (consider g = 10m/s2. at pole & R of earth 6400
km)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

45) If Radius of Earth is to decrease by 4% & its density remains the same, then its escape velocity
will :

(1) remain same

(2) increase by 4%
(3) decrease by 4%
(4) increase by 2%

CHEMISTRY

1) The cause of chemical combination is :-

(1) Tendency of acquire minimum energy

(2) Tendency to acquire noble gas configuration
(3) (1) & (2) both
(4) None of these

2) Which of the following statement is not true :-

(1) IBr7, SH6, PH5 do not have existance

(2) PCl5(s) and PBr5(s) both used dz orbital for bonding
2

(3) PF3 > PH3 bond angle but NF3 < NH3 Bond angle
(4) Lone pair of phosphine occupies spherical s-orbital

3) No. of electrons shared in the formation of nitrogen molecule is :-

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 2
(4) 8

4)

Match list I with list II and select the correct answer:

List I (species) List II (O-N-O angle)

(P) (1) 180°

(Q) NO2 (2) 134°

(R) (3) 120°

(S) (4) 115°

(5) 109°
 P Q R S

(1) 5 4 3 2

(2) 5 2 4 3

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 4 3 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Incorrect statement is :-

(1) s–s overlapping is always weakest

(2) 2pπ–3pπ bonds present in SiO
(3) Coaxial overlapping always produce σ bond
(4) Hybrid orbitals mostly produce σ bonds

6) The hybridization of O in H3O+ is:

(1) sp2
(2) sp3
(3) sp
(4) sp3d

7) Assertion :- bond angle A is equal to bond angle B but not exact 90º.
Reason :- The molecule is T-shaped and there is repulsion between lone pairs of electrons.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

8) Assertion :- NO2 is paramagnetic in gaseous state but become diamagnetic solid on cooling.
Reason :- In gaseous state, NO2 exists as monomer odd electron species but on cooling it dimerise
to N2O4.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
9) Which among the following pair does not follows octet rule :

(1) CCl4, CO2

(2) IBr, SF2
(3) BCl3, PCl5
(4) NaCl, H2O

10) An element A has configuration 1s22s22p63s2 formula of its phosphate is :-

(1) ASO4
(2) APO4
(3) A3(PO4)2
(4) A2(PO4)3

11) Which of the following compounds do not exist:-

(1) PH5
(2) SiF6
–2

(3) CF6
–2

(4) Both (1) and (3)

12) Which of the following is an expanded octet molecule ?

(1) PCl5
(2) SF6
(3) H2O
(4) 1 and 2 both

13) The shape of XeF5+ and XeF6 are respectively:

(1) Trigonal bipyramidal Square bipyramidal

(2) Square pyramidal and distorted octahedral
(3) Planar pentagonal, Octahedral
(4) Octahedral, Pentagonal bipyramidal

14) In the following electron dot structure, correct calculation of the formal charge from left to right
nitrogen atom is

(1) –1, –1, +1

(2) –1, +1, –1
(3) +1, –1, –1
(4) +1, –1, +1

15) Which of the following is paramagnetic but does not have fractional bond order.
(1)
(2) NO
(3) B2
(4)

16) Which of the following will have maximum bond energy?

(1) N2
(2) O2
(3) O3
(4) H2

17) Correct statement is :-

(1) Average formal charge per oxygen atom in NO3 is –1/3

–

(2) Average bond order of CO2 is 2

(3) Maximum covalency of Si is 4
(4) Avg. formal charge on PO4 is –2/3
–3

18) Identify the correct order of bond angle in following species :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Which of the following species can act as Lewis acid ?

(1) B2H6
(2) NH3
(3) SF6
(4) H2O

20) In which of the following promotion of e– is not required for bonding :-

(1) C2H2
(2) SiO2
(3)
(4) SF6

21)

Match the column :-

 (A) (p) Kessom attraction

(B) Xe + H2O (q) Debye attraction

(C) (r) London force

(D) CO2+CS2 (s) Ion-dipole attraction

(1) A–s, B–q, C–p, D–r
(2) A–q, B–s, C–p, D–r
(3) A–s, B–p, C–q, D–r
(4) A–s, B–q, C–r, D–p

22) Which of the following is not a characteristic of transition element :-

(1) These forms organometallic compounds

(2) These forms large number of complexes
(3) These represents variable oxidation states
(4) Their group oxidation state is (+3)

23) Which of the following is not correct :-

(1) Mn2O7 gives HMnO4 on reaction with water

(2) on heating AgNO3, Ag2O & NO2 is obtained
(3) 2MnO2 + 4KOH + O2 → 2K2MnO4 + 2H2O
(4) All are incorrect

24) The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed by the reaction between H2O2 and
acidified potassium dichromate solution is

(1) +4
(2) +6
(3) +2
(4) +3

25) Which of the following magnetic moment values will corresponds to highest ionization energy for
Mn :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) Most stable ion in aqueous solution is :-

(1) Cr+3
(2) Mn+3
(3) Ti+3
(4) V+3

27) A spin only magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by which one among the following :-

(1) [CoCl6]
–4

(2) [Cu(NH3)4]
2+

(3) [Ni(CN)4]
–2

(4) TiCl4

28) Which of the following is incorrect for dichromate ion ?

(1) Cr–O–Cr bond angle is 126°

(2) It has two types of Cr–O bond length
(3) Tetrahedral arrangement
(4) Cr is in +4 oxidation state

29) Which of the following actinoids show oxidation state upto +7 ?

(1) Pu, Am
(2) Am, U
(3) U, Np
(4) Pu, Np

30) Which of the following pair of ions has same value of "spin-only" magnetic moment ?

(1) Ni2+, Cu2+

(2) Co3+, Fe2+
(3) Ti2+, V2+
(4) Mn2+, Zn2+

31) White vitriol is :-

(1) ZnS
(2) ZnSO4
(3) ZnSO4.7H2O
(4) ZnCO3

32) Which among the following order of oxidising character is correct–

(1) CrO3 > MoO3

(2) K2Cr2O7 > KMnO4
(3) Fe(CO)5 > Mn(CO)5
(4) V2O3 > V2O5
33) The ionic radii of Ti and Zr ions are 0.68 Å and 0.74 Å respectively but for Hf
+4 +4 +4
ion the ionic
radius is 0.75 Å, which is almost the same as that for Zr ion. This is due to :-
+4

(1) Greater degree of covalency in compounds of Hf4+

(2) Lanthanide contraction
(3) Difference in the co-ordination number of Zr+4 and Hf+4 in their compounds
(4) Actinide contraction

34) Chromyl chloride vapours are dissolved in water and acetic acid and barium acetate solution is
added, then :-

(1) The solution will remain colourless

(2) The solution will become dark green
(3) A yellow solution will be obtained
(4) A yellow precipitate will be obtained

35) In the fusion of chromite ore with Na2CO3 in excess of air, which of the following product is not
formed?

(1) Fe2O3
(2) Na2Cr2O7
(3) Na2CrO4
(4) CO2

36) Which of the following exhibit +4 oxidation state ?

(1) Eu
(2) Yb
(3) Tm
(4) Dy

37) Which of the following ion does not exist ?

(1) [Cu(CN)4]
2–

(2) VO4
3–

(3) WO4
2–

(4) CrO4
2–

38) Cr2O72– + 2H+ + H2O2 → X + 5H2O, X is :-

(1) Cr2O3
(2) CrO5
(3) CrO4
2–

(4) Cr
39) The Titanium (At. no. = 22) compound/ion that does not exist is -

(1) TiO2
(2) TiO4
–2

(3) K2TiF6
(4) TiCl3

40) Select the incorrect statements

(1) In K2MnO4 and CrO2Cl2, the central transition metals have the same oxidation state
Both sodium and potassium dichromate can be used as primary standard in volumetric
(2)
estimations
(3) Potassium dichromate on strong heating evolves oxygen gas
(4) MnO2 on fusion with KOH in presence of oxygen gives green coloured compound

41) Select the incorrect option ?

(1) Nb = 5s1, 4d4

(2) Rh = 5s1, 4d8
(3) Ta = 6s2, 5d3
(4) Hs = 7s1, 6d7

42) Match the column correctly -

Column I Column II
(Atomic no.) (Symbol)

A 44 P Rg

B 73 Q Ta

C 105 R Db

D 111 S Ru
(1) A - S, B - P, C - Q, D - R
(2) A - S, B - Q, C - R, D - P
(3) A - Q, B - S, C - P, D - R
(4) A - Q, B - S, C - R, D - P

43) Which of the following Lanthanoid has one electron in 5d subshell :-

(1) Yb (Z = 70)
(2) Gd (Z = 64)
(3) Pm (Z = 61)
(4) Pa (Z = 91)

44) The product of I– with MnO4– in alkaline medium is :-

(1) I2
(2) IO3
–

(3) IO–
(4) IO4
–

45) In neutral or faintly alkaline solution, MnO4– changes to:

(1) MnO4
2–

(2) MnO2
(3) Mn2O3
(4) MnO

BIOLOGY

1) In which part of the body following gland are present

(1) Alimentary canal

(2) Salivary gland
(3) Gall bladder
(4) All of these

2) Identify the a, b and c

 a b c

(1) Cartilage Bone Blood cells

(2) Bone Cartilage Blood cells

(3) Blood cells Bone Cartilage

(4) Bone Blood cells Cartilage

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Assertion : Tendons and ligaments are examples of dense regular tissue.

Reason : The collagen fibres are present in rows between many parallel bundles of fibres and they
are compactly packed structure.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct and reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion & reason both are incorrect

4) Assertion : Adipose tissue helps to store fat

Reason : Tendon is the example of dense connective tissue

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion and reason both are incorrect

5) Assertion : Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective tissue located mainly beneath the skin.
Reason : The cells of this tissue are specialised to store fats and loosely arranged in a semi-fluid
ground substance.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct and reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion & reason both are incorrect

6) In the given four statements, select the options which includes all the correct ones :-
(a) Secretory duct is present in endocrine glands and secretes hormones
(b) Mammary glands are exocrine glands
(c) Sweat gland is exocrine gland
(d) Bone has Nissl's granules
Option :-

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c
(3) a, c, d
(4) b, d

7) Which of the following is an incorrect description of the tissue provided in the following options?

(1) Tendon - Very dense, strong and fibrous connective tissue.

(2) Ligament - Made up of bundles of elastic fibres and few collagen fibres.
White fibrous tissue - Fibroblast scatered amidst the dense network of thick collagen fibre
(3)
bundles.
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue - Present in ligaments.

8) Consider the following statements :

I. Columnar epithelium is composed of two layers of thick walled cells.
II. Columnar epithelium lines the stomach and liver in human body.

(1) I is correct, II is incorrect

(2) I is incorrect, II is correct
(3) Both I and II are correct
(4) Both I and II are incorrect

9) Identify the correct matching pair :

(1) Microvilli – Fallopian tube

(2) Cilia – Intestine
(3) Sterocilia – Gall bladder
(4) Ependymal epithelium – Inner lining of ventricle of brain

10) Choose the correct statement.

(1) Bone marrow of all bone are site of blood cell production
(2) Matrix of bone is fiber less
(3) Most of cartilage in vertebrates embryo are replaced by bone
(4) Gap junction prevents leakage of substance

11)

Match the type of cartilage with its correct example

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

12)

Diagram A, B, C represent :

A - Wall of blood vessels, B - PCT of nephron,

(1)
C - Fallopian tubes
A - Fallopian tube, B - PCT of pehron,
(2)
C- Wall of blood vessels
A - PCT of nephron, B - Fallopian tube,
(3)
C - Wall of blood vessels
(4) A - Trachea, B - Fallopian tube, C - PCT of nephron

13)

Match the column -

A. Lining of blood vessels 1. Simple squamous epithelium

B. PCT of nephron 2. Simple columnar epithelium

C. Stomach 3. Simple cuboidal epithelium

D. Trachea 4. Pseudostratified epithelium

(1) ABCD / 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) ABCD / 1, 2, 4, 3
(3) ABCD / 1, 3, 2, 4
(4) ABCD / 1, 4, 3, 2

14)

Identify the tissues A, B and C :

 A B C

Areolar connective
(1) Ligament Tendon
tissue

Areolar connective
(2) Tendon Tendon
tissue

Adipose connective
(3) Tendon Ligament
tissue

Areolar connective
(4) Tendon Ligament
tissue

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15)

Match the column-I and column-II :

(1) 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – e, 4 –c, 5 –a
(2) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 –b, 5 –e
(3) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – e, 4 –c, 5 –d
(4) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 –d, 5 –e

16) Each leg of cockroach is

(1) 3 segmented
(2) 4 segmented
(3) 6 segmented
(4) 5 segmented

17) The functional units of compound eye of an insect are called

(1) Fenestrae
(2) Ocelli
(3) Radula
(4) Ommatidia

18) Assertion: In cockroaches, respiratory gases directly comes in contact with various organs of
the body through tracheal system.
Reason: Cockroaches do not have respiratory pigment.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

19) Assertion: In cockroach, For respiration spiracle attach with network of trachea.
Reason: Tracheoles is the place of diffusion and gaseous exchange.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

20)

Consider the following 3 statement regarding cockroach and mark the correct-
(A) Head is formed by the fusion of 6 segments.
(B) Mouth parts are biting and chewing type.
(C) Crop is the part of midgut.

(1) Only (B) is correct.

(2) Only (B) and (C) is correct.
(3) Only (A) and (B) is correct.
(4) Only (C) is correct.

21) Choose the correct option for cockroach-

Male Cockroach Female Cockroach

(1) Anal Cerci Anal Styles

(2) Spermathecal pore Anal Cerci

(3) Anal Styles Spermathecal pore

(4) Anal Styles Anal Styles

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
22) Assertion: Cockroach have receptor by which cockroach monitor environmental changes and
vibrations.
Reason: Cockroach have sensory antennae in front of eyes which have sensory receptor for sensory
nerve impulse conduction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

23) Blood with corpuscles or plasma is absent in cockroach as

(1) Diffusion of gases takes place through integument

(2) Exchange of gases occur through tracheae
(3) Insects does not require oxygen
(4) Blood only carries respiratory gases

24) A network of Trachea, open through _____(A)_____ of small holes called spiracles present on the
_____(B)____ side of body in cockroach. Fill in the blanks with correct option:

(1) A = 10 Pairs, B - Dorsal

(2) A = 10 Pairs, B - Lateral
(3) A = 13 Pairs, B - Ventral
(4) A = 6 Pairs, B - Lateral

25)

Which of the following organs helps in excretion in cockroach-

(1) Fat body

(2) Nephrocyte
(3) Urecose glands
(4) All

26) In frog partially digested food called chyme is passed from stomach to :

(1) Duodenum
(2) Ileum
(3) Jejunum
(4) Rectum

27) Statement-A : Frog exhibit sexual dimorphism.

Statement-B : Male frog can be distinguished by the presence of tympanum and copulatory pad.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Statement A and B both are correct
(3) Statement A and B both are incorrect
(4) Only statement B is correct

28) In frog, excess of the bile juices secreted by the liver is stored in :-

(1) Intestine
(2) Pancreas
(3) Gall bladder
(4) Rectum

29) Given below is a diagramatic representation of female reproductive system of frog labelled A, B,

C and D : Find out incorrect one :-

(1) There is functional connection between C and kidney.

(2) B is small, median chamber that is used to pass faecal matter, urine and ova to the exterior.
(3) D is one pair arising from the ovaries opens into the cloaca separately.
(4) A is thin walled urinary bladder is present ventral to rectum which also opens in cloaea.

30) Which Statement is true (about frogs) :

Kidney is compact, light red and bean shape structures situated a little posteriorly in the body
(1)
cavity on both sides of vertebral column
Food is captured by the trilobed tongue. Digestion of food takes place by the action of HCl and
(2)
gastric juices secreted from the walls of the stomach
Male frogs can be distinguished by the presence of sound producing vocal sacs and also a
(3)
copulatory pad on the second digit of the fore limbs which are absent in female frogs
They have the ability of change the colour to hide them from their enemies. This protective
(4)
coloration is called mimicry.

31) How many in the list given below are the part of Epidermal tissue system ?
Epidermis, Shoot hairs, Xylem, Phloem, Cortex, Pericycle and Pith.
Options

(1) Seven
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

32) The phloem parenchyma is absent and water containing cavities are present with in the vascular
bundles is a characteristic feature of :-

(1) Dicot stem

(2) Monocot stem
(3) Dorsiventral leaf
(4) Isobilateral leaf

33) In dorsiventral leaves, the location of xylem and spongy tissue towards :-

(1) Abaxial surface

(2) Adaxial surface
(3) Adaxial and abaxial surface respectively
(4) Abaxial and adaxial surface respectively

34) In dicot stem correct sequence of layers from outside to inner side is :-

(1) Epidermis, Pericycle, Cortex, Endodermis, Vascular bundle and Pith.

(2) Epidermis, Pericycle, Endodermis, Cortex, Vascular bundle and Pith.
(3) Epidermis, Cortex, Pericycle, Endodermis, Vascular bundle and Pith.
(4) Epidermis, Cortex, Endodermis, Pericycle, Vascular bundle and Pith.

35) The youngest layer of secondary xylem lies :-

(1) Between pith and primary xylem.

(2) Just inside the vascular cambium.
(3) Just outside the vascular cambium.
(4) Just inside the cork cambium.

36) The specialised cells that assist sieve cells in gymnosperm are called

(1) Companion cells

(2) Albuminous cells
(3) Phloem fibre
(4) Tracheids

37) The peripheral region of the secondary xylem is lighter in colour and involved in the conduction
of water and minerals from root to leafs is called :-

(1) Spring wood

(2) Late wood
(3) Sap wood
(4) Heart wood

38) Vascular cambium in dicot stem is :-

(1) Partly primary and partly secondary in origin.

(2) Completely secondary in origin.
(3) Completely primary in origin.
(4) Partly secondary and partly tertiary in origin.
39) Which of the following statement is not true ?

(1) Guard cells are dumble shaped in grass.

(2) Outer wall of guard cells is thin and inner wall is thick.
(3) Guard cells possess chloroplast.
(4) Only stomatal aperture and guard cells together called stomatal apparatus.

40) Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of

(1) Medullary rays

(2) Xylem parenchyma
(3) Endodermis
(4) Pericycle

41) Vascular bundles in leaves of dicots and monocot stem are surrounded by

(1) Epidermis and Pericycle

(2) Bundle sheath cells and sclerenchymatous cells
(3) Collenchymatous cells and parenchymatous cells
(4) Bundle sheath cells and parenchymatous cells.

42) Aerating pores on cork cambium through which gaseous exchange occurs in dicot stem are

(1) Hydathodes
(2) Lenticels
(3) Stomata
(4) Pneumatophores

43) During secondary growth, new meristematic tissues arising in the cortical region of the stem are
called.

(1) Phellem
(2) Secondary cortex
(3) Phelloderm
(4) Phellogen

44) Which of the following is correct for protoxylem and metaxylem ?

(1) Protoxylem matures after metaxylem

(2) Metaxylem is always present towards the periphery
(3) Protoxylem elements are smaller with spiral thickening
(4) Metaxylem is the first to mature in developing organs

45) The major difference between phloem of gymnosperms and angiosperms is :-

(1) Absence of sieve cells in gymnosperms

(2) Absence of companion cells in gymnosperms
(3) Presence of phloem fibre in gymnosperms
(4) Presence of sieve tubes in gymnosperms

46) Find out the correct match.

1 Parenchyma Walls are thick and made up of cellulose.

2 Collenchyma Present in root.

3 Tracheids Dead and without protoplasm

4 Open vascular bundle Found in monocot stem.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47) A plant tissue, when stained, showed the presence of hemicellulose and pectin in cell walls the
tissue represents :-

(1) Sclerenchyma
(2) Xylem
(3) Collenchyma
(4) Parenchyma

48) Epiblema of roots is equivalent to

(1) Pericycle
(2) Endodermis
(3) Epidermis
(4) Stele

49) Match Column-I with Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Cells with active cell division capacity (i) Vascular tissues

Tissue having all cells similar in

(b) (ii) Meristematic tissue
structure and function

(c) Tissue having different types of cells (iii) Sclereids

Dead cells with highly thickened walls

(d) (iv) Simple tissue
and narrow lumen

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

 (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

50) Select the incorrect statement in the following.

(1) Open conjoint, collateral or bicollateral vascular bundles found in cucurbita stem.
(2) Polyarch vascular bundles found in maize root.
(3) Phloem parenchyma is present in barley stem.
All the tissue on the inner side of the endodermis such as pericycle, vascular bundles and pith in
(4)
dicot root constitute stele.

51) Assertion : Sapwood is more efficient of upward conduction of water than heartwood.
Reason : Outer layer of the xylem that contains actively living cells responsible for water and
nutrient transport.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

52) Assertion :- Xylem in roots is exarch in condition.

Reason :- Differentiation of protoxylem start from center towards periphery in roots.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

53) During the elongation of stem and formation of new leaves some cells of shoot apical meristem
left behind which constitute the axillary bud. Identify the shoot apical meristem in the given

diagram.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) None

54) Statement-I :- The parenchymatous cells which lie between xylem and phloem in roots is called
conjuctive tissue.
Statement-II :- Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during the secondary growth place
in cell as pericycle.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct.

55) Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure below :

A B C D

(1) Endodermis Cortex Protoxylem Metaxylem

(2) Cortex Endodermis Protoxylem Metaxylem

(3) Cortex Endodermis Metaxylem Protoxylem

(4) Protoxylem Metaxylem Cortex Endodermis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

56) Read the following statement carefully:

(1) Companion cells are specialised parenchymatous cells.
(2) Trichomes help in preventing water loss due to transpiration.
(3) Xylem and phloem present on same radius in radial vascular bundle.
(4) Mature sieve tube element lack nucleus.
How many above statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

57) Statement-I : The veins vary in thickness in the reticulate venation of the dicot leaves.
Statement-II : The parallel venation in monocot leaves in reflected in the near similar sizes of
vascular bundles (Except in main veins).

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

58) Assertion : Seasonal variation causes differences in spring wood and autumn wood.
Reason : Annual rings are distinct in temperate regions.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

59) Identify A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I.

A-Epidermal hair, B-Epidermis,

C-Hypodermis, D-Sclerenchyma,
(1) E-Endodermis, F-Pericycle,
G-Vascular bundle,
H-Medullary rays, I-Pith
A-Epidermal hair, B-Epidermis,
C-Hypodermis, D-Parenchyma,
(2) E-Endodermis, F-Pericycle,
G-Vascular bundle,
H-Medullary rays, I-Pith
A-Epidermal hair, B-Epidermis,
C-Hypodermis, D-Collenchyma,
(3)
E-Endodermis, F-Vascular bundle,
G-Pericycle, H-Medullary rays, I-Pith
A-Epidermal hair, B-Epidermis,
C-Hypodermis, D-Parenchyma,
(4) E-Cortex, F-Pericycle,
G-Vascular bundle,
H-Medullary rays, I-Pith

60) The process of dedifferentiation refers to :-

(1) Formation of secondary xylem.
(2) Meristematic cells becoming permanent tissue
(3) Mature cells becoming meristematic again
(4) Secondary permanent tissue become meristema again.

61) False septum is found in the ovary of flower of

(1) Sunflower
(2) Pea
(3) Primrose
(4) Mustard

62) Tap root of which of the following get swollen and store food ?

(1) carrot
(2) Turnip
(3) Sweet potato
(4) Both (1) and (2)

63) Identify the mismatched pair :-

(1) Prop root → Provide support

(2) Stilt root → Originate from stem's nodal part
(3) Pneumatophore → Helps in storing food
(4) Edible root → Sweet potato

64) In banana, the lateral branches originate from the basal and under ground portion of main stem
and then come obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots.

(1) Runner
(2) Corm
(3) Sucker
(4) Bulb

65) In a pinnately compound leaf (as seen in neem) a number of leaflets are present on a common
axis, the rachis. The rachis represents the

(1) Vein
(2) Midrib
(3) Petiole
(4) Axillary bud

66) Identify the types of inflorescence shown in figure and select the correct option for A and B.
 A B

1 Cymose Racemose

2 Racemose Cymose

3 Racemose Racemose

4 Cymose Cymose
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) Which of the following figure represent a typical placentation as seen in mustard :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

68) Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Seed in grasses is not endospermic.

(2) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit.
(3) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain.
(4) Sterile pistil is called a staminode

69) Actinomorphic symmetry found in :-

(1) Arhar, Gram and Lupin

(2) Soyabean, Datura and Chilli
(3) Mustard, Brinjal and Chinarose
(4) Datura, Chilli and Pea

70) If one margin of the appendage overlaps thats of the next one and so on, it is called as

(1) Valvate aestivation

(2) Twisted aestivation
(3) Imbricate aestivation
(4) Vexillary aestivation

71) Variation in the length of filaments with in a flower as in :-

(1) Tomato, Potato

(2) Brinjal, Mustard
(3) Mustard, Salvia
(4) Turnip, Potato

72) In mango and coconut fruit is known as :-

(1) Drupe
(2) Berry
(3) Pepo
(4) Pome

73) Seed coat has two layers the outer ___A___ and the inner ___B___.

A B

(1) Tegmen Testa

(2) Testa Tegmen

(3) Testa Scutellum

(4) Scutellum Tegmen

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) Half inferior ovary is found in :-

(1) Primrose and Dianthus
(2) Mustard and Argemone
(3) Rose and Peach
(4) Lemon and Chinarose

75) Syncarpous condition of gynoecium is found in

(1) Rose and Lotus

(2) Mustard and tomato
(3) Michelia and tomato
(4) Lotus and Michelia

76) When the ovules are borne on central axis and septa are absent, the placentation is :-

(1) Parietal placentation

(2) Axile placentation
(3) Free-central placentation
(4) Marginal placentation

77) Diadelphous and epiphyllous androecium respectively found in :-

(1) Belladonna and ashwagandna respectively

(2) Bean and Lily respectively
(3) Sesbania and Petunia respectively
(4) Sweet pea and Trifolium respectively

78) Which one of the following is modification of leaf ?

(1) Cladode
(2) Fusiform
(3) Phyllode
(4) Phylloclade

79) Which one of the following option give the correct phyllotaxy arrangement in stem :-

Alternate Opposite Whorled

Phyllotaxy Phyllotaxy Phyllotaxy

Sunflower, Calotropis, Alstonia,

(1)
mustard guava Nerium

Calotropis, Chinarose, Alstonia,

(2)
guava mustard Nerium

Chinarose, Calotropis, Alstonia,

(3)
guava mustard Nerium

Alstonia, Calotropis, Chinarose,

(4)
Nerium guava mustard
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) Find out the correct option from the following.

Epigynous Perigynous Hypogynous

flower flower flower

Guava, Plum, Mustard,

(1) Cucumber, Rose, Brinjal,
Sunflower Peach Chinarose

Plum,
Cucumber, Guava,
(2) Rose,
Peach Sunflower
Brinjal

Mustard, Brinjal, Cucumber,

(3)
Guava Sunflower sunflower

Mustard, Plum, Guava,

(4) Brinjal, Rose, Cucumber,
Chinarose Peach Sunflower
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Find out correct option from the following :

Valvate Twisted Imbricate Vexillary

aestivation aestivation aestivation aestivation

Dracaena, Cotton, Cassia, Pea,

(1)
Petunia Bean Gulmohur Bean

Lady
Petunia, Cassia, Pea,
(2) finger,
Potato Cotton Bean
Chinarose

Lily, Cotton, Cassia, Pea,

(3)
Petunia Okra Gulmohur Bean

Cotton, Pea, Cassia, Arhar,

(4)
Mustard Cassia Gulmohur bean
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) Which of the following option give the correct placentation with respect to their examples.
 Marginal Axile Parietal Free-central Basal
Placentation Placentation Placentation placentation Placentation

(1) Primrose Pea Mustard Tomato Marigold

(2) Pea Primrose Tomato Mustard Sunflower

(3) Gram Lemon Argemone Dianthus Sunflower

(4) Mustard Tomato Primrose Pea Marigold

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) Find out the correct option from the following with respect to cohesion of stamen.

Monoadelphous Diadelphous Polyadelphous Syngenesious

Stamen Stamen Stamen Stamen

(1) Lily Pea Citrus Sunflower

(2) Pea Sunflower Chinarose Citrus

(3) Sunflower Citrus Chinarose Pea

(4) Chinarose Pea Citrus Sunflower

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) Statement-I : Each stamen of flower which represent male reproductive organ.
Statement-II : Each anther is bilobed.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

85) Statement-I : Root and stem bears nodes and internodes.

Statement-II : Sweet potato is an example of adventitious root.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

86) Read the following statements carefully. A) Leaves originate from shoot apical meristems.
B) Opposite type of phyllotaxy are found in chinarose.
C) Rose is a perigynous flower.
D) A fertile stamen is called staminode.
E) Dianthus are example of axile placentation.
F) Fruit of solanaceae family is berry or capsule.
G) Coconut develop from monocarpellary superior ovaries and are one seeded.
Find out the correct options from above mentioned statement.

(1) A, B, C, D and E
(2) A, C, F and G
(3) A, C, D and F
(4) B, D and E

87) Assertion:- In Parietal placentation the ovules develop on inner wall of the ovary.
Reason:- Ovary is one-chambered but it becomes two chambered in parietal placentation.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

88) Assertion:- The underground part of the flowering plant is the root system while the portion
above the ground forms the shoot system.
Reason :- Roots bears node and internodes and stem bears leaves, flowers and fruits.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

89) Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:-
A. In racemose inflorescence, the flowers are borne in an basipetal order.
B. In datura, the flowers are zygomorphic.
C. In the flower of rose, gynoecium is situated in the centre and other parts of the flowers are
located on the rim of the thalamus almost at the same level.
D. The flowers are epigynous in cucumber.
E. Calyx is outer most whorl of flower.
choose the correct answer from the option given above

(1) B, D, E only
(2) A, C, D only
(3) C, D, E only
(4) A, B, C only

90) Read the following statements, choose the set of correct statements.
A) Fruit is a characteristic feature of angiosperm.
B) Generally, the fruit consist of a wall or pericarp and seed
C) In mango and coconut fruit is known as drupe.
D) The hilum is a scar on ovule.
E) The plumule and radicle are enclosed in sheaths which are called coleorhiza and coleoptile
respectively.
Choose the correct answer from the option given above.

(1) A, B, C only
(2) A, D, E only
(3) C, D, E only
(4) A, B, D Only
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Restoring force is necessary for SHM.

2)

Net work done by string in oscillation is zero because displacement is always perpendicular to
the force.

3)

x = Asinωt
V = Aωcosωt = Aωsin(π/2 + ωt)
a = –Aω2sinωt

4) x = 4 cosπt + 4sin πt

Δϕ = so

5)

Time period of SHM =

∴ Time for traveling 60° is =

6) velocity, v = ω

Acceleration f =
∵ v = f (given)

∴
2πn =
n=

7) f = –kcosωt
V = –k′sinωt

8)

Given KE = PE

K(A – x ) =
2 2
Kx2

At t = 0, x = 0

At t x = A sin ωt =

ωt = ,t= =

⇒ t= = 1 sec

9)

⇒ T' = 2T

10) In vacuum,
Let V be the volume and S be the density of the material of the bob.
Net downward force acting on the bob inside the liquid = Weight – upthrust

i.e. effective value of g is

So, time period of the bob inside the liquid

11)
T1 = T2 = T
For T3, center of mass shifts to down and effective length increases so time period also
increases
T = T1 = T2 < T3

12)

13)

U = 2 – 20x + 5x2

F= = –(–20 + 10x)
F = 20 – 10x
x = 2 M.P.

A = 5 cm xmax = 7 cm

14)

For the propagation of transverse elastic wave medium have shearing properties.

15)

(Vp)max = 4 Vwave
Particle
Aω = 4nλ ∵ V = nλ
A 2πn = 4nλ

16) ∴

n2 = 330 × × = 220 Hz

17) A to A = = 25 cm

λ = 50 cm = m
V = 300 m/s

= = 600 Hz
18)

y = 2a sin kx cos ωt

So, k =

λ=8m

then, N to N =
N to N = 4 m

19)

Fundamental frequency of OOP is =f

If it is immersed in water
It is now C.O.P.

So, new frequency is f ' =

f' = f

20)
Beat decreases
Ans. is 470 Hz

21)

n1 = 300 Hz
n2 = 304 Hz
So beat = 4 beats per second

22) K = K (A2 – x2)

 P= Kx
2

T= KA
2

23)
also
e= 0.3d

and
ℓ2 =

24) Beat frequency = ƒ1 – ƒ2

25) x1 = A sin (ωt – 0.1x)

x2 = A sin
∴ x1 + x2 = A sin (ωt –0.1x) +

A sin

= 2A sin

= 2A cos sin

26)
f1 = f2 (resonance with T.F.)

M = 25 kg

27)

28)

29)

30) Acc. to momentum conservation

VArA = VBrB

31)

Since, τext = 0
∴ angular momentum will be conserved
Iiωi = Ifωf
I↓ ω↑
32) F =

33)

34)

from energy conservation

R + h = 100R

35)
= 0.3 × 10 rad/s
–3

36)

37)

38)

39)
R↓ but due to –ve sign Vcentre↓

40) For hollow sphere,

If r > R ,
If r < R , I=0

41)

42)
Einside = 0

Eout =
Solid :

Vin =
E is vector qty.
V is scalar qty.

43) ..(i)

..(ii)
 by conservation of energy and conservation of angular momentum.

0
⇒ v =

44)

= = rad/s

45)
as ρ is constant

CHEMISTRY

46)

(Drives atoms to form chemical bonds)

Atoms combine to lower their energy state, achieving greater stability.
They also strive for a noble gas electron configuration (full valence shell). Therefore, both
minimum energy and noble gas configuration drive chemical combinations.
Final Answer - Option (3)

47)

PCl5(s) ⇌
↓ ↓
sp3 sp d2
3

PBr5(s) ⇌
↓
sp3
 48)

N ≡ N ⇒ 6 e envolved in shoring.
–

49)

(P) → Linear molecule → O–N–O = 180°

(Q) NO2 → Bent structure with odd electron → O–N–O ~134°
(R) → Bent with lone pair, resonance → O–N–O ~115°
(S) → Trigonal planar → O–N–O = 120°
Final Answer : option (3)

50)

A. This statement is incorrect. While s-s overlap is generally weaker than p-p or d-d overlap, it's
not "always" the weakest. The strength of overlap depends on factors like the size of the
orbitals and internuclear distance.

Final Answer - Option (1)

51)

52)

Due to L.P. – L.P. repulsion the shape of ClF3 is bent T-shape not exactly. Bond angle is ≃ 87.5°

53)

54)

BCl3 (Boron Trichloride):

A. Boron has only 6 electrons around it in BCl3 (3 bonds), making it electron-deficient or

hypovalent.

A. PCl5 (Phosphorus Pentachloride):

A. Phosphorus has 10 electrons around it in PCl5 (5 bonds), exceeding the octet rule,
making it hypervalent.

Final Answer - Option (3)

55)

56)
 A. PH5 (Phosphorus Pentahydride):
A. PH5 : drago compound
B. Therefore, it cannot form six bonds.
B. SiF6²⁻ (Hexafluorosilicate):
A. Silicon is also in the third period and can expand its octet.
B. SiF6²⁻ is a known and stable compound.
C. CF6²⁻ (Hexafluorocarbon):
A. Carbon is in the second period and does not have available d-orbitals to expand its octet.
B. Therefore, it cannot form six bonds.

Therefore, PH5 and CF6²⁻ do not exist.

Final Answer - Option (4)

57)

Concept

A. PCl₅: Phosphorus (P) is in the third period. In PCl₅, phosphorus forms 5 covalent bonds
with 5 chlorine atoms. This means phosphorus has 5 (its own valence electrons) + 5
(electrons shared from Cl) = 10 electrons in its valence shell. Thus, PCl₅ has an
expanded octet.

B. SF₆: Sulfur (S) is in the third period. In SF₆, sulfur forms 6 covalent bonds with 6 fluorine
atoms. This means sulfur has 6 (its own valence electrons) + 6 (electrons shared from F)
= 12 electrons in its valence shell. Thus, SF₆ has an expanded octet.

C. H₂O: Oxygen (O) is in the second period and does not have d-orbitals available for
bonding. In H₂O, oxygen forms 2 covalent bonds with 2 hydrogen atoms and has 2 lone
pairs. This means oxygen has 2 (its own valence electrons) + 2 (electrons shared from H)
+ 4 (from lone pairs) = 8 electrons in its valence shell, following the octet rule.

Answer option 4,(1 and 2 both).

58) – sp3d2 (1 LP) – square pyramidal

– sp3d3 (1 LP) – distorted octahedral

59)

60)

B2 → Total 10e–, Bond order = 1

having 2 unpaired electron

61)
 N2 ⇒ N ≡ N bond order ∝ Bond Energy

62)

O=C=O
[Link] = 2

63)

Concept

A. CH₃⁺ (Methyl cation):

A. Central carbon has 3 bond pairs and 0 lone pairs.

B. Hybridization: sp² (trigonal planar geometry).

C. Ideal bond angle: 120°.

B. CH₄ (Methane):

A. Central carbon has 4 bond pairs and 0 lone pairs.

B. Hybridization: sp³ (tetrahedral geometry).

C. Ideal bond angle: 109.5°.

C. CH₃⁻ (Methyl anion):

A. Central carbon has 3 bond pairs and 1 lone pair.

B. Hybridization: sp³ (electron pair geometry is tetrahedral, but molecular geometry

is pyramidal).

C. The lone pair-bond pair repulsion is greater than bond pair-bond pair repulsion,
compressing the bond angles to less than 109.5°. Approximately 107°.

A. Therefore, the order of bond angles is: CH₃⁺ > CH₄ > CH₃⁻

Answer option 3, { CH₃⁺ > CH₄ > CH₃⁻}.

 64)

B2H6 acts as Lewis acid

65) formed by 'C' in ground state

66)

(A) Ion-dipole
(B) Xe + H2O Dipole - induced dipole

(C) dipole - dipole

(D) CO2+CS2 induced dipole - induced dipole

67)

Transition elements exhibit variable oxidation state ranging from (+1 to +7)

68) AgNO3 Ag + NO2 +

69)

K2Cr2O7 + H2O2 CrO5 →

70)
i.e. = unpaired e– = 2 = Mn+5
i.e. = unpaired e– = 3 = Mn+4
i.e. = unpaired e– = 5 = Mn+2
i.e. = unpaired e– = 4 = Mn+3

so Mn+5 have higher IE

71) Cr+3 ⇒ 4s° 3d3 ⇒ t2g3 half filled more stable

72) [Cu(NH3)4]+2, Cu+2 = 3d9 → 1 unpaired e– present

73)
74)

NCERT Pg # 247

75)

76) ZnSO4.7H2O

77) Down the group stability of higher oxidation state ↑

Cr (VI) is less stable than Mo (VI)

78)

The similar ionic radii of Zr⁴⁺ and Hf⁴⁺ are a consequence of the lanthanide contraction. The
poor shielding of 4f electrons in lanthanides causes a size decrease, resulting in Hf⁴⁺ being
similar in size to Zr⁴⁺.

Final Answer - Option (2)

79) CrO2Cl2 + 2H2O —→ H2CrO4 + 2HCl

H2CrO4 + (CH3COO)2Ba —→ BaCrO4¯ (Yellow) + 2CH3COOH

80) FeO.Cr2O3 + Na2CO3 + O2 → Fe2O3 + Na2CrO4 + CO2

81) Question Explanation: Identifying the lanthanoid that exhibits the +4 oxidation state.
Concept: Oxidation States of Lanthanides.
Solution: Eu,Yb,Tm show +2 and +3. Dysprosium(Dy) is one of the lanthanides
(Ce,Pr,Nd,Tb,Dy) that occasionally exhibits the +4 oxidation state. Final Answer: Dy.

82) Cu2+ is unstable with CN–

83) Module-5, Pg # 75

84) Ti maximum O.S. = (n – 1)d unpaired e– +nse–

=2+2=4

85)

(1) K2MnO4 and CrO2Cl2

O.S. = +6 O.S. = +6
(2) K2Cr2O7
Can be used as primary standard in volumetric estimations.
 (3) 2K2Cr2O7 2K2CrO4 + Cr2O3 + O2
(4) MnO2 + KOH + O2 K2MnO4 + H2O
(green)

86)

NCERT XII
Chapter - 8

87) NCERT XII

Unit 8

0
88) Yb (Z = 70) → 4f14 5d 6s2
Gd ⇒ (Z = 64 ) 4f7 5d1 6s2
0
Pm ⇒ (Z = 61) 4f5 5d 6s2
Pa ⇒ (Z = 91) 5f2 6d1 7s2

89)

Page-227, NCERT-XII, Part-I

90) Question Explanation: Identifying the product of MnO4−​ reduction in neutral or faintly
alkaline solution.
Concept: Redox Reactions of Permanganate in Neutral/Alkaline Medium.
Solution: In neutral or faintly alkaline solution, the permanganate ion (MnO4−​, Mn+7) is
reduced by 3 electrons to form the dark brown insoluble precipitate Manganese Dioxide
(MnO2​) (Mn+4). Calculation: MnO4−​+2H2​O+3e−→MnO2​+4OH− (Change in O.S.: +7→+4).
Final Answer: MnO2​.

BIOLOGY

91)

ALLEN Module No. # 4

92)

ALLEN Module No. # 4

93)
ALLEN Module No. # 4

94)

ALLEN Module No. # 4

95)

ALLEN Module No. # 4

96) Module-5, Page#95,99

97)

ALLEN Module No. # 4

98) Module

99)

ALLEN Module No. # 4

100)

ALLEN Module No. # 4

101)

ALLEN Module No. # 4

102)

Old NCERT XI, Pg. No. 101 fig 7.1

103)

Let's match the columns:

A. A. Lining of blood vessels: The lining of blood vessels (endothelium) is made up of simple
squamous epithelium. So, A matches with 1.

B. B. PCT of nephron: The Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) of the nephron is lined with
simple cuboidal epithelium. So, B matches with 3.
 C. C. Stomach: The stomach lining is composed of simple columnar epithelium. So, C
matches with 2.

D. D. Trachea: The trachea is lined with pseudostratified epithelium. So, D matches with 4.

Therefore, the correct matching is:

The correct option is 3.

104)

A. Tissue A: This tissue is located beneath the skin and appears to be areolar connective tissue.
B. Tissue B: This tissue connects muscle to bone. This is a defining characteristic of a tendon.
C. Tissue C: This tissue connects bone to bone. This is a defining characteristic of a ligament.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4

105)

ALLEN Module No. # 4

106)

ALLEN Module No. # 4

107)

ALLEN Module No. # 4

108) Old NCERT-XII Page No. 113

109) Old NCERT Pg. # 113, 114

110) Old NCERT-XI, Pg. # 112 & 113

111) Old NCERT Pg. # 113

112) Old NCERT Pg. # 112

113)

ALLEN Module No. # 4

114)
ALLEN Module No. # 4

115)

Old NCERT XI Page # 114 (I Para)

116)

Question Explanation : Where does the chyme from the frog’s stomach pass next?
Concept : This question is based on Digestive system of frog.
Solution : In frogs, chyme moves from the stomach to the duodenum, which is the first part of
the small intestine.
Final Answer : Option (1)

117) New NCERT-XI Pg. # 81

118)

New NCERT-XI Pg. # 82

119)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 83

120)

New NCERT-XI Pg. # 80 to 83

121) NCERT Page No.# 72 (New)

122) NCERT Page No.# 76

123) NCERT Page No.# 76 (New)

124) NCERT Page No.# 75 (New)

125) NCERT Page No. 95 (Old)

126)

NCERT Page No.# 88 (Old) & Module

127) NCERT Page No.# 96 (old)

128) NCERT Page No.# 95 (old)

129) NCERT Page No.# 72 (New)

130) NCERT Page No.# 95 (old)

131) NCERT Page No.# 76, 77 (New)

132) NCERT Page No.# 97 (Old)

133) NCERT Page No.# 96 (Old)

134) NCERT Page No.# 87 (Old)

135) NCERT Page No.# 89 (Old)

136) NCERT Page No.# 86, 87 (Old)

137) NCERT Page No.# 86 (Old)

138)

Module

139) NCERT Page No.# 85, 86, 87 (Old)

140) NCERT Page No.# 76, 77 (New)

141) NCERT Page No.# 96 (Old)

142) NCERT Page No.# 87 (old)

143)

NCERT Page No.# 85 (Old)

144) NCERT Page No.# 74 (New)

145) NCERT Page No.# 74 (New)

146)

Module

147) NCERT Page No.# 76, 77 (New)

148) NCERT Page No.# 96 (Old)

149) NCERT Page No.# 75

150) Module

151) NCERT Page No.# 65

152) NCERT Page No.# 67 (Old)

153) NCERT Page No.# 67 (Old)

154) NCERT Page No.# 69 (Old)

155) NCERT Page No.# 61 (New)

156) NCERT Page No.# 61, 62 (New)

157) NCERT Page No.# 65 (New)

158) NCERT Page No.# 67

159) NCERT Page No.# 78, 80 (Old)

160) NCERT Page No.# 64 (New)

161) NCERT Page No.# 65 (New)

162) NCERT Page No.# 65 (New)

163) NCERT Page No.# 66 (New)

164) NCERT Page No.# 63 (New)

165) NCERT Page No.# 65 (New)

166) NCERT Page No.# 65 (New)

167) NCERT Page No.# 64

168) NCERT Page No.# 71 (Old)

169) NCERT Page No.# 61 (New)

170) NCERT Page No.# 62 (New)

171) NCERT Page No.# 64 (New)

172)

NCERT Page No.# 65 (New)

173) NCERT Page No.# 64 (New)

174) NCERT Page No.# 64 (New)

175) NCERT Page No.# 59, 60 (New)

176) NCERT Page No.# 59, 61, 63, 65, 66 (New)

177) NCERT Page No.# 65 (New)

178) NCERT Page No.# 58 (New)

179) NCERT Page No.# 61, 62, 63 (New)

180) NCERT Page No.# 65, 66 (New)